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Food Animal I > Food Animal Med. Exam I > Flashcards

Food Animal Med. Exam I Flashcards

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1
Q

Point of Balance

A

at animal’s shoulder

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2
Q

blind spot

A

directly behind animal

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3
Q

arched back indicates

A

lame, chest or belly pain

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4
Q

BCS dairy

A

5

3 is ideal

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5
Q

BCS beef

A

9

5 is ideal

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6
Q

urine collection

A

rub escuthcheon

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7
Q

urine pH

A

7-9

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8
Q

adult temp

A

100.5-102.5 F

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9
Q

calf

A

101.5- 103 F

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10
Q

adult HR

A

60-80 beats/min

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11
Q

calf HR

A

100-140 beats/min

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12
Q

adult RR

A

12-36 breaths/min

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13
Q

calf RR

A

30-60 breaths/min

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14
Q

absence of lung sounds means

A

consolidation, pneumothorax, or pleural effusion

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15
Q

what cause ping on percussion

A

fluid-gas interface

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16
Q

LDA pings

A

between 12 and 13th ribs

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17
Q

rumen contraction rate

A

1-3 contractions/min

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18
Q

withers pinch test

A

normal cows will ventroflex

painful cows refuse to ventroflex

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19
Q

grunt test

A

upward pressure in xyphoid region

painful animal has + test-> grunt, kick, act uncomfortable

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20
Q

ear discharge

A

likely Mycoplasma infection

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21
Q

cold ear indicates

A

hypocalcemia or sepsis

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22
Q

central incisors

A

fully developed 2 years

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23
Q

permanent first intermediate incisors

A

3 years

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24
Q

permanent second intermediate incisors

A

4 years

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25
Q

full development all incisors

A

5-6 years

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26
Q

exponential decay of drugs in body

A

first order kinetics

present for long time at low concentrations

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27
Q

withdrawal time

A

time until drug levels in edible tissues deplete to safe levels
start when last dose is given

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28
Q

NOEL

A

no observable effect level
oral dose that results in no toxic effects in test animals
done in 2 different lab animals and extrapolated to humans

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29
Q

ADI

A

acceptable daily intake
NOEL translated into ADI (NOEL/1000 safety factor)
total dose of drug that an average human could ingest on a daily basis for his/her entire life w/ no AE

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30
Q

AE

A

acute toxicity
microbiological effects
carcinogenicity
teratogenicity

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31
Q

Safety factors

A

interspecies extrapolation
sensitive subpopulations
long term exposures
multiples of 10-> make NOEL 1000x lower

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32
Q

safe concentration

A

allowable amount of drug in each of edible tissues
how much can be in meat so person eating won’t go over ADI
ADI/ food consumption factor
parent compound + metabolites

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33
Q

tolerance

A

allowable concentration of marker residue in edible tissues

what FDA tests for- either metabolite or parent compound (1 compound- the marker residue)

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34
Q

target tissue

A

tissue from which marker residue depletes the slowest
usually liver or kidneys
what is tested
safe concentration x proportion of maker residue

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35
Q

withdrawal time

A

Time for marker residue in target tissue to deplete to concentrations below the tolerance

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36
Q

withdrawal time cont.

A

Time needed for 99th percentile of population to deplete to tolerance with 95% confidence

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37
Q

extralabel drug use

A 
dose
route of administration
duration of treatment 
volume per injection site 
species
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38
Q

half life changes

A

w/ change in route of administration

double half life double withdrawal time

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39
Q

dose changes

A

add one half life for every doubling of initial concentration

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40
Q

ELDU allowed

A

only if enough information is available to calculate an extended withdrawal interval

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41
Q

FARAD

A

food animal residue avoidance databank

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42
Q

AMDUCA

A

animal medicinal drug use clarification act
legalizes ELDU in vet med
places constraints on ELDU

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43
Q

ELDU

A

must write own label every time
can’t put in feed
economic reasons not enough to go ELDU
compounding highly restricted

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44
Q

cattle pain management

A

not many approved drugs - ELDU

cost prohibitive due to large volumes needed

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45
Q

cox-2 specific inhibitors

A

etodolac and carprofen

possible increased safety for chronic administration (abomasal ulcers)

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46
Q

morphine

A

epidural anesthesia

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47
Q

parenteral

A

butorphanol
meperidine
buprenorphine

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48
Q

alpha 2 agonist (xylazine)

A

epidural
parenteral- sedation
reversible
susceptible to AE- small relative doses (different than dogs!!)

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49
Q

impt drug considerations

A

therapeutic objectives
economic considerations
ease of administration
potential for violative residues

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50
Q

major species

A

cattle, swine, chickens, turkeys, dogs, cats, horses

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51
Q

minor species

A

sheep, goats, small mammals, reptiles, birds, fish, camelids, deer, etc.

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52
Q

greater flexibility in drug approval requirements

A

data extrapolation

alternative sources of data

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53
Q

compliance policy guide 615.115

A

FDA’s direction to field investigators to exercise enforcement discretion in cases of ELDU of medicated feeds in minor species
won’t enforce ELDU in feed very much b/c none approved on label for this and need sometimes

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54
Q

MUMS act

A

minor use and minor species animal health act
passed 2004
encourages companies to seek regulatory approval for drugs for MUMS

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55
Q

MUMS cont.

A

conditional approval up to 5 years (need safety data and continue collect effectiveness data)
indexing- unapproved drugs can be legally marketed towards MUMS
incentives to companies

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56
Q

NRSP-7

A

national research support project no. 7
funds grants for research for FDA approval studies by researches/producers that companies can then use for approval
research public information

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57
Q

interspecies scaling done by

A

basal metabolic rate

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58
Q

rules of thumb

A

higher doses (mg/kg) and shorter withdrawal intervals in sheep/goat compared to cattle
more predictable: water soluble minimally metabolized drugs
less predictable: lipid soluble highly metabolized drugs

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59
Q

conjunctiva chemosis (swelling)

A

from hypoproteinemia from Haemonchus contortus in sheep

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60
Q

conjunctiva hemorrhage

A

coagulopathies or septicemia

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61
Q

microphthalmia

A

small globe

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62
Q

staphylomas

A

outpouching of eye

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63
Q

teratogenic agents

A

Veratum californicum (false helibore, skunk cabbage)
consumed plant alkaloids day 14 only
cyclopia, synophthalomos, anopthalmos (absence of eyes)

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64
Q

synophthalmia

A

2 eyes but share a fissure and orbit

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65
Q

blepharitis

A

inflammation/swelling of eyelids

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66
Q

blepharospasms

A

Blinks frequently and doesn’t hold eye open all the way

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67
Q

nystagmus

A

shifting left to right or dorsally/ventrally of eye

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68
Q

enopthalmos

A

posterior displacement of eye- retraction of globe in orbit
profound dehydration #1 cause
emaciation

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69
Q

ptosis

A

falling/drooping of upper/lower eyelid

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70
Q

micropalpebral fissure

A

abnormally small or narrow eyelid opening

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71
Q

strabismus

A

eyes do not line up–> “cross eyed”

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72
Q

entropion

A

eyelid inversion

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73
Q

keratitis

A

inflammation of cornea

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74
Q

cicatricial

A

scarring (eyelid laceration never corrected)

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75
Q

Sarcoptes scabiei

A

reportable in ruminants

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76
Q

keratoconjunctivitis

A

inflammation of cornea and conjunctiva

Chlamydophila pecorum type 2 and Mycoplasma sp. impt.

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77
Q

epiphera

A

tearing

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78
Q

uveitis

A 
inflammation of the uvea- iris + ciliary body (anterior uvea), choroid (posterior uvea under retina) 
#1 reason is sepsis
79
Q

endophthalmitis

A

swelling/inflammation w/in the eyeball

80
Q

tarsorrhaphy

A

surgical procedure where eyelids are sewn together to narrow the opening (micropalprebral fissure)

81
Q

aniridia

A

absence of the iris

82
Q

most frequent and costly disease of dairy industry

A

mastitis (lameness maybe now)

83
Q

largest cause mastitis economic loss

A

reduced production (66% of loss)

84
Q

types of dairy housing

A

free stalls
dry lots
tie stalls

85
Q

milking facilities - smaller herds

A

flat barn/stanchion barn
tie-stall barn
60.3% dairy operations

86
Q

milking facilities - larger herds

A 
tandem parlor
herringbone parlor
parallel parlor 
rotary parlor 
39.7% dairy operations 
78.2% of cows milked in parlors
87
Q

alveoli

A

produce and store 60% of milk

88
Q

gland and teat cistern

A

20% milk stored in ducts and 20% stored in cisterns

89
Q

milk letdown

A

from oxytocin released from posterior pituitary

90
Q

what overrides oxytocin

A

epinephrine

91
Q

mastitis components

A

cow factors
environmental factors
bacterial factors (least important)
people factors (most important)

92
Q

bacteria movement

A

bacteria can’t move from quarter to quarter (except Mycoplasma)
must enter through the streak canal

93
Q

epi triad

A

bacteria/pathogen
animal
environment
need bacteria + 1 other arm for mastitis to occur

94
Q

mastitis iceberg principle

A

for every 1 clinical mastitis case there are 15-40 subclinical mastitis cases in the herd (detect w/ SCC or CMT- more costly than clinical cases)

95
Q

contagious mastitis

A

colonize and live w/in the udder
infection occurs during the milking process (in the parlor)
dry period is best time to try and “cure”
post dipping is key to prevention

96
Q

environmental mastitis

A

eliminated rapidly once inside the udder
infections occur between milkings except when milking really dirty udders
pre-dipping helps control

97
Q

animal mastitis prevention

A

udder conformation
immunosuppression
age

98
Q

environment mastitis prevention

A

mastitis risk directly related to bacterial load on the teat
clip/flame excess hair from udder
clean stalls/standing areas

99
Q

deep udders

A

below the hock- greater risk of mastitis

100
Q

esotropia

A

convergent strabismus

eyes turned inward- crosseyed

101
Q

exophthalmia

A

eyes bulging out

102
Q

exotropia

A

divergent strabismus

eyes deviated outward

103
Q

IBK

A 
infectious bovine keratoconjunctivitis 
pink eye 
Moraxella bovis 
face fly
Bos taurus > bos indicus - Herefords
104
Q

epiphora

A

painful eye

105
Q

OSCC

A

ocular squamous cell carcinoma
most economically impt. neoplasia of large animals
12.5% of slaughterhouse condemnations
bos taurus > bos indicus

106
Q

exteneration

A

Removing eye and surrounding muscles and associated structures (part of orbit maybe)

107
Q

enucleation

A

removal of just eyeball leaving muscles and other structures intact

108
Q

definitive diagnosis of mastitis

A

made only through culture

109
Q

amount individual animal milk samples to be contaminated

A

10%

more than 20% have poor collection technique

110
Q

organisms multiply in

A

streak canal

111
Q

contagious mastitis pathogens

A

udder of infected cows is main reservoir

112
Q

environmental mastitis pathogens

A

main reservoir is environment

113
Q

contagious pathogens

A

Staph aureus #1
Strep agalactiae - almost eliminated
Mycoplasma

114
Q

common environmental pathogens

A

E. coli
non-aureus Staph
Strep dysgalactia/uberis

115
Q

Strep agalactiae - clinical presentation

A 
BTSCC high (>400,000 cells/ml)
mainly subclinical cases
116
Q

Mycoplasma mastitis

A

won’t show up on routine culture
need PCR or specific culture
not responsive to antibiotic therapy
cull all + animals

117
Q

see Prototheca, Pseudomonas, Proteus

A

look for teat balms or homemade mastitis therapies

118
Q

cephalosporin prohibitin

A

cephapirin is excluded from this - can use EL but shouldn’t

ceftiofur is NOT excluded - only use label directions

119
Q

small ruminants lactation period

A

60-90 days

120
Q

dry period in dairy small ruminants

A

30-90 days to nonexistant

121
Q

milk secretion methods

A

sheep and cattle: merocrine secretion
goats: aporcine secretion
part of cell goes w/ milk and gets counted by electronic counters as SCC increasing count falsely

122
Q

goaty milk smell comes from

A

smaller fat globules in milk increase digestibility and enzymatic degradation

123
Q

goat milk pasteurization

A

same as cow
165F for 30 seconds, cool rapidly best for consumption
destroys vitamin A,C,B complexes + some iodine

124
Q

most heat resistant organism in milk

A 
Coxiella burnetti (Q fever) 
all human cases linked to inhalation and not milk
125
Q

big issues in consuming raw goat milk

A

Listeria monocytogenes
Campylobacter jejuni
Tick born encephalitis virus

126
Q

goats have higher [leukocyte] in nonmastitic milk

A

1,000,000 cells/ml
<300,000 minimal problems
750,000 acceptable level subclinical mastitis
stress induces SCC increases

127
Q

Pyronin Y-Methyl Green

A

stains only PMNs

128
Q

only way definitively identify nonmastitic udder

A

bacterial culture

129
Q

ID subclinical mastitic goats

A

bacterial culture most beneficial

130
Q

sub clinical pathogens

A

coagulase negative Staph most common
Strep
Enterobacteria

131
Q

clinical mastitis pathogens

A

Staph aureus most common

Mannheimia haemolytica - blue bag or gangrenous mastitis

132
Q

ok for sheep but kills goats

A

tilmicosin

133
Q

intramammary tx

A

fine for meat but not dairy

apocrine secretion prolongs presence of antibiotic in milk

134
Q

clay poultice

A

mastitis treatment used in organic dairies

some benefit

135
Q

udder edema in goats

A

nonpitting edema - firm edematous udder

136
Q

udder impetigo

A

Staph aureus dermatitis

137
Q

aberant lactation

A

galactorrhea, precocious udder, inappropriate lactation syndrome
if milk will continue
don’t milk and goes away w/ time
TX: prostaglandins or mastectomy

138
Q

dry cow udder health new infection goal

A

<10%

139
Q

dry cow udder health goals

A

cured>chronics

140
Q

lactating cow udder health new infection goal

A

<8%

141
Q

running average mastitis cases

A

want less than 2% cases per month

142
Q

beef cattle weaning

A

205 days (6.8 months)

143
Q

ruminant lung

A

more conducive to respiratory dz than other species

144
Q

BRDC usually

A

multiple infectious agents in high stress time

145
Q

BRDC in feedlots

A

75% of morbidity
50% of mortality
chronics can be 50-150% of mortality

146
Q

lung lobe almost always affected

A

right cranioventral

147
Q

bovine terminal bronchial units

A

no cross communication for clearance of infectious debris

148
Q

BRD pathology

A

disease of diffusion

less ventilation and poorer diffusion

149
Q

viral BRDC components

A

IBR
BVD
BRSV
PI3 (minor player)

150
Q

bacterial components (gram -)

A

Mannheimia haemolytica - commensal and switches A1
Pasteurella multocida- secondary pathogen (primary in calves)
Histophilus somni- primary - TEME, arthritis, cardiac muscle necrosis
Mycoplasma bovis-secondary - tenosynovitis
Bibersteinia trehalosi - isolated w/ pathogens of chronic infections

151
Q

secondary bacterial invaders

A

Gram + Staph, Strep and Truperella pyogenes

152
Q

IBR

A 
infectious bovine rhinotracheitis 
always vaccinate for- MLV
dominate antigen 
"rednose" nasal pustules 
sewerpipe trachea
153
Q

BVD

A 
bovine viral diarrhea 
antigenically diverse 
part of severe BRD respiratory outbreak
hemorrhagic syndrome 
don't forget PI animals - mucosal dz 
linear esophageal erosions 
necrotic peyer's patches
154
Q

PI3

A

Parainfluenza type 3

??

155
Q

BRSV

A 
bovine respiratory syncytial virus 
severe dyspnea 
wet, heavy lungs 
PCR to diagnose 
hypersensitivity w/ vaccine?
156
Q

first lung lobe affected

A

right accessory b/c tracheal bronchus ends there

157
Q

rectal temp used as tx cutoff

A

104-105F

158
Q

dx tools

A

stethoscope
US- can’t see consolidation if not attached to pleura
blood work- fibrinogen only significant finding
troponin- myofibril protein - chronic pneumonia
infrared thermography - higher temp w/ more consolidation
radiographs, CT, MRI
PE

159
Q

antimicrobial rotation

A

less ability to monitor tx success

pick antibiotic and stick w/ it

160
Q

metaphylaxis for BRD

A

does not prevent morbidity

suppresses and delays morbidity

161
Q

select a drug

A

published trials
historical data on premise
antimicrobial data on premise

162
Q

steroids for BRD

A

no data supporting this (almost doesn’t support it)

163
Q

flunixine meglumine

A

banamine
NSAID labeled for BRD pyrexia control
NSAIDs aren’t benign
likely just masked signs of dz

164
Q

tracheal sounds > thoracic

A

normal for small ruminants

165
Q

tracheal rattle

A

exudate

166
Q

vesicular sounds

A

soft and low is normal

167
Q

goat and sheep respiratory rate

A

12-20 br/min

168
Q

oestrus ovis

A

nasal bot

169
Q

enzootic nasal tumor

A

beta retrovirus- enzootic nasal tumor virus 1
no immune response so no serological testing
no tx, contagious so cull
facial deformity

170
Q

laryngeal chondritis

A

late summer and fall- sporadic

acute onset of severe respiratory distress

171
Q

ovine pulmonary adenocarcinoma

A 
beta retrovirus - jaagsiekte sheep retrovirus 
no immune response 
contagious 
copious clear nasal discharge 
drop lambing 
cull
172
Q

ovine progressive pneumonia

A 
predilection for lung and udder- makes hard 
nononcogenic retrovirus 
maternal transmission 10%
nonmaternal transmission 90% 
most animals subclinical 
lameness/paresis
173
Q

PI3

A

ovine parainfluenza

bovine IN vaccine

174
Q

Mannheimia haemolytica

A

most common bacterial pneumonia
leukotoxin- hemorrhages
swollen purple frothy acute
chronic green pleural exudate

175
Q

Bibersteinia trehalosi

A

fall/late summer
systemic dz in young sheep/goats
sudden death
septicemia and hemorrhage everywhere

176
Q

chlamydiophila pecorum

A

young sheep
self limiting
high fever
chlamydial conjunctivitis/joint swelling

177
Q

calf diphtheria

A

necrotic laryngitis
Fusobacterium necrophorum
fetid breath, loud gutteral stertor, inspiratory dyspnea
florfenicol

178
Q

tracheal edema

A

honkers

dex tx

179
Q

sinusitis- maxillary or frontal

A

head tilt

dehorning hx- cornual sinus communicates w/ frontal

180
Q

nose ring

A

pituitary abscess

181
Q

nasal cysts

A

progressive upper respiratory noise

182
Q

allergic rhinitis

A

leads to enzootic nasal granulomas

warm moist conditions

183
Q

enzootic calf pneumonia

A 
Pasteurella multocida - primary
Mycoplasma bovis
BRSV- key
IBR and BVD 
nutritional component
184
Q

Cor Pulmonale

A 
pulmonary hypertension
right sided heart failure 
bovine high mountain disease 
chronic pneumonia 
PAP- pulmonary artery pressure testing for dx
185
Q

metastatic pneumonia

A

vena cava thrombosis
liver abscess ruptures into vena cava- showers lung w/ emboli
rupture pulmonary capillaries
epistaxis or bleed out

186
Q

pleuritis

A

M. haemolytica and H. somni
noninfectious causes but less common
progressive dyspnea/thoracic pain
friction rubs

187
Q

diphragmatic hernia

A

difficult parturition

regurgitation/vomiting

188
Q

interstitial pneumonias

A

acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)
hypersensitivity diseases
chronic conditions
parasitic diseases

189
Q

ARDS

A

acute interstitial pneumonia (AIP)

190
Q

AIP

A

fog fever or acute bovine pulmonary edema and emphysema
L-tryptophan conversion to 3- methylindole (MI) in rumen
3-MI metabolized and kill clara cells + type I pneumoncytes
open mouth breathing
expiratory grunts
acute dz

191
Q

feedlot AIP

A

more chronic issue
heat in heavy animals
3-MI still suspected
other toxic plant and gas causes

192
Q

extrinsic allergic alveolitis

A

bovine farmers lung
hypersensitivity
organic dust inhalation

193
Q

anaphylaxis

A 
hypersensitivity
lung is target organ for type I immediate hypersensitivities 
abduction of elbows
history impt. 
epinephrine

Food Animal I (3 decks)

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