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food hygiene Flashcards

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1
Q
  1. What is the maximum allowable temperature for ruminant meat?
    a. 7 C for the carcass
    b. 4 C for the carcass
    c. 4 C the offal
    d. 3 C for offal
A

a. 7 C for the carcass

d. 3 C for offal

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2
Q
  1. What pathogens are part of the food safety criteria for live marine molluscs
    a. L. monocytogenes
    b. Salmonella
    c. E. coli
    d. Coagulase- positive staphylococcus (shelled/shucked of cooked crustaceans/ molluscs)
A

B. salmonella

C. E.coli

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3
Q
  1. Which of these abnormalities are fit for Human consumption?
    a. DFD meat ageing
    b. Insufficient bleeding (UNFIT)
    c. Emaciated animals (UNFIT)
    d. Lipochromatosis
A

a. DFD meat ageing

d. Lipochromatosis

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4
Q

What are the main points of the food chain information?
Treatments and their withdrawal periods
The dates of all vaccinations
The size of the farm
The information about the authorized veterinarian responsible for the farm

A

Treatments and their withdrawal period

Info about the authorized veternarian on the farm

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5
Q

Which of the following sentences are true?
A. In cattle, the head lymph nodes must be palpated in every carcass
B. In pigs, the head’s lymph nodes must be palpated in every carcass
C. Palpation of the organ can cause cross- contamination of the carcass
D. Incision of the organs can cause cross-contamination of the carcass

A

A. In cattle, the head lymph nodes must be palpated in every carcass
D. Incision of the organs can cause cross-contamination of the carcass

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6
Q

Which of these are NOT mandatory on food label?
A. Name of producer
B. Nutritional claim
C. Alcohol content in case of bakery products
D. Weight of product

A

A. Name of producer

C. Alcohol content in case of bakery products

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7
Q 
Which of the egg’s attributes give information about its freshness?
A. The size of the air space
B. The size of the germinal disk
C. The size of the pores
D. The consistency of the albumen
A

A. The size of the air space

D. The consistency of the albumen

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8
Q

Which countries operate the RASFF system? Rapid alert system for food + feed
EU member states
The European countries
Switzerland, Norway, Iceland and Liechtenstein
Turkey, Israel, Moldavia

A

Eu member states

Switzerland Norway Iceland and licehsnteins

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9
Q
  1. Which of these statements are NOT characteristics of the primary packaging?
    a. It is with indirect contact with the food, it is the outer most protection of batches
    b. It provides useful information for the consumers
    c. It can be divided into smaller units, called secondary packaging
    d. It is important that it does not pose a human health risk
A

a. It is with indirect contact with the food, it is the outer most protection of batches
c. It can be divided into smaller units, called secondary packaging

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10
Q
  1. Which of these are NOT mandatory on food label?
    a. Name of producer
    b. Nutritional claim
    c. Alcohol content in case of bakery products
    d. Weight of product
A

a. Name of producer

c. Alcohol content in case of bakery products

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11
Q
  1. Which of the egg’s attributes give information about its freshness?
    a. The size of the air space
    b. The size of the germinal disk
    c. The size of the pores
    d. The consistency of the albumen
A

a. The size of the air space

d. The consistency of the albumen

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12
Q
  1. What is the difference between slow and fast curing?
    a. The main difference is in processing, as by slow curing the product is made with salt, nitrites or nitrates for preservation, colour and taste development. Therefore meat parts are merged or surface treated with (pickling) salts and ripened.
    b. The main difference is in processing, as by slow (FAST) curing the product is made with salt, nitrites and nitrates and other additives to help color and taste development. Curing solution is injected and/or added under vacuum to the tissues or surface treated with (pickling) salts and ripened
    c. After slow curing the cured meat part can be ripened even for 1 year, which is not typical for fast curing
    d. Foil-packaged ham and pressed ham is made with slow (FAST) curing and cannot be produced by fats curing
A

a. The main difference is in processing, as by slow curing the product is made with salt, nitrites or nitrates for preservation, colour and taste development. Therefore meat parts are merged or surface treated with (pickling) salts and ripened.
c. After slow curing the cured meat part can be ripened even for 1 year, which is not typical for fast curing

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13
Q
  1. What can we use to differentiate between icterus and carotenosis?
    a. With the Loeffer’s test (imperfect bleeding)
    b. By checking the solubility of the yellow pigment
    c. Looking for signs of disease, malaise in the live animal
    d. With cooking test (Taste + smell, stuffiness)
A

b. By checking the solubility of the yellow pigment

c. Looking for signs of disease, malaise in the live animal

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14
Q
  1. Which of the following statements are FALSE about the normal meat aging?
    a. The decreased pH is due to lactic acid (T)
    b. The increased pH is due to ammonia
    c. It takes around 45 mins
    d. The final pH is well below 6 (T)
A

b. The increased pH is due to ammonia

c. It takes around 45 mins

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15
Q
  1. Which of the following statements are TRUE of the PSE meat?
    a. It usually occurs in cattle
    b. There is a sudden pH drop at the beginning of the meat ageing
    c. The meat is fit for human consumption
    d. The glycogen content of the muscles is decreased
A

b. There is a sudden pH drop at the beginning of the meat ageing
c. The meat is fit for human consumption

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16
Q
  1. What are the notifiable diseases of fish?
    a. Spring viraemia of carp
    b. Viral haemorrhagic septicaemia of salmonids
    c. Ichthyophthirius multifiliis
    Bothriocephalosis
A

a. Spring viraemia of carp

b. Viral haemorrhagic septicaemia of salmonids

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17
Q
  1. What forms of biotoxins can occur in fishery products?
    a. Paralytic shellfish poison (PSP)
    b. Vomiting shellfish poison (VSP)
    c. Fainting shellfish poison (FSP)
    d. Amnesic shellfish poison (ASP
A

a. Paralytic shellfish poison (PSP)

d. Amnesic shellfish poison (ASP

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18
Q
  1. For which fish types is candling part of the official control?
    a. Fillet
    b. Herring
    c. Flounder
    d. Scombroid species- histamine, mackerel, sardine, tuna
A

a. Fillet

c. Flounder

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19
Q
  1. The meat stamp contains the:
    a. Approval number of the meat processing plant
    b. The abbreviation of the ‘European communities’
    c. The ISO code of the country of origin
    d. The passport number of the cattle
A

b. The abbreviation of the ‘European communities’

c. The ISO code of the country of origin

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20
Q
  1. What are the characteristics of meat if the glycogen storage of the muscles was depleted?
    a. The pH remains high
    b. It is exsudative
    c. It is unfit for human consumption
    d. It is more suitable for bacterial growth
A

a. The pH remains high

d. It is more suitable for bacterial growth

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21
Q
  1. Which techniques can be used for ammonia detection?
    a. Reder test- imperfect bleeding
    b. Nessler’s test
    c. Lead acetate test- stufinnes
    d. Eber’s test
A

b. Nessler’s test

d. Eber’s test

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22
Q
  1. What is characteristic to intelligent packaging?
    a. It gives information from the storage condition of food even before buying the product
    b. It is capable to show the actual temperature of the given product
    c. The consumer can only see it after opening the food packaging
    d. It is mainly used for bakery products to absorb moisture (active packaging)
A

a. It gives information from the storage condition of food even before buying the product
b. It is capable to show the actual temperature of the given product

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23
Q
  1. Which components are responsible for the protection of the egg?
    a. Vitamin B
    b. High pH
    c. Cuticle
    d. Chitin
A

b. High pH

c. Cuticle

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24
Q
  1. Which of these are red meat products?
    a. Salami
    b. Lyoner
    c. Foil packaged ham
    Bologna-type sausages
A

b. Lyoner

Bologna-type sausages

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25
Q
  1. What is characteristic for marketing of hunted game?
    a. The hunted game can be marketed to final consumer in small amount only
    b. The hunted game cannot be used for private consumption
    c. The hunted game can be marketed to catering facility in small amount only
    The hunted game can be marketed further by the private consumer
A

a. The hunted game can be marketed to final consumer in small amount only
c. The hunted game can be marketed to catering facility in small amount only

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26
Q
  1. Where is the identification mark (meat stamp) for poultry and rabbits?
    a. In the case of poultry on the packaging
    b. In the case of poultry on the carcass
    c. In the case of rabbit on the packaging
    d. In the case of rabbit on the carcass
A

a. In the case of poultry on the packaging

c. In the case of rabbit on the packaging

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27
Q
  1. During the inspection of adult cattle’s’ heads the ….. has to be incised/cut in every case
    a. Retropharyngeal lymph nodes
    b. Tongue
    c. Masseter muscles
    d. Parotid lymph nodes
A

a. Retropharyngeal lymph nodes

c. Masseter muscles

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28
Q
  1. In the case of pig slaughter, which pathogens should be tested during the microbiological examination of slaughter hygiene?
    a. Enterobacteriaceae
    b. E. coli
    c. Salmonella
    d. L. monocytogenes
A

a. Enterobacteriaceae

c. Salmonella

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29
Q
  1. In which cases is the meat stamp not applied?
    a. Before the arrival of the Trichinella results
    b. Fit for human consumption carcass of a rabbit
    c. Non generalised Trichinella infection
    d. If the carcass of the slaughtered cattle contain SRM
A

b. Fit for human consumption carcass of a rabbit

d. If the carcass of the slaughtered cattle contain SRM

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30
Q
  1. The veterinarian may ban the slaughter until further measure if…..
    a. The animals show signs of exhaustion
    b. The animals come from a surveillance zone
    c. The assessment of the health status of the animals requires further examination
    The animals have been shown to carry a zoonotic pathogen
A

a. The animals show signs of exhaustion

c. The assessment of the health status of the animals requires further examination

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31
Q
  1. What characteristics does an official test include for live fish
    a. Sex
    b. Viability (movement, respiration)
    c. Body length
    d. General health status
A

b. Viability (movement, respiration)

d. General health status

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32
Q
  1. What is the histamine limit for fishery products?
    a. 100-200 mg/kg for general products
    b. 200-400 mg/kg for general products
    c. 100-200 mg/kg after enzymatic maturation
    d. 200-400 mg/kg after enzymatic maturation
A

a. 100-200 mg/kg for general products

d. 200-400 mg/kg after enzymatic maturation

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33
Q
  1. What is characteristic for chemical composition?
    a. It has high biological value
    b. It is important source of vitamin E
    c. It has high fat content
    d. It has low carbohydrate content
A

a. It has high biological value

d. It has low carbohydrate content

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34
Q
  1. Which of the following sentences are true slaughterhouses about the integrated meat inspection?
    a. It means the separated slaughter of suspicious animals
    b. It greatly depends on food chain information
    c. It depends on the live animal inspection at the farm
    d. Slaughtering can only happen at the closet slaughterhouse
A

b. It greatly depends on food chain information

c. It depends on the live animal inspection at the farm

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35
Q
  1. In which cases is the oval mark mandatory?
    a. Sliced meat
    b. Chocolate
    c. Bakery products
    d. Fermented dairy products
A

a. Sliced meat

d. Fermented dairy products

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36
Q
  1. What kind of rule shall be certainly kept if a material is intended to be used as by-product in the food industry?
    a. Precise records shall be kept about it
    b. Food hygiene rules shall strictly apply
    c. It can only be processed on the same processing line as the main product was
    d. Expiry/ use to dates are strictly observed
A

b. Food hygiene rules shall strictly apply

d. Expiry/ use to dates are strictly observed

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37
Q
  1. What are the characteristics of grade ‘A’ eggs?
    a. It certifies that the egg is fit for human consumption without heat treatment
    b. It might be used for the manufacturing of egg products
    c. The yolk is slightly mobile
    d. It doesn’t have an air space
A

a. It certifies that the egg is fit for human consumption without heat treatment
c. The yolk is slightly mobile

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38
Q
  1. Which of these processing steps are considered as critical control points (CCP) by production of Bologna-type sausages?
    a. Cutting, mixing, grinding (GHP)
    b. Shaping, stuffing (GHP)
    c. Smoking, cooking
    d. Cold storage
A

c. Smoking, cooking

d. Cold storage

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39
Q
  1. Which statement is true?
    a. Live bivalves harvested from class ‘B’ production area can be transported to processing establishment without purification or relaying
    b. The production areas are classified based on heavy metal content of the sediment
    c. Shellfish collected from class ‘C’ production area must be treated with heat instead of purification in the processing establishment
    d. Live bivalves harvested from class ‘A’ production area can be marketed only after heat treatmen
A

a. Live bivalves harvested from class ‘B’ production area can be transported to processing establishment without purification or relaying
c. Shellfish collected from class ‘C’ production area must be treated with heat instead of purification in the processing establishment

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40
Q
  1. The stunning of pigs usually happens
    a. Mechanically with a stunning gun
    b. By carbon dioxide gas chambers
    c. With electrodes placed on the head
    d. Mechanically by a device that causes concussion
A

b. By carbon dioxide gas chambers

c. With electrodes placed on the head

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41
Q
  1. Which parts of the adult goat are considered SRM?
    a. The spinal cord
    b. The tonsils
    c. The ileum
    d. The skull
A

a. The spinal cord

d. The skull

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42
Q
  1. Which heavy metals are tested for molluscs?
    a. Hg
    b. Cu
    c. Pb
    d. Cd
A

c. Pb

d. Cd

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43
Q
  1. Choose the correct statement:
    a. Rigor mortis develops as a result of anaerobic glycolysis
    b. Rigor mortis develops because of the lack of ATP
    c. Rigor mortis passes due to the pH increase caused by bacteria
    d. Rigor mortis passes due to protease enzyme
A

a. Rigor mortis develops as a result of anaerobic glycolysis

b. Rigor mortis develops because of the lack of ATP

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44
Q
  1. Which criteria are specified in the 2073/2005 EC regulation?
    a. 3-OH-butric acid (853/2004/EC
    ) b. Salmonella spp.
    c. Enterobacteriaceae
    d. Campylobacter spp.
A

b. Salmonella spp.

c. Enterobacteriaceae

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45
Q
  1. In the case of cattle under 8 months of age, which organs inspection is less relevant?
    a. Umbilical area
    b. Udder and genitals
    c. Joints
    d. Masseters
A

b. Udder and genitals

d. Masseters

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46
Q
  1. What is characteristic for myofibrils?
    a. They are found in the sarcoplasm
    b. They are the contractile element of the muscle
    c. The sarcoplasmic reticulum surrounded it stores the potassium (calcium)
    d. They are the structural unit of the striated muscle
A

a. They are found in the sarcoplasm

b. They are the contractile element of the muscle

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47
Q
  1. What is characteristic for aged meat?
    a. It has paler brownish colour
    b. It has odour of lactic acid
    c. It has glassy shine (fresh meat)
    It is in elastic to touch (fresh meat)
A

a. It has paler brownish colour

b. It has odour of lactic acid

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48
Q
  1. Which parts are considered SRM in every age group of cattle?
    a. The last four meters of the colon
    b. The spinal cord
    The spleen
    d. The tonsils
A

a. The last four meters of the colon

d. The tonsils

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49
Q
  1. Which statement is true?
    a. The successive catch of fish must be separated on the factory vessel
    b. The clean and contaminated processes must not be separated on the factory vessel
    c. Tools and equipment must be produced from those material is corrosion-resistant to seawater
    d. The fishery products must not be chilled on the factory vessel
A

a. The successive catch of fish must be separated on the factory vessel
c. Tools and equipment must be produced from those material is corrosion-resistant to seawater

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50
Q
  1. Which requirement must be met at a game collection centre?
    a. The establishment must not be fenced
    b. The required temperature is 10 degrees centigrade in the cold store
    c. The establishment must have an adequate cold store to suspended store of the carcass
    d. Drinking quality water must be used in the establishment
A

c. The establishment must have an adequate cold store to suspended store of the carcass
d. Drinking quality water must be used in the establishment

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51
Q
  1. When is the description ‘smoke flavoured’ applied on products label? (mixed, injected, submerged)
    a. When is the product NOT smoked with hard wood- this is also true??
    b. When the smoke flavour is produced with using smoke aroma for surface treatment on the product
    c. When the product is NOT smoked with birch wood
    d. When the smoke flavour is produced with injecting the smoke aroma into the product
A

b. When the smoke flavour is produced with using smoke aroma for surface treatment on the product
d. When the smoke flavour is produced with injecting the smoke aroma into the product

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52
Q
  1. What is the difference between the professional and legal definition of the waste?
    a. Only technical aspects are covered by the professional definition
    b. The professional defines the sub-term of secondary raw materials within the term of waste
    c. Legal requirement appears in the legal definition as a potential waste generating factor
    d. The legal definition of more concrete, concise
A

a. Only technical aspects are covered by the professional definition
b. The professional defines the sub-term of secondary raw materials within the term of waste

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53
Q
  1. Within how much time after stunning does the bleedinghave to be performed
    a. In case of gas stunning 20s
    b. In case of gas stunning 30s
    c. In case of electronic stunning 20s
    In case of electronic stunning 30s
A

b. In case of gas stunning 30s

c. In case of electronic stunning 20s

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54
Q
  1. What is typical for raw sausages made with starter culture?
    a. Ripening is done by stepwise temperature decrease and starting at higher ripening temperature, than by traditional dry sausage
    b. Microflora is composed of lactobacillus species, salt resistant and nitrate reducing micrococcus and enterococcus species
    c. Raw sausage (5.3) made with starter cultures have higher pH values than the traditional dry sausages (5.8-6)
    Microflora is composed mainly of special Nobile moulds, penicillium species (traditional)
A

a. Ripening is done by stepwise temperature decrease and starting at higher ripening temperature, than by traditional dry sausage
b. Microflora is composed of lactobacillus species, salt resistant and nitrate reducing micrococcus and enterococcus species

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55
Q
  1. Which of the following operations are critical control point (CCP) in case of poultry slaughter?
    a. Stunning, bleeding
    b. Dressing, evisceration
    c. Chilling of the carcass ( 4degrees)
    d. Chilling of the offals (3 degrees)
A

c. Chilling of the carcass ( 4degrees)

d. Chilling of the offals (3 degrees)

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56
Q
  1. What is the maximum number of animals allowed to be slaughtered per week in the case of small-scale slaughter?
    a. 100 chickens (200)
    b. 100 turkeys
    c. 100 waterfowl
    100 rabbits (50)
A

b. 100 turkeys

c. 100 waterfowl

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57
Q
  1. What is characteristic for purification centre?
    a. Shellfish must be purified till at least 2 months
    b. Microbiological characteristics of water applied to the tank and the purified and non-purified shellfish must be investigated
    c. Live bivalves must be purified by clean or purified seawater
    The different marine animal species can be stored together with the shellfish in the same tank
A

b. Microbiological characteristics of water applied to the tank and the purified and non-purified shellfish must be investigated
c. Live bivalves must be purified by clean or purified seawater

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58
Q
  1. Which of these abnormalities will make the whole carcass unfit for human consumption?
    a. PSE aging
    b. Melanosis
    c. Sexual odour
    Young age < 7 days Calf <8, piglet <14, lamb <21
A

c. Sexual odour

Young age < 7 days Calf <8, piglet <14, lamb <21

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59
Q
  1. Which of these food additives are typically applied in meat products?
    a. Tartrazine (E102)
    b. Monosodium glutamate (E621)
    c. Sodium sulphite (E221)
    d. Ascorbic acid (E300)
A

b. Monosodium glutamate (E621)

d. Ascorbic acid (E300)

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60
Q
  1. For which operation are the knives used in the two-knife method used for sticking
    a. Cutting the skin
    b. Cutting the esophagus
    c. Cutting of trachea
    d. Cutting of vena jugularis ante
A

a. Cutting the skin

d. Cutting of vena jugularis ante

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61
Q 
1.	What microbes should be tested for egg products under regulation EC no 2073/2005
●	Salmonella
●	Enterobacteriaceae
●	Coagulase positive staphylococcus
●	E. Coli
A

● Salmonella

● Enterobacteriaceae

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62
Q 
1.	Which regulations are in force in relation to official controls of foodstuffs
●	882/2004/EC
●	854/2004/EC
●	178/2002/EC
●	625/2017/EC
A

● 882/2004/EC

● 854/2004/EC

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63
Q

Choose the correct answers!
- The typical, lasting red colour of cured meat products is due to nitrosomyoglobin
- The typical, lasting red colour of cured meat products is due to oxymyoglobin
- For slow curing with dry salting, exclusively a nitrite-containing curing salt may be
used
- For slow curing with dry salting, exclusively a nitrate-containing curing salt may be
used

A

The typical, lasting red colour of cured meat products is due to nitrosomyoglobin
For slow curing with dry salting, exclusively a nitrate-containing curing salt may be
used

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64
Q

Choose the correct answers!
- Heat resistance of moulds and yeasts is similar to that of mesophilic bacteria
- Heat resistance of moulds and yeasts is much higher than that of mesophilic
bacteria
- Based on the 12D principle, the minimum sterilization equivalent is 2.52 minutes
- Based on the 12D principle, the minimum sterilization equivalent is 0.21 minute

A
  • Heat resistance of moulds and yeasts is much higher than that of mesophilic
    bacteria
  • Based on the 12D principle, the minimum sterilization equivalent is 2.52 minutes
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65
Q

What is the role of nitrite in cured meat products (Practical 4)

  • It is prohibiting the growth of germs of Clostridium botulinum
  • It causes a red color to the cured meat, which is NOT heat resistant
  • It has antioxidant effect and decreases the possibility of rancidity
  • It has no role since it is not allowed to apply in EU
A
  • It is prohibiting the growth of germs of Clostridium botulinum
  • It has antioxidant effect and decreases the possibility of rancidity
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66
Q

What curing methods were demonstrated in the Technology lab? (practical 4)

  • Dry curing method: meat was covered with curing/pickling salt
  • Wet curing with injection: 8% sodium nitrite solution was injected
  • Dry salting: meat was covered with pure sodium chloride
  • Tumbling: tumbler was applied to perform fast curing
A
  • Dry curing method: meat was covered with curing/pickling salt
  • Wet curing with injection: 8% sodium nitrite solution was injected
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67
Q
  1. Which areas are within the scope of the regulation of 625/2017 EC
    ● Controls of requirements relating to food safety
    ● Controls of requirements relating to animal health
    ● Controls of requirements relating to soil protection
    Controls of requirements relating to producing of veterinary medicinal products
A

● Controls of requirements relating to food safety

● Controls of requirements relating to animal health

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68
Q 
1.	Who are the members of the rapid alert system for food and feed
●	Member states
●	European parliament
●	European commission
●	Council
A

● Member states

● European commission

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69
Q
  1. Yersinia Enterocolitica
    ● Animals are usually asymptomatic carriers of the bacterium
    ● Poultry meat is the most important source of infection (pigs, rodents, rabbit)
    ● It is psychrophilic
    ● It usually causes generalised dermatitis in humans
A

● Animals are usually asymptomatic carriers of the bacterium

● It is psychrophilic

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70
Q
  1. How have to plan the official controls based on 625/2017/EC regulation
    ● Competent authorities have to plan the official controls on risk basis, regularly and with appropriate frequency
    ● Competent authorities have to plan the official controls on risk basis, regularly and with appropriate frequency to identify possible intentional violations
    ● Competent authorities have to plan the official controls on basis on the human resources
    ● Competent authorities have to plan the official controls on basis on the financial resources
A

● Competent authorities have to plan the official controls on risk basis, regularly and with appropriate frequency
● Competent authorities have to plan the official controls on risk basis, regularly and with appropriate frequency to identify possible intentional violations

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71
Q
  1. What is the rapid alert system for food and feed
    ● IT tool
    ● Group of appointed representative of member state
    ● The goal is to exchange information in relation to food fraud
    ● The goal is to exchange information in unsafe food
A

● IT tool

● The goal is to exchange information in unsafe food

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72
Q
  1. Which steps are part of the preparation of raw, smoked and fermented meat products
    ● Deboning
    ● Protein content measurement
    ● Trichinella exam
    ● Cutting and sometimes pre-chilling of the meat
A

● Deboning

● Cutting and sometimes pre-chilling of the meat

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73
Q
  1. What is the difference between salting and curing
    ● In case of salting only pure sodium chloride is applied
    ● Salting can be only dry salting
    ● In case of curing other additives than NaCl are also used
    ● Curing can only be wet curing
A

● In case of salting only pure sodium chloride is applied

● In case of curing other additives than NaCl are also used

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74
Q
  1. What is true about the F0 value
    ● It describes the heat resistance of a microbe species
    ● It means the necessary time to reduce the microbial population with 1 magnitude
    ● It is characteristic to the heat treatment process
    ● The minimum requirement of heat treatments is set to achieve 12 magnitude reduction of Clostridium Botulinum spores (If pH>4.5)
A

● It is characteristic to the heat treatment process
● The minimum requirement of heat treatments is set to achieve 12 magnitude reduction of Clostridium Botulinum spores (If pH>4.5)

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75
Q
  1. Brucellosis
    ● The whole body is unfit for consumption
    ● If localised, only the affected organs or part should be declared unfit for human consumption
    ● The genitals, mammary glands and blood are unfit, even if no lesions are visible during diagnostic slaughter
    ● Only investigations for the presence of B. abortus shall be performed
A

● The whole body is unfit for consumption● The genitals, mammary glands and blood are unfit, even if no lesions are visible during diagnostic slaughter

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76
Q
  1. Yellow colour disorders
    ● Are always pathological (only jaundice)
    ● Can be of alimentary (feed) origin
    ● If of non-contagious origin, the meat is fit for consumption
    ● Mean that the possibility of bacterial spread shall be taken into account during decision making
A

● Can be of alimentary (feed) origin

● If of non-contagious origin, the meat is fit for consumption

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77
Q
  1. Echinococcus Granulosus
    ● The animals infected cannot be slaughtered
    ● The meat is fit for consumption except for the affected parts
    ● The infection is zoonosis, but humans may be infested only by eggs released by carnivores
    ● The liver unfit for human consumption can only be given as feed to dogs
A

● The meat is fit for consumption except for the affected parts
● The infection is zoonosis, but humans may be infested only by eggs released by carnivores

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78
Q
  1. What is typical of traditional raw sausage production technology
    ● They are produced with starter cultures
    ● Lower water activity (<0.9) than fermented sausages
    ● Higher pH (5.8-6) than fermented sausages
    ● Some types contain added sugar
A

● Lower water activity (<0.9) than fermented sausages

● Higher pH (5.8-6) than fermented sausages

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79
Q
  1. What are the criteria of egg products set by the 854/2004 EC regulation
    ● Below the limit E. Coli
    ● Absence of 3-OH butyric acid
    ● Below the limit shell, shell membrane and other pieces
    853/2004/EC: 3-OH, lactic, shell + membrane
A

● Below the limit E. Coli

● Below the limit shell, shell membrane and other piece

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80
Q
  1. What is the food fraud network
    ● IT tool (RASFF)
    ● Group of appointed representative of Member states
    ● The goal is to exchange information in relation to food fraud
    ● The goal is to exchange information in unsafe food (RASFF)
A

● Group of appointed representative of Member states

● The goal is to exchange information in relation to food fraud

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81
Q
  1. Find the correct answers
    ● If the pH of the can >4.5; sterilisation is used
    ● If the pH of the can <4.5; pasteurisation is used
    ● The cans are always thermostatically tested at 55c temperature
    ● Clostridium botulinum causes deterioration
A

● If the pH of the can >4.5; sterilisation is used

● Clostridium botulinum causes deterioration

82
Q
  1. Select the correct statements
    ● Cold smoking of meat products is less effective against moulds than bacteria
    ● Cold smoking of meat products is more effective against mould than bacterial post-infection
    ● Deterioration of refrigerated meat products with shielding gas is mainly caused by aerobic bacteria
    ● Deterioration of refrigerated meat products packed with shielding gas is mainly caused by aerotolerant anaerobic bacteria
A

● Cold smoking of meat products is less effective against moulds than bacteria
● Deterioration of refrigerated meat products packed with shielding gas is mainly caused by aerotolerant anaerobic bacteria

83
Q
  1. Choose the correct statement
    ● The potency of the sodium hydrochloride solution is more pronounced at acidic pH
    ● The potency of the sodium hydrochloride solution is more pronounced at alkaline pH
    ● The potency of the sodium hydrochloride solution is more stable at acidic pH
    ● The potency of the sodium hydrochloride solution is more stable at alkaline pH
A

● The potency of the sodium hydrochloride solution is more pronounced at alkaline pH
● The potency of the sodium hydrochloride solution is more stable at alkaline pH

84
Q
  1. Choose the correct statement
    ● The potency of the sodium hydrochloride solution is more pronounced at acidic pH
    ● The potency of the sodium hydrochloride solution is more pronounced at alkaline pH
    ● The potency of the sodium hydrochloride solution is more stable at acidic pH
    ● The potency of the sodium hydrochloride solution is more stable at alkaline pH
A

● The potency of the sodium hydrochloride solution is more pronounced at alkaline pH
● The potency of the sodium hydrochloride solution is more stable at alkaline pH

85
Q
  1. Choose the correct statements
    ● Nitrosamines can be produced in the stomach in the human body
    ● Nitrosamines in the human body can be formed more and more in the internal duct
    ● Nitrosamines are formed by the reaction of amines and nitrates
    ● Nitrosamines are formed by reaction of amines and nitrites
A

● Nitrosamines can be produced in the stomach in the human body
● Nitrosamines are formed by reaction of amines and nitrites

86
Q
  1. Choose the CORRECT answers
    ¥ In general, the water activity demand of Gram positive bacteria is higher than the gram negative ones
    ¥ In general, the water activity demand of gram negative bacteria (0.97) is higher than the gram positive ones (0.90)
    ¥ In general, the water activity demand of bacteria (0.97) is higher than the yeasts (0.88)
    In general, the water activity demand of bacteria is lower than the yeasts
A

¥ In general, the water activity demand of gram negative bacteria (0.97) is higher than the gram positive ones (0.90)
¥ In general, the water activity demand of bacteria (0.97) is higher than the yeasts (0.88)

87
Q
  1. Correct
    ● Campylobacter jejuni cannot get into the egg through its pores causing a secondary contamination of it
    ● Campylobacter jejuni can get into the egg through its pores causing a secondary infection of it
    ● Salmonella enteritidis cannot get into the egg through its pores causing a secondary contamination of it
    ● Salmonella enteritidis can get into the egg through its pores causing a secondary contamination of it
A

● Campylobacter jejuni can get into the egg through its pores causing a secondary infection of it
● Salmonella enteritidis can get into the egg through its pores causing a secondary contamination of it

88
Q

Choose the correct answers

  • Chlorinated hydrocarbons are cholinesterase inhibitors
  • Organophosphates are cholinesterase inhibitors
  • Pyretroids are synthetic derivatives of pyrethrins
  • Pyrethrins are synthetic derivatives of pyrethroids
A
  • Organophosphates are cholinesterase inhibitors

- Pyretroids are synthetic derivatives of pyrethrins

89
Q

Choose the correct answers!
- Chlorinated hydrocarbons are highly lipid-soluble compounds with a tendency to persist in the environment
- Organophosphates are highly lipid-soluble compounds with a tendency to
persist in the environment
- Pyretroids are persisting compounds in the environment
- Pyretroids do not persist in the environment

A
  • Chlorinated hydrocarbons are highly lipid-soluble compounds with a tendency to persist in the environment
  • Pyretroids do not persist in the environment
90
Q

Choose the correct answers!

  • Aflatoxin-producing mould species may occur also in Central Europe, but do not produce toxins under these climatic conditions
  • Aflatoxin-producing mould species may occur also in central Europe and can also produce toxins there due to the climatic change
  • Ochratoxins can only be produced under hot climate conditions
  • Ochratoxins can also produced under temperate climate conditions
A
  • Aflatoxin-producing mould species may occur also in central Europe and can also produce toxins there due to the climatic change
  • Ochratoxins can also produced under temperate climate conditions
91
Q

Choose the correct answers!

  • Nitrosamines can get into the organism of the consumer with foods, but can also be generated in the stomach
  • Nitrosamines can get into the organism of the consumer with foods, but can also be generated in the intestines
  • PAHs are generated during the imperfect combustion of organic materials
  • Nitrosamines are generated during the imperfect combustion of organic materials
A
  • Nitrosamines can get into the organism of the consumer with foods, but can also be generated in the stomach
  • PAHs are generated during the imperfect combustion of organic materials
92
Q

Choose the correct answers!
- In the EU, nitroimidazoles are prohibited for growth promotion, but can be used for
therapy in food-producing animals
- In the EU, nitroimidazoles are prohibited for use in food-producing animals
- Beta-agonists are illegal growth promotants, but can be used for therapy
- Beta-agonists are not allowed for use in food-producing animals, at all.

A
  • In the EU, nitroimidazoles are prohibited for use in food-producing animals
  • Beta-agonists are illegal growth promotants, but can be used for therapy
93
Q

Choose the correct answers

  • The spoilage of fresh meat is mainly caused by aerobic psycrotrophic bacteria
  • The spoilage of fresh meat is mainly caused by anaerobic mesophilic bacteria
  • The spoilage of raw, cured meat products is mostly caused by microorganisms with a high water activity requirement
  • The spoilage of raw, cured meat products is mostly caused by microorganisms with a low water activity requirement
A
  • The spoilage of fresh meat is mainly caused by aerobic psycrotrophic bacteria
  • The spoilage of raw, cured meat products is mostly caused by microorganisms with a high water activity requirement
94
Q

Choose the correct answers!
- The typical, lasting red colour of cured meat products is due to nitrosomyoglobin
- The typical, lasting red colour of cured meat products is due to oxymyoglobin
- For slow curing with dry salting, exclusively a nitrite-containing curing salt may be
used
- For slow curing with dry salting, exclusively a nitrate-containing curing salt may be used

A
  • The typical, lasting red colour of cured meat products is due to nitrosomyoglobin
  • For slow curing with dry salting, exclusively a nitrate-containing curing salt may be used
95
Q

Choose the correct answers!

  • Redox potential of foods is characterized by the aw value
  • Redox potential of foods is characterized by the Eh value
  • Moulds and yeasts prefer a more acidic pH than bacteria
  • Moulds and yeasts prefer a more alkalinic pH than bacteria
A
  • Redox potential of foods is characterized by the Eh value

- Moulds and yeasts prefer a more acidic pH than bacteria

96
Q

Choose the correct answers!
- Heat resistance of moulds and yeasts is similar to that of mesophilic bacteria
- Heat resistance of moulds and yeasts is much higher than that of mesophilic
bacteria
- Based on the 12D principle, the minimum sterilization equivalent is 2.52 minutes
- Based on the 12D principle, the minimum sterilization equivalent is 0.21 minute

A
  • Heat resistance of moulds and yeasts is much higher than that of mesophilic
    bacteria
  • Based on the 12D principle, the minimum sterilization equivalent is 2.52 minutes
97
Q

ect answers

  • Skimming increases the density of milk
  • Skimming decreases the density of milk
  • Mastitis usually increases the electrical conductivity of milk
  • Mastitis usually reduces the electrical conductivity of milk
A
  • Skimming increases the density of milk

- Mastitis usually increases the electrical conductivity of milk

98
Q

Choose the correct answers!

  • Cheeses made from raw milk may pose higher microbiological risk than those made from pasteruised milk
  • Cheeses made from raw milk may pose lower microbiological risk than those mase from pasteurized milk
  • Early blowing of semi-hard cheeses resulting in many small holes are caused by clostridia
  • Early blowing of semi-hard cheeses resulting in many small holes are caused by coliforms
A
  • Cheeses made from raw milk may pose higher microbiological risk than those made from pasteruised milk
  • Early blowing of semi-hard cheeses resulting in many small holes are caused by coliforms
99
Q

Choose the correct answers!

  • Cheesemaking is based on the coagulation of caseins
  • Cheesemaking is based on the coagulation of milk fats
  • Late blowing of hard cheeses resulting in large holes are caused by clostridia
  • Late blowing of hard cheeses resulting in large holes are caused by coliforms
A
  • Cheesemaking is based on the coagulation of caseins

- Late blowing of hard cheeses resulting in large holes are caused by clostridia

100
Q

Choose the correct answers
- Alkaline phosphatase test can be used for determining the effectiveness of high-
temperature short-time (HTST) pasteurization
- Peroxidase test can be used for determining the effectiveness of HTST
pasteurization
- Alkaline phosphatase is inactivated at 72°C within 15 seconds
- Peroxidase is inactivated at 72°C within 15 seconds

A
  • Peroxidase test can be used for determining the effectiveness of HTST
    pasteurization
  • Alkaline phosphatase is inactivated at 72°C within 15 seconds
101
Q

Choose the correct answers!

  • Milk fat occurs in the milk plasma in the form of colloidal micelles
  • Milk fat occurs in the milk plasma in the form of globules
  • Caseins can be found in the milk in the form of globules
  • Caseins can be found in the milk in the form of colloidal micelles
A
  • Milk fat occurs in the milk plasma in the form of globules

- Caseins can be found in the milk in the form of colloidal micelles

102
Q

Choose the correct answers
- The fermentation of yoghurt is performed with a mixture of two thermophilic
bacteria
- The fermentation of kefir is performed with a mixture of two thermophilic bacteria
- For manufacturing of yoghurts, the milk is pasteurized at high temperature for 2-3
minutes
- For manufacturing of yoghurts, the milk is pasteurised at low temperature without holding

A
  • The fermentation of yoghurt is performed with a mixture of two thermophilic
    bacteria
  • For manufacturing of yoghurts, the milk is pasteurised at low temperature without holding
103
Q

hoose the correct answers!
- For manufacturing of butter, the raw cream is pasteurized at low temperature
without holding
- For manufacturing of butter, the raw cream is pasteurized at high temperature with holding
- For manufacturing of butter, the temperature and time conditions used for pasteruisation are due to technological aspects
- For manufacturing of butter, the temperature and time conditions used for pasteurization are due to food safety aspects

A
  • For manufacturing of butter, the raw cream is pasteurized at low temperature
    without holding
  • For manufacturing of butter, the temperature and time conditions used for pasteurization are due to food safety aspects
104
Q

Choose the correct answers!
- Broilers infected with Salmonella enteritidis must be slaughtered by immediate slaughter at a designated slaughterhouse
- Broilers infected with Salmonella enteritidis must be slaughtered separately
- Cattle producing positive tuberculin test must be slaughtered by immediate slaughter
at a designated slaughterhouse
- Cattle producing positive tuberculin test must be slaughtered separately

A
  • Broilers infected with Salmonella enteritidis must be slaughtered separately
  • Cattle producing positive tuberculin test must be slaughtered separately
105
Q

Choose the correct answers!
- One of the decisions concerning the meat is the conditional fitness for human
consumption
- The meat can be declared fit for human consumption after treatment
- In poultry, the fact that the meat is fit for human consumption is expressed by the application of the identity mark
- In poultry, the fact that the meat is fit for human consumption is expressed by the application of the health mark (meat stamp)

A
  • The meat can be declared fit for human consumption after treatment
  • In poultry, the fact that the meat is fit for human consumption is expressed by the application of the identity mark
106
Q

Choose the correct answers!

  • During meat ageing, the water holding capacity of proteins decreases due to the pH reduction
  • During meat ageing, the water holding capacity of proteins increases due to the pJ reduction
  • After bleeding, the pH of the muscle tissue of cattle decreases faster to the final pH than in pigs
  • After bleeding, the pH of the muscle tissue of pigs decreases faster to the final pH than in cattle
A
  • During meat ageing, the water holding capacity of proteins decreases due to the pH reduction
  • After bleeding, the pH of the muscle tissue of pigs decreases faster to the final pH than in cattle
107
Q

Choose the correct answers!
- The routine meat inspection of young bovine animals (<8 months) shall be performed
visually
- The routine meat inspection of young bovine animals (<8 months) shall be
performed by visual inspection, palpation and incision
- As part of the routine meat inspection of young cattle (<8 months old), the retropharyngeal lymphnodes shall be sliced
- In young cattle (<8 months old), the retropharyngeal lymphnodes shall be sliced in case of suspect only

A
  • The routine meat inspection of young bovine animals (<8 months) shall be
    performed by visual inspection, palpation and incision
  • In young cattle (<8 months old), the retropharyngeal lymphnodes shall be sliced in case of suspect only
108
Q

Choose the correct answers!
- In cattle over 12 months, the skull is SRM, but the head meat may be used for
human consumption (according to google this is correct)
- In cattle over 12 months, the skull including the head meat is classed as SRM
- In cattle, the spleen is classed as SRM
- In sheep, the spleen is classed as SRM

A 
- In cattle over 12 months, the skull is SRM, but the head meat may be used for
human consumption (according to google this is correct)
 In sheep, the spleen is classed as SRM
109
Q

Choose the correct answers
- After slaughter, the carcasses of mammals should be chilled to a temperature of <
4°C
- After slaughter, the carcasses of mammals should be chilled to a temperature of <
7°C
- After slaughter, the carcasses of poultry should be chilled to a temperature of < 7°C
- After slaughter, the carcasses of poultry should be chilled to a temperature of < 4°C

A
  • After slaughter, the carcasses of mammals should be chilled to a temperature of <
    7°C
  • After slaughter, the carcasses of poultry should be chilled to a temperature of < 4°C
110
Q

Choose the correct answers!

  • Rodding means the ligation of the esophagus before the rumen
  • Rodding means the ligation of the rectum in order to prevent fecal contamination
  • In cattle, the spinal cord is classed as SRM irrespective of the animal’s age
  • In cattle, the spinal cord is classed as SRM in animals >12 months old
A
  • Rodding means the ligation of the esophagus before the rumen
  • In cattle, the spinal cord is classed as SRM in animals >12 months old
111
Q

Choose the correct answers
- S. aureus may survive in chocolates and may produce enterotoxins posing a food
safety risk
- S. aureus may survive in chocolates, but cannot produce enterotoxins posing a food safety risk
- Clostridium botulinum spores may germinate and produce toxins in the honey
- Due to the low water activity and low pH of honey, even bacterium spores are unable
to germinate in it

A
  • S. aureus may survive in chocolates and may produce enterotoxins posing a food safety risk
  • Clostridium botulinum spores may germinate and produce toxins in the honey
112
Q

Choose the correct answers!
- Clostridium botulinum spores surviving in the honey may germinate and cause
toxico-infection in infants
- Clostridium botulinum spores surviving in the honey cannot germinate in the intestines of infants
- Wine is safe in microbiological terms as pathogenic bacteria cannot survive in it
- Depending on the environmental conditions, Listeria monocytogenes can survive in the wine posing a food safety risk

A
  • Clostridium botulinum spores surviving in the honey may germinate and cause
    toxico-infection in infants
  • Depending on the environmental conditions, Listeria monocytogenes can survive in the wine posing a food safety risk
113
Q
  • Live bivalve molluscs must not contain marine biotoxins exceeding the limits
    described in regulation 853/2004/EC
  • Live bivalve molluscs must not contain mycotoxins exceeding the limits described in regulation 853/2004/EC
  • Live bivalve molluscs placed on the market for retail sale via a dispatch centre shall be marked with an identification mark on the packaging
  • Live bivalve molluscs placed on the market for retail sale via a dispatch centre shall be marked with an health mark on the packaging
A
  • Live bivalve molluscs must not contain marine biotoxins exceeding the limits
    described in regulation 853/2004/EC
  • Live bivalve molluscs placed on the market for retail sale via a dispatch centre shall be marked with an identification mark on the packaging
114
Q

Choose the correct answers!
- Live bivalve molluscs collected from Class “A” areas are suitable for human
consumption after treatment only
- Live bivalve molluscs deriving from Class “A” areas can be collected for direct
human consumption
- The production areas of live bivalve molluscs are classified based on the level of
faecal contamination
- The production areas of live bivalve molluscs are classified based on the level of marine biotoxin contamination

A
  • Live bivalve molluscs deriving from Class “A” areas can be collected for direct
    human consumption
  • The production areas of live bivalve molluscs are classified based on the level of
    faecal contamination
115
Q

Choose the Correct answers!

  • Any hunted large game shall be eviscerated on the spot as soon as possible
  • The hunted large game shall be eviscerated in the game collection centre
  • The hunted large game shall be skinned on the spot
  • The hunted large game must not be skinned on the spot
A
  • Any hunted large game shall be eviscerated on the spot as soon as possible
  • The hunted large game must not be skinned on the spot
116
Q

Choose the correct answers
- In the inra-Community trade, the fresh meat of pigs or cattle shall be marked with an
identification marking
- In the inra-Community trade, the fresh meat of pigs or cattle shall be health
marked (meat stamp)
- Restaurants belong to the retail establishments
- Restaurants belong to the wholesale establishments

A
  • In the inra-Community trade, the fresh meat of pigs or cattle shall be health
    marked (meat stamp)
  • Restaurants belong to the retail establishments
117
Q

Choose the correct answers!

  • establishments operating under the scope of the regulation 853/2004/EC shall be approved
  • All food establishments shall be approved by the competent authority
  • Approval process of a food establishment needs a previous on-site visit
  • Registration process of a food establishment needs a previous on-site visit
A
  • establishments operating under the scope of the regulation 853/2004/EC shall be approved
  • Approval process of a food establishment needs a previous on-site visit
118
Q

Choose the correct answers!
- Retail supermarkets are subject of approval according to the regulation 853/2004/EC
- Retail supermarkets are not subject of approval according to the regulation
853/2004/EC
- Mass caterers are subject to approval according to the regulation 853/2004/EC
- Mass caterers are not subject to approval according to the regulation 853/2004/EC

A

Retail supermarkets are not subject of approval according to the regulation
853/2004/EC
- Mass caterers are not subject to approval according to the regulation 853/2004/EC

119
Q

Choose the correct answers!

  • Any fresh meat of pigs or cattle put on the market without health marking (meat stamp) shall be regarded as an illegal distribution
  • Any fresh meat of pigs or cattle put on the market without identification marking shall be regarded as an illegal distribution
  • The health mark (meat stamp) shall include the approval number of the concerned establishment, but it is not included in the identification marking
  • Both the health mark and the identification marking shall include the approval number of the concerned establishment
A
  • Any fresh meat of pigs or cattle put on the market without health marking (meat stamp) shall be regarded as an illegal distribution
  • Both the health mark and the identification marking shall include the approval number of the concerned establishment
120
Q

Choose the correct answers!

  • The rules of small-scale production of foods of animal origin are regulated on EU level
  • The rules of small-scale production of foods of animal origin shall be determined nationally
  • Mass catering belongs to retail operations
  • Mass catering belongs to wholesale operations
A
  • The rules of small-scale production of foods of animal origin shall be determined nationally
  • Mass catering belongs to retail operations
121
Q

Choose the correct statements (practical 1)

  • Only low conductivity broth may be used for impedance measurement
  • Only low conductivity broth should be used for redox potential measurement
  • The endotoxin is a lipopolysaccharide from the cell wall of Gram-negative bacteria
  • The endotoxin is a lipopolysaccharide from the cell wall of gram-positive bacteria
A
  • Only low conductivity broth may be used for impedance measurement
  • The endotoxin is a lipopolysaccharide from the cell wall of Gram-negative bacteria
122
Q

Choose the right solutions (practical 1)

  • The ‘c’ value means the sample number
  • The ‘c’ value means the number of sample units giving values over m or between m and M
  • If the coagulase-positive Staphylococcus count in the meat product is higher than 105 cfu/g, then the product must also be tested for the presence of staphylococcus enterotoxin
  • If the coagulase-positive Staphylococcus count in cheese is higher than 105 cfu/g, then the product must also be tested for the presence of staphylococcus enterotoxin
A
  • The ‘c’ value means the number of sample units giving values over m or between m and M
  • If the coagulase-positive Staphylococcus count in cheese is higher than 105 cfu/g, then the product must also be tested for the presence of staphylococcus enterotoxin
123
Q

Mark the correct answers (Practical 1)

  • In the CAMP test, Listeria monocytogenes gives a positive reaction with Rhodococcus equi
  • In the CAMP test, Listeria monocytogenes reacts positively with Staphylococcus
  • Salmonella decarboxylates lysine
  • Salmonella digest ur
A
  • In the CAMP test, Listeria monocytogenes reacts positively with Staphylococcus
  • Salmonella decarboxylates lysine
124
Q

Choose the right solutions. (Practical 3)

  • The whipped cream must be matured
  • The churning is a phase reversion process
  • Butter rancidity is the result of protein breakdown
  • Rancing is caused by microbial activity
A
  • The whipped cream must be matured

- The churning is a phase reversion process

125
Q

Which information is part of the producer code on the eggshell? (Practical 3)

  • The approval number of the egg packing centre
  • The registration number of the laying hen farm
  • EC (European community)
  • The code of the housing method
A
  • The registration number of the laying hen farm

- The code of the housing method

126
Q

What curing methods were demonstrated in the Technology lab? (practical 4)

  • Dry curing method: meat was covered with curing/pickling salt
  • Wet curing with injection: 8% sodium nitrite solution was injected
  • Dry salting: meat was covered with pure sodium chloride
  • Tumbling: tumbler was applied to perform fast curing
A
  • Dry curing method: meat was covered with curing/pickling salt
  • Wet curing with injection: 8% sodium nitrite solution was injected
127
Q 
Which heavy metals are tested for molluscs? 
Hg
Cu 
Pb 
Cd
A

Pb

Cd

128
Q 
Which heavy metal ions are tested for fish and crustaceans?
Fe
Pb 
Hg
Cu
A

Pb

Hg

129
Q 
Which heavy metals are tested for molluscs?
−	Hg
−	Cu
−	Pb
−	Cd
A

Pb

Cd

130
Q 
Which heavy metals are tested for fish and crustaceans?
−	Fe
−	Pb
−	Hg
−	Cu
A

− Pb

− Hg

131
Q 
What is the cause the flesh of fish is more perishable than the mammal meat?
−	Parasitic infection
−	High water content
−	High pH
−	Biotoxin content
A

− High water content

− High pH

132
Q

Which of these are NOT mandatory on food label?
− Name of the producer
− Nutritional claim
− Alcohol content in case of bakery products
− Weight of product

A

− Nutritional claim

− Alcohol content in case of bakery products

133
Q

Which of these statements are not characteristic of the primary packaging?
− It is with indirect contact with the food, it is the outermost protection of batches
− It provides useful information for the consumers
− It can be divided into smaller units, called the secondary packaging
− It is important that it does not pose a human health risk

A

− It is with indirect contact with the food, it is the outermost protection of batches
− It can be divided into smaller units, called the secondary packaging

134
Q

What is the difference between the professional and legal definition of the waste?
− Only technical aspects are covered by the professional definition
− The professional defines the sub−term of secondary raw materials within the term of waste
− Legal requirement appears in the legal definition as potential waste generating factor
− The legal definition is more concrete, concise

A

− The professional defines the sub−term of secondary raw materials within the term of waste
The legal definition is more concrete, concise

135
Q

Which information is part of the package of the table eggs?
− The approval number of the egg packing center
− The type of housing
− The oval identification mark
− Date of laying

A

− The approval number of the egg packing center

− The type of housing

136
Q 
Which information is part of the producer's code on the eggshell?
−	The approval of the egg packing center
−	The type of housing
−	EC for european communities
−	The ISO code of the country
A

− The type of housing

− The ISO code of the country

137
Q 
Which of the following operations are critical control point (CCP) in the case of poultry slaughter?
−	Stunning, bleeding
−	Dressing, evisceration
−	Chilling of the carcass
−	Chilling of the offals
A

− Chilling of the carcass

− Chilling of the offals

138
Q 
How warm is the boiling water for poultry slaughter?
−	50−54 C in case of air chilling
−	55−60 in case of air chilling
−	50−54 in case of immersion chilling
−	55−60 in case of immersion chilling
A

− 50−54 C in case of air chilling

− 55−60 in case of immersion chilling

139
Q 
For which animal species is scalding a characteristic slaughter moment?
−	Sheep
−	Swine
−	Poultry
−	Rabbit
A

− Swine

− Poultry

140
Q 
Which of the below products are raw, fermented products?
−	Hungarian winter salami
−	Foil−packaged ham
−	Lyoner
−	Snack sausage
A

− Hungarian winter salami

− Snack sausage

141
Q

What is the difference between Lyoner and Bologna-type sausage?
− Only difference is in the diameter of these products?
− One of these products has a caliber of min. 26 mm and the other 55 mm
− Only one of these products has homogenous cross section
− Only for lyoner is a prescription of minimum meat content (51%)

A

− Only difference is in the diameter of these products?

− One of these products has a caliber of min. 26 mm and the other 55 mm

142
Q 
In case of swine slaughter the inspection of the offals happens …
−	On a tray in case of white offals
−	Hung in case of white offals
−	On a tray in case of red offals
−	Hung in case of red offals
A

On a tray in case of white offals

− Hung in case of red offals

143
Q

Which of the following are category 2 waste?
− Carcass suspected for TSE
− The blood of ruminants
− The wastewater products of slaughterhouses not handling ruminants
− Feces

A

− The wastewater products of slaughterhouses not handling ruminants
− Feces

144
Q 
Which part of the adult goat is considered SRM?
−	The spinal cord
−	The tonsils
−	The ileum
−	The skull
A

− The spinal cord

− The skull

145
Q 
In case of which species is Trichinella testing compulsory?
−	Horse
−	Pig
−	Cattle
−	Sheep
A

− Horse

− Pig

146
Q 
Which regulations describe the official controls?
−	852/2004/E
−	853/2004/EC
−	2017/625/EC
−	2019/627
A

− 2017/625/EC

− 2019/627

147
Q 
What additional tests can be performed at the slaughterhouse?
−	Residue test
−	Complex microbiological examinations
−	Cooking test
−	Trichinella examination
A

− Cooking test

− Trichinella examination

148
Q

What is characteristic of calpains?
− They have a role in aging of poultry meat
− They can be found in lysosomes
− They catalyze the degradation of interstitial tissue proteins
− They particularly catalyze the degradation of actomyosin complex

A

− They have a role in aging of poultry meat

− They catalyze the degradation of interstitial tissue proteins

149
Q

Which documents check is mandatory during every control?
− Cattle passports
− The permission of the transporting vehicle
− Animal Health Certificate
− Common Veterinary Document

A

− Cattle passports

− Animal Health Certificate

150
Q

What are the main steps of ante-mortem II. inspection?
− Verification of transport documents
− Simplified clinical examination
− Individual examination of each species
− Check the documents of the transport vehicle in all cases

A

− Verification of transport documents

− Simplified clinical examination

151
Q 
In case of pig slaughter, which organs are examined together with the carcass?
−	Rectum
−	Peritoneum
−	Spleen
−	Kidney
A

− Peritoneum

− Kidney

152
Q

Which of the following statements are true?
− In case of septicemia, the whole carcass is unfit for human consumption
− The presence of non−pathogenic bacteria in several organs makes the carcass fit for human consumption
− Certain organoleptic abnormalities result in the condemnation of the whole carcass (denne er jo egentlig og rett)
− The absence of zoonotic diseases results in a carcass fit for human consumption

A

− In case of septicemia, the whole carcass is unfit for human consumption
− The presence of non−pathogenic bacteria in several organs makes the carcass fit for human consumption

153
Q 
Which type of heat treatment must be applied to kill the pathogenic microorganisms?
−	Frying
−	Drying on hot air
−	Cooking
−	Steaming
A

− Cooking

− Steaming

154
Q

Choose the CORRECT answers
− HACCP is a food−quality risk analysis and management system
− HACCP is a food−safety risk analysis and management system
− HACCP concept is based in the good hygiene practice
− The good hygiene practice is based on the HACCP concept

A

− HACCP is a food−safety risk analysis and management system

− HACCP concept is based in the good hygiene practice

155
Q

Choose the correct answers
− Clostridium botulinum spores surviving in the honey may germinate and cause toxico−infection in infants
− Clostridium botulinum spores surviving in the honey cannot germinate in the intestine of infants
− Wine is safe in microbiological terms as pathogenic bacteria cannot survive in it
− Depending on the environmental conditions, Listeria monocytogenes can survive in the wine posing a food safety risk

A

− Clostridium botulinum spores surviving in the honey may germinate and cause toxico−infection in infants
− Wine is safe in microbiological terms as pathogenic bacteria cannot survive in it

156
Q

− Identification marking shall be applied on the packaging of the poultry carcasses
− Identification marking shall be applied directly on the poultry carcasses
− Every poultry carcasses shall be tested for surface salmonella contamination at the slaughterhouse
− Once a week, minimum 15 poultry carcasses shall be tested for surface salmonella contamination

A

− Identification marking shall be applied on the packaging of the poultry carcasses
− Once a week, minimum 15 poultry carcasses shall be tested for surface salmonella contamination

157
Q

Choose the correct answers
− In cattle over 12 months, the skull is SRM, but the head meat may be used for human consumption
− In cattle over 12 months, the skull including the head meat is classed as SRM
− In cattle, the spleen is classed as SRM
− In sheep, the spleen is classed as SRM

A

− In cattle over 12 months, the skull is SRM, but the head meat may be used for human consumption
− In sheep, the spleen is classed as SRM

158
Q

Choose the correct answers
− Live bivalve molluscs collected from a Class “A” areas are suitable for human consumption
− Live bivalve molluscs deriving from a Class “A” area can be collected for direct human consumption
− The production areas of live bivalve molluscs are classified based on the level of fecal contamination
− The production areas of live bivalve molluscs are classified based on the level of marine biotoxin contamination

A

− Live bivalve molluscs deriving from a Class “A” area can be collected for direct human consumption
− The production areas of live bivalve molluscs are classified based on the level of fecal contamination

159
Q

Choose the correct answers
− The official veterinarian shall perform individual meat inspection of fish
− The official veterinarian shall perform the meat inspection of fish on a batch basis only
− Scombrotoxicosis is due to the formation of large amounts of biogenic amines by spoilage bacteria
− Scombrotoxicosis is due to the presence of marine biotoxins in the fles

A

− The official veterinarian shall perform the meat inspection of fish on a batch basis only
− Scombrotoxicosis is due to the formation of large amounts of biogenic amines by spoilage bacteria

160
Q

Choose the correct answers
− Animals suspected for campylobacter infection can be slaughtered unconditionally
− Animals suspected for Campylobacter infection shall be slaughtered separately
− If any form of yersiniosis is diagnosed at meat inspection, the whole carcass shall be declared unfit for human consumption
− If any form of yersiniosis is diagnosed at meat inspection, only the affected organs shall be declared unfit for human consumption

A

− Animals suspected for Campylobacter infection shall be slaughtered separately
− If any form of yersiniosis is diagnosed at meat inspection, the whole carcass shall be declared unfit for human consumption

161
Q

Choose the correct answers
− In sheep, foot and mouth disease (FMD) is characterized by vesicle formation in the mouth without salivation
− In goats, FMD is characterized by vesicle formation in the mouth without salivation
− In Cattle, FMD is characterized by vesicle formation in the mouth with salivation
− In pigs, FMD is characterized by vesicle formation in the mouth with salivation

A

− In goats, FMD is characterized by vesicle formation in the mouth without salivation
− In Cattle, FMD is characterized by vesicle formation in the mouth with salivation

162
Q

Choose the correct answers
− Basic document of the intra−community trade of foodstuffs in the EU is the common Health Entry Document (CVED)
− Basic documentation of the international trade of foodstuffs imported from third countries is the Common Health Entry Document (CVED)
− Foodstuffs of animal origin can enter the territory of the European Union through border inspection posts only
− Foodstuffs of animal origin can move in the territory of the EU through border inspection posts only

A

− Basic documentation of the international trade of foodstuffs imported from third countries is the Common Health Entry Document (CVED)
− Foodstuffs of animal origin can enter the territory of the European Union through border inspection posts only

163
Q

Choose the correct answers
− The EU legislation does not quantify the frequency of official controls
− According to the corresponding EU legislation, food processing establishments shall be controlled at least annually
− Conformity of the monitoring procedures with the critical limits is a major element of the GHP audit
− Conformity of the monitoring procedures with the critical limits is a major element of the HACCP audit

A

− The EU legislation does not quantify the frequency of official controls
− Conformity of the monitoring procedures with the critical limits is a major element of the HACCP audit

164
Q

Mark the correct answer
− In the CAMP test, Listeria monocytogenes gives a positive reaction with Rhodococcus equi
(Gives a negative result with R. equi)
− In the CAMP test, Listeria monocytogenes gives a positive reaction with Staphylococcus
− Salmonella decarboxylates lysine
− Salmonella digests urea

A

− In the CAMP test, Listeria monocytogenes gives a positive reaction with Staphylococcus
− Salmonella decarboxylates lysine

165
Q

At what stage of the food analytic procedure may a veterinarian be responsible?
Sampling
− Sample preparation
− Determining the analytical strategy, carrying out the analysis
− Interpretation of results

A

Sampling

− Interpretation of results

166
Q

Choose the right solutions
− The whipped cream must be matured
− The churning is a phase reversion process
− Butter rancidity is the result of protein breakdown
− Rancing is caused by microbial activity

A

− The churning is a phase reversion process

− Rancing is caused by microbial activity

167
Q

Choose the right solutions
− Buttermilk is a byproduct of churning
− Buttermilk cannot be separated by washing
− Physical ripening of cream results sour butter (get sweet cream with physical)
− Biological ripening of cream results sour butter

A

− Buttermilk is a byproduct of churning

− Biological ripening of cream results sour butter

168
Q

What were the applied technology steps during peasant sausage manufacture in tehnology lab?
− Inoculation of meat with starter culture
− Stuffing
− Smoking
− Heat treatment (cooking)

A

− Inoculation of meat with starter culture

− Stuffing

169
Q
  1. What are the conditions for enterotoxin production of S. aureus?
    - Just over 10C
    - 40-60% of the strains that cause mastitis are capable of its production
    - The minimal germ count of human toxicosis is 106/ml
    - The most common form of contamination is primary infection
A
  • Just over 10C

- The minimal germ count of human toxicosis is 106/ml

170
Q
  1. Correct answers between pheasant and Frankfurter
    - only pheasant is smoked
    - The size of the meat particles are different
    - Only Frankfurter is heated
    - Pheasant fermented maybe?
A

The size of the meat particles are different

- Pheasant fermented maybe?

171
Q
  1. OIE publication
    Yearly report
    SPS regulation
A

Yearly report

SPS regulation

172
Q

Choose the CORRECT statement
− After slaughter, the carcasses of mammals should be chilled to a temperature of <4 degrees
− After slaughter, the carcasses of mammals should be chilled to a temperature of <7 degrees
− After slaughter, the carcasses of poultry should be chilled to a temperature of <4 degrees
− After slaughter, the carcasses of poultry should be chilled to a temperature of <7 degrees

A

− After slaughter, the carcasses of mammals should be chilled to a temperature of <7 degrees
− After slaughter, the carcasses of poultry should be chilled to a temperature of <4 degrees

173
Q

Icterus
− the intima of large blood vessels is yellow
− could only be excluded with a cooking test
− if still present after 24hours, the meat is still fit for human consumption
− It is always a pathological process behind, which should be taken into accounting during decision making

A

− the intima of large blood vessels is yellow

− It is always a pathological process behind, which should be taken into accounting during decision making

174
Q 
Which lack of elements can cause mainly calcification disorders in eggs?
−	Ca
−	Fe
−	P
−	Se
A

− Ca

− P

175
Q
  • In case of systemic dispersal of microbes
    − The whole body is unfit for human consumption
    One symptom can be the septicaemic hemorrhages in the skin
    − If hemorrhages are found in the lungs, the meat is unfit for consumption
    − Only in the case of pyaemia the meat is unfit for consumption
A

− The whole body is unfit for human consumption

One symptom can be the septicaemic hemorrhages in the skin

176
Q

What are the responsibilities of the European Food safety Authority?
− Risk assessment
− Control of requirements relating to food safety
− Adoption of EU regulations
− Risk communication

A

− Risk assessment

− Risk communication

177
Q 
Which microbial tests are required under Regulation (EC) No 2073/2005 for raw fermented meat products
−	Salmonella spp.
−	E. coli
−	Enterobacteriaceae
−	Listeria monocytogenes
A

− Salmonella spp.

− Listeria monocytogenes

178
Q

How changes the color and how changes the form of myoglobin
− If myoglobin reacts with nitrite, the effect wont be visible after heat treatment
− If myoglobin reacts with oxygen, it will turn to oxymyoglobin, which is bright pink
− If myoglobin has long exposure to oxygen, it wont get brown color, but stay bright pink
− If myoglobin reacts with nitrite, it will form a nitrosomyoglobin, which is dark red and will turn to light pink after heat treatmen

A

− If myoglobin reacts with oxygen, it will turn to oxymyoglobin, which is bright pink
− If myoglobin reacts with nitrite, it will form a nitrosomyoglobin, which is dark red and will turn to light pink after heat treatmen

179
Q

What factors are important for the modeling of heat treatment for canned foods?
− The size of label on the can
− Rate of heat penetration at the center of the can
− The origin of the food to be canned
− pH of the food

A

− Rate of heat penetration at the center of the can

− pH of the food

180
Q

In case of insufficient bleeding
− Reason could be heart disorders
− Meat is generally unfit for human consumption
− There is always a foregin odour as well
− There is no effect on fitness for human consumption

A

− Meat is generally unfit for human consumption

− There is always a foregin odour as well

181
Q 
Which of these are critical control points in case of cooked ham production
−	Injection of brine
−	Tumbling
−	Heat processing
−	Cooling down
A

− Heat processing

− Cooling down

182
Q

In case of organoleptic changes of meat
− the meat is unfit for human consumption
− the meat shall be placed on the market as of decreased value
− additional laboratory examination might be needed for deciding on fitness for human consumption
− official veterinarian shall make a decision on fitness for human consumption, based on professional evidences

A

− additional laboratory examination might be needed for deciding on fitness for human consumption
− official veterinarian shall make a decision on fitness for human consumption, based on professional evidences

183
Q

Tuberculosis
− The whole body is unfit for human consumption
− If localized, only the affected organ or part should be declared unfit for human consumption
− If localized, only the affected organ or part and its associated lymph nodes should be declared unfit for human consumption
− If suspected, diagnostic slaughter shall be performed and sample sent to laboratory exam

A

− If localized, only the affected organ or part and its associated lymph nodes should be declared unfit for human consumption
− If suspected, diagnostic slaughter shall be performed and sample sent to laboratory exam

184
Q 
Which findings make egg unfit for human consumption?
−	Parasite
−	Foreign body
−	Meat spot
−	Contaminated shell
A

− Parasite

− Foreign body

185
Q 
Which manufacturing steps of sausage production were part of our practical?
−	Mincing of pork shoulder and back fat
−	Stuffing
−	Smoking
−	Ripening
A

− Mincing of pork shoulder and back fat

− Stuffing

186
Q

What kind of results have to be taken account of, during the planning of official controls, based on the regulation 625/2017/EC?
− Results of official controls carried out earlier
− Results of economic analysis
− Results of own controls carried out by food business operator
− Results of parliamentary elections

A

− Results of official controls carried out earlier

− Results of own controls carried out by food business operator

187
Q

What is true about the zoonotic Salmonella serotypes?
− In most cases they do not cause a disease in slaughter animals
− In most cases they cause septicemia in slaughter animals
− they can cause enteritis, even septicemia in young animals
− the carcassases of animals showing the signs and symptoms of salmonellosis are fit for human consumption only after heat treatment

A

− In most cases they do not cause a disease in slaughter animals
− they can cause enteritis, even septicemia in young animals

188
Q 
Which stunning procedure are typical for slaughtering sheep?
−	Electronarcosis with water immersion
−	Electronarcosis with stunning tongs
−	Carbon dioxide gas chamber
−	Mechanical stunning gun
A

− Electronarcosis with stunning tongs

− Mechanical stunning gun

189
Q

What are the advantages of plant-based casing?
− Mechanical restraint
− All of them are edible
− They widen in water and shrinking when dried out
− They are easily chewable

A

− All of them are edible

− They widen in water and shrinking when dried out

190
Q

Choose the correct statements
− At lower water activity, deterioration marinated/smoked etc meat products is done by mainly gram + bacteria
− At lower water activity deterioration marinated/smoked etc meat products is done by mainly gram − bacteria
− Deterioration of fresh meat caused mainly by gram + bacteria
− Deterioration of fresh meat caused mainly by gram − bacteria

A

− At lower water activity, deterioration marinated/smoked etc meat products is done by mainly gram + bacteri
− Deterioration of fresh meat caused mainly by gram − bacteria

191
Q

Which examinations are to be carried out during the official control of shellfish?
− Examination of fecal contamination of the production area
− Measurement of histamine concentration
− Testing for the biotoxin content of the shellfish
− Measurement of the mercury concentration

A

− Examination of fecal contamination of the production area

− Testing for the biotoxin content of the shellfish

192
Q

Choose the CORRECT statement
− Migration means that a component directs from the packaging to the product
− Migration means that a component directs from product to packaging
− Penetration means that a component directs from the packaging to the product
− Penetration means that a components directs from the products to the packaging

A

− Migration means that a component directs from the packaging to the product
− Penetration means that a components directs from the products to the packaging

193
Q 
What are the advantages of combining chromatographic and mass spectrometric methods?
−	More reliable qualitative analysis
−	More sensitive quantitative analysis
−	More cost−effective procedures
−	All statements are true
A

− More reliable qualitative analysis

− More sensitive quantitative analysis

194
Q

Choose the CORRECT statement
− S. aureus may also be excreted with the milk during the subclinical stadium of mastitis
− S. aureus is not excreted with the milk during the subclinical stadium of mastitis
− The heat resistance of Mycobacterium paratuberculosis is lower than that of M. bovis
− The heat resistance of M. paratuberculosis is higher than that of M. bovis

A

− S. aureus may also be excreted with the milk during the subclinical stadium of mastitis
− The heat resistance of M. paratuberculosis is higher than that of M. bovis

195
Q

Where can the slaughter of farmed game take place?
− Slaughterhouse approved by the authority
− In the holding of origin
− At a wildlife collection point
− Game processing plant

A

− Slaughterhouse approved by the authority

− In the holding of origin

196
Q

Choose the CORRECT statement
− Active packaging consists of ingredients, which are inside the packaging and interacting with food in different ways (transmission or emission) allowing the direct and active protection of food to keep the required quality
− Good example for active packaging is a thermometer visible on the food label
− Intelligent packaging is a system with indicators capable to inform consumers before buying about the journey of the given food
− Good example for intelligent packaging is a silica gel bag

A

− Active packaging consists of ingredients, which are inside the packaging and interacting with food in different ways (transmission or emission) allowing the direct and active protection of food to keep the required quality
− Intelligent packaging is a system with indicators capable to inform consumers before buying about the journey of the given food

197
Q 
Which methods are suitable for determining the number of living cells?
-	pour-plate method
−	ATP measurment
-	pour-plate method
−	protein determination
A
  • pour-plate method

- pour-plate method- pour-plate method

198
Q 
Which operation requires an approval based on the 853/2004/EC regulation?
−	Game processing
-	Primary production
−	Egg collection
-	Wholesale of products of animal origin
A
  • Primary production

- Wholesale of products of animal origin

199
Q

Choose the CORRECT statement
- As part of the routine meat inspection of cattle >8 months old the liver shall be inspected by incision
− As part of the routine meat inspection of cattle >8 months old the liver shall be inspected visually
- As a part of the routine meat inspection of cattle >8 months old, the trachea shall be opened lengthwise
− As a part of the routine meat inspection of cattle >8 months old, the trachea shall be inspected visually

A

− As part of the routine meat inspection of cattle >8 months old the liver shall be inspected visually
- As a part of the routine meat inspection of cattle >8 months old, the trachea shall be opened lengthwise

200
Q 
Which methods are suitable for determining the number of living cells?
-	pour-plate method
−	ATP measurment
-	membrane filtration
−	protein determination
A
  • pour-plate method

- membrane filtration

Food Hygiene extra questions (1 decks)

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