Food Hygiene Final Flashcards

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1
Q

Which process can be performed in the clean area?

  • Heading
  • Filleting
  • Gutting
  • Cutting
A
  • Filleting
  • Cutting
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2
Q

Which fishery products must be stored under ice at a temperature of melting ice?

  • Fresh fishery product
  • Edible liver, roe, milt
  • Fish to prepare canned product
  • Final product
A
  • Fresh fishery product
  • Edible liver, roe, milt
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3
Q

Which statement is true?

  • Live bivalves harvested from class C production area can be marketed directly for human consumption
  • Shellfish collected from class A production can be marketed directly for human consumption
  • Live bivalves harvested from class C production can be marketed after a long period relaying process
  • Shellfish collected from class B production area can be marketed directly for human consumption
A
  • Shellfish collected from class A production area can be marketed directly for human consumption
  • Live bivalves harvested from class C production can be marketed after a long period relaying process
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4
Q

Which statement is true?

  • Live bivalves harvested from class B production area can be transported to processing establishment without purification or relaying
  • The production areas are classified based on heavy metal content of the sediment
  • Shellfish collected from class C production must be treated with heat instead of purification in the processing establishment
  • Live bivalves harvested from class A production area can be marketed only after heat treatment
A
  • Live bivalves harvested from class B production area can be transported to processing establishment without purification or relaying
  • Shellfish collected from class C production must be treated with heat instead of purification in the processing establishment
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5
Q

Which statement is true?

  • Due to marinating, the flesh of fish will become softer with characteristic taste
  • Salting is not applied during the smoking
  • The fish bodies are ripened for 1-2 years in the metal can in case of canned products
  • The breaded marinating product is produced by the cooking of fish
A
  • Due to marinating, the flesh of fish will become softer with characteristic taste
  • The fish bodies are ripened for 1-2 years in the metal can in case of canned products
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6
Q

Which is characterisitc for purification centre?

  • Shellfish must be purified for at least 2 months
  • Microbiological characteristics of water applied to the tank and the purified & non-purified shellfish must be investigated
  • Live bivalves must be purified by clean or purified seawater
  • The different marine animal species can be stored together with the shellfish in the same tank
A
  • Microbiological characteristics of water applied to the tank and the purified & non-purified shellfish must be investigated
  • Live bivalves must be purified by clean or purified seawater
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7
Q

Which statement is true?

-The successive catch of fish must be separated on the factory vessel
- The clean and contaminated processes must not be separated on the factory vessel
- Tools and equipments must be produced from those material which is corrosion-resistant to seawater
- The fishery products must not be chilled on the factory vessel

A

-The successive catch of fish must be separated on the factory vessel
- Tools and equipments must be produced from those material which is corrosion-resistant to seawater

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8
Q

What are the notifiable diseases of fish?

  • Spring viraemia of carp
  • Viral haemorrhagic septicaemia of salmon
  • Ictyophtirius multiformis
  • Bothriocephalosis
A
  • Spring viraemia of carp
  • Viral haemorrhagic septicaemia of salmon
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9
Q

What is the histamin limit for fishery products?

  • 100-200 mg/kg for general products
  • 200-400 mg/kg for general products
    -100-200 mg/kg after enzymatic maturation
  • 200/400 mg/kg after enzymatic maturation
A
  • 100-200 mg/kg for general products
  • 200/400 mg/kg after enzymatic maturation
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10
Q

In the case of fishery products, what sampling is required in case of doubtful results of organoleptic evaluation?

  • Total volatile basic nitrogen (TVN-N)
  • Total protein (TP)
  • Cadaverine level (CL)
    -Trimethyl-amine nitrogen (TMA-N)
A
  • Total volatile basic nitrogen (TVN-N)
    -Trimethyl-amine nitrogen (TMA-N)
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11
Q

Which heavy metals are tested for molluscs?

  • Hg
  • Cu
  • Pb
  • Cd
A
  • Pb
  • Cd
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12
Q

Which heavy metals are tested for fish and crustaceans?

  • Fe
  • Pb
  • Hg
  • Cu
A
  • Pb
  • Hg
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13
Q

For which fish types is candling part of the official control?

  • Fillet
  • Herring
  • Flounder
  • Scomboid species
A
  • Fillet
  • Flounder
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14
Q

What characteritic does an official test include for live fish?

  • Sex
  • Viability (movement, respiration)
  • Body length
  • General health status
A
  • Viability (movement, respiration)
  • General health status
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15
Q

What tests are required for official inspection of frozen fish?

  • Floating probe
  • Cooking/frying test
  • Muscle parasites
  • Water binding capacity
A
  • Cooking/frying test
  • Muscle parasites
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16
Q

What pathogens are part of the food safety criteria from live marine molluscs?

  • L. monocytogens
  • Salmonella
  • E.coli
  • Coagulase positive staphylococcus
A
  • Salmonella
  • E.coli
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17
Q

What forms of biotoxins can occur in fishery products?

  • Paralytic shellfish poison (PSP)
  • Vomiting shellfish poison (VSP)
  • Fainting shellfish poison (FSP)
  • Amnesic shellfish poison (ASP)
A
  • Paralytic shellfish poison (PSP)
  • Amnesic shellfish poison (ASP)
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18
Q

What is the cause of the flesh of fish more perishable than the mammal meat?

  • Parasitic infection
  • High water content
  • High pH
  • Biotoxin content
A
  • High water content
  • High pH
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19
Q

What is the role of packaging?

  • It protects the food from the effects of the environment to keep the quality of the product
  • In the case of frozen products, it allows the consumer to maintain the quality even if the cold chain is broken
  • It is decreasing the amount of food waste
  • It gives an opportunity to present information about the given food and contribute to consumer awareness
A
  • It protects the food from the effects of the environment to keep the quality of the product
  • It gives an opportunity to present information about the given food and contribute to consumer awareness
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20
Q

Which of these informations are mandatory?

  • All ingredients, with their rations in percentages (class)
  • The date of manufacturing, given in day/month/year format
  • Energy content in 100g or 100ml product
  • Storage conditions
A
  • Energy content in 100g or 100ml product
  • Storage conditions
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21
Q

Examples of active packaging?

  • Fungicide ripening foil
  • Labels with QR codes
  • Dye indicating the effects of temperature
  • Moisture absorbing pads
A
  • Fungicide ripening foil
  • Moisture absorbing pads
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22
Q

Which of the nutrients is a voluntary information on the label of food product?

  • Salt
  • Fibre
  • Protein
  • Glucose
A
  • Fibre
  • Glucose
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23
Q

In which cases is the oval mark mandatory?
- Sliced meat
- Chocolate
- Bakery products
- Fermented dairy products

A
  • Sliced meat
  • Fermented dairy products
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24
Q

The meat stamp contains the

  • Approval number of the meat processing plant
  • The abbreviation of the European countries
  • The ISO code of the country of origin
  • The passport number of the cattle
A
  • Approval number of the meat processing plant
  • The ISO code of the country of origin
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25
Q

Which of these are allergens?

  • Sesame seeds
  • Parlsey
  • Anise/aniseed
  • Mustard
A
  • Sesame seeds
  • Mustard
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26
Q

Which of these are NOT mandatory on food label?

  • Name of the producer
  • Nutritional claim
  • Alcohol content in the case of bakery products
  • Weight of product
A
  • Nutritional claim
  • Alcohol content in the case of bakery products
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27
Q

Which of these statements are not characteristic of the primary packaging?

  • It is with indirect contact with the food, it is the outermost protection of batches
  • It provides useful information for the consumers
  • It can be divided into smaller units, called the secondary packaging
  • It is important that it does not pose a human health risk
A
  • It is with indirect contact with the food, it is the outermost protection of batches
  • It can be divided into smaller units, called the secondary packaging
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28
Q

What is characteristic to intelligent packaging?

  • It gives information from the storage condition of food even before buying the product
  • It is capable to show the actual temperature of the given product
  • The consumer can only see it after opening the food packaging
  • It is mainly used for bakery products to absorb moisture
A
  • It gives information from the storage condition of food even before buying the product
  • It is capable to show the actual temperature of the given product
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29
Q

What are the health claims

  • It can contribute to fibre rich diet
  • It may contribute to healthy brain functions
  • The consumption of this food can be inserted to low-salt diets
  • It plays a role in proper function of the immune system
A
  • It may contribute to healthy brain functions
  • It plays a role in proper function of the immune system
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30
Q

When is the description “smoke flavoured” applied on products label?

  • When the product is NOT smoked with hard wood
  • When the smoke flavour is produced with using smoke aroma for the surface treatment on the product
  • When the product is NOT smoked with birch wood
  • When the smoke flavour is produced with injection the smoke aroma into the product
A
  • When the smoke flavour is produced with using smoke aroma for the surface treatment on the product
  • When the smoke flavour is produced with injection the smoke aroma into the product
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31
Q

What is the relationship between the terms of waste management, waste disposal and waste utilization?

  • Waste utilization covers waste disposal, and the latter one covers waste management
  • Waste management covers waste utilization, and the latter one covers waste disposal
  • Waste management covers waste utilization
  • Waste management covers waste disposal
A
  • Waste management covers waste utilization
  • Waste management covers waste disposal
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32
Q

What term does not being to the definition of waste?

  • Hazardous material
  • Became redundant on the site of generation
  • It is not utilizable directly further
  • May be treated together with the main mass flows
A
  • Hazardous material
  • May be treated together with the main mass flows
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33
Q

What kind of rule shall be certainly kept if material is intended to be used as a by-product in the food industry?

  • Precise records shall be kept about it
  • Food hygiene rules shall strictly apply
  • It can only be processed on the same processing line as the main product was
  • Expiry/use by dates are to be strictly observed
A
  • Precise records shall be kept about it
  • Food hygiene rules shall strictly apply
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34
Q

What is true for waste reuse?

  • It is done within the same industry
  • Waste is reused in its original form, or with only minor modifications
  • Only the reuse for the original purpose belongs to this term
  • Only the reuse at the site of waste generation belongs to this term
A
  • It is done within the same industry
  • Only the reuse at the site of waste generation belongs to this term
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35
Q

Food industrial waste are not typified by the following?

  • Generally low water content
  • Are generated at geographically scattered locations
  • Contain quickly decomposing organic materials
  • All can get back to the nature with the natural cycling of biomass
A
  • Generally low water content
  • All can get back to the nature with the natural cycling of biomass
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36
Q

What is the difference between the professional and legal definition of the waste?

  • Only technical aspects are covered by the professional definition
  • The professional defines the sub-term of secondary raw materials within the term of waste
  • Legal requirement appears in the legal definition as potential waste generating factor
  • The legal definition is more concrete, concise
A
  • The professional defines the sub-term of secondary raw materials within the term of waste
  • The legal definition is more concrete, concise
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37
Q

Which information is part of the package of the table eggs?

  • The approval number of the egg packing centre
  • The type of housing
  • The oval identification mark
  • Date of laying
A
  • The approval number of the egg packing centre
  • The type of housing
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38
Q

Which criteria are specified in the 2073/2005 EC regulation?

  • 3-OH-butyric acid
  • Salmonella spp
  • Enterobacteriaceae
  • Campylobacter spp
A
  • Salmonella spp
  • Enterobacteriaceae
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39
Q

Which components are responsible for the protection of the egg?

  • Vitamin B
  • High pH
  • Cuticle
  • Chitin
A
  • High pH
  • Cuticle
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40
Q

Which of the egg’s attributes give information about its freshness?

  • The size of the air space
  • The size of the germinal disk
  • The size of the pores
  • The consistency of albumin
A
  • The size of the air space
  • The consistency of albumin
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41
Q

What are the characteristic of old eggs?

  • Air space more than 6mm
  • No air space
  • Liquid albumin
  • Brown egg shell
A
  • Air space more than 6mm
  • Liquid albumin
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42
Q

Which of these establishments must be authorized?

  • Egg packing centre
  • Egg collector
  • Large-scale layer farm
  • Egg processing plant
A
  • Egg packing centre
  • Egg processing plant
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43
Q

What are the characteritics of grade A eggs?

  • It certifies that the egg is fit for human consumption without heat treatment
  • It might be used for the manufacturing of egg products
  • The yolk is slightly mobile
  • It doesn’t have air space
A
  • It certifies that the egg is fit for human consumption without heat treatment
  • The yolk is slightly mobile
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44
Q

Which information is part of the producer’s code on the eggshell?

  • The approval of the egg packing centre
  • The type of housing
  • EC for European communities
  • The ISO code of the country
A
  • The type of housing
  • The ISO code of the country
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45
Q

Why is it necessary to withdraw feed before slaughter of poultry?

-To avoid faecal contamination during transport
- In order to empty the gastrointenstinal tract to reduce the risk of injury during evisceration
- For economic reasons, animals are only fed as long as they have to
- To keep animals alert during transport

A

-To avoid faecal contamination during transport
- In order to empty the gastrointenstinal tract to reduce the risk of injury during evisceration

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46
Q

Which of the following operations are critical control point (CCP) in the case of poultry slaughter?

  • Stunning, bleeding
  • Dressing, evisceration
  • Chilling of the carcass
  • Chilling of the offals
A
  • Chilling of the carcass
  • Chilling of the offals
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47
Q

Typically, how are poultry placed in the transport vehicle?

  • Tied up
  • Folded up on feet
  • In fixed cages
  • In mobile crates
A
  • In fixed cages
  • In mobile crates
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48
Q

How warm is the boling water for poultry slaughter?

  • 50-54C in case of air chilling
  • 55-66C in case of air chilling
  • 50-54C in case of immersion chilling
  • 55-60C in case of immersion chilling
A
  • 50-54C in case of air chilling
  • 55-60C in case of immersion chilling
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49
Q

For which animal species is scalding a characteristic slaughter moment?

  • Sheep
  • Swine
  • Poultry
  • Rabbit
A
  • Swine
  • Poultry
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50
Q

Where is the identification mark (meat stamp) for poultry and rabbits?

  • In case of poultry on the packaging
  • In case of poultry on the carcass
  • In case of rabbit on the packaging
  • In case of rabbit on the carcass
A
  • In case of poultry on the packaging
  • In case of rabbit on the packaging
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51
Q

Is there a difference in Salmonella count between meat products intended to be eaten raw and between poultry meat products intended to be cooked related to food safety criteria?

  • No, in both cases, zero tolerance is defined, which means salmonella cannot be present
  • Yes, there is a difference as Salmonella is non compliant only in case of meat products intended to be eaten cooked (0/25g)
  • No, as Salmonella count for meat products intended to be eaten raw is 0/25g, for poultry meat intended to be eaten cooked is 0/25g
  • Yes, there is a difference as Salmonella is non compliant in case of meat product intended to be eaten raw (0/25g)
A
  • No, in both cases, zero tolerance is defined, which means salmonella cannot be present
  • No, as Salmonella count for meat products intended to be eaten raw is 0/25g, for poultry meat intended to be eaten cooked is 0/25g
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52
Q

Which of these are red meat products?

  • Salami
  • Lyoner
  • Foil-packed ham
  • Bologna-type sausages
A
  • Lyoner
  • Bologna-type sausages
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53
Q

Which of the below products are raw, fermented products?

  • Hungarian winter salami
  • Foil-package ham
  • Lyoner
  • Snack sausage
A
  • Hungarian winter salami
  • Snack sausage
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54
Q

What us typical for raw sausages made with starter culture?

  • Ripening is done by stepwise temperature decrease and starting at higher ripening temperature, than by traditional dry sausage
  • Microflora is composed of lactobacillus species, salt resistant and nitrate reducing micrococcus & enterococcus species
  • Raw sausages made with starter cultures have higher pH values, then the traditional dry sausage
  • Microflora is composed mainly of special noble moules, penicillum species
A

-Ripening is done by stepwise temperature decrease and starting at higher ripening temperature, than by traditional dry sausage
- Microflora is composed of lactobacillus species, salt resistant and nitrate reducing micrococcus & enterococcus species

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55
Q

What is the difference between slow and fast curing?

  • The main difference is in processing, as by slow curing the product is made with salt, nitrites or nitrates for preservation, colour & taste development. Therefore meat parts are merged or surface treated with salts and ripened
  • The main difference is in processing, as by slow curing the product is made with salt, nitrites & nitrates and other additives to help colour & taste development.
    Curing solution is injected and/or added under vacuum to the tissues or surface treated with salts & ripened.
  • After slow curing, the cured meat part can be ripened even for 1 year, which is not typical for fast curing.
  • Foil packaged ham and pressed ham is made with slow curing and cannot be produced by fast curing
A
  • The main difference is in processing, as by slow curing the product is made with salt, nitrites or nitrates for preservation, colour & taste development. Therefore meat parts are merged or surface treated with salts and ripened
  • After slow curing, the cured meat part can be ripened even for 1 year, which is not typical for fast curing.
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56
Q

Which of these processing steps are considered as critical control points (CCP) by products of bologna-type sausage?

  • Cutting, mixing, grinding
  • Shaping, stuffing
  • Smoking, cooking
  • Cold storage
A
  • Smoking, cooking
  • Cold storage
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57
Q

Which is the difference between Lyoner and Bologna-type sausage?

  • Only difference is in the diameter of these products
  • One of these products has a caliber of min. 26 mm and the other 55 mm
  • Only one of these products has homogenous cross section
  • Only for lyoner is a prescription of minimum meat content (51%)
A
  • Only difference is in the diameter of these products
  • One of these products has a caliber of min. 26 mm and the other 55 mm
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58
Q

What is characteristic for a trained person?

-Trained person must have 10 years experience
- Trained person must have hunters certificate issued by the state and special exam for examination
- Trained person can be veterinarian only
- It is not necessary that the trained person must have special experience

A

-Trained person must have 10 years experience
- Trained person must have hunters certificate issued by the state and special exam for examination

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59
Q

What is the characteristic for marketing of hunted game?

-The hunted game can be marketed to final consumer in small amounts only
- The hunted game cannot be used for private consumption
- The hunted game can be marketed to catering facility in small amount only
- The hunted game can be marketed further by the private consumer

A

-The hunted game can be marketed to final consumer in small amounts only
- The hunted game can be marketed to catering facility in small amount only

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60
Q

When us the hunted game fit for consumption?

  • If the result of trichinella test is positive
  • If there are no signs or abnormalities that pose potential risk to public health
  • If the animal is cachexic and thus has low fat content
  • If there is no expressed organoleptic changes
A
  • If there are no signs or abnormalities that pose potential risk to public health
  • If there is no expressed organoleptic changes
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61
Q

Which conditions must be ensured on the farm?

  • The stock must be continuously investigated by a veterinarian
  • Evisceration of the game is prohibited on the farm
  • The game can be processed on the farm
  • Farm has to be adequate premises to perform the hygienic slaughter
A
  • The stock must be continuously investigated by a veterinarian
  • Farm has to be adequate premises to perform the hygienic slaughter
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62
Q

Which statement is true?

-Large game can be skinned on the site
- Large game can be eviscerated on the site
- Small game must be supended in pair on metal rod
- Small game can be eviscerated on the site

A
  • Large game can be eviscerated on the site
  • Small game must be supended in pair on metal rod
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63
Q

Which requirement must be met at a game collection centre?

  • The establishment must not be fenced
  • The required temperature is 10 degrees centigrade in the cold store
  • The establishment must have an adequate cold store to suspended store of the carcasses
  • Drinking water quality must be used in the establishment to all processes
A
  • The establishment must have an adequate cold store to suspended store of the carcasses
  • Drinking water quality must be used in the establishment to all processes
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64
Q

In the case of cattle under 8 months of age, which organ inspection is less relevant?

  • Umbilical area
  • Udder and genitals
  • Joints
  • Masseters
A
  • Udder and genitals
  • Masseters
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65
Q

What category of waste does ruminant blood count?

  • Over 8 months, SRM, category 1
  • Category 2 if it comes from a herd which is proven to be BSE free
  • Category 3 if it complies with regulation (EC) No 99/2001
  • Suitable for human consumption under 8 months of age (unless otherwise stated)
A
  • Category 2 if it comes from a herd which is proven to be BSE free
  • Category 3 if it complies with regulation (EC) No 99/2001
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66
Q

How warm water should be used during washing/disinfection

  • Tool disinfection minimum 72 C
  • Tool disinfection min 82 C
  • Hand washing water min 37 C
  • Hand washing water min 42 C
A
  • Tool disinfection min 82 C
  • Hand washing water min 42 C
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67
Q

What is the maximum allowable cooling temperature for ruminant meat?

  • 7 C for the carcass
  • 4 C for the carcass
    -4 C for the offals
  • 3 C for the offals
A
  • 7 C for the carcass
  • 3 C for the offals
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68
Q

During the inspection of adult cattle heads, the …. has to be incised/cut in every case

  • Retropharyngeal lymph nodes
  • Tongue
  • Masseter muscles
  • Parotid lymph nodes
A
  • Retropharyngeal lymph nodes
  • Masseter muscles
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69
Q

Which of the following sentences are true?

  • In cattle, the head lymph nodes must be palpated in every carcass
  • In pigs, the head lymph nodes must be palpated in every carcass
  • Palpation of the organs can cause cross-contamination of the carcass
  • Incision of the organs can cause cross contamination of the carcass
A
  • Palpation of the organs can cause cross-contamination of the carcass
  • Incision of the organs can cause cross contamination of the carcass
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70
Q

How should SRM materials generated during cattle slaughter be handled?

  • They are collected in containers marked SRM
  • Treated in an autoclave at 105 C before leaving the slaughterhouse
  • Poured with heat-resistant blue paint
  • Collected and treated with category 3 waste
A
  • They are collected in containers marked SRM
  • Poured with heat-resistant blue paint
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71
Q

What are the signs of successful stunning in cattle?

  • The animal immediately collapses without trying to stand up
  • Torticollis
  • No corneal reflex
  • Automatic defecation
A
  • The animal immediately collapses without trying to stand up
  • No corneal reflex
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72
Q

Which of the following organs should be palpated in all cases of adult bovine animals (slaughter of ruminants)?

  • Spleen
  • Liver
  • Lungs
  • Mesenterial lymph nodes
A
  • Lungs
  • Mesenterial lymph nodes
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73
Q

What is the aim of singeing?

  • Removing fluff
  • Pre-frying the meat for subsequent heat treatments
  • The desired reddish pink color of the carcass
  • Reduction of germ counts on the surface of the skin
A
  • Removing fluff
  • Reduction of germ counts on the surface of the skin
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74
Q

Which part of the body can be removed from the pig before the meat inspection?

  • Mandible
  • Ear roots
  • Tail
  • Eyes
A
  • Ear roots
  • Eyes
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75
Q

In case of pig slaughter, which pathogens should be tested during the microbiological examination of slaughter hygiene

  • Enterobacteriaceae
  • E. coli
  • Salmonella
  • L. monocytogenes
A
  • Enterobacteriaceae
  • Salmonella
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76
Q

Within how much time after stunning does the sticking have to be performed?

  • In case of gas stunning 20s
  • In case of gas stunning 30s
  • In case of electronic stunning 20s
  • In case of electronic stunning 20s
A
  • In case of gas stunning 30s
  • In case of electronic stunning 20s
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77
Q

The stunning of pigs usually happens

  • Mechanically with a stunning gun
  • By carbon dioxide gas chambers
  • With electrodes placed on the head
  • Mechanically by a device that causes concentration
A
  • By carbon dioxide gas chambers
  • With electrodes placed on the head
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78
Q

In case of swine slaughter, the inspection of the offals happens

  • On a tray in case of white offals
  • Hung in case of white offals
  • On a tray in case of red offals
  • Hung in case of red offals
A
  • On a tray in case of white offals
  • Hung in case of red offals
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79
Q

In case of swine slaughter

  • The rectum is tied off
  • The oesophagus is tied off
  • The rectum is closed by a polyethylene bag
  • The oesophagus is closed by a polyethylene bag
A
  • The rectum is tied off
  • The rectum is closed by a polyethylene bag
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80
Q

In which case is the meat stamp not applied?

  • Before the arrival of the trichinella results
  • Fit for human consumption carcass of a rabbit
  • Non-generalized trichinella infection
  • If the carcass of the slaughtered cattle contain SRM
A
  • Fit for human consumption carcass of a rabbit
  • If the carcass of the slaughtered cattle contain SRM
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81
Q

What is true about category 1 waste?

  • The most valuable category, it can be used for pet food production
  • Bones, skin and feathers of healthy animals are considered here
  • The bodies of wild game suspected of a disease with public animal health risk
  • The category with the highest risk, generally it must be destroyed
A
  • The bodies of wild game suspected of a disease with public animal health risk
  • The category with the highest risk, generally it must be destroyed
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82
Q

Which of the following are Category 2 waste?

  • Carcass suspected of TSE
  • The blood of ruminants
  • The wastewater products of slaughterhouses not handling ruminants
  • Faeces
A
  • The wastewater products of slaughterhouses not handling ruminants
  • Faeces
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83
Q

Which part are considered SRM in evert age group of cattle?

  • The last four metres of the colon
  • The spinal cord
  • The spleen
  • The tonsils
A
  • The last four metres of the colon
  • The tonsils
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84
Q

What is characteristic of BSE?

-It is really widespread in Europe, vaccination is mandatory once a year
- It is caused by abnormal prions
- The carcass of a cattle suspected for the disease can only be a fit after heat treatment
- It is caused by abnormal proteins

A
  • It is caused by abnormal prions
  • It is caused by abnormal proteins
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85
Q

Which of the following techniques can be used to evaluate the water holding capacity?

  • Ebers test (detection of ammonia)
  • Filter paper method with grau-hamm device
  • Warner-bratzler shear force test (tenderness)
  • Measuring the dripping loss
A
  • Filter paper method with grau-hamm device
  • Measuring the dripping loss
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86
Q

Which part of the adult goat is considered SRM?

  • The spinal cord
  • The tonsils
  • The ileum
  • The skull
A
  • The spinal cord
  • The skull
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87
Q

What techniques can be used for ammonia detection?

  • Reder test
  • Nessler’s test
  • Lead acetate test
  • Eber’s test
A
  • Nessler’s test
  • Eber’s test
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88
Q

What are the characteristics of meat if the glycogen storage of the muscle was depleted?

  • The pH remains high
  • It is exudative
  • It is unfit for human consumption
  • It is suitable for bacterial growth
A
  • The pH remains high
  • It is suitable for bacterial growth
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89
Q

In case of which species is Trichinella testing compulsory?

  • Horse
  • Pig
  • Cattle
  • Sheep
A
  • Horse
  • Pig
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90
Q

Which regulations describe the official controls?

  • 852/2004/EC
  • 853/2004/EC
  • 2017/625/EC
  • 2019/627/EC
A
  • 2017/625/EC
  • 2019/627/EC
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91
Q

Which of the following sentences are true?

  • The meat inspection of pigs is based on visual inspection
  • In cattle, it is always obligatory to incise the mesentary lymph nodes
  • The meat inspection is simpler in young pigs than in adult pigs
  • The meat inspection is simpler in young cattles than adult cattles
A
  • The meat inspection of pigs is based on visual inspection
  • The meat inspection is simpler in young cattles than adult cattles
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92
Q

What are the main points of the food chain information? (meat inspection)

  • Treatment and their withdrawal period
  • The dates of all vaccinations
  • The size of the farm
  • The information about the authorized veterinarian responsible for the farm
A
  • Treatment and their withdrawal period
  • The information about the authorized veterinarian responsible for the farm
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93
Q

What is characteristic for aged meat?

  • It has paler brownish color
  • It has odor of lactic acid
  • It has glassy shine
  • It is inelastic to touch
A
  • It has paler brownish color
  • It has odor of lactic acid
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94
Q

Which pairs are true?

  • Robert von Ostertag - father of meat inspection
  • Robert von Ostertag - discovery of the causative of anthrax
  • Robert Koch - father of meat inspection
  • Robert Koch - discovery of the causative of anthrax
A
  • Robert von Ostertag - father of meat inspection
  • Robert Koch - discovery of the causative of anthrax
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95
Q

What permits must the animal transport vehicle have?

  • Animal transport vehicles must have a low emission certificate in order to protect the quality of the meat
  • The official permission of the vehicle for the transport of live animals
  • A road use permit
  • With appropriate qualifications of the vehicle crew
A
  • The official permission of the vehicle for the transport of live animals
  • With appropriate qualifications of the vehicle crew
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96
Q

What conditions must animal transport vehicles need?

  • Ad libitum drinking water must be provided for the animals
  • Adequate ventilation
  • Ensuring a species specific natural posture
  • Adequate feed supply
A
  • Adequate ventilation
  • Ensuring a species specific natural posture
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97
Q

When is it not obligatory for the official veterinarian to attend an ante-mortem inspection?

-Official inspection will be performed by the official auxiliary withholding the parts showing the lesion
- Auxiliary staff are regularly checked by a veterinarian
- Slaughter was announced 72 hours in advance, but there is no official veterinarian in service
- If less than 10 cattle or less than 50 pigs are slaughtered per week

A

-Official inspection will be performed by the official auxiliary withholding the parts showing the lesion
- Auxiliary staff are regularly checked by a veterinarian

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98
Q

What data are in the food chain information?

-The results of the ante mortem 1. inspection
- Authorization for the animal transport vehicle
- Data of the farm
- Data of the medication of the animals

A
  • Data of the farm
  • Data of the medication of the animals
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99
Q

What examination can be used during ante mortem 1. inspection?

  • Blood sampling
  • Rectal examination
  • Visual inspection
  • Body temperature measurement
A
  • Visual inspection
  • Body temperature measurement
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100
Q

The veterinarian may ban the slaughter until further measures if

  • The animals show signs of exhaustion
  • The animals come from a surveillance zone
  • The assessment of the health status of the animals requires further examination
  • The animals have been shown to carry a zoonotic pathogen
A
  • The animals show signs of exhaustion
  • The assessment of the health status of the animals requires further examination
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101
Q

Which sentence is true about TSE (meat inspection)

  • An OIE listed viral disease
  • The whole carcass of cattle suspected for TSE is considered SRM
  • Abnormal behaviour is a sign of disease
  • It causes purulent inflammatory nodes in the brain
A
  • The whole carcass of cattle suspected for TSE is considered SRM
  • Abnormal behaviour is a sign of disease
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102
Q

The carcass is unfit for human consumption (meat inspection)

  • Haematoma of the limb
  • Sexual odour
  • Insufficient bleeding
  • Carcass that belongs to an animal what was washed before slaughtering
A
  • Sexual odour
  • Insufficient bleeding
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103
Q

Which of these abnormalities will make the whole carcass unfit for human consumption?

  • PSE aging
  • Melanosis
  • Sexual odor
  • Young age (<7 days)
A
  • Sexual odor
  • Young age (<7 days)
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104
Q

Which of the following sentences are true about the integrated meat inspection?

  • It means the separated slaughter of suspicious animals
  • It greatly depends on food chain information
  • It depends on the live animal inspection at the farm
  • Slaughtering can only happen at the closest slaughterhouse
A
  • It greatly depends on food chain information
  • It depends on the live animal inspection at the farm
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105
Q

What additional tests can be performed at the slaughterhouse?

  • Residue test
  • Complex microbiological examinations
  • Cooking test
  • Trichinella examination
A
  • Cooking test
  • Trichinella examination
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106
Q

What is characteristic for isotropic zone of myofibril?

  • They are found in the sarcoplasm
  • They are contractile element of the muscle
  • The sarcoplasmic reticulum surrounded it stores the potassium
  • They are structural unit of the striated muscle
A
  • They are contractile element of the muscle
  • They are structural unit of the striated muscle
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107
Q

What is the characteristic for isotropic zone of myofibril?

  • It is the lighter band of the sarcomere
  • It contains thicker filaments (anisotropic)
  • Its main component is the actin
  • It has 2 subunits (anisotropic -> actin & myosin)
A
  • It is the lighter band of the sarcomere
  • Its main component is the actin
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108
Q

What is the characteristic for cathepsins?

  • They have role in aging of mammal meat (calpain)
  • They have main role in degradation of sarcoplasmic proteins
  • They may have important role in aging of flesh of fish
  • They can be activated by calcium ions (calpain)
A
  • They have main role in degradation of sarcoplasmic proteins
  • They may have important role in aging of flesh of fish
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109
Q

Choose the correct statement

  • Rigor mortis develops as a result of anaerobic glycolysis
  • Rigor mortis develops because of the lack of ATP
  • Rigor mortis passes due to the pH increase caused by bacteria
  • Rigor mortis passes due to protease enzymes
A
  • Rigor mortis develops as a result of anaerobic glycolysis
  • Rigor mortis develops because of the lack of ATP
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110
Q

What can increase the water binding capacity of meat?

  • Heat treatment
  • Mincing of meat
  • Adding of inorganic salt
  • Reducing of pH
A
  • Mincing of meat
  • Adding of inorganic salt
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111
Q

What is the main energy source of the muscle function?

  • The aerobic glycolysis that produces 36 ATP molecules from 1 glucose molecule
  • Reactions series of 3 reactions such as glycolysis, oxidative decarboxylation and oxidative phosphorylation
  • The anaerobic glycolysis that produces 36 ATP molecules from 1 glucose molecule
  • Reduction of pyruvate to lactic acid
A
  • The aerobic glycolysis that produces 36 ATP molecules from 1 glucose molecule
  • Reactions series of 3 reactions such as glycolysis, oxidative decarboxylation and oxidative phosphorylation
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112
Q

What is characteristic of calpains?

-They have a role in aging of poultry meat
- They can be found in lysosomes
- They catalyze the degradation of interstitial tissue proteins
- They particularily catalyze the degradation of actomyosin complex

A

-They have a role in aging of poultry meat
- They catalyze the degradation of interstitial tissue proteins

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113
Q

What is characteristic for chemical composition (definition of meat)?

  • It has high biological value
  • It is important source of vitamin E
  • It has high fat content
  • It has low carbohydrate content
A
  • It has high biological value
  • It has low carbohydrate content
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114
Q

Which of these abnormalities are fit for human consumption?

  • DFD meat aging
  • Insufficient bleeding
  • Emaciated animals
  • Lipochromatosis
A
  • DFD meat aging
  • Lipochromatosis
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115
Q

Which of the following statements are false about the normal meat aging?

  • The decreased pH is due to lactic acid
  • The increased pH is due to ammonia
  • It takes around 45 minutes
  • The final pH is well below 6
A
  • The increased pH is due to ammonia
  • It takes around 45 minutes
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116
Q

What can we use to differentiate between icterus and carotenosis?

  • With the Loeffler’s test
  • By checking the solubility
    of the yellow pigment
  • Looking for signs of disease, malaise in the live animal
  • With cooking test
A
  • By checking the solubility
    of the yellow pigment
  • Looking for signs of disease, malaise in the live animal

*Open for correction but these two seem most correct- may be “with cooking test”

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117
Q

Which of these compounds cause the desirable colors of meat?

  • Oxymyoglobulin
  • Metmyoglobulin
  • Sulphmyoglobulin
  • Bilirubin
A
  • Oxymyoglobulin
  • Metmyoglobulin
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118
Q

What is the TRACES system?

  • The aim is to track the movement of animals and animal products (among other things)
  • It must be used during the trade between member states
  • It must be used when importing from a third country
  • The aim is to find residues of veterinary medication
A
  • The aim is to track the movement of animals and animal products (among other things)
  • It must be used during the trade between member states

*Open for correction - may be “ It must be used when importing from a third country”

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119
Q

The RASFF system contains alerts concerning safety of

  • Livestock
  • Food industrial appliances
  • Alcoholic beverages
  • Food additives
A
  • Alcoholic beverages
  • Food additives
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120
Q

Which countries operate the RASFF system?

  • EU member states
  • European countries
  • Switzerland, Norway, Iceland and Liechtenstein
  • Turkey, Israel and Moldova
A
  • EU member states
  • Switzerland, Norway, Iceland and Liechtenstein
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121
Q

Which word is not among the terms behind the abbreviations RASFF?

  • Livestock
  • Feed
  • Water
  • Food
A
  • Livestock
  • Water
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122
Q

What can be found in the RASFF system about the steps taken after discovering the contamination?

  • The concerned product was destroyed
  • The concerned producer/retailer was fined
  • The concerned product was withdrawn from the market
  • The concerned product went under further inspection
A
  • The concerned product was destroyed
  • The concerned product was withdrawn from the market
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123
Q

Which of the following is true about emergency slaughter?

  • It means the slaughter of infected and suspected animals
  • It means the slaughter of injured animals
  • It means bloodless killing
  • The meat can be fit for human consumption
A
  • It means the slaughter of injured animals
  • The meat can be fit for human consumption
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124
Q

In which cases is slaughter outside of the slaughterhouse allowed?

  • Farm-fresh gastronomy service
  • Poultry and rabbit slaughter of small scale producers
  • Buffalo younger than 8 months
  • Pigs younger than 6 weeks
A
  • Farm-fresh gastronomy service
  • Poultry and rabbit slaughter of small scale producers
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125
Q

What is the maximum number of animals allowed to be slaughtered per week in case of small-scale slaughter?

  • 100 chickens
  • 100 turkeys
  • 100 waterfowl
  • 100 rabbits
A
  • 100 turkeys
  • 100 waterfowl
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126
Q

Which documents check is mandatory during every control?

  • Cattle passports
  • The permission of the transporting vehicle
  • Animal Health Certificate
  • Common Veterinary Document
A
  • Cattle passports
  • Animal Health Certificate
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127
Q

What are the main steps of ante mortem II. inspection?

  • Verification of transport documents
  • Simplified clinical examinations
  • Individual examination of each species
  • Check the documents of the transport vehicle in all cases
A
  • Verification of transport documents
  • Simplified clinical examinations
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128
Q

In case of pig slaughter, which organs are examined together with the carcass?

  • Rectum
  • Peritoneum
  • Spleen
  • Kidney
A
  • Peritoneum
  • Kidney
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129
Q

Which type of heat treatment must be applied to kill the pathogenic microorganisms?

  • Frying
  • Drying on hot air
  • Cooking
  • Steaming
A
  • Cooking
  • Steaming
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130
Q

Which of these disinfection methods are permitted in the EU?

  • Cleaning and drying
  • UV light
  • Chlorine
  • Ozone
A
  • UV light
  • Ozone
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131
Q

Which of the following statements are true?

-In case of septicaemia, the whole carcass is unfit for human consumption
- The presence of non-pathogenic bacteria in several organs makes the whole carcass fit for human consumption
- Certain organoleptic abnormalities result in the condemnation of the whole carcass
- The absence of zoonotic disease results in a carcass fit for human consumption

A
  • In case of septicaemia, the whole carcass is unfit for human consumption
  • The presence of non-pathogenic bacteria in several organs makes the whole carcass fit for human consumption
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132
Q

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  • HACCP is a food-quality risk analysis and management system
  • HACCP is a food- safety rick analysis and management system
  • HACCP concept is based on the good hygiene practise
  • The good hygiene practise is based on the HACCP CONCEPT
A
  • HACCP is a food- safety rick analysis and management system
  • HACCP concept is based on the good hygiene practise
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133
Q

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  • In general, the water activity demand of Gram-positive bacteria is higher than the Gram-negative ones
  • In general, the water activity demand of Gram-negative bacteria is higher than the Gram-positive ones
  • In general, the water activity demand of the bacteria is higher than the yeasts
  • In general, the water activity demand of the bacteria is lower than the yeasts
A
  • In general, the water activity demand of Gram-negative bacteria is higher than the Gram-positive ones
  • In general, the water activity demand of the bacteria is higher than the yeasts
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134
Q

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  • Food chain of animal feedstuffs does not include the farm and the feed industry
  • Food chain of animal foodstuffs also includes the farm and the feed industry
  • Food safety is based primarily on consumer’s expectations
  • Food quality is based primarily on consumer’s expectations
A
  • Food chain of animal foodstuffs also includes the farm and the feed industry
  • Food quality is based primarily on consumer’s expectations
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135
Q

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  • The F0 value is technological characteristic expressing the thermal death time equivalent at 121.1 C for the applied heat treatment procedure
  • The F0 value is microbiological characteristic which expresses the thermal death time at 121.1 C
  • According to the 12D principle, the food microbiological safety requirements is F=2.52 minutes
  • According to the 12D principle, the food microbiological safety requirements is F=0.21 minutes
A
  • The F0 value is technological characteristic expressing the thermal death time equivalent at 121.1 C for the applied heat treatment procedure
  • According to the 12D principle, the food microbiological safety requirements is F=2.52 minutes
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136
Q

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  • The D value is the time needed to a decimal reduction of the live cell count
  • The D value is the temperature increase necessary for a tenfold reduction of the thermal death time
  • The Z value is the time needed to a decimal reduction of the live cell count
  • The Z value is the temperature increase necessary for a tenfold reduction of the thermal death time
A
  • The D value is the time needed to a decimal reduction of the live cell count
  • The Z value is the temperature increase necessary for a tenfold reduction of the thermal death time
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137
Q

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-In case of food poisoning, the causative agent produces exotoxin in the food
- In case of food poisoning, the causative agent produces exotoxin in the GI tract
- In case of toxico-infection, the causative agent produces exotoxin in the food
- In case of toxico-infection, the causative agent produces exotoxin in the GI tract

A

-In case of food poisoning, the causative agent produces exotoxin in the food
- In case of toxico-infection, the causative agent produces exotoxin in the GI tract

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138
Q

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  • The HACCP plan should be establishment and product-specific
  • The GHP plan should be establishment and product-specific
  • The GHP concept focuses on the hazards not properly manageable by HACCP
  • The HACCP concept focuses on the hazards not properly manageable by GHP
A
  • The HACCP plan should be establishment and product-specific
  • The HACCP concept focuses on the hazards not properly manageable by GHP
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139
Q

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  • The infective dose of salmonella is low, even 100-500 organisms may induce disease in humans
  • The infective dose of Campylobacter is low, even 100-500 organisms may induce disease in humans
  • The infective dose of EHEC strains is lower than that of other E.coli strains
  • The infective dose of EHEC strains is higher that that of E.coli strains
A
  • The infective dose of Campylobacter is low, even 100-500 organisms may induce disease in humans
  • The infective dose of EHEC strains is lower than that of other E.coli strains
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140
Q

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  • Botulinum toxin is a neurotoxin that causes flaccid paralysis of the muscles
  • Botulinum toxin is an emetic toxin that causes gastrointestinal signs
  • The emetic toxin of Bacillus cereus is heat sensitive
  • The diarrhoetic toxin of Bacillus cereus is heat sensitive
A
  • Botulinum toxin is a neurotoxin that causes flaccid paralysis of the muscles
  • The diarrhoetic toxin of Bacillus cereus is heat sensitive
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141
Q

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  • Campylobacters usually form a biofilm on the surfaces
  • L. monocytogenes usually forms a biofilm on the surfaces
  • The clinical symptoms caused by L. monocytogenes in humans are characterized mostly by
    extraintestinal signs
  • The clinical symptoms caused by L. monocytogenes in humans are characterized mostly by intestinal signs
A
  • L. monocytogenes usually forms a biofilm on the surfaces
  • The clinical symptoms caused by L. monocytogenes in humans are characterized mostly by
    extraintestinal signs
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142
Q

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  • Listeria monocytogenes is a psychrophilic bacterium
  • Listeria monocytogenes is a mesophilic bacterium
  • Salmonella enteritidis is a psychrophilic bacterium
  • Salmonella enteritidis is a mesophilic bacterium
A
  • Listeria monocytogenes is a psychrophilic bacterium
  • Salmonella enteritidis is a mesophilic bacterium
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143
Q

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  • Yersinia enterocolitica is a mesophilic bacterium
  • Yersinia enterocolitica is a psychrophilic bacterium
  • Yersinia enterocolitica typically cause extraintestinal signs in humans
  • Yersinia enterocolitica typically cause intestinal signs in humans
A
  • Yersinia enterocolitica is a psychrophilic bacterium
  • Yersinia enterocolitica typically cause intestinal signs in humans
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144
Q

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  • Polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbons (PAHs) can be generated during the frying of foods of high carbohydrate content
  • Acrylamide can be generated during the frying of foods of high carbohydrate content
  • Heterocyclic amines can be formed during the frying of foods of high carbohydrate content
  • Heterocyclic amines can be formed during the frying of meat
A
  • Acrylamide can be generated during the frying of foods of high carbohydrate content
  • Heterocyclic amines can be formed during the frying of meat
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145
Q

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  • Dioxins accumulate in the adipose of the consumer
  • Dioxins accumulate in the kidneys of the consumer
  • Dioxins are widely used compounds in different industrial processes
  • Significant sources of dioxins include the waste incineration or the forest fires
A
  • Dioxins accumulate in the adipose of the consumer
  • Significant sources of dioxins include the waste incineration or the forest fires
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146
Q

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  • Patulin may be produced mostly in fruits causing the contamination of apple juices
  • Zearalenone may be produced mostly in fruits causing the contamination of apple juices
  • Fumonisins can be produced mainly in oilseeds
  • Fumonisins can be produced mainly on damaged kernels of maize
A
  • Patulin may be produced mostly in fruits causing the contamination of apple juices
  • Fumonisins can be produced mainly on damaged kernels of maize
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147
Q

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  • Scombrotoxin is a biogenic amine
  • Scombrotoxin is a mycotoxin
  • Patulin is a mycotoxin
  • Solanine is a mycotoxin
A
  • Scombrotoxin is a biogenic amine
  • Patulin is a mycotoxin
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148
Q

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  • Nitrosamines can get into the organism of the consumer with foods, but can also be generated in the stomach
  • Nitrosamines can get into the organism of the consumer with foods, but can also be generated in the intestines
  • PAHs are generated during the imperfect combustion of organic materials
  • Nitrosamines are generated during the imperfect combustion of organic materials
A
  • Nitrosamines can get into the organism of the consumer with foods, but can also be generated in the stomach
  • PAHs are generated during the imperfect combustion of organic materials
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149
Q

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  • Aflatoxin is a genotoxic carcinogen, its main target organ is the liver
  • Aflatoxin is a genotoxic carcinogen, its main target organ is the liver
  • Ochratoxins are genotoxic compounds, their main target is the liver
  • Ochratoxins are genotoxic compounds, their main target is the kidney
A
  • Aflatoxin is a genotoxic carcinogen, its main target organ is the liver
  • Ochratoxins are genotoxic compounds, their main target is the kidney
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150
Q

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  • Ciguatera toxins accumulate in shellfish
  • Ciguatera toxins accumulate in fish
  • Scombrotoxin is histamine
  • Scombrotoxin is a shellfish poison
A
  • Ciguatera toxins accumulate in fish
  • Scombrotoxin is histamine
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151
Q

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  • Carcasses containing veterinary drugs above the permitted level must not be used for production of animal feedstuffs
  • Carcasses containing veterinary drugs above the permitted level can be used for production of animal feedstuffs
  • Carcasses containing prohibited substances must not be used for production of animal feedstuffs
  • Carcasses containing prohibited substances can be utilized for production of animal feedstuffs
A
  • Carcasses containing veterinary drugs above the permitted level must not be used for production of animal feedstuffs
  • Carcasses containing prohibited substances must not be used for production of animal feedstuffs
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152
Q

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  • S. aureus may survive in chocolates and may produce enterotoxins posing a food safety risk
  • S. aureus may survive in chocolates but cannot produce enterotoxins posing a food safety risk
  • Clostridium botulinum spores may germinate and produce toxin in honey
  • Due to the low water activity and low pH of honey, even bacterium spores are unable to germinate in it
A
  • S. aureus may survive in chocolates and may produce enterotoxins posing a food safety risk
  • Clostridium botulinum spores may germinate and produce toxin in honey
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153
Q

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  • Clostridium botulinum spores surviving in the honey may germinate and cause toxico-infection in infants
  • Clostridium botulinum spores surviving in the honey cannot germinate in the intestine of infants
  • Wine is safe in microbiological terms as pathogenic bacteria cannot survive in it
  • Depending on the environmental conditions, Listeria monocytogenes can survive in the wine posing a food safety risk
A
  • Clostridium botulinum spores surviving in the honey may germinate and cause toxico-infection in infants
  • Wine is safe in microbiological terms as pathogenic bacteria cannot survive in it
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154
Q

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  • The water activity of meat products prepared by quick curing is higher than those prepared by slow curing
  • The water activity of meat products prepared by quick curing is lower than those prepared by slow curing
  • Meat products prepared by slow curing must be stored chilled
  • Meat products prepared by quick curing must be stored chilled
A
  • The water activity of meat products prepared by quick curing is higher than those prepared by slow curing
  • Meat products prepared by quick curing must be stored chilled
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155
Q

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  • The primary objective of pasteurization is to destroy all forms of pathogenic bacteria
  • The primary objective of pasteurization is to destroy all forms of vegetative bacteria
  • Pasteurization is a heat treatment performed at a temperature below 100 C
  • Pasteurization is a heat treatment performed at a temperature above 100 C
A
  • The primary objective of pasteurization is to destroy all forms of vegetative bacteria
  • Pasteurization is a heat treatment performed at a temperature below 100 C
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156
Q

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  • Combined preservation is based on the hurdle concept
  • Combined preservation is based on the hazard analysis concept
  • In protective atmosphere packaging, oxygen is partly replaced by carbon dioxide and nitrogen
  • In protective atmosphere packaging, oxygen is partly replaced by oxygen and nitrogen
A
  • Combined preservation is based on the hurdle concept
  • In protective atmosphere packaging, oxygen is partly replaced by carbon dioxide and nitrogen
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157
Q

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  • Heat resistance of moulds and yeasts is similar to that of mesophilic bacteria
  • Heat resistance of moulds and yeasts is much higher than that of mesophilic bacteria
  • Based on the 12D principle, the minimum sterilization equivalent is 2.52 minutes
  • Based on the 12D principle, the minimum sterilization equivalent is 0.21 minutes
A
  • Heat resistance of moulds and yeasts is much higher than that of mesophilic bacteria
  • Based on the 12D principle, the minimum sterilization equivalent is 2.52 minutes
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158
Q

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-Moulds usually multiply faster than bacteria, therefore in spoilage associations mostly moulds become dominant
- Moulds usually grow slower than bacteria, therefore they may become dominant in spoilage associations under conditions that are unfavourable for bacteria
- Yeasts usually multiply faster than bacteria, therefore in spoilage associations mostly moulds become dominant
- Yeasts usually grow slower than bacteria, therefore they may become dominant in spoilage associations under conditions that are unfavourable for bacteria

A
  • Moulds usually grow slower than bacteria, therefore they may become dominant in spoilage associations under conditions that are unfavourable for bacteria
  • Yeasts usually grow slower than bacteria, therefore they may become dominant in spoilage associations under conditions that are unfavourable for bacteria
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159
Q

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  • Plants take up cadmium from the soil through their roots and store it in their tissues
  • Plants take up lead from the soil through their roots and store it in their tissues
  • Methylmercury is bioaccumulated in the aquatic food chain and may reach high concentrations in predators
  • Methylmercury is bioaccumulated in the terrestrial food chain and may reach high concentrations in predators
A
  • Plants take up cadmium from the soil through their roots and store it in their tissues
  • Methylmercury is bioaccumulated in the aquatic food chain and may reach high concentrations in predators
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160
Q

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  • After UHT treatment, the milk is packed aseptically
  • After heat treatment at very high temperatures (ESL), the milk is packed aseptically
  • UHT-treated milk needs cold storage
  • Milk treated at very high temperatures (ESL) needs cold storage
A
  • After UHT treatment, the milk is packed aseptically
  • Milk treated at very high temperatures (ESL) needs cold storage
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161
Q

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  • L. monocytogenes is rather sensitive to heat, it can survive the pasteurization
  • L. monocytogenes is rather sensitive to heat, it cannot survive the pasteurization
  • S. aureus is rather sensitive to heat, it cannot survive the pasteurization
  • S. aureus is rather sensitive to heat but it can survive the pasteurization
A
  • L. monocytogenes is rather sensitive to heat, it cannot survive the pasteurization
  • S. aureus is rather sensitive to heat, it cannot survive the pasteurization
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162
Q

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  • Cheesemaking is based on the coagulation of caseins
  • Cheesemaking is based on the coagulation of milk fats
  • Late blowing of hard cheeses resulting in large holes are caused by clostrida
  • Late blowing of hard cheeses resulting in large holes are caused by coliforms
A
  • Cheesemaking is based on the coagulation of caseins
  • Late blowing of hard cheeses resulting in large holes are caused by clostrida
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163
Q

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  • Skimming increases the density of milk
  • Skimming decreases the density of milk
  • Mastitis usually increases the electrical conductivity of milk
  • Mastitis usually decreases the electrical conductivity of milk
A
  • Skimming increases the density of milk
  • Mastitis usually increases the electrical conductivity of milk
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164
Q

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  • Coxiella burnetii is rather resistant to heat, it can survive the pasteurization
  • Coxiella burnetii is rather sensitive to heat, it cannot survive the pasteurization
  • Zoonotic EHEC strains are rather resistant to heat, they can survive the pasteurization
  • Zoonotic EHEC strains are rather resistant to heat, they cannot survive the pasteurization
A
  • Coxiella burnetii is rather resistant to heat, it can survive the pasteurization
  • Zoonotic EHEC strains are rather resistant to heat, they cannot survive the pasteurization
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165
Q

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  • Alkaline phosphatase test can be used for determining the effectiveness of high-temperature short-time (HTST) pasteurization
  • Peroxidase test can be used for determining the effectiveness of HTST pasteurization
  • Alkaline phosphatase is inactivated at 72 C within 15 seconds
  • Peroxidase is inactivated at 72 C within 15 seconds
A
  • Alkaline phosphatase test can be used for determining the effectiveness of high-temperature short-time (HTST) pasteurization
  • Alkaline phosphatase is inactivated at 72 C within 15 seconds
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166
Q

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  • The spoilage of fresh meat is mainly caused by aerobic psychotrophic bacteria
  • The spoilage of fresh meat is mainly caused by anaerobic mesophilic bacteria
  • The spoilage of raw, cured meat products is mostly caused by microorganisms with a high water activity requirement
  • The spoilage of raw, cured meat products is mostly caused by microorganisms with a low water activity requirement
A
  • The spoilage of fresh meat is mainly caused by aerobic psychotrophic bacteria
  • The spoilage of raw, cured meat products is mostly caused by microorganisms with a low water activity requirement
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167
Q

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  • Heat treatment is the fundamental method for destroying microorganisms and inactivating tissue enzymes
  • Freezing is the fundamental method used for destroying microorganisms and inactivating tissue enzymes
  • Spoilage bacteria can grow even down to -18 C
  • Spoilage moulds can grow even down to -18 C
A
  • Heat treatment is the fundamental method for destroying microorganisms and inactivating tissue enzymes
  • Spoilage moulds can grow even down to -18 C
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168
Q

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  • The fermentation of yoghurt is performed with a mixture of two thermophilic bacteria
  • The fermentation of kefir is performed with a mixture of two thermophilic bacteria
  • For manufacturing of yoghurts, the milk is pasteurized at high temperature for 2-3 minutes
  • For manufacturing of yoghurts, the milk is pasteurized at low temperature without holding
A
  • The fermentation of yoghurt is performed with a mixture of two thermophilic bacteria
  • For manufacturing of yoghurts, the milk is pasteurized at high temperature for 2-3 minutes
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169
Q

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  • An increased potential acidity degree indicates the souring of milk
  • A decrease potential acidity degree indicates the souring of milk
  • The potential acidity degree of mastitic milk is typically lower than normal
  • The potential acidity degree of mastitic milk is typically higher than normal
A
  • An increased potential acidity degree indicates the souring of milk
  • The potential acidity degree of mastitic milk is typically lower than normal
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170
Q

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  • Milk fat occurs in the milk plasma in the form of colloidal micelles
  • Milk fat occurs in the milk plasma in the form of globules
  • Caseins can be found in the milk in the form of globules
  • Caseins can be found in the milk in the form of colloidal micelles
A
  • Milk fat occurs in the milk plasma in the form of globules
  • Caseins can be found in the milk in the form of colloidal micelles
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171
Q

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  • Category 1 wastes shall be disposed by incineration
  • Category 1 wastes can be used for manufacture of pet food
  • Blood from cattle declared fit for human consumption can be used for human consumption
  • Blood from pigs declared fit for human consumption can be used for human consumption
A
  • Category 1 wastes shall be disposed by incineration
  • Blood from pigs declared fit for human consumption can be used for human consumption
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172
Q

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  • As a part of the ante mortem health inspection at the farm, identity checks must be performed at a minimum of 10% of pigs
  • As a part of the ante mortem health inspection at the farm, identity checks must be performed at a minimum of 10% of bovine animals
  • As a part of the ante mortem health inspection at the farm, each single cattle must be identified
  • As a part of the ante mortem health inspection at the farm, each single pig must be identified
A
  • As a part of the ante mortem health inspection at the farm, identity checks must be performed at a minimum of 10% of pigs
  • As a part of the ante mortem health inspection at the farm, each single pig must be identified
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173
Q

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  • Broilers infected with Salmonella enteritidis must be slaughtered by immediate slaughter at a designated slaughterhouse
  • Broilers infected with Salmonella enteritidis must be slaughtered separately
  • Cattle producing positive tuberculin test must be slaughtered by immediate slaughter at a designated slaughterhouse
  • Cattle producing positive tuberculin test must be slaughtered separately
A
  • Broilers infected with Salmonella enteritidis must be slaughtered separately
  • Cattle producing positive tuberculin test must be slaughtered separately
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174
Q

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  • One of the decisions concerning the meat is the conditional fitness for human consumption
  • The meat can be declared fit for human consumption after treatment
  • In poultry, the fact that the meat meat is fit for human consumption is expressed by the application of the identity mark
  • In poultry, the fact that the meat is fit for human consumption is expressed by the application of the health mark
A
  • One of the decisions concerning the meat is the conditional fitness for human consumption
  • In poultry, the fact that the meat meat is fit for human consumption is expressed by the application of the identity mark
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175
Q

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  • Rigor mortis develops because of the reduction of pH
  • Rigor mortis develops because of the lack of ATP
  • The lack of ATP makes it impossible for actinomyosin to dissociate
  • The inadequate reduction of pH makes it impossible for actinomyosin to dissociate
A
  • Rigor mortis develops because of the lack of ATP
  • The lack of ATP makes it impossible for actinomyosin to dissociate
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176
Q

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  • In cattle, the last 4 metres of the ileum and the caecum are classed as SRM regarding the intestinal tract
  • In cattle, the whle intestinal tract is classed as SRM
  • In sheep, the whole intestinal tract is classed as SRM
  • In sheep, only the ileum is classed as SRM regarding the intestinal tract
A
  • In cattle, the last 4 metres of the ileum and the caecum are classed as SRM regarding the intestinal tract
  • In sheep, only the ileum is classed as SRM regarding the intestinal tract
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177
Q

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  • Identification marking shall be applied on the packaging of the poultry carcasses
  • Identification marking shall be applied directly on the poultry carcasses
  • Every poultry carcasses shall be tested for surface salmonella contamination at the slaughterhouse
  • Once a week, minimum 15 poultry carcasses shall be tested for surface salmonella contamination
A
  • Identification marking shall be applied on the packaging of the poultry carcasses
  • Once a week, minimum 15 poultry carcasses shall be tested for surface salmonella contamination
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178
Q

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  • Broilers are usually scalded at higher temperature than waterfowl
  • Waterfowl are usually scalded at higher temperature than broilers
  • Air chilling is superior to immersion chilling in terms of hygiene
  • Immersion chilling is superior to air chilling in terms of hygiene
A
  • Waterfowl are usually scalded at higher temperature than broilers
  • Air chilling is superior to immersion chilling in terms of hygiene
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179
Q

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  • The head of cattle is removed during the slaughtering process
  • The head of pigs is removed during the slaughtering process
  • In pigs, the bleeding is performed by the two-knife method
  • In cattle, the bleeding is performed by the two-knife method
A
  • The head of cattle is removed during the slaughtering process
  • In cattle, the bleeding is performed by the two-knife method
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180
Q

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  • The routine inspection of young bovine animals (<8 months) shall be performed visually
  • The routine inspection of young bovine animals (< 8 months) shall be performed by visual inspection, palpation and incision
  • As a part of the routine meat inspection of young cattle (<8 months), the retropharyngeal lymph nodes shall be sliced
  • In young cattle (<8 months), the retropharyngeal lymph nodes shall be sliced in case of suspect only
A
  • The routine inspection of young bovine animals (< 8 months) shall be performed by visual inspection, palpation and incision
  • In young cattle (<8 months), the retropharyngeal lymph nodes shall be sliced in case of suspect only
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181
Q

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  • The routine post-mortem meat inspection of adult cattle is performed by visual inspection only
  • The routine post-mortem meat inspection of pigs is performed by visual inspection only
  • As a part of the routine meat inspection of pigs, the submaxillary lymph nodes shall be sliced to exclude tuberculosis
  • In pigs, the submaxillary lymph nodes shall be inspected by incision in case of suspect only
A
  • The routine post-mortem meat inspection of pigs is performed by visual inspection only
  • In pigs, the submaxillary lymph nodes shall be inspected by incision in case of suspect only
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182
Q

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  • Emergency slaughter involves the urgent bleeding of animals suspected of infection
  • Emergency slaughter means the urgent bleeding of healthy, injured animals
  • Immediate slaughter involves the slaughter of animals
  • Immediate slaughter means the urgent bleeding of healthy, injured animals
A
  • Emergency slaughter means the urgent bleeding of healthy, injured animals
  • Immediate slaughter involves the slaughter of animals
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183
Q

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  • Cattle is stunned by carbon dioxide stunning
  • Cattle is stunned by mechanical stunning
  • At the slaughterhouse, pigs are stunned by mechanical stunning
  • At the slaughterhouse, pigs are stunned by carbon dioxide stunning
A
  • Cattle is stunned by mechanical stunning
  • At the slaughterhouse, pigs are stunned by carbon dioxide stunning
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184
Q

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  • In cattle over 12 months, the skull is SRM, but the head meat may be used for human consumption
  • In cattle over 12 months, the skull including the head meat is classed as SRM
  • In cattle, the spleen is classed as SRM
  • In sheep, the spleen is classed as SRM
A
  • In cattle over 12 months, the skull is SRM, but the head meat may be used for human consumption
  • In sheep, the spleen is classed as SRM
185
Q

Choose the correct answers

  • Surface contamination of eggs shall be removed by washing in the egg packing centres
  • Surface contamination of eggs must not be removed by washing in the egg packing centres
  • Candling shall be performed only at those farms that deliver eggs for direct sale on the market
  • ## Candling shall be performed at all farms that produce eggs for human consumption
A
  • Surface contamination of eggs must not be removed by washing in the egg packing centres
  • Candling shall be performed at all farms that produce eggs for human consumption
186
Q

Choose the correct answers

  • Live bivalve molluscs collected from a Class A area are suitable for human consumption
  • Live bivalve molluscs deriving from a Class A area can be collected for direct human consumption
  • The production areas of live bivalve molluscs are classified based on the level of faecal contamination
  • The production areas of live bivalve molluscs are classified based on the level of marine biotoxin contamination
A
  • Live bivalve molluscs deriving from a Class A area can be collected for direct human consumption
  • The production areas of live bivalve molluscs are classified based on the level of faecal contamination
187
Q

Choose the correct answers

  • In the game processing establishment, the meat inspection of hunted game is performed by the trained person
  • In the game processing establishment, the meat inspection of hunted game shall be performed by an official veterinarian
  • In the game processing establishment, the post-mortem meat inspection of large games shall be performed by the official veterinarian on skinned animals
  • In the game processing establishment, the post-mortem meat inspection of large games shall be performed by the official veterinarian on unskinned animals
A
  • In the game processing establishment, the meat inspection of hunted game shall be performed by an official veterinarian
  • In the game processing establishment, the post-mortem meat inspection of large games shall be performed by the official veterinarian on unskinned animals
188
Q

Choose the correct answers

  • The official veterinarian shall perform individual meat inspection of fish
  • The official veterinarian shall perform the meat inspection of fish on a batch basis only
  • Scombrotoxicosis is due to the formation of large amounts of biogenic amines by spoilage bacteria
  • Scombrotoxicosis is due to the presence of marine biotoxins in the flesh
A
  • The official veterinarian shall perform the meat inspection of fish on a batch basis only
  • Scombrotoxicosis is due to the formation of large amounts of biogenic amines by spoilage bacteria
189
Q

Choose the correct answers

  • Any hunted large game shall be eviscerated on the spot as soon as possible
  • The hunted large game shall be eviscerated in the game collection centre
  • The hunted large game shall be skinned on the spot
  • The hunted large game must not be skinned on the spot
A
  • Any hunted large game shall be eviscerated on the spot as soon as possible
  • The hunted large game must not be skinned on the spot
190
Q

Choose the correct answers

  • If foot and mouth disease is confirmed at the slaughterhouse, all susceptible present at the slaughteropuse shall be slaughtered according to the rules of immediate slaughter
  • If foot and mouth disease is confirmed at the slaughterhouse, all susceptible animals present at the slaughterhouse shall be killed
  • The meat inspection significance of foot and mouth disease is due to the strong zoonotic potential of its causative agent
  • The meat inspection significance of foot and mouth disease is due to the highly contagious nature of its causative agent
A
  • If foot and mouth disease is confirmed at the slaughterhouse, all susceptible animals present at the slaughterhouse shall be killed
  • The meat inspection significance of foot and mouth disease is due to the highly contagious nature of its causative agent
191
Q

Choose the correct answers

  • Animals suspected for campylobacter infection can be slaughtered unconditionally
  • Animals suspected for Campylobacter infection shall be slaughtered separately
  • If any form of yersinosis is diagnosed at meat inspection, the whole carcass shall be declared unfit for human consumption
  • If any form of yersiniosis is diagnosed at meat inspection, only the affected organs shall be declared unfit for human consumption
A
  • Animals suspected for Campylobacter infection shall be slaughtered separately
  • If any form of yersinosis is diagnosed at meat inspection, the whole carcass shall be declared unfit for human consumption
192
Q

Choose the correct answers

  • If paratuberculosis is diagnosed at the meat inspection, only the affected organs shall be condemned
  • If paratuberculosis is diagnosed at the meat inspection, the whole carcass shall be condemned
  • If leptospirosis is diagnosed at the meat inspection, only the affected organs shall be condemned
  • If leptospirosis is diagnosed at the meat inspection, the whole carcass shall be condemned
A
  • If paratuberculosis is diagnosed at the meat inspection, only the affected organs shall be condemned
  • If leptospirosis is diagnosed at the meat inspection, the whole carcass shall be condemned
193
Q

Choose the correct answers

  • Verotoxin-producing E. coli may cause haemolytic uraemic syndrome in humans
  • Listeria monocytogenes may cause haemolytic uraemic syndrome in humans
  • Verotoxin-producing E. coli may cause colitis in calves
  • Verotoxin-producing E.coli may cause colitis in piglets
A
  • Verotoxin-producing E. coli may cause haemolytic uraemic syndrome in humans
  • Verotoxin-producing E. coli may cause colitis in calves
194
Q

Choose the correct answers

  • The infective dose of campylobacters is high, at least 10,000 cells are needed to induce diseases in humans
  • The infective dose of campylobacters is low, even 100-500 bacterial cells can cause disease in humans
  • The infective dose of campylobacters is higher than that of salmonellae
  • The infective dose of campylobacters is lower than that of salmonellae
A
  • The infective dose of campylobacters is low, even 100-500 bacterial cells can cause disease in humans
  • The infective dose of campylobacters is lower than that of salmonellae
195
Q

Choose the correct answers

  • In sheep, foot and mouth disease (FMD) is characterized by vesicle formation in the mouth without salivation
  • In goats, FMD is characterized by vesicle formation in the mouth without salivation
  • In cattle, FMD is characterized by vesicle formation in the mouth with salivation
  • In pigs, FMD is characterized by vesicle formation in the mouth with salvation
A
  • In goats, FMD is characterized by vesicle formation in the mouth without salivation
  • In cattle, FMD is characterized by vesicle formation in the mouth with salivation
196
Q

Choose the correct answers

  • The health mark (meat stamp) may still be replaced in the wholesale establishments before the meat gets in the retail shops
  • The health mark (meat stamp) must not be replaced in the wholesale establishments before the meat gets in the retail shops
  • In re-wrapping centres, the re-wrapped product shall be marker with the identification marking of the re-wrapped establishment
  • In re-wrapping centres, the re-wrapped product shall be marked with its original identification marking
A
  • The health mark (meat stamp) may still be replaced in the wholesale establishments before the meat gets in the retail shops
  • In re-wrapping centres, the re-wrapped product shall be marker with the identification marking of the re-wrapped establishment
197
Q

Choose the correct answers

  • In the intra-community trade, the fresh meat of pigs or cattle shall be marked with an identification marking
  • In the intra-community trade, the fresh meat of pigs or cattle shall be health marked (meat stamp)
  • Restaurants belong to retail establishments
  • Restaurants belong to wholesale establishments
A
  • In the intra-community trade, the fresh meat of pigs or cattle shall be health marked (meat stamp)
  • Restaurants belong to retail establishments
198
Q

Choose the correct answers

  • Only the food establishments operating under the scope of the Regulation 853/2004/EC shall be approved
  • All food establishments shall be approved by the competent authority
  • Approval process of all food establishment needs a previous on-site visit
  • Registration process of a food establishment needs a previous on-site visit
A
  • Only the food establishments operating under the scope of the Regulation 853/2004/EC shall be approved
  • Approval process of all food establishment needs a previous on-site visit
199
Q

Correct the correct answers

  • If trichinellosis is diagnosed at the postmortem meat inspection, the whole carcass shall be condemned
  • If trichinellosis is diagnosed at the postmortem meat inspection, the affected parts shall be condemned, and the other parts are ft for human consumption after freezing
  • If hyatid cysts of Echinococcus granules are found in the liver, only the affected organ shall be condemned
  • If hyatid cysts of Echinococcus granulosus are found in the liver, the whole carcass shall be declared unfit for human consumption
A
  • If trichinellosis is diagnosed at the postmortem meat inspection, the affected parts shall be condemned, and the other parts are ft for human consumption after freezing
  • If hyatid cysts of Echinococcus granules are found in the liver, only the affected organ shall be condemned
200
Q

Choose the correct answers

  • Control of the proper identification of critical control points is a major element of the GHP audit
  • Control of the proper identification of critical control points is a major element of the HACCP audit
  • The poultry meat put on the market without identification marking shall be regarded as an illegal distribution
  • The poultry meat put on the market without health marking (meat stamp) shall be regarded as an illegal distribution
A
  • Control of the proper identification of critical control points is a major element of the HACCP audit
  • The poultry meat put on the market without identification marking shall be regarded as an illegal distribution
201
Q

Choose the correct answers

  • Retail supermarkets are subject of approval according to the Regulation 853/2004/EC
  • Retail supermarkets are not subject of approval according to the Regulation 853/2004/EC
  • Mass caterers are subject to approval according to the Regulation 853/2004/EC
  • Mass caterers are not subject to approval according to the Regulation 853/2004/EC
A
  • Retail supermarkets are not subject of approval according to the Regulation 853/2004/EC
  • Mass caterers are not subject to approval according to the Regulation 853/2004/EC
202
Q

Choose the correct answers

  • The complementary bacteriological meat inspection includes the examination of at least seven samples from each animal
  • The complementary bacteriological meat inspection includes the examination of two samples taken from the neck skin
  • If imperfect bleeding is diagnosed, the meat can be used for human consumption after heat treatment only
  • If imperfect bleeding is diagnosed, the whole carcass shall be declared unfit for human consumption
A
  • The complementary bacteriological meat inspection includes the examination of at least seven samples from each animal
  • If imperfect bleeding is diagnosed, the whole carcass shall be declared unfit for human consumption
203
Q

Choose the correct answers

  • Basic document of the intra-community trade of foodstuffs in the EU is the Common Health Entry Document (CVED)
  • Basic documentation of the international trade of foodstuffs imported from third countries is the Common Health Entry Document (CVED)
  • Foodstuffs of animal origin can enter the territory of the European Union through border inspection posts only
  • Foodstuffs of animal origin can move in the territory of the EU through border inspection posts only
A
  • Basic documentation of the international trade of foodstuffs imported from third countries is the Common Health Entry Document (CVED)
  • Foodstuffs of animal origin can enter the territory of the European Union through border inspection posts only
204
Q

Choose the correct answers

  • The EU legislation does not quantify the frequency of official controls
  • According to the corresponding EU legislation, food processing establishments shall be controlled at least annually
  • Conformity of the monitoring procedures with the critical limits is a major element of the GHP audit
  • Conformity of the monitoring procedures with the critical limits is a major element of the HACCP audit
A
  • The EU legislation does not quantify the frequency of official controls
  • Conformity of the monitoring procedures with the critical limits is a major element of the HACCP audit
205
Q

What is the sample size?

  • 0.1ml for pour plate
  • 1ml for pour plate
  • 1ml for spread plate
  • 0.1ml for spread plate
A
  • 1ml for pour plate
  • 0.1ml for spread plate
206
Q

Choose the correct answer

  • In the cAMP test, Listeria monocytogenes gives a positive reaction with Rhodococcus equi
  • In the cAMP test, Listeria monocytogenes gives a positive reaction with Staphylococcus
  • Salmonella decarboxylates lysine
  • Salmonella digests urea
A
  • In the cAMP test, Listeria monocytogenes gives a positive reaction with Staphylococcus
  • Salmonella decarboxylates lysine
207
Q

Choose the correct answers

  • Water activity means the total water content of foods
  • Water activity means the free, chemically unbound water content of foods
  • Water activity of foods is characterized by the Aw value
  • Water activity of foods is characterized by the Eh value
A
  • Water activity means the free, chemically unbound water content of foods
  • Water activity of foods is characterized by the Aw value
208
Q

What stage of food analytic procedure may a veterinarian be responsible?

  • Sampling
  • Sample preparation
  • Determining the analytical strategy, carrying out the analysis
  • Interpretation of results
A
  • Sampling
  • Interpretation of results
209
Q

Which food is the annual sample number determined based on the production figures of the previous year?

  • Swine
  • Cattle
  • Broiler chicken
  • Honey
A
  • Broiler chicken
  • Honey
210
Q

Which methods may be used for determining the water added to the milk?

  • Alcohol test
  • Density measurement
  • Peroxidase test
  • Measuring the freezing point
A
  • Density measurement
  • Measuring the freezing point
211
Q

Choose the correct answers

  • The whipped cream must be matured
  • The churning is a phase reversion process
  • Butter rancidity is the result of protein breakdown
  • Rancing is caused by microbial activity
A
  • The churning is a phase reversion process
  • Rancing is caused by microbial activity
212
Q

Choose the correct answers

  • Buttermilk is a byproduct of churning
  • Buttermilk cannot be separated by washing
  • Physical ripening of cream results in sour butter
  • Biological ripening of cream results in sour butter
A
  • Buttermilk is a byproduct of churning
  • Biological ripening of cream results in sour butter
213
Q

What curing methods were demonstrated in the Technology lab?

-Dry curing method: meat was covered with curing/pickling salt
- Wet curing with injection: 8% sodium nitrite solution was injected
- Dry salting: meat was covered with pure sodium chloride
- Tumbling: tumbler was applied to perform fast curing

A
  • Wet curing with injection: 8% sodium nitrite solution was injected
  • Dry salting: meat was covered with pure sodium chloride
214
Q

What were the applied technology steps during peasant sausage manufacture in technology lab?

  • Inoculation of meat with starter culture
  • Stuffing
  • Smoking
  • Heat treatment (cooking)
A
  • Inoculation of meat with starter culture
  • Stuffing
215
Q

What product groups safety alerts are published in the RASFF system?

  • Nutritional supplements
  • Human food
  • Animal feeds
  • Medicinal feeds and foods
A
  • Human food
  • Animal feeds
216
Q

For which plants is registraton not sufficient (subject to authorisation)?

  • Slaughterhouse
  • Small-scale fruit slicer
  • Large-scale fruit slicer
  • Cold store
A
  • Slaughterhouse
  • Cold store
217
Q

Which correct?

  • The heat resistance of microbes is the lowest at the pH optimum of their growth
  • The heat resistance of microbes is the highest at the pH optimum of their growth
  • The conditions and rules of food hygiene primarily aim at adequate food quality
  • The conditions and rules of food hygiene primarily aim at achieiving adequate food safety
A
  • The heat resistance of microbes is the highest at the pH optimum of their growth
  • The conditions and rules of food hygiene primarily aim at achieiving adequate food safety
218
Q

Which correct?

  • Control of animal pests is an important element of the good hygiene practise
  • Control of animal pests does not belong into the scope of good hygiene practise
  • Human diseases caused by Yersinia enterocolitica are mainly due to the consumption of raw underdone beef
  • Human diseases caused by Yersinia enterocolitica are mainly due to the consumption of raw underdone pork
A
  • Control of animal pests is an important element of the good hygiene practise
  • Human diseases caused by Yersinia enterocolitica are mainly due to the consumption of raw underdone pork
219
Q

Which correct?

  • Phycotoxins are biotoxins produced by microalgae
  • Phycotoxins are biotoxins produced by moulds
  • The typical, lasting red colour of cured meat products is due to nitrosomyoglobin
  • The typical, lasting red colour of cured meat products is due to oxymyoglobin
A
  • Phycotoxins are biotoxins produced by microalgae
  • The typical, lasting red colour of cured meat products is due to nitrosomyoglobin
220
Q

Which correct?

  • Deterioration of refrigerated meat products with shelding gas is mainly caused by aerobic bacteria
  • Deterioration of refrigerated meat products packed with shielding gas is mainly caused by aerotolerant anaerobic bacteria
  • Pseudomonas species causing frequent spoilage of fresh meat are psychrotrophic bacteria
  • Pseudomonas species causing frequent spoilage of fresh meat are mesophilic bacteria
A
  • Deterioration of refrigerated meat products packed with shielding gas is mainly caused by aerotolerant anaerobic bacteria
  • Pseudomonas species causing frequent spoilage of fresh meat are psychrotrophic bacteria
221
Q

Choose correct

  • For manufacturing of butter, the raw cream is pasteurized at low temperature without holding
  • For manufacturing of butter, the raw cream is pasteurized at high temperature without holding
  • Caseins remains in solution during sour coagulation
  • Whey proteins remains in solution during sour coagulation
A
  • For manufacturing of butter, the raw cream is pasteurized at high temperature without holding
  • Whey proteins remains in solution during sour coagulation
222
Q

Choose correct

  • During meat aging, the water holding capacity of proteins decreases due to the pH reducton
  • During meat aging, the water holding capacity of proteins increases due to the pH reduction
  • Food chain information must be prepared by the veterinarian performing the ante mortem inspection
  • Food chain information must be performed by the operator of the farm
A
  • During meat aging, the water holding capacity of proteins decreases due to the pH reducton
  • Food chain information must be performed by the operator of the farm
223
Q

Choose correct

  • Salmonella contamination of the carcasses should be checked according to the microbiological regulation of the EU
  • Salmonella contamination of the carcasses should be checked according to the zoonosis regulation of the EU
  • As a part of the routine meat inspection of pigs, the bronchial and the mediastinal lymph nodes shall be sliced
  • As a part of the routine meat inspection of cattle >8 months old, the bronchial and the mediastinal lymph nodes shall be sliced
A
  • Salmonella contamination of the carcasses should be checked according to the microbiological regulation of the EU
  • As a part of the routine meat inspection of cattle >8 months old, the bronchial and the mediastinal lymph nodes shall be sliced
224
Q

Choose correct

  • Live bivalve molluscs must not contain marine biotoxins exceeding the limits described in regulations 853/2004/EC
  • Live bivalve molluscs must not contain mycotoxins exceeding the limits described in regulations 853/2004/EC
  • Cracked eggs must not be used for human consumption
  • Cracked eggs can only be used for manufacture of heat treated egg products
A
  • Live bivalve molluscs must not contain marine biotoxins exceeding the limits described in regulations 853/2004/EC
  • Cracked eggs can only be used for manufacture of heat treated egg products
225
Q

Choose correct

  • In according of BSE, diseased animals shall be slaughtered at a designated slaughterhouse according to the rules of immediate slaughter
  • In case of BSE, diseased animals shall be killed at a designated slaughterhouse
  • In sheep, the most characteristic sign of foot and mouth disease is lameness
  • In goats, the most characteristic sign of foot and mouth disease is lameness
A
  • In case of BSE, diseased animals shall be killed at a designated slaughterhouse
  • In sheep, the most characteristic sign of foot and mouth disease is lameness
226
Q

Choose correct

  • In case of postivie or inconclusive tuberculin test, the affected animals shall be slaughtered according to the rules of immediate slaughter
  • In case of positive or inconclusve tuberculin test, the affected animals shall be slaughtered according to the rules of seperate slaughter
  • In the EU, it is the member states competence to define their official control organizations
  • In the EU, the official control organizations are defined in the official control regulation
A
  • In case of positive or inconclusve tuberculin test, the affected animals shall be slaughtered according to the rules of seperate slaughter
  • In the EU, it is the member states competence to define their official control organizations
227
Q

Choose correct

  • In the EU, it is the member states competence to define their official control organizations
  • In the EU, the official control organizations are defined in their official control regulation
  • Offal from pigs shall be stored in a catering establishment at less than 7 degrees
  • Offal from pigs shall be stored in a catering establishment at less than 4 degrees
A
  • In the EU, it is the member states competence to define their official control organizations
  • Offal from pigs shall be stored in a caterng establishment at less than 4 degrees
228
Q

Choose correct

  • In Ireland, there is a single uniform food chain control authority
  • In Hungary, there is a single uniform food chain control authority
  • The bacterium tolerated the presence of oxygen but does not utilize it
  • The bacterium also grows in the presence and absence of oxygen
A
  • In Hungary, there is a single uniform food chain control authority
  • The bacterium also grows in the presence and absence of oxygen
229
Q

Choose correct

  • The decrease of water activity during production of raw fermented stuffed meat products is due to the salt and drying
  • The growth of microbes in finished product of the heat treated stuffed meat products may not be due to post contamination
  • The flesh of fish is more perishable due to its lower water content than the meat of mammals
  • The flesh of fish is more perishable due to its higher water content than the meat of mammals
A
  • The decrease of water activity during production of raw fermented stuffed meat products is due to the salt and drying
  • The flesh of fish is more perishable due to its higher water contnent than the meat of mammals
230
Q

Choose correct

  • Scrombotoxin is a frequent contaminant of certain fish species
  • Scrombotoxin is a frequent contaminant of molluscs
  • The spoilage of dried foodstuffs is caused by moulds
  • The spoilage of dried foodstuffs is caused by psuedomonas
A
  • Scrombotoxin is a frequent contaminant of certain fish species
  • The spoilage of dried foodstuffs is caused by moulds
231
Q

Choose correct

  • Mass catering belongs to retail operations
  • Mass catering belongs to wholesale operations
  • The minimum water activity of campylobacters is lower than that of salmonellae
  • The minimum water activity of campylobacters is higher than that of salmonellae
A
  • Mass catering belongs to retail operations
  • The minimum water activity of campylobacters is higher than that of salmonellae
232
Q

Choose correct

  • Salmonella enteritidis is the serotype that causes the most food-borne salmonellosis in humans
  • Salmonella Gallinarum is the serotype that causes the most food-borne salmonellosis in humans
  • Cadmium mostly occurs as a surface contaminant of plants and can be removed by thorough washing
  • Lead mostly occurs as a surface contaminant of plansts and can be removed by thorough washing
A
  • Salmonella enteritidis is the serotype that causes the most food-borne salmonellosis in humans
  • Lead mostly occurs as a surface contaminant of plansts and can be removed by thorough washing
233
Q

Choose correct

  • If the food chain information is missing at the time of decision about the slaughter, the slaughter can be permitted by ordering the meat to be detained for max. 24 hours
  • If the food chain information is missing at the time of decision about the slaughter, the slaughter shall be banned
  • The complementary bacteriological meat inspection aims to detect conditions associated with bacterial dissemination
  • The complementary bacteriological meat inspection aims to detetct the surface contamination of the carcasses at the slaughterhouse
A
  • If the food chain information is missing at the time of decision about the slaughter, the slaughter can be permitted by ordering the meat to be detained for max. 24 hours
  • The complementary bacteriological meat inspection aims to detect conditions associated with bacterial dissemination
234
Q

Choose correct

  • The meat of emaciated animals can be used for human consumption after heat treatment if the causative agent is non-zoonotic
  • The meat of emaciated animals is unfit for human consumption irrespective of other aspects
  • Rodding means the ligation of the oesophagus before the rumen
  • Rodding means the ligation of the rectum in order to prevent faecal contamination
A
  • The meat of emaciated animals is unfit for human consumption irrespective of other aspects
  • Rodding means the ligation of the oesophagus before the rumen
235
Q

Choose correct

  • As part of the routine meat inspection of cattle > 8 months old, the liver shall be inspected by incision
  • As part of the routine meat inspection of cattle > 8 months old the liver shall be inspected visually
  • As a part of the routine inspection of cattle > 8 months old, the trachea shall be opened lengthwise
  • As a part of the routine meat inspection of cattle > 8 months old, the trachea shall be inspected visually
A
  • As part of the routine meat inspection of cattle > 8 months old, the liver shall be inspected by incision
  • As a part of the routine meat inspection of cattle > 8 months old, the trachea shall be inspected visually
236
Q

Choose correct

  • Moulds and yeasts prefer more acidic pH than bacteria
  • Moulds and yeasts prefer more alkalinic pH than bacteria
  • The cation-active tensides exhibit pronounced disinfecting properties
  • The anion-active tensides exhibit pronounced disinfecting properties
A
  • Moulds and yeasts prefer more acidic pH than bacteria
  • The cation-active tensides exhibit pronounced disinfecting properties
237
Q

Choose correct

  • The maximum allowed SCC in raw cows milk is 100,000/ml
  • The maximum allowed SCC in raw cows milk is 400,000/ml
  • Classical swine fever is a viral disease of high human and animal health significance
  • Humans are not susceptible to the causative agent of CSF
A
  • The maximum allowed SCC in raw cows milk is 400,000/ml
  • Humans are not susceptible to the causative agent of CSF
238
Q

Choose correct

  • In the food law, the hunted wild game is considered a primary product such as the live animals
  • In the food law, the hunted wild game is considered unprocessed product such as the fresh meat
  • For small game, the official veterinarians meat inspection is done on a representative sample of animals of the same source only
  • For small game, the official veterinarians meat inspection shall be done on each single animal
A
  • In the food law, the hunted wild game is considered unprocessed product such as the fresh meat
  • For small game, the official veterinarians meat inspection is done on a representative sample of animals of the same source only
239
Q

Choose correct

  • Definite host of cestodes causing bovine cysticercosis is the man
  • Definite host of cestodes causing bovine cysticercosis are carnivores
  • If we detect Trueperella pyogenes from ine single organ, only the affected organ shall be condemned and the other parts of the carcass can be declared fit for human consumption
  • If we detect Trueperella pyogenes from one single organ, only the whole carcass shall be declared unfit for human consumption
A
  • Definite host of cestodes causing bovine cysticercosis is the man
  • If we detect Trueperella pyogenes from ine single organ, only the affected organ shall be condemned and the other parts of the carcass can be declared fit for human consumption
240
Q

Choose correct

  • In case of suspected Anthrax infection, an immediate slaughter of the affected animals shall be ordered
  • In case of suspected anthrax infection, the animals must not be slaughtered
  • If FMD is confirmed at the slaughterhouse, all susceptible animals present at the slaughterhouse shall be slaughtered according to the rules of immediate slaughter
  • If FMD is confrmed at the slaughterhouse, all suscpetible animals present at the slaughterhouse shall be killed
A
  • In case of suspected anthrax infection, the animals must not be slaughtered
  • If FMD is confrmed at the slaughterhouse, all susceptible animals present at the slaughterhouse shall be killed
241
Q

Choose correct

  • The health mark (meat stampin) shall be included the approval number of the concerned establshment, but it is not included in the identification marking
  • Both the health mark and the identification marking shall include the approval number of the concerned establishment
  • Microbiological spoilage of ice-cooled fish is caused mainly by Pseudomonas species
  • Microbiological spoilage of ice-cooled fish is caused mainly by Staphylococcus species
A
  • Both the health mark and the identification marking shall include the approval number of the concerned establishment
  • Microbiological spoilage of ice-cooled fish is caused mainly by Pseudomonas species
242
Q

Choose correct

  • Food safety expresses tha the food is harmless for human consumption
  • Food hygiene expresses that the food is harmless for human consumption
  • The acid resistance of verotoxin-producing strains is higher than other E.coli strains
  • The acid resistance of verotoxin-producing strains is lower than other E.coli strains
A
  • Food safety expresses tha the food is harmless for human consumption
  • The acid resistance of verotoxin-producing strains is higher than other E.coli strains
243
Q

Choose correct

  • Class A eggs shall be cooled at a temperature <5 degrees celsius in the egg packaging centre in order to prevent bacterial contamination
  • Class A eggs must not be cooled artificially in the egg packing centre
  • Broken eggs must not be used for human consumption
  • Broken eggs can pnly be used for manufacture of heat-treated egg products
A
  • Class A eggs must not be cooled artificially in the egg packing centre
  • Broken eggs must not be used for human consumption
244
Q

Choose correct

  • The serotypes of Salmonella causing typhus in animals are capable if inducing disease in humans
  • The serotypes of Salmonella causing typhus in animals are not capable of inducing disease in humans
  • The raw fermented meat products can be stored at room temperature
  • The raw fermented meat products shall be stored chilled
A
  • The serotypes of Salmonella causing typhus in animals are not capable of inducing disease in humans
  • The raw fermented meat products shall be stored chilled
245
Q

Choose correct

  • In general, the heat resistance of microorganisms redcues at the water activity decreases
  • In general, the heat resistance of microorganisms increases as the water activity decreases
  • In cattle, the spinal cord is classified as SRM irrespecitve of the animals age
  • In cattle, the spinal cord s classed as SRM in animals > 12 months of age
A
  • In general, the heat resistance of microorganisms increases as the water activity decreases
  • In cattle, the spinal cord s classed as SRM in animals > 12 months of age
246
Q

Choose correct

  • In the EU, chloramphenicol is prohibited for growth promotion, but can be used for therapy in food producing animals
  • In the EU, chloramphenicol is not allowed for use in the food-producing animals at all
  • Ochratoxins are produced under temperate climate conditions
  • Ochratoxins can only be produced under hot climate conditions
A
  • In the EU, chloramphenicol is not allowed for use in the food-producing animals at all
  • Ochratoxins are produced under temperate climate conditions
247
Q

Choose correct

  • Campylobacters are thermophlic bacteria that cannot grow below 30 degrees celsius
  • Campylobacters are psychrophlic bacteria that can still grow below 5 degrees celsius
  • The “Hamburger-disease” is caused by verotoxin-producing E.coli
  • The “Hamburger-disease” is caused by Listeria monocytogenes
A
  • Campylobacters are thermophlic bacteria that cannot grow below 30 degrees celsius
  • The “Hamburger-disease” is caused by verotoxin-producing E.coli
248
Q

Choose correct

  • The smoked taste of the product can also be produced by direct adding of fluid smoke
  • Listeria monocytogenes is inhibited by using NO2 in the meat industry
  • Listeria monocytogenes are rather resistant to heat, they can survive the pasteurization
  • Listeria monocytogenes are sensitive to heat, they are definitely killed by pasteurizaton
A
  • The smoked taste of the product can also be produced by direct adding of fluid smoke
  • Listeria monocytogenes are sensitive to heat, they are definitely killed by pasteurizaton
249
Q

What base preservation effect of salting?

  • Increasing water holding capacity of the meat
  • Decreasing the water activity of meat

Which process significant role in the durability of cured, smoked, raw meat products?

  • Drying during the ripening
  • Heat treatment during the manufacturing
A
  • Decreasing the water activity of meat
  • Drying during the ripening
250
Q

What is the consequence if a long ripening period is used during the production of traditional raw sausages?

  • The salt concentration is increased in the product
  • The growth of the useful microbes is increased in the product

The results of the membrane filtration of 100ml of water was 58 colonies. What is the microbial count of the sample?

  • 5.8 cfu/ml
  • 0.58 cfu/ml
A
  • The salt concentration is increased in the product
  • 0.58 cfu/ml
251
Q

Which methods are used for investigation of drinking water?

  • Pour plate and end point dilution methods
  • Pour plate and membrane filtration methods

What is the role of the added water during the production of red meat products?

  • It has a temperature control effect
  • It increases the volume only
A
  • Pour plate and membrane filtration methods
  • It has a temperature control effect
252
Q

What microorganisms are characteristic to spoilage of food which have neutral pH and high water activity?

  • Moulds
  • Bacteria

What does the term “facultative anaerobic bacteria” mean?

  • The bacterium grows only in the presence of oxygen
  • The bacterium also grows in the presence and absence of oxygen
A
  • Bacteria
  • The bacterium also grows in the presence and absence of oxygen
253
Q

Choose correct

  • The marking of eggs is also necessary in case of small-scale scale
  • The marking of eggs refers to the type of farming method of the laying hens
  • Milk collecting centres are not subject to approval because these are part of the primary production
  • Milk houses are not subject to approval because these are parts of the primary production
A
  • The marking of eggs refers to the type of farming method of the laying hens
  • Milk houses are not subject to approval because these are parts of the primary production
254
Q

Choose correct

  • The toxin produced by S.aureus in the food is a neurotoxin that causes flaccid paralysis of the muscles
  • The toxin of S.aureus in the food is an emetic one
  • The current meat inspection rules are included in the regulation 854/2004/EC
  • The current meat inspection rules are included in the regulation 627/2019/EU
A
  • The toxin produced by S.aureus in the food is a neurotoxin that causes flaccid paralysis of the muscles
  • The current meat inspection rules are included in the regulation 627/2019/EU
255
Q

Choose correct

  • The total plate count at 30 degrees celsius in raw cows milk is max 100,000/ml
  • The total plate count at 30 degrees celsius in raw cows milk is max 400,000/ml
  • Campylobacters are rather resistant to heat, they can survive the pasteurization
  • Campylobacters are sensitive to heat, they are definitely killed by pasteurization
A
  • The total plate count at 30 degrees celsius in raw cows milk is max 100,000/ml
  • Campylobacters are sensitive to heat, they are definitely killed by pasteurization
256
Q

Choose correct

  • In food processing plants, water of drinking water quality shall be used for hand washing and cleaning as well
  • In food processing plants, water of drinking of non-potable quality can be used for hand washing and cleaning
  • The acidic smell and taste of heat-treated meat products is mainly caused by lactobacilli
  • The acidic smell and taste of heat-treated products is caused mainly be pseudomonas
A
  • In food processing plants, water of drinking water quality shall be used for hand washing and cleaning as well
  • The acidic smell and taste of heat-treated meat products is mainly caused by lactobacilli
257
Q

Choose correct

  • If the meat inspection reveals a generalized infection, the meat is unfit for human consumption irrespective of the causative agent
  • If the meat inspection reveals a generalized infection, the decision depends on the causative agent detected
  • Retail distribution of foodstuffs of animal origin shall be regulated nationally
  • Retail distribution of foodstuffs of animal origin is regulated at regulation 853/2004/EC
A
  • If the meat inspection reveals a generalized infection, the meat is unfit for human consumption irrespective of the causative agent
  • Retail distribution of foodstuffs of animal origin shall be regulated nationally
258
Q

Choose correct

  • In case of localized, single-cyst cysticercosis in cattle, only the affected parts shall be condemned and other parts may be declared fit for human consumption after cold treatment
  • In case of localized, single-cyst cysticercosis in cattle, only the affected parts shall be condemned and other parts may be declared fit for human consumption without treatment
  • Campylobacter jejuni cannot get into the egg through its pores causing a secondary contamination of it
  • Campylobacter jejuni can get into the egg through its pores causing a second contamination of it
A
  • In case of localized, single-cyst cysticercosis in cattle, only the affected parts shall be condemned and other parts may be declared fit for human consumption after cold treatment
  • Campylobacter jejuni cannot get into the egg through its pores causing a secondary contamination of it
259
Q

Choose correct

  • Thermisation is a gentle heat treatment after which the phosphatase test remains positive
  • Thermisation is a mild pasteurization after which the phosphatase test becomes negative
  • The microbiological regulation of the EU diffferentiates food safety and process hygiene criteria
  • The microbiological regulation of the EU differentitates food hygiene and food quality criteria
A
  • Thermisation is a gentle heat treatment after which the phosphatase test remains positive
  • The microbiological regulation of the EU diffferentiates food safety and process hygiene criteria
260
Q

Choose correct

  • The toxin produced by S.auerus in the food is heat resistant and can only be inactivated by long boiling
  • The botulinum toxin is heat resistant and can only be inactivated by long boiling
  • The efficacy of chlorine-causing disinfectants is increased by the elevation of temperature
  • The efficacy of chlorine-containing disinfectants is decreased by the elevation of temperature
A
  • The toxin produced by S.auerus in the food is heat resistant and can only be inactivated by long boiling
  • The efficacy of chlorine-containing disinfectants is decreased by the elevation of temperature
261
Q

Choose correct

  • Main source of human foodborne viral diseases is the meat contaminated wth the faeces of animals at the slaughterhouse
  • The most important cause of human foodborne viral diseases is the violation of the rules of personal hygiene
  • The minimum water activity of Pseudomonas species causing frequent spoilage of fresh meat is high
  • The minimum water activity of Pseudomonas species causing frequent spoilage of fresh meat is low
A
  • The most important cause of human foodborne viral diseases is the violation of the rules of personal hygiene
  • The minimum water activity of Pseudomonas species causing frequent spoilage of fresh meat is high
262
Q

Choose correct

  • For slow curing with dry salting, exclusively a nitrite-containing curing salt may be used
  • For slow curing with dry salting, exclusively a nitrate-containing curing salt may be used
  • Pig meat placed on the market without health (meat stamp) marking shall be declared unfit for human consumption
  • Poultry meat placed on the market without health (meat stamp) marking shall be declared unfit for human consumption
A
  • For slow curing with dry salting, exclusively a nitrate-containing curing salt may be used
  • Pig meat placed on the market without health (meat stamp) marking shall be declared unfit for human consumption
263
Q

Choose correct

  • In pigs, the fact that the meat is fit for human consumption is expressed by the application of the health mark (meat stamp)
  • In pigs, the fact that the meat is fit for human consumption is expressed by the application of the identity mark
    -As part of the routine meat inspection of pigs, the submaxillary lymph nodes need not be inspected by incision
  • As part of the routine meat inspection of pigs, the submaxillary lymph nodes shall be sliced to exclude tuberculosis
A
  • In pigs, the fact that the meat is fit for human consumption is expressed by the application of the health mark (meat stamp)
    -As part of the routine meat inspection of pigs, the submaxillary lymph nodes need not be inspected by incision
264
Q

Choose correct

  • As part of the routine meat inspection of cattle >8 months old, the masseters shall be inspected by incision
  • As part of the routine meat inspection of pigs, the masseters shall be inspected by incision
  • Any food intended for mass catering shall be prepared through safe heat treatment
  • Any food intended for mass catering shall be prepared through heat treatment at temperatures exceeding 100 degrees celsius
A
  • As part of the routine meat inspection of cattle >8 months old, the masseters shall be inspected by incision
  • Any food intended for mass catering shall be prepared through safe heat treatment
265
Q

Choose correct

  • After slaughter, the carcasses of mammals should be chlled to a temperature of <4 degrees
  • After slaughter, the carcasses of mammals should be chilled to a temperature of <7 degrees
  • After slaughter, the carcasses of poultry should be chille to a temperature of <4 degrees
  • After slaughter, the carcasses of poultry should be chilled to a temperature of <7 degrees
A
  • After slaughter, the carcasses of mammals should be chilled to a temperature of <7 degrees
  • After slaughter, the carcasses of poultry should be chille to a temperature of <4 degrees
266
Q

Choose correct

  • Cheeses made from raw milk may pose higher microbological risk than those made from pasteurized milk
  • Cheeses made from raw milk may pose lower microbiological risk than those made from pasteurized milk
  • For preservation of foods with a pH < 4.5, a heat treatment at 121.1 degree celsius is needed
  • For preservation of foods with a pH <4.5, a heat treatment of < 100 degree celsius is sufficient
A
  • Cheeses made from raw milk may pose higher microbological risk than those made from pasteurized milk
  • For preservation of foods with a pH < 4.5, a heat treatment at 121.1 degree celsius is needed
267
Q

Choose correct

  • At the slaughterhouse, pigs shall only be bled in a suspended position
  • In a small capacity slaughterhouse, pigs can also be bled in a horizontal position
  • Caseins are produced in the udder
  • Caseins originate from the blood
A
  • At the slaughterhouse, pigs shall only be bled in a suspended position
  • Caseins are produced in the udder
268
Q

Choose correct

  • Chlorinated hydrocarbons are hghly lipid soluble compounds with a tendency to persist in the environment
  • Organophosphates are highly lipid soluble compounds with a tendency to persist in the environment
  • Pyrethroids are persisting compounds in the enviroment
  • Pyrethroids do not persist in the environment
A
  • Chlorinated hydrocarbons are hghly lipid soluble compounds with a tendency to persist in the environment
  • Pyrethroids do not persist in the environment
269
Q

Choose correct

  • Nitrites can enter into reaction with amines forming nitrosamines
  • Nitrates can enter into reaction with amines forming nitrosamines
  • Pigs can be health marked before the results of the Trichinella test are available
  • Pigs must not be health-marked before the results of Trichinella test are available
A
  • Nitrites can enter into reaction with amines forming nitrosamines
  • Pigs can be health marked before the results of the Trichinella test are available
270
Q

Choose correct

  • After bleeding, the pH of the muscle tissue of cattle decreases faster to the final pH than in pigs
  • After bleeding, the pH of the muscle tissue of pigs decrease faster to the final pH than in cattle
  • Abnormal prions are heat senstitive proteins that can be inactivated at 80 degree celsisu within 10 minutes
  • Abnormal prions are heat resistant peptides that can be destroyed at 133 degree celsius and 3 bar pressure only
A
  • After bleeding, the pH of the muscle tissue of pigs decrease faster to the final pH than in cattle
  • Abnormal prions are heat resistant peptides that can be destroyed at 133 degree celsius and 3 bar pressure only
271
Q

Choose correct

-As part of the routine meat inspection of cattle < 8 months old, the heart shall be opened lenghtways
- As a part of the routine meat inspection of pigs, the heart shall be opened lenghtways
- Evisceration is a critical step of poultry slaughter in terms of HACCP
- Chilling is a ciritical step of poultry slaughter in terms of HACCP

A

-As part of the routine meat inspection of cattle < 8 months old, the heart shall be opened lenghtways
- Chilling is a ciritical step of poultry slaughter in terms of HACCP

272
Q

Choose correct

  • The shellfish may become poisonous due to ingestion of biotoxin-producing planktons
  • The shellfish may become poisonous due to ingestion of mycotoxin-producing planktons
    -The rules of small-scale production of foods of animal origin are regulated on EU level
  • The rules of small-scale production of foods of animal origin shall be determined nationally
A
  • The shellfish may become poisonous due to ingestion of biotoxin-producing planktons
  • The rules of small-scale production of foods of animal origin shall be determined nationally
273
Q

Choose correct

  • Wholesale distribution of foodstuffs is regulated on EU level
  • Wholesale distribution of foodstuffs shall be regulated nationally
  • Salmonellae are mesophilic organisms
  • Salmonellae are thermophilic organisms
  • Cold smoking is more effective against moulds than against bacteria
  • Cold smoking is less effective against moulds than against bacteria
A
  • Wholesale distribution of foodstuffs is regulated on EU level
  • Salmonellae are mesophilic organisms
  • Cold smoking is less effective against moulds than against bacteria
274
Q

Organoleptic changes of meat

  • Affect meat quality
  • Only mean quality problems
  • Indicate a need for decision on fitness for human consumption
  • Always mean safety problems
A
  • Affect meat quality
  • Indicate a need for decision on fitness for human consumption
275
Q

In case of insufficient bleeding

  • Reason could be heart disorders
  • Meat is generally unfit for consumption
  • There is always a foreign odor as well
  • There is no effect on fitness for human consumption
A
  • Meat is generally unfit for consumption
  • There is always a foreign odor as well
276
Q

What manufacturing steps are necessary for the appropriate general processing hygiene of heat-treated vegetables

  • The manufacturing line should be disinfected minimum weekly
  • The canned tomatoes were sterlized before put into cans
  • Weekly cleaning of the internal pipe lines, fittings, storage vessels is satisfactory wthout disinfection
  • The sterilization of the canned tomatoes happened within the closed cans
A
  • The manufacturing line should be disinfected minimum weekly
  • The sterilization of the canned tomatoes happened within the closed cans
277
Q

African Swine Fever (ASF)

  • It is not possible to differentiate ASF and CSF by clinical or post-mortem examination
  • Animals showing symptoms shall be slaughtered immediately in seperate slaughter
  • Whole body is unfit for consumption
  • Except for the affected organ or part and its associated lymph nodes, the meat is fit for human consumption after heat treatment
A
  • It is not possible to differentiate ASF and CSF by clinical or post-mortem examination
  • Whole body is unfit for consumption
278
Q

Classical Swine Fever (CSF)

  • Animals showng symptoms cannot be slaughtered
  • Animals showing symptoms shall be slaughtered immediately in closed slaughter
  • Animals showing symptoms shall be slaughtered immediately in seperate slaughter
  • Whole body is unfit for consumption
A
  • Animals showng symptoms cannot be slaughtered
  • Whole body is unfit for consumption
279
Q

Paseturellosis

  • The whole body is unfit for consumption due to bacterial dispersal
  • In rabbits, only the respiratory organs are affected, therefore meat is fit for consumption
  • In poultry (fowl cholera) the ill animals shall be slaughtered seperately
  • In poultry (fowl cholera) the animals suspected of having the disease could be slaughtered seperately
A
  • The whole body is unfit for consumption due to bacterial dispersal
  • In poultry (fowl cholera) the animals suspected of having the disease could be slaughtered seperately
280
Q

Tularemia

  • The whole body is unfit for consumption
  • If only the liver is affected, the meat of the rabbit is fit for consumption
  • If localized, only the affected organ or aprt and its associated lymph nodes should be declared unfit for human consumption
  • The significance of the meat inspection is given by its zoonotic nature
A
  • The whole body is unfit for consumption
  • The significance of the meat inspection is given by its zoonotic nature
281
Q

Icterus

  • The intima of large blood vessels is yellow
  • It could only be excluded with a cooking test
  • If still present after 24 hours, the meat is still fit for human consumption
  • It is always a pathological process behind, which should be taken into accounting during decision making
A
  • The intima of large blood vessels is yellow
  • It is always a pathological process behind, which should be taken into accounting during decision making
282
Q

What is the difference between yeast dough and sourdough pasta?

-The sourdough pasta has lower pH value, and therefore more acidic taste and more stable, than yeast dough pasta
- There is a difference in the microflora, as in the case of sourdough pasta, there is also other microbes present beside Saccharomyces cerevisiae, namely Laxtobacillus, Leuconostoc, Pediococcus spp.
- The yeast dough pasta has lower pH value, and therefore more acidic taste and more stable, than the sourdough pasta
- There is a difference in the microflora, as in the case of yeast dough pasta, there is also other microbes present beside Saccharomyces cerevisiae, namely Lactobacillus, Leuconostoc, Pediococcus spp.

A

-The sourdough pasta has lower pH value, and therefore more acidic taste and more stable, than yeast dough pasta
- There is a difference in the microflora, as in the case of sourdough pasta, there is also other microbes present beside Saccharomyces cerevisiae, namely Laxtobacillus, Leuconostoc, Pediococcus spp.

283
Q

What is the Administrative Assistance and Cooperation system?

  • IT tool
  • Group of appointed representative of Member states
  • The goal is to exchange information in relation to food fraud
  • The goal is to exchange information in unsafe food
A
  • IT tool
  • The goal is to exchange information in relation to food fraud
284
Q

Which statement is true about swine erysipelas?

  • It usually causes generalized urticaria and septicaemia in humans
  • In most cases it is an occupational hazard
  • It is caused by streptococcus pyogenes
  • In chronic cases, the whole carcass of the pig is unfit for human consumption
A
  • In most cases it is an occupational hazard
  • In chronic cases, the whole carcass of the pig is unfit for human
285
Q

Which of these documents are always checked during the official control of an establishment producing foods of plant origin

  • Staffs general health status
  • The founding document of the given company
  • Documents of insect and rodent control
  • Certificates of work experiences of the staff
A
  • Staffs general health status
  • Documents of insect and rodent control
286
Q

PSE meat

  • could be placed on the market as fo decreased value
  • If the extent is small, it could be placed on the market
  • Is suitbale for consumption
  • Is an effect of stress
A
  • Is suitbale for consumption
  • Is an effect of stress
287
Q

Which lack of elements can cause mainly calcification disorders in eggs?

  • Ca
  • Fe
  • P
  • Se
A
  • Ca
  • P
288
Q

During the mincing and mixing of meat

  • a vacuum is created to slow the deterioration
  • oxygen-rich conditions are created against germination of anaerobic spores (e.g., Clostridium perfringens)
  • the meat mass is heated to 30-35 C for better mixing of the ingredients
  • the meat mass is chlled to reduce microbiological risk
A
  • oxygen-rich conditions are created against germination of anaerobic spores (e.g., Clostridium perfringens)
  • the meat mass is chlled to reduce microbiological risk
289
Q

Rabies

  • Animals showing symptoms cannot be slaughtered
  • Animals showing symptoms can be slaughtered in closed slaughter
  • Except for the central nervous system and the biting site, the meat is fit for consumption
  • Lethal zoonosis, high public health significance
A
  • Animals showing symptoms cannot be slaughtered
  • Lethal zoonosis, high public health significance
290
Q

In case of systemic dispersal of microbes

  • The whole body is unfit for human consumption
  • One symptom can be the septicaemic haemorhagges in the skin
  • If haemorrhages are found in the lungs, the meat is unfit for consumption
  • Only in the case of pyaemia, the meat is unfit for consumption
A
  • The whole body is unfit for human consumption
  • One symptom can be the septicaemic haemorhagges in the skin
291
Q

Food and mouth (FMD)

  • If confirmed at the slaughterhouse, the animals shall be slaughtered seperately
  • Whole body is unfit for consumption
  • The significance of the meat inspection is given by its zoonotic nature
  • Animals being diseased or suspected of being diseased must not be slaughtered
A
  • Whole body is unfit for consumption
  • Animals being diseased or suspected of being diseased must not be slaughtered
292
Q

Which pathogen is not zoonotic

  • Enterotoxic E. coli strains
  • Actinobacillus Pleuropneumoniae
  • Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae
  • 4th option (same one each exam, can’t remember at time of writing)
A
  • Actinobacillus Pleuropneumoniae
  • 4th option
293
Q

What are the responsibilities of the European Food Safety Authority/

  • Risk assessment
  • Control of requirements relating to food safety
  • Adoption of EU regulatons
  • Risk communication
A
  • Risk assessment
  • Risk communication
294
Q

Which activity could be fraudulent activity?

  • Online offered food
  • Unapproved enhancement
  • Processing of horse meat
  • Document forgery
A
  • Unapproved enhancement
  • Document forgery
295
Q

What microbes should be tested for egg products under Regulation (EC) No 2073/2005?

  • Salmonella
  • Enterobacteriaceae
  • Coagulase-positive Staphylococcus
  • E. coli
A
  • Salmonella
  • Enterobacteriaceae
296
Q

What is the x-axis and what is the y-axis on the heat penetration graph?

  • x-axis: time
  • y-axis: temperature
  • x-axis: temperature
  • y-axis: time
A
  • x-axis: time
  • y-axis: temperature
297
Q

What is the roles of smoking?

  • Preservation
  • Colour development
  • To fasten the oxidation process
  • To inhibit the toxin production of Clostridium botulinum
A
  • Preservation
  • Colour development
298
Q

What are the characterisitics of artificial casings from animal origin?

  • Their material is usually ceratine
  • Their material is usuually collagenin general
  • They are impermeable to smoke and moisture
  • They are digestible
A
  • Their material is usuually collagenin general
  • They are digestible
299
Q

Which microbial tests are required under Regulation (EC) No 2073/2005 for raw fermented meat products

  • Salmonella spp.
  • E.coli
  • Enterobacteriaceae
  • Listeria monocytogenes
A
  • Salmonella spp.
  • Listeria monocytogenes
300
Q

DFD meat

  • In case of pork meat, it is unfit for consumption
  • Is a quality issue, meat is fit for consumption
  • Must be placed on the marked as of decreased value
  • Usually is an effect of chronic stress before slaughter
A
  • Is a quality issue, meat is fit for consumption
  • Usually is an effect of chronic stress before slaughter
301
Q

In case of sexual odour of meat

  • Poultry meat if unfit for consumption
  • Pork meat is unfit for consumption in every case
  • If pronounced, meat is unfit for consumption
  • Official veterinarian shall determine the extent and make a decision on fitness for human consumption
A
  • If pronounced, meat is unfit for consumption
  • Official veterinarian shall determine the extent and make a decision on fitness for human consumption
302
Q

How changes the colour and how changes the form of myoglobin?

  • If myoglobin reacts with nitrite, the effect won’t be visible after heat treatment
  • If myoglobin reacts with oxygen, it will turn to oxymyoglobin, which is bright pink
  • If myoglobin has long exposure to oxygen, it won’t get brown colour, but stay bright pink
  • If myoglobin reacts with nitrite, it will form a nirtosomyoglobin, which is dark red and will turn to light pink after heat treatment
A
  • If myoglobin reacts with oxygen, it will turn to oxymyoglobin, which is bright pink
  • If myoglobin reacts with nitrite, it will form a nirtosomyoglobin, which is dark red and will turn to light pink after heat treatment
303
Q

OIE listed diseases

  • All have meat inspection significance
  • Only the ones on the A-list have meat inspection significance
  • Have public health or animal health significance
  • Not all have meat inspection significance
A
  • All have meat inspection significance
  • Have public health or animal health significance
304
Q

Which serotype is zoonotic?

  • Salmonella typhimurium
  • Salmonella typhi
  • Salmonella typhisuis
  • Salmonella infantis
A
  • Salmonella typhimurium
  • Salmonella infantis
305
Q

What factors are important for the modelling of heat treatment for canned foods?

  • The size of label on the can
  • Rate of heat penetration at the centre of the can
  • The origin of the food to be canned
  • pH of the food
A
  • Rate of heat penetration at the centre of the can
  • pH of the food
306
Q

Which is true?

  • The central competent authority shall prepare the official control plan
  • The local competent authority shall prepare the official control plan
  • There is not special requirements on the responsibilities of different levels of competent authorities in relation of planning of official controls
  • Competent authorities have to plan the official control on risk basis, regularly and with appropriate frequency
A
  • The central competent authority shall prepare the official control plan
  • Competent authorities have to plan the official control on risk basis, regularly and with appropriate frequency
307
Q

Which areas are within the scope of the regulation of 625/2017/EC?

  • Controls of requirements relating to food safety
  • Controls of requirements relating to animal health
  • Control of requirements relaitng to soil protection
  • Controls of requirements relating to producing of veterinary medicinal products
A
  • Controls of requirements relating to food safety
  • Controls of requirements relating to animal health
308
Q

What steps are belonging to the control of ready-to-eat products?

  • Microbiological analysis of applied spices
  • Controlling the packaging and labelling on plant based foods
  • Determination of damages caused by insects and/or rodents
  • Sensory analysis
A
  • Controlling the packaging and labelling on plant based foods
  • Sensory analysis
309
Q

In case of foreign odor of meat

  • Meat is unfit for consumption in every case
  • Is still present after 24 hours, the meat is unfit for consumption
  • It is possible to perform a cooking test for the decision on fitness for human consumption
  • A cooking test shall be performed for the decision on fitness for human consumption
A
  • Is still present after 24 hours, the meat is unfit for consumption
  • It is possible to perform a cooking test for the decision on fitness for human consumption
310
Q

In case of insufficient bleeding

  • Reason could be heart disorders
  • Meat is generally unfit for human consumption
  • There is always a foreign odour as well
  • There is no effect on fitness for human consumption
A
  • Meat is generally unfit for human consumption
  • There is always a foreign odour as well
311
Q

The inflammation of the intestines is not the main finding in which of these diseases

  • Salmonellosis
  • Listeriosis
  • Erysipelas of swine
  • Verotoxin-producing E. coli infection
A
  • Listeriosis
  • Erysipelas of swine
312
Q

Whichih regulations are in force in relation to official controls of feedstuffs

  • 882/2004/EC
  • 854/2004/EC
  • 178/2002/EC
  • 625/2017/EC
A
  • 178/2002/EC
  • 625/2017/EC
313
Q

Which of these are critical control points in case of cooked ham production?

  • Injection of brine
  • Tumbling
  • Heat processing
  • Cooling down
A
  • Heat processing
  • Cooling down
314
Q

Which is true?

-Official controls shall be performed more frequently in relation of food from third countries
- Official controls shall be performed with a high level of transparency
- Official controls shall be performed without prior notice
- It is not necessary to draw up written record of official controls

A
  • Official controls shall be performed with a high level of transparency
  • Official controls shall be performed without prior notice
315
Q

Where can the quality grading of eggs be carried out?

  • At the site of production
  • In the retail marked
  • In the egg packing plant
  • At the consumers before use
A
  • At the site of production
  • In the egg packing plant
316
Q

Which of the following statements are false about the semi-preserved cans?

  • Only heat treatment is used for the preservation
  • They can be stored in room temperature
  • They must be stored in the fridge
  • Even vegetative bacteria can survuve their heat treatment
A
  • Only heat treatment is used for the preservation
  • They can be stored in room temperature
317
Q

What is the role of nitrite salts in cured meat products?

  • Due to the addition of nitrite salts the multiplication of Clostridium botulinum is prohibited
  • It has an antioxidant effect: stabilizes the fat level and therefore decreases the possibilty of rancidity
  • They can be used to have heat resistant brown colour in meat
  • They form nitrosamines, which are good for human health even in high concentrations
A
  • Due to the addition of nitrite salts the multiplication of Clostridium botulinum is prohibited
  • It has an antioxidant effect: stabilizes the fat level and therefore decreases the possibilty of rancidity
318
Q

What are the disadvantages of natural casings?

  • They are indigestible
  • They are perishable
  • Preparation is time consuming
  • They are not permeable to smoke and vapor
A
  • They are indigestible
  • Preparation is time consuming
319
Q

The XL size eggs according to the 589/2008 regulation

  • <63g
  • > 63g
  • <73g
  • > 73g
A
  • > 63g
  • > 73g
320
Q

What manufacturing steps are necessary for the appropriate general processing hygiene of food of plant origin?

  • Protection of vegetables/fruits against protection the harmful effects of the environment (moisture, dust, sunshine, insect)
  • Washing, cleaning to remove soil, weeds, stones and other foreign materials
  • Computerized system is always needed to classify the vegetables/fruits according to the desirable colour
  • Computerized system is always needed to classify the vegetables/fruits accoridng to the desirable shape/size
A
  • Protection of vegetables/fruits against protection the harmful effects of the environment (moisture, dust, sunshine, insect)
  • Washing, cleaning to remove soil, weeds, stones and other foreign materials
321
Q

In case of organoleptic changes of meat

  • The meat is unfit for human consumption
  • The meat shall be placed on the markets as of decreased value
  • Additional laboratory examination might be needed for deciding on fitness for human consumption
  • Official veterinarian shall make a decision on fitness for human consumption, based on professional evidences
A
  • Additional laboratory examination might be needed for deciding on fitness for human consumption
  • Official veterinarian shall make a decision on fitness for human consumption, based on professional evidences
322
Q

The official veterinarian shall declare fresh meat unfit for human consumption if it

  • Derives from animals affected by a generalized disease, such as generalized septicaemia, pyaemia or viraemia
  • It is declared based on Commission Regulation 854/2004/EC
  • It is declared unfit based on the Commission Implementing Regulation (EU) 2019/627
  • Additional laboratory examination cannot be performed
A
  • Derives from animals affected by a generalized disease, such as generalized septicaemia, pyaemia or viraemia
  • It is declared unfit based on the Commission Implementing Regulation (EU) 2019/627
323
Q

Tuberculosis

  • The whole body is unfit for human consumpton
  • If localized, only the affected organi or part should be declared unfit for human consumption
  • If localized, only the affected organ or part and its associated lymph nodes should be declared unfit for human consumption
  • if suspected, diagnostic slaughter shall be performed and sample sent to laboratory exam
A
  • If localized, only the affected organ or part and its associated lymph nodes should be declared unfit for human consumption
  • if suspected, diagnostic slaughter shall be performed and sample sent to laboratory exam
324
Q

Which belongs to the four criteria of agri-food fraud?

  • Intention
  • Food safety risk
  • Deception of consumer
  • Non-compliance in relation on export requirements of third country
A
  • Intention
  • Deception of consumer
325
Q

What flaws traditional meat inspection?

  • Post-mortem inspection (e.g., incision of lymph nodes) could increase cross-contamination between different organs and consecutive carcasses
  • Organoleptic judgments are objective
  • It is mainly based on final product control rather than considering the whole meat chain
  • It is a process based apporach
A
  • Post-mortem inspection (e.g., incision of lymph nodes) could increase cross-contamination between different organs and consecutive carcasses
  • It is a process based apporach
326
Q

Highly Pathogenic Avian Influenza (HPAI)

  • Birds showing symptoms shall be slaughtered separately
  • Birds showing symptoms shall be slaughtered in closed slaughter
  • Infected animals cannot be slaughtered
  • Whole body is unfit for consumption
A
  • Infected animals cannot be slaughtered
  • Whole body is unfit for consumption
327
Q

Which findings make egg unfit for human consumption?

  • Parasite
  • Foreign body
  • Meat spot
  • Contaminated shell
A
  • Parasite
  • Foreign body
328
Q

Which methods are used to check the leakage after the storability tests?

  • Bubbles when squeezed under water
  • One end flips out when the can is struck against scold object but snaps back to the normal under light pressure
  • Disappearance of vacuum (concavity) when heated to 38 C followed by slow cooling
  • Bulging of both can ends
A
  • Bubbles when squeezed under water
  • Disappearance of vacuum (concavity) when heated to 38 C followed by slow cooling
329
Q

Which manufacturing steps of sausage production were part of our practical?

  • Mincing of pork and shoulder and back fat
  • Stuffing
  • Smoking
  • Ripening
A
  • Mincing of pork and shoulder and back fat
  • Stuffing
330
Q

Which of these statements are right for smoking?

  • Cold smoking is below 20 C
  • It can only be contribute to aroma development and will not change the taste of the product
  • Liquid smoke is easy to handly and even environment friendly
  • Warm smoking is between 20-60 C
A
  • Cold smoking is below 20 C
  • Liquid smoke is easy to handly and even environment friendly
331
Q

Which findings make the egg unfit for human consumption?

  • Blood ring
  • Blood spot
  • Dented
  • Broken
A
  • Blood ring
  • Broken
332
Q

Anthrax

  • The whole body is always unfit for human consumption
  • The body shall be buried immediately
  • In pigs, when only the throat is affected, the rest of the body is fit for consumption
  • In case of suspicion, the animal cannot be slaughtered
A
  • The whole body is always unfit for human consumption
  • In case of suspicion, the animal cannot be slaughtered
333
Q

Animals showng symptoms of a generalized disease

  • Cannot be slaughtered for human consumption
  • Their meat can only be fit for consumption after additional laboratory examination
  • Shall be transported back to the farm due to prohibition of slughter
  • Their meat is unfit for consumption
A
  • Cannot be slaughtered for human consumption
  • Their meat is unfit for consumption
334
Q

Which statement is true about Yersinia enterocolitica?

  • Animals are usually asymptomatic carriers of the bacterium
  • Poultry meat is the most important source of infection
  • It is psychrophilic
  • It usually causes generalized dermatitis in humans
A
  • Animals are usually asymptomatic carriers of the bacterium
  • It is psychrophilic
335
Q

Cysticercosis

  • Meat infected must be declared unfit for human consumption
  • Meat infected must be declared unfit for human consumption only in case of cattle
  • If the animal does not suffer from generalized cysticercosis, the unaffected parts may be declared fit for human consumption after having undergone freezing treatment
  • Consuming infected meat does not pose public health risk, since humans could only be infected from carnivores
A
  • Meat infected must be declared unfit for human consumption
  • If the animal does not suffer from generalized cysticercosis, the unaffected parts may be declared fit for human consumption after having undergone freezing treatment
336
Q

Who are members of the Rapid Alert System for Food and Feed?

  • Member states
  • European parliament
  • European commission
  • Council
A
  • Member states
  • European commission
337
Q

How have to plan the official controls based on 625/2017/EC regulation?

  • Competent authorities have to plan the official controls on a risk bass, regularly and with appropriate frequency
  • Competent authorities have to plan the official controls on risk basis, regularly and with apprpriate frequency to identify possible intentional violations
  • Competent authorities have to plan the official controls on the basis on the human resources
  • Competent authorities have to plan the official controls on the basis on the financial resources
A
  • Competent authorities have to plan the official controls on a risk bass, regularly and with appropriate frequency
  • Competent authorities have to plan the official controls on risk basis, regularly and with apprpriate frequency to identify possible intentional violations
338
Q

Which are those moulds in warehouse damaging wheat grains and corn most often?

  • Aspergillus spp
  • Penicillium spp
  • Mucor spp
  • Rhizopus spp
A
  • Aspergillus spp
  • Penicillium spp
339
Q

What is the Rapid Alert System for Food and Feed?

  • IT tool
  • Group of appointed representative of Member States
  • The goal is to exchange informaton in relation to food fraud
  • The goal is to exchange information in unsafe food
A
  • IT tool
  • The goal is to exchange information in unsafe food
340
Q

What kind of results have to be taken account of, during the planning of official controls, based on the regulation 625/2017/EC?

  • Results of official controls carried out earlier
  • Results of economic analysis
  • Results of own controls carried out by food business operator
  • Results of parliamentary elections
A
  • Results of official controls carried out earlier
  • Results of own controls carried out by food business operator
341
Q

Which steps are part of the preparation of raw, smoked and fermented meat products?

  • Deboning
  • Protein content measurement
  • Trichinella examination
  • Cutting and sometimes pre-chilling of the meat
A
  • Deboning
  • Protein content measurement
  • Trichinella examination
  • Cutting and sometimes pre-chilling of the meat
342
Q

What is the difference between salting and curing?

  • In case of salting only pure sodium chloride is applied
  • Salting can be only dry salting
  • In case of curing other additives than NaCl are also used
  • Curing can be only wet curing
A
  • In case of salting only pure sodium chloride is applied
  • In case of curing other additives than NaCl are also used
343
Q

What materials can be used beside metals for canning food?

  • Thermostable plastic
  • Recycled paper
  • Glass
  • Cardboard
A
  • Thermostable plastic
  • Glass
344
Q

Paratuberculosis

  • The whole body of wild game is unfit for consumption
  • If not systemic only the affected organs are unfit for consumption
  • May lead to emaciation and then the whole body is unfit for consumption
  • No septicaemia is developed so there is no effect on public health
A
  • If not systemic only the affected organs are unfit for consumption
  • May lead to emaciation and then the whole body is unfit for consumption
345
Q

Brucellosis

  • The whole body is unfit for consumption
  • If localized, only the affected organ or part should be declared unfit for human consumption
  • The genitals, mammary gland and blood are unfit, even if no lesions are visible during diagnostic slaughter
  • Only investigation for the presence of B. abortus shall be performed
A
  • The whole body is unfit for consumption
  • The genitals, mammary gland and blood are unfit, even if no lesions are visible during diagnostic slaughter
346
Q

What is true about zoonotic Salmonella serotypes?

  • In most cases they do not cause a disease in slaughter animals
  • In most cases they cause septicaemia in slaughter animals
  • They can cause enteritis, even septicaemia in young animals
  • The carcasses of animals showng the signs and symptoms of Salmonellosis are fit for human consumption only after heat treatment
A
  • In most cases they do not cause a disease in slaughter animals
  • They can cause enteritis, even septicaemia in young animals
347
Q

What is true about the F0 value?

  • It describes the heat resistance of microbe species
  • It means the necessary time to reduce the microbial population with one magnitude
  • It is characteristic to the heat treatment process
  • The minimum requirement of heat treatment is set to achieve 12 magnitudes reduction of Cl. botulinum spores (if pH > 4.5)
A
  • It means the necessary time to reduce the microbial population with one magnitude
  • The minimum requirement of heat treatment is set to achieve 12 magnitudes reduction of Cl. botulinum spores (if pH > 4.5)
348
Q

How did we judge the colour changes after curing?

  • With our human eyes and with instrumental analysis
  • Only with subjective method
  • Both with subjective and objective methods
  • Only with objectve method
A
  • With our human eyes and with instrumental analysis
  • Both with subjective and objective methods
349
Q

Yellow colour disorders

  • Are always pathological
  • Can be of alimentary (feed) origin
  • If of non-contagious origin, the meat is fit for consumption
  • Mean that the possibility of bacterial spread shall be taken into account during decision making
A
  • Can be of alimentary (feed) origin
  • If of non-contagious origin, the meat is fit for consumption
350
Q

Echinococcus granulosus

  • The animals infected cannot be slaughtered
  • The meat is fit for consumption except for the affected parts
  • The infection is zoonotic, but humans may be infested only by eggs released by carnivores
  • The liver unfit for human consumption can only be given as feed to dogs
A
  • The meat is fit for consumption except for the affected parts
  • The infection is zoonotic, but humans may be infested only by eggs released by carnivores
351
Q

Which institutes adopt the regulations during the co-decision procedure?

  • European parliament
  • European commission
  • European Food Safety Authority
  • EU Council
A
  • European parliament
  • EU Council
352
Q

What is typical of traditional raw sausage production technology?

  • They are produced with starter cultures
  • Lower water activity (<0.9) than fermented sausages
  • Higher pH (5.8-6) than fermented sausages
  • Some types contain added sugar
A
  • They are produced with starter cultures
  • Some types contain added sugar
353
Q

What curing procedures were applied in the technology lab?

  • Dry salting, during which we also appled black pepper beside salt to massage it into the given meat slice
  • Wet curing, in which we submerged the pork meat slice into the curing solution
  • Wet curing with needle injection, during which we have injected directly into pork meat slice
  • Tumbling, to prepare the meat for needle injection
A
  • Wet curing, in which we submerged the pork meat slice into the curing solution
  • Wet curing with needle injection, during which we have injected directly into pork meat slice
354
Q

What heat treatments are needed to kill spores?

  • 110C/30 min
  • 80 C/30 min
  • 121 C/3 min
  • 90 C/min
A
  • 110C/30 min
  • 121 C/3 min
355
Q

The XL size eggs accoridng to the 589/2008 regulation

  • They are Class A eggs
  • In case of small-scale producers t is not obligatory to use the producers code on their shells
  • It is always obligatory to use the producers code on their shells
  • They must be kept below 5 C during transportation and distribution
A
  • They are Class A eggs
  • In case of small-scale producers t is not obligatory to use the producers code on their shells
356
Q

Bovine Spongiform Encephalopathy (BSE)

  • Animals showing symptoms can be slaughtered in the presence of official veterinarian
  • Animals killed at a slaughterhouse and the cadavers shall be destroyed (incinerated) as SRM
  • All cattle have to be tested
  • Animals being diseased or suspected of being diseased or infected must not be slaughtered
A
  • Animals killed at a slaughterhouse and the cadavers shall be destroyed (incinerated) as SRM
  • Animals being diseased or suspected of being diseased or infected must not be slaughtered
357
Q

Can we measure the internal temperature during the heat treatment in the can?

  • This is possible with temperature loggers
  • This is possible without loggers with checking the pressure of the steam cooker
  • This is not possible as the cans are under vacuum during heat treatment
  • This is only possible if temperature is recorded by a small device which was put before closing into the food can
A
  • This is possible with temperature loggers
  • This is only possible if temperature is recorded by a small device which was put before closing into the food can
358
Q

What are the responsibilities of the European Commission?

  • Adoption of EU regulation in the framework of co-decision procedure
  • Preparation of legislative proposal
  • Representation of the interest of the EU
  • Scientific advice
A
  • Preparation of legislative proposal
  • Representation of the interest of the EU
359
Q

Trichinella

  • The meat of animals infected must be declared unfit for human consumption
  • Every pig shall be tested for presence
  • If the infection is minor, the meat of animals infected can be declared fit for human consumption, except for masseter muscle
  • Sample from wild boar shall be taken from the foreleg, tongue or diaphragm
A
  • The meat of animals infected must be declared unfit for human consumption
  • Sample from wild boar shall be taken from the foreleg, tongue or diaphragm
360
Q

What parameters are checked to keep the technological hygiene of the plant processing manufacturing site?

  • Leavening time of bakery products
  • Storage/cooling conditions
  • Temperature, humidity
  • Respiration rate of vegetables/fruits
A
  • Storage/cooling conditions
  • Temperature, humidity
361
Q

For which animal species is scalding a characterisitic slaughter moment?

  • Sheep
  • Swine
  • Poultry
  • Rabbit
A
  • Swine
  • Poultry
362
Q

Which stunning procedures are typical for slaughtering sheep?

  • Electronarcosis with water immersion
  • Electronarcosis with stunning tongs
  • Carbon dioxide gas chamber
  • Mechanical stunning gun
A
  • Electronarcosis with stunning tongs
  • Mechanical stunning gun
363
Q

What is true for the food safety control system (inclduing meat inspection)?

  • The control system shall be scientific evidence-based, risk-based, process based and preventative
  • Meat inspection is a preventative measure
  • Meat inspection is a (final) check point in the series of control measures
  • We can control everything and achieve zero risk with appropriate control measures
A
  • The control system shall be scientific evidence-based, risk-based, process based and preventative
  • Meat inspection is a (final) check point in the series of control measures
364
Q

Which casing was used to stuff the peasant sausage manufactured during our practical?

  • Pork intestine
  • Sheep intestine
  • Edible collagen casing
  • Natural casing
A
  • Pork intestine
  • Edible collagen casing
365
Q

What are the criteria of egg products set by the 853/2004 EC regulation?

  • Below the limit E. coli
  • Absence of 3-OH-butyric acid
  • Below the lmit shell, shell membrane and other pieces
  • 4th option
A
  • Below the lmit shell, shell membrane and other pieces
  • 4th option
366
Q

Which of these hygienic requirements are essential in the bottling and bottle washing areas?

  • The wall and the ceilng should be clean, to avoid the contamination of the products
  • To provide clean and white working clothes, appropriate handwashing, restroom
  • The temperatures of these areas, which can not exceed 10 degrees
  • Staff can work only wearing fixed earring and head protection, so that the product can not be damaged or contaminated during filling and packaging
A
  • The wall and the ceilng should be clean, to avoid the contamination of the products
  • To provide clean and white working clothes, appropriate handwashing, restroom
367
Q

What is true about the thermostat test of canned products?

  • Incubation is used to aid the growth and gas production of the surviving bacteria
  • A temperature logger is used to measure the core temperature of the cans
  • Any deformation of the cans mean insufficient treatment and unfit for human consumption
  • If the bulge can be pressed back, the can is fit for human consumption
A
  • Incubation is used to aid the growth and gas production of the surviving bacteria
  • Any deformation of the cans mean insufficient treatment and unfit for human consumption
368
Q

Which of these statements are right for tumbling?

  • A tumbler is applied right after needle injection
  • Tumbling the meat is necessary for both long and fast curing
  • It is a mechanical treatment of meat, which helps the efficiency of brine injection
  • It is a rotating vessel, which is massaging the meat if it is fast cured
A
  • It is a mechanical treatment of meat, which helps the efficiency of brine injection
  • It is a rotating vessel, which is massaging the meat if it is fast cured
369
Q

What are the advantages of plant-based casing?

  • Mechanical restraint
  • All of them are edible
  • They widen in water and shrinking when dried out
  • They are easily chewable
A
  • All of them are edible
  • They widen in water and shrinking when dried out
370
Q

What is the Food Fraud network?

  • IT tool
  • Group of appointed representative of Member states
  • The goal is to exchange informaton in relation to food fraud
  • The goal is to exchange information in unsafe food
A
  • IT tool
  • Group of appointed representative of Member states
371
Q

What is the effect of increasing NaCl concentration on water activity?

  • It is increasing the water activity
  • It is decreasing the water activity

Which sugar(s) can be fermented by Salmonella spp?

  • Glucose
  • Lactose

What happens to the redox potential of the medium during the bacteria’s multiplication?

  • It always increases
  • It always decreases
A
  • It is decreasing the water activity
  • Glucose
  • It always decreases
372
Q

What is the difference between UHT and ESL heat treatment? (only one correct)

  • The temperature
  • The time
  • The time and temperature
  • Just one of them can be used for the heat treatment of milk
A
  • The time and temperature
373
Q

What is the optimal temperature of the yoghurt culture? (only one correct)

  • 42-45 C
  • 27-30 C
  • 15-20 C
  • 32-37 C
A
  • 42-45 C
374
Q

Which microbes act in synergism in yoghurt products? (only one correct)

  • Lactobacillus delbruckii subsp. Bulgaricus and Saccharomyces cerevisiae
  • Bifidobacteria and Streptococcus thermpphilus
  • Bifidobacteria and Lactobacillus delbruckii subsp. Bulgaricus
  • Lactobacillus delburckii subsp. Bulgaricus and Streptococcus thermophillus
A
  • Lactobacillus delburckii subsp. Bulgaricus and Streptococcus thermophillus
375
Q

Choose correct? (only one)

  • Moulds usually require more water for their growth than bacteria
  • Yeasts usually require more water for their growth than bacteria
  • Viruses require more water for their growth than bacteria
  • Moulds usually require less water for their growth than bacteria
A
  • Moulds usually require less water for their growth than bacteria
376
Q

Choose correct? (only one)

  • Minced meat is more perishable because of its higher redox potential
  • Minced meat is perishable because of its lower redox potential
  • Minced meat is more perishable because of its lower water activity
  • Minced meat is more perishable because of its lower pH
A
  • Minced meat is more perishable because of its higher redox potential
377
Q

Choose correct

  • Codex Alimentarius is a global regulation system the professional, non-legal documents of which form the basis of the food hygiene legislation
  • Codex Alimentarius is an EU regulation system the legal instruments of which form the basis of the food hygiene legislation
  • In the EU, the current rules of food hygiene are based on directives of vertical nature
  • In the EU, the current rules of food hygiene are based on directives of horizontal nature
A
  • Codex Alimentarius is a global regulation system the professional, non-legal documents of which form the basis of the food hygiene legislation
  • In the EU, the current rules of food hygiene are based on directives of vertical nature
378
Q

Choose correct

  • HACCP includes general industry characteristics
  • GHP includes general industry characteristics
  • The GHP approach is plant and product specific
  • The HACCP system is plant and product specific
A
  • GHP includes general industry characteristics
  • The HACCP system is plant and product specific
379
Q

Choose correct

  • The number of viruses entering the food depends on environmental conditions
  • The number of viruses entering the food does not increase
  • Viruses can typically enter the food through secondary contamination
  • Viruses can typically enter the food through primary infection
A
  • The number of viruses entering the food does not increase
  • Viruses can typically enter the food through secondary contamination
380
Q

Choose correct

  • The potency of the sodium hydrochloride solution is more pronounced at acidic pH
  • The potency of the sodium hydrochloride solution is more pronounced at alkalinic pH
  • The potency of the sodium hydrochloride is more stable at acidic pH
  • The potency of the sodium hydrochloride solution is more stable at alkalinic pH
A
  • The potency of the sodium hydrochloride solution is more pronounced at acidic pH
  • The potency of the sodium hydrochloride is more stable at acidic pH
381
Q

Choose correct

  • Spoilage of raw marinated meat products is mainly caused by Gram + bacteria
  • Spoilage of raw marinated smoked meat products is mainly caused by Gram - bacteria
  • Spoilage of fresh meat is mainly caused by Gram + bacteria
  • Spoilage of fresh meats is mainly caused by Gram - bacteria
A
  • Spoilage of raw marinated meat products is mainly caused by Gram + bacteria
  • Spoilage of fresh meats is mainly caused by Gram - bacteria
382
Q

Choose correct

  • At lower water activity, deterioration marinated/smoked etc meat products is done by mainly Gram + bacteria
  • At lower water activity, deterioration marinated/smoked etc meat products is done by mainly Gram - bacteria
  • Deterioration of fresh meat caused mainly by Gram + bacteria
  • Deterioration of fresh meat caused mainly be Gram - bacteria
A
  • At lower water activity, deterioration marinated/smoked etc meat products is done by mainly Gram + bacteria
  • Deterioration of fresh meat caused mainly be Gram - bacteria
383
Q

Which examinations are to be carried out during the official control of shellfish?

  • Examination of faecal contamination of the production area
  • Measurement of histamine concentration
  • Testing for the biotoxin content of the shellfish
  • Measurement of the mercury concentration
A
  • Examination of faecal contamination of the production area
  • Testing for the biotoxin content of the shellfish
384
Q

Which method is used for separation of fresh eggs from non-fresh eggs?

  • Immersion of egg into water
  • Cooking test

Which is characteristic to natural casings which are used during the production of stuffed meat products?

  • They have good smoke permeability
  • They are well suited to automated system
A
  • Immersion of egg into water
  • They have good smoke permeability
385
Q

Which property is generally characteristic to Salmonella?

  • Production of hydrogen sulphide
  • Urea is decomposed by it

Which is characteristic to butter?

  • It is a water in oil (W/O) emulsion
  • It is an oil in water (O/W) emulsion

Choose correct

  • Microbiological spoilage is mostly caused by bacteria and moulds
  • Microbiological spoilage is mostly caused by bacteria
A
  • Production of hydrogen sulphide
  • It is a water in oil (W/O) emulsion
  • Microbiological spoilage is mostly caused by bacteria and moulds
386
Q

Which two of the following sentences are true about Clostridia?

  • Obligate aerobes
  • Produce spores
  • Are the perfect indicators of the effectiveness of the chlorination
  • Are able to reduce sulfite to sulfide
A
  • Produce spores
  • Are able to reduce sulfite to sulfide
387
Q

Choose correct

  • After killing, small game shall be eviscerated on the spot
  • In case of small game, no evisceration shall be performed on the spot
  • For small game, the official veterinarians meat inspection is done on a representative sample of animals of the same source only
  • For small game, the official veterinarians meat inspection shall be done on each single animal
A
  • In case of small game, no evisceration shall be performed on the spot
  • For small game, the official veterinarians meat inspection is done on a representative sample of animals of the same source only
388
Q

Choose correct

  • The primary responsibility for food safety rests with the food safety authorities
  • The primary responsibility for food safety rests with the food producers
  • The conditions and rules of food hygiene primarily aim at achieving adequate food quality
  • The conditions and rules of food hygiene primarily aim at achieving adequate food safety
A
  • The primary responsibility for food safety rests with the food producers
  • The conditions and rules of food hygiene primarily aim at achieving adequate food safety
389
Q

Choose correct

  • Only low conductivity broth may be used for impedence measurement
  • Only low conductivity broth should be used for redox potential measurement
  • The endotoxin is a lipopolysaccharide from the cell wall of Gram - bacteria
  • The endotoxin is a lipopolysaccharide from the cell wall of Gram + bacteria
A
  • Only low conductivity broth may be used for impedence measurement
  • The endotoxin is a lipopolysaccharide from the cell wall of Gram - bacteria
390
Q

Choose correct

  • The use of liquid smoke must be indicated on the product
  • During smoking, the temperature of the wood cannot be over 400 C
  • During smoking. the temperature of the wood cannot be under 400 C
  • The durability of cooked smoked products is mainly due to the smoking process
A
  • The use of liquid smoke must be indicated on the product
  • The durability of cooked smoked products is mainly due to the smoking process
391
Q

Choose correct

  • The frankfurters distributed in shops/supermarkets are not heat treated therefore they cannot be eaten cold
  • The frankfurters distributed in shops/supermarkets are already heat treated therefore they can be eaten cold
  • The frankfurters distributed in shops/supermarkets are not always heat treated
  • The frankfurters distributed in shops/supermarkets are already heat treated we heat them up only for better consumer experience
A
  • The frankfurters distributed in shops/supermarkets are already heat treated therefore they can be eaten cold
  • The frankfurters distributed in shops/supermarkets are already heat treated we heat them up only for better consumer experience
392
Q

Choose correct

  • Wholesale cold stores are subject of approval
  • Wholesale cold stores are not subject to approval

What applied heat treatment parameters were not tolerable for Enterobacterium multiplication based on VRBG agar during our practise?

  • 60 for 30 mins
  • 80 for 20 mins
A
  • Wholesale cold stores are subject of approval
  • 60 for 30 mins
  • 80 for 20 mins (both as additional question from MTs)
393
Q

Which organic acid and what pH was applied successfully during our practise?

  • Formic acid
  • pH 6.5
  • Sorbic acid
  • pH 4.5
A
  • Sorbic acid
  • pH 4.5
394
Q

Choose correct

  • In most European countries a single uniform food chain control authority is involved in the official food control
  • In most European countries multiple authorities with shared responsibilities are involved in the official food control
  • For manufacturing of butter, the temperature and time conditions used for pasteurization are due to technological aspects
  • For manufacturing of butter, the temperature and time conditions used for pasteurization are due to food safety aspects
A
  • In most European countries multiple authorities with shared responsibilities are involved in the official food control
  • For manufacturing of butter, the temperature and time conditions used for pasteurization are due to food safety aspects
395
Q

Choose correct

  • Cheese made from raw milk may pose higher microbiological risk than those made from pasteurized milk
  • Cheese made from raw milk may pose lower microbiological risk than those made from pasteurized milk
  • Early blowing of semi-hard cheeses resulting in many small holes are caused by Clostridia
  • Early blowing of semi-hard cheeses resulting in many small holes are caused by Coliforms
A
  • Cheese made from raw milk may pose higher microbiological risk than those made from pasteurized milk
  • Early blowing of semi-hard cheeses resulting in many small holes are caused by Coliforms
396
Q

Choose correct

  • In the EU, the meat inspection rules are laid down in a community regulation
  • In the EU, the meat inspection rules are laid down in a community directive
  • In the EU, the meat inspection rules are laid down in the corresponding legislation is mandatory for all member states
  • In the EU, the meat inspection rules are laid down in the corresponding legislation shall be adopted by the individual member states
A
  • In the EU, the meat inspection rules are laid down in a community directive
  • In the EU, the meat inspection rules are laid down in the corresponding legislation is mandatory for all member states
397
Q

Choose correct

  • Carcasses can be put on the market irrespective of the results of the Salmonella process hygiene checks performed at the slaughterhouse
  • Carcasses found positive for Salmonella in the process hygiene tests at the slaughterhouse must not be put on the market
  • The hunted large game must not be skinned in the game collection centre
  • The hunted large game shall be skinned in the game collection centre
A
  • Carcasses can be put on the market irrespective of the results of the Salmonella process hygiene checks performed at the slaughterhouse
  • The hunted large game shall be skinned in the game collection centre
398
Q

Choose correct

  • Small capacity slaughterhouses need not be approved only registered by the authority
  • Small capacity slaughterhouses need also be approved by the authority
  • In the vent of any food safety defect, the food must be withdrawn from the market
  • In the vent of any food quality defect, the food must be withdrawn from the market
A
  • Small capacity slaughterhouses need also be approved by the authority
  • In the vent of any food safety defect, the food must be withdrawn from the market
399
Q

Which culture medium is used for detection of Salmonella?

  • Always lactose-containing medium
  • Never lactose-containing medium

When is the performance of the cooking test expedient?

  • In case of every slaughtering
  • In case of suspect of sex odour

-

A
  • Always lactose-containing medium
  • In case of suspect of sex odour
400
Q

What is characterisitic of PSE meat?

  • The starting glycogen content is low
  • There is fast glycolysis in the background

What is the legally required temperature of the working place during the production of meat products?

  • Below 7 degrees celsius
  • Below 12 degrees celsius
A
  • There is fast glycolysis in the background
  • Below 12 degrees celsius
401
Q

Which substance can be measured in the fishery products if there is any doubt for its freshness?

  • Total volatile basic nitrogen
  • Histamine

What is the special feature of noble moulds that make them utilizable to food industry?

  • They are obligate anaerobic
  • They do not produce mycotoxins
A
  • Total volatile basic nitrogen
  • They do not produce mycotoxins
402
Q

Choose correct

  • In case of foot and mouth disease, the meat of pigs derived from a protection zone and slaughtered in an immediate way may be used for production of animal feed only
  • In the case of foot and mouth disease, the meat of pigs derived from a protection zone and slaughtered in an immediate way may be used for human consumption, however only after heat treatment
A
  • In the case of foot and mouth disease, the meat of pigs derived from a protection zone and slaughtered in an immediate way may be used for human consumption, however only after heat treatment
403
Q

Choose correct

  • Control of personal hygiene is a main element of the official control of good hygiene practise (GHP)
  • Control of personal hygiene is a main element of the official control of the HACCP system
  • Establishment manufacturing foods containing unprocessed products of animal origin shall be approved by the competent authorities
  • Establishments manufacturing foods containing unprocessed products of plant origin shall be approved by the competent authorities
A
  • Control of personal hygiene is a main element of the official control of good hygiene practise (GHP)
  • Establishment manufacturing foods containing unprocessed products of animal origin shall be approved by the competent authorities
404
Q

What core temperature which should be reached by heat treatment of frankfurters?

  • The core temperature should be minimum 70 C
  • The core temperature should be minimum 90 C

What is not a part of inspection of the health standard of live bivalves?

  • Cannot contain Salmonella spp. in 25g of sample
  • Cannot contain histamine
A
  • The core temperature should be minimum 70 C
  • Cannot contain histamine
405
Q

Choose correct

  • In the event of a non-compliance with a food safety criteria laid down in the microbiological regulation of the EU in force, the food must not be placed on the market
  • In the event of a non-compliance with a food safety criteria or a process hygiene criteria laid down in the microbiological regulation of the EU in force, the food must not be placed on the market
A
  • In the event of a non-compliance with a food safety criteria or a process hygiene criteria laid down in the microbiological regulation of the EU in force, the food must not be placed on the market
406
Q

Choose correct

  • Salmonella positive flocks infected with S. enteritidis must not be slaughtered for human consumption
  • Salmonella positive flocks infected with S. enteritidis must not be slaughtered separately
  • Complementary bacteriological meat inspection aims at detecting conditions associated with bacterial disseminations or local infections occurred in the slaughtered animal
  • Complementary bacteriological meat inspection aims at detecting cross contamination of carcasses occurred during the slaughter
A
  • Salmonella positive flocks infected with S. enteritidis must not be slaughtered for human consumption
  • Complementary bacteriological meat inspection aims at detecting conditions associated with bacterial disseminations or local infections occurred in the slaughtered animal
407
Q

Choose correct

  • Trueperella pyogenes causing bacterial dissemination in pigs in a zoonotic bacterium
  • Trueperella pyogenes causing bacterial dissemination in pigs has no public health significance
  • Meat products intended for human consumption may only be manufactured in registered establishments
  • Meat products intended for human consumption may only be manufactured in approved establshments
A
  • Trueperella pyogenes causing bacterial dissemination in pigs has no public health significance
  • Meat products intended for human consumption may only be manufactured in approved establshments
408
Q

Choose correct

  • If chronic erysipelas is identified at the meat inspection, the carcass can be declared fit for human consumption after heat treatment
  • If chronic erysipelas is identified at the meat inspection, the carcass can be declared unfit for human consumption
  • In the case of dry pastas, contamination with Listeria monocytogenes may present a significant food safety risk
  • In the case of dry pastas, contamination with Staphylococcus aureus may present a significant food safety risk
A
  • If chronic erysipelas is identified at the meat inspection, the carcass can be declared fit for human consumption after heat treatment
  • In the case of dry pastas, contamination with Staphylococcus aureus may present a significant food safety risk
409
Q

Choose correct

  • The OIE listed diseases are notifiable human diseases
  • The OIE listed diseases are notifiable animal diseases
  • The OIE is the world organization for human health
  • The OIE is the world organization for animal health
A
  • The OIE listed diseases are notifiable animal diseases
  • The OIE is the world organization for animal health
410
Q

Choose correct

  • General rules of the official food control are included in the food law of EU
  • General rules of the official food control are included in separate EU regulation
  • In the event of any labelling error, the food must be withdrawn from the market
  • Withdrawal of the food ffrom any market due to a labelling error is conceivable in justifiable cases (e.g., in case of food safety deficiencies) only
A
  • General rules of the official food control are included in the food law of EU
  • Withdrawal of the food ffrom any market due to a labelling error is conceivable in justifiable cases (e.g., in case of food safety deficiencies) only
411
Q

Choose correct

  • Staphylococcus aureus bacterium causing bacterial dissemination in pigs may also cause disease in humans when getting in the GI tract with the meat
  • Staphylococcus aureus bacterium causing bacterial dissemination in pigs will not cause any disease in humans when getting in the GI tract with the meat
  • In the case of dry pastas, contamination with Salmonella may present a significant food safety risk
  • In the case of dry pastas, contamination with Campylobact bacteria may present a significant food safety risk
A
  • Staphylococcus aureus bacterium causing bacterial dissemination in pigs may also cause disease in humans when getting in the GI tract with the meat
  • In the case of dry pastas, contamination with Salmonella may present a significant food safety risk
412
Q

Choose correct

  • The core temperature of raw pig meat intended for production of minced meat must not exceed +4C in the preparation room
  • The core temeperature of raw pig meat intended for production of minced meat must not exceed +7C in the preparation room

Which health standard is not referred to in live bivalves?

  • Presence and amount of the intravalvular fluid
  • Determination of the total volatile basic nitrogen
A
  • The core temeperature of raw pig meat intended for production of minced meat must not exceed +7C in the preparation room
  • Determination of the total volatile basic nitrogen
413
Q

Which correct Trichinella test/

-The test is formed on a faecal sample
- The test is formed on a muscle sample
- The study is based on microscopic identification of Trichinella larva
- The examination must be carried out at the slaughterhouse from 5 animals per day

A
  • The test is formed on a muscle sample
  • The study is based on microscopic identification of Trichinella larva
414
Q

Choose correct

  • Cured raw meat products prepared by slow curing can be stored at room temperature
  • Cured raw meat products prepared by slow curing shall be stored chilled
  • Animals suspected of being diseased with anthrax shall be killed bloodlessly
  • Animals suspected of being diseased in anthrax must be vaccinated
A
  • Cured raw meat products prepared by slow curing can be stored at room temperature
  • Animals suspected of being diseased with anthrax shall be killed bloodlessly
415
Q

Which investigation is the part of the official control of the fishery products?

  • Presence of the poisonous fish and biotoxins in the fish
  • Presence of the amount of toxin producing planktons in the water of the production area

Which correct?

  • The pH of the egg white is alkaline
  • The pH of the egg white is acidic
A
  • Presence of the amount of toxin producing planktons in the water of the production area
  • The pH of the egg white is alkaline
416
Q

Why is ice added during the preparation of meat batter?

  • It is needed to keep the meat batter cold during cutting
  • It is only needed for the juiciness of the product

What is the minimum meat content level of the basic red meat products?

  • 0.66
  • 0.51
A
  • It is needed to keep the meat batter cold during cutting
  • 0.51
417
Q

Choose correct

  • Control of water quality is a main element of the official control of good hygiene practice
  • Control of personal hygiene is a main element of the official control of the HACCP system
  • Salmonella + flocks infected with S. typhimurium must not be slaughtered for human consumption
  • Salmonella + flocks infected with S. typhimurium must be slaughtered separately
A
  • Control of water quality is a main element of the official control of good hygiene practice
  • Salmonella + flocks infected with S. typhimurium must be slaughtered separately
418
Q

Choose correct

  • In the EU, nitrosimidazoles are prohibited for growth promotion, but can be used for therapy in food producing animals
  • In the EU, nitrozimidazoles are prohibited in food producing animals
  • Beta agonists are prohibited in animals
  • Beta agonists are prohibited for growth promotion, but can be used for therapy in food producing animals
A
  • In the EU, nitrozimidazoles are prohibited in food producing animals
  • Beta agonists are prohibited for growth promotion, but can be used for therapy in food producing animals
419
Q

Choose correct

  • When applying immersion, chilling the maximum water temperature at the point of outlet is 16 C
  • When applying immersion, the maximum water temperature at the point of the outlet is 4 C
  • Salmonella enteritidis cannot get into the egg through its pores causing a secondary contamination of it
  • Salmonella enteritidis can get into the egg through its pores causing a secondary contamination of it
A
  • When applying immersion, the maximum water temperature at the point of the outlet is 4 C
  • Salmonella enteritidis can get into the egg through its pores causing a secondary contamination of it
420
Q

What parameters can be seen on heat penetration graph from the list below?

  • Temperature of can itself
  • Retort temperature
  • Storage time of the product
  • Processing time of the product
A
  • Retort temperature
  • Processing time of the product
421
Q

Choose correct

  • In case of drinking water, the test for E.coli as a faecal indicator is obligatory
  • In case of drinking water, the test for C. perfringens as a faecal indicator is obligatory
  • Solanine mainly occurs in potatoes
  • Solanine mainly occurs in stone fruits
A
  • In case of drinking water, the test for E.coli as a faecal indicator is obligatory
  • Solanine mainly occurs in potatoes
422
Q

Which method is a microbial growth inhibition test?

  • ROSA test
  • Delvo test
  • KIS
  • Beta star test
A
  • Delvo test
  • KIS
423
Q

What type of cheese are hard and full fat?

  • Cheddar
  • Mozzarella
  • Feta
  • Emmental
A
  • Cheddar
  • Emmental
424
Q

What substance measured in the fishery products if there are doubts for its freshness?

  • Total volatile basic nitrogen
  • Ciguatoxin
  • Tetrodotoxin
  • Trimethylamine nitrogen
A
  • Total volatile basic nitrogen
  • Trimethylamine nitrogen
425
Q

Choose correct

  • Yogurt may contain probiotic bacteria
  • Yogurt is made with mesophilic starter culture
  • Yogurt can be set type and stirred type
  • After yogurt fermentation, there is no need for ageing in the fridge
A
  • Yogurt may contain probiotic bacteria
  • Yogurt can be set type and stirred type
426
Q

Choose correct

  • The meat ageing in poultry is faster than in pigs
  • The meat ageing in pigs is faster than in poultry
  • The meat ageing in cattle is faster than in pigs
  • The meat ageing in pigs is faster than in cattle
A
  • The meat ageing in poultry is faster than in pigs
  • The meat ageing in pigs is faster than in cattle
427
Q

Choose correct

  • Q fever has a meat inspection significance in cattle
  • Q fever has a meat inspection significance in pigs
  • If Q fever is diagnosed at the meat inspection, only the affected organs shall be condemned
  • If Q fever is diagnosed at the meat inspection, the whole carcass shall be condemned
A
  • Q fever has a meat inspection significance in cattle
  • If Q fever is diagnosed at the meat inspection, the whole carcass shall be condemned
428
Q

Choose correct

  • In restaurants, raw milk can only be used after boiling
  • In restaurants, raw milk can also be served
  • In restaurants, hunted unskinned wild games can also be processed if the establishment had the necessary license
  • In restaurants, it is not allowed to process hunted unskinned wild games
A
  • In restaurants, raw milk can also be served
  • In restaurants, hunted unskinned wild games can also be processed if the establishment had the necessary license
429
Q

Choose correct

  • Migration means that a component directs from the packaging to the product
  • Migration means that a component directs from product to packaging
  • Penetration means that a component directs from the packaging to the product
  • Penetration means that a competent directs from the products to the packaging
A
  • Migration means that a component directs from the packaging to the product
  • Penetration means that a competent directs from the products to the packaging
430
Q

Which product belongs to the primary production?

  • Raw milk
  • Dairy products
  • Egg
  • Sausage
A
  • Raw milk
  • Egg
431
Q

Choose correct

  • Lactoscan equipment is used to perform microbial growth inhibition test
  • Lactoscan equipment is used by the raw milk reception mainly for the determination of milk fat and milk protein which is important by the price quotation of the milk
  • Lactoscan equipment is used to determine the total plate count of the received raw milk
  • Lactoscan equipment is not just the raw milk useful but is also applied in case of analyzing already heat treated milk during manufacture of the dairy products
A
  • Lactoscan equipment is used by the raw milk reception mainly for the determination of milk fat and milk protein which is important by the price quotation of the milk
  • Lactoscan equipment is not just the raw milk useful but is also applied in case of analyzing already heat treated milk during manufacture of the dairy products
432
Q

Choose correct

  • The E.coli produces Beta galactosidae enzyme
  • The E.coli are able to survive at 60C for 30 min
  • Ante mortem inspection of the hunted wild games shall be performed by a veterinarian
  • Ante mortem inspection of the hunted wild games shall be performed by the hunter
A
  • The E.coli produces Beta galactosidae enzyme
  • Ante mortem inspection of the hunted wild games shall be performed by the hunter
433
Q

What is the difference between the food industrial by products and wastes?

-It is not generated inevitably
- Exclusively legal requirements may decide on it
- Rules of food hygiene strictly apply to its further fate
- Not to be treated within the plant

A

-It is not generated inevitably
- Rules of food hygiene strictly apply to its further fate

434
Q

What are the advantages of combining chromatographic and mass spectrometric methods?

  • More reliable qualitative analysis
  • More sensitive quantitative analysis
  • More cost-effectiveness procedures
  • All statements are true
A
  • More reliable qualitative analysis
  • More sensitive quantitative analysis
435
Q

Choose correct

  • S.aureus may also be excreted with the milk during the subclinical stadium of mastitis
  • S.aureus is not excreted with the milk during the subclinical stadium of mastitits
  • The heat resistance of Mycobacterium paratuberculosis is lower than that of M.bovis
  • The heat resistance of M. paratuberculosis is higher than that of M. bovis
A
  • S.aureus may also be excreted with the milk during the subclinical stadium of mastitis
  • The heat resistance of M. paratuberculosis is higher than that of M. bovis
436
Q

Choose correct

  • In case of suspicion of paratuberculosis, the animals suspected of being infected can be slaughtered unconditionally at the slaughterhouse
  • In case of suspicion of paratuberculosis, the animals suspected of being infected must be slaughtered separately at the slaughterhouse
  • Aflatoxin-producing mould species occur also in central Europe, and produce toxin under these climatic conditions
  • Aflatoxin-producing mould species may occur also in central Europe, but do not produce toxin there due to the climatic change
A
  • In case of suspicion of paratuberculosis, the animals suspected of being infected must be slaughtered separately at the slaughterhouse
  • Aflatoxin-producing mould species occur also in central Europe, and produce toxin under these climatic conditions
437
Q

Choose correct

  • Food hygiene includes the conditions and measures needed to establish the safety of our foods
  • Food safety includes the conditions and measures needed to establish the safety of our foods
  • The efficacy of iodophors in increased by the elevation of temperature
  • The efficacy of iodophors is decreased by the elevation of temperature
A
  • Food hygiene includes the conditions and measures needed to establish the safety of our foods
  • The efficacy of iodophors is decreased by the elevation of temperature
438
Q

Choose correct

  • The redox potential of fresh meat is higher than that of the minced meat
  • The redox potential of fresh meat is lower than that of minced meat
  • In general, the pH optimum of bacteria is lower than that of moulds
  • In general,, the pH optimum of bacteria is higher than that of moulds
A
  • The redox potential of fresh meat is lower than that of minced meat
  • In general, the pH optimum of bacteria is higher than that of moulds
439
Q

Choose correct

  • Chlorinated hydrocarbons are cholinesterase inhiibitors
  • Organophosphates are cholinesterase inhibitors
  • Pyrethroids are synthetic derivatives of pyrathrins
  • Pyrethrins are synthetic derivatives of pyrethroids
A
  • Organophosphates are cholinesterase inhibitors
  • Pyrethroids are synthetic derivatives of pyrathrins
440
Q

Choose correct

  • The dissolution of cadmium from soils is facilitated by the decrease of pH
  • The dissolution of lead from soils is facilitated by the decrease of pH
  • Redox potential of foods is characterized by the aw value
  • Redox potential of foods is characterized by the Eh value
A
  • The dissolution of cadmium from soils is facilitated by the decrease of pH
  • Redox potential of foods is characterized by the Eh value
441
Q

Choose correct

  • PSE meat ageing is a consequence of a less than average pH drop
  • DFD type meat ageing is a consequence of a less than average pH drop
  • DFD meat is more prone to spoilage
  • PSE meat is more prone to spoilage
A
  • DFD type meat ageing is a consequence of a less than average pH drop
  • DFD meat is more prone to spoilage
442
Q

Choose correct

  • PSE meat is more prone to spoilage and has a shorter shelf life
  • DFD meat is more prone to spoilage and has a shorter shelf life
  • DFD meat maturation is characterized by the rapid degradation of glycogen after slaughter
  • PSE meat maturation is characterized by the rapid degradation of glycogen after slaughter
A
  • DFD meat is more prone to spoilage and has a shorter shelf life
  • PSE meat maturation is characterized by the rapid degradation of glycogen after slaughter
443
Q

What are the focal points of official control in catering establishments?

  • Avoid cross contamination
  • Ensuring traceabilty
  • Check to ensure clean and polluted routes
  • Check for the presence of a factory and consumer sink
A
  • Avoid cross contamination
  • Ensuring traceabilty
444
Q

What condition must the milk meet immediately before processing?

  • The temperature of the raw milk may reach a maximum of 6 C until processing
  • The temperature of the raw milk may reach a maximum of 10 C until processing
  • The germ count should not exceed 100,000 cell/ml immediately prior to processing
  • The total germ count immediately before processing should not exceed 300,000 cell/ml
A
  • The temperature of the raw milk may reach a maximum of 6 C until processing
  • The total germ count immediately before processing should not exceed 300,000 cell/ml
445
Q

Choose correct

  • Enterohaemorrhagic E.coli typically causes primary infection of raw milk
  • Enterohaemorrhagic E.coli typically causes secondary infection of raw milk
  • Mycobacterium paratuberculosis typically causes primary infection of raw milk
  • Mycobacterium paratuberculosis typically causes secondary contamination of raw milk
A
  • Enterohaemorrhagic E.coli typically causes secondary infection of raw milk
  • Mycobacterium paratuberculosis typically causes secondary contamination of raw milk
446
Q

Choose correct

  • Animals showing sings of systemic disease or emaciation should be killed separately
  • Animals showing signs of systemic disease or emaciation may be slaughtered only by emergency slaughter
  • Bovine animals from tuberculosis free herds must be slaughtered separately in case of positive tuberculin test
  • In case of a positive bovine tuberculin test, bovine animals from tuberculosis free flocks must be slaughtered by closed slaughter
A
  • Animals showing sings of systemic disease or emaciation should be killed separately
  • Bovine animals from tuberculosis free herds must be slaughtered separately in case of positive tuberculin test
447
Q

Choose correct

  • A significant proportion of the bacteria that cause deterioration are psychrophlic
  • The vast majority of spoilage bacteria are thermophilic
  • A significant proportion of deteriorating moulds are psychrophilic
  • Most spoilage moulds are thermophilic
A
  • A significant proportion of the bacteria that cause deterioration are psychrophlic
  • A significant proportion of deteriorating moulds are psychrophilic
448
Q

The following applies to the 3 class sampling plan

  • It is mainly used for pathogenic microbes
  • Satisfactory and unsatisfactory limit value
  • Characteristic, acceptable and unsatisfactory limit value
  • It can be used to assess hygiene
A
  • Characteristic, acceptable and unsatisfactory limit value
  • It can be used to assess hygiene
449
Q

Where can slaughter of farmed game take place?

  • Slaughterhouse approved by the authority
  • In the holding of origin
  • At a wildlife collection point
  • Game processing plant
A
  • Slaughterhouse approved by the authority
  • In the holding of origin
450
Q

Choose correct

  • Animals showing signs of a systemic disease must be killed separately
  • Animals showing signs of a systemic disease must be slaughtered separately
  • Emaciated animals shall be slaughtered separately
  • Emaciated animals must not be slaughtered
A
  • Animals showing signs of a systemic disease must be killed separately
  • Emaciated animals must not be slaughtered
451
Q

Choose correct

  • Live bvalve molluscs placed on the market for retail sale via a dispatch centre shall be marked with an identification mark on the packaging
  • Live bivalve molluscs placed on the market for retail sale via a dispatch centre shall be marked with a health mark on the packaging
  • In the intra-community trade, the fresh meat of pigs or cattle shall be marked with an identification marking
  • In the intra-community trade, the fresh meat of pigs or cattle shall be health marked (meat stamp)
A
  • Live bvalve molluscs placed on the market for retail sale via a dispatch centre shall be marked with an identification mark on the packaging
  • In the intra-community trade, the fresh meat of pigs or cattle shall be health marked (meat stamp)
452
Q

Choose correct

  • Having eviscerated the large game, the hunter shall present the carcass and viscera to a trained person or a veterinarian for inspection
  • The post mortem meat inspection of hunted large games is performed by the hunter itself
  • The post mortem inspection of hunted small games is performed by the hunter itself
  • The hunter shall present the carcass of the hunted small game to a trained person or veterinarian for inspection
A
  • Having eviscerated the large game, the hunter shall present the carcass and viscera to a trained person or a veterinarian for inspection
  • The hunter shall present the carcass of the hunted small game to a trained person or veterinarian for inspection
453
Q

Choose correct

  • The c value means the sample number
  • The c value measn the number of sample unites giving values over m or between m and M
  • If the coagulase-positive Staphylococcus count in meat is higher than 105 cfu/g, then the product must be also tested for the presence of Staphylococcus enterotoxin
  • If the coagulase-positive Staphylococcus count in cheese is higher than 105 cfu/g, then the product must also be tested for the presence of Staphylococcus enterotoxin
A
  • The c value measn the number of sample unites giving values over m or between m and M
  • If the coagulase-positive Staphylococcus count in cheese is higher than 105 cfu/g, then the product must also be tested for the presence of Staphylococcus enterotoxin
454
Q

Choose correct

  • E.coli is indole-positive
  • E.coli uses citrate as the only carbon source
  • E.coli performs mixed acid fermentation
  • E.coli performs butanediol fermentation
A
  • E.coli is indole-positive
  • E.coli uses citrate as the only carbon source
  • E.coli performs mixed acid fermentation
455
Q

Which foods can be contaminated during the primary production?

  • Egg
  • Vegetable
  • Sausage
  • Yogurt
A
  • Egg
  • Vegetable
456
Q

What is true for appropriately manufactured set-type yogurt?

  • It is runny
  • It is spoonable
  • It has final pH between 4.3-4.6
  • It has a final pH between 5.0-5.3
A
  • It is spoonable
  • It has final pH between 4.3-4.6
457
Q

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  • The official veterinarian must be present when the animals are loaded onto the vehicle before the transportation to the slaughterhouse
  • After separate killing, the carcass can be used in food processing
  • The official veterinarian must inspect the food chain information whenever new cargo arrived at the slaughterhouse
  • Vehicles used for the transportation of livestock animals must be authorized
A
  • The official veterinarian must inspect the food chain information whenever new cargo arrived at the slaughterhouse
  • Vehicles used for the transportation of livestock animals must be authorized
458
Q

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  • Active packaging consists of ingredients, which are inside the packaging and interacting with food in different ways (transmission or emission) allowing the direct and active protection of food to keep the required quality
  • Good example for active packaging is a thermometer visible on the food label
  • Intelligent packaging is a system with indicators capable to inform consumers before buying about the journey of the given food
  • Good example for intelligent packaging is a silica gel bag
A
  • Active packaging consists of ingredients, which are inside the packaging and interacting with food in different ways (transmission or emission) allowing the direct and active protection of food to keep the required quality
  • Intelligent packaging is a system with indicators capable to inform consumers before buying about the journey of the given food