Focused revision Flashcards

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1
Q

S.41 Crimes Act. who is justified using force to prevent suicide

A

Anyone can use reasonable force

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2
Q

What is the Sec 8 general Exclusion Evidence Act test?

A

The sec 8 test involves balancing the probative value of evidence against the unfairly prejudicial effect on the proceeding or needlessly prolong the proceeding.

Evidence will be admitted if its probative value outweighs the risks

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3
Q

What does Section 87 EMA 2002 permit re: Entry on

premises if a state of emergency is in force in any area, (save at least 7)

A

A controller or a constable, or any person acting under their authority , may enter on, and if necessary break into, any premises or place within the area or district in respect of which the state of emergency is in force if he or she
believes on reasonable grounds that the action is necessary for—

(a) saving life, preventing injury, or rescuing and removing injured or endangered persons; or
(b) permitting or facilitating the carrying out of any urgent measure for the relief of suffering or distress

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4
Q

What is a statement?

A

A spoken or written assertion or non verbal conduct intended by that person as an assertion of any matter. (a head nod is sufficient for admission of guilt as a statement).

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5
Q

S,7 Evidence Act - Fundamental principle

A

Evidence is relevant in a proceeding if it has a tendency to prove or disprove anything that is of consequence to the determination of the proceeding

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6
Q

If Improperly obtained evidence is suspected the judge must:

A

Find, on the balance of probabilities, whether or not the evidence was improperly obtained

if improperly obtained must decide if the evidential value outweighs the method

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7
Q

Methods of improper obtain evidence include:

A

Breaches of human rights act

the importance of any right breached by the impropriety and the seriousness of the intrusion on it:
(b)
the nature of the impropriety, in particular, whether it was deliberate, reckless, or done in bad faith:
(c)
the nature and quality of the improperly obtained evidence:
(d)
the seriousness of the offence with which the defendant is charged:
(e)
whether there were any other investigatory techniques not involving any breach of the rights that were known to be available but were not used:
(f)
whether there are alternative remedies to exclusion of the evidence that can adequately provide redress to the defendant:
(g)
whether the impropriety was necessary to avoid apprehended physical danger to the Police or others:
(h)
whether there was any urgency in obtaining the improperly obtained evidence

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8
Q

What does Sec86 of the EMA permit premises (blocked with sticks)

A

A Controller or any constable, or a person authorised by him or her may [direct], within the area or district in which the emergency is in force,—
(a) the evacuation of any premises or place, including any public place; or

(b) the exclusion of persons or vehicles from any premises or place, including any public place

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9
Q

What does Section 88 EMA 2002 permit re: closing roads and public places If a state of emergency is in force? (Not you mate)

A

A Controller or a constable, or any person acting under them, may, totally or partially prohibit or restrict public access, with or without vehicles, to any road or public place within the area or district in respect of which the state of emergency is in force.

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10
Q

What does section 89 of the Civil Defense Emergency Management Act 2002 allow a constable to do? (Legal crime)

A

With allows a controller or constable in order to prevent or limit the extent of the emergency remove from any place in the area or district in respect to where the state of emergency is in force,
Any aircraft, hovercraft, ship or ferry, other vessel, train or vehicle impeding civil defense emergency management and use force to break into that aircraft, hovercraft, ferry or vehicle

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11
Q

What does section 90 of the Civil Defense Emergency Management Act 2002 allow a constable to do? (Don’t cry g)

A

Answer:
It allows the controller or constable to direct the owner or person for the time being in control of any land, building, vehicle, animal, boat, apparatus, implement, is moving equipment, furniture, food etc to immediately place the property in his or her control and direction

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12
Q

What does section 92 of the Civil Defense Emergency Management Act 2002 allow a constable to do? (Look at a few) x7

A

Answer:
Allows a control or constable to examine, mark, seize, sample, secure, disinfect, or destroy any property, animal or any other thing in order to prevent or limit the extent of the emergency.

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13
Q

S. 93 EMA - allows a constable to (show ID)

A

requires the person exercising the power to have evidence of ID and produce evidence or give a general explanation that they have authority under which they are acting and or powers which they are exercising

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14
Q

While a state of emergency isnin force, section 91 of the Civil Defense Emergency Management Act 2002 allows you power to give directions.
What may you do?
(3) (must be done)

A

Direct to stop
Direct to take action
Directo to have building assessed

Power to give directions

1) While a state of emergency is in force a controller, constable or authorized person may-
a) direct any person to stop any activity that may cause or substantially contribute to an emergency
b) request any person, verbally or written, to take any action to prevent or limit the extent of the emergency

2)While a state of emergency is in force a controller, constable or person authorized may direct-
the owner/s of a structure/s to obtain an assessment of the effect of the emergency

3) A person may not give direction under subsection (2) unless the person had regard to whether the structure my in the circumstances pose a risk of injury, safety of life or property

4) A direction under subsection (2) must-
a) state the purpose for and specify the assessment required
b) specify a reasonable time within which the assessment must be concluded
c) require the owner to give a copy of the assessment to the person who gave the direction

5) An owner who is given a direction under subsection (2) must-
a) obtain the assessment
b) give a copy of the assessment to a person who gave that direction

6)The owner may appeal to the district Court on grounds that the direction is unreasonable

7) section 77(2) &(3) applies in relation to an appeal
8) Any relief that may be granted under subsection (6) is limited yo the reasonable costs associated with obtaining the assessment

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15
Q

What offense is specified in section 95 of the Civil Defense Emergency Management Act 2002 (not with jive)

A

Failure to comply with a requirement in civil defense emergency management plan

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16
Q

How soon after being arrested for a breach of protection order may an offender be released on police bail?

A

No earlier than 24 hours after the arrest unless they appear in court during that time and court bail is imposed

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17
Q

Family harm: Presumption of Court Bail

A

In most cases, there is a presumption that a defendant IS to be bailed.

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18
Q

What are the overall principles regarding fleeing drivers?

A

Answer:
- SAFETY of the public, vehicle occupants and police staff takes precedence

  • A DRIVER failing to stop or remain stopped does not in itself a sufficient reason to commence a pursuit
  • The DECISION to not pursue or to abandon a pursuit will be supported
  • Staff may be criminally LIABLE if their manner of driving contravenes legislation
  • A pursuit is only JUSTIFIED when the threat posed by the vehicle, occupant and the necessity to apprehend the driver outweighs the risk of harm created by the pursuit.

S.aD. D. L. J

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19
Q

Pursuit abandoned but vehicle located again driving. You must advise:

A
-that the vehicle has been located
• location
• direction of travel
• a summary of the threat, exposure and necessity to pursue based on 
their TENR risk assessment

Shift commander Comms will decide if you can pursue

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20
Q

What are some examples of ‘Flexible Working’ As per the FEO policies

A
  1. Working from home/alternative work space.
  2. Flexi Time (setting hours differently week to week)
  3. Part Time (Working less than full hours)
  4. Condensed Hours (working more hours in less days)
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21
Q

How long do you have to consider and respond to all requests for FEO?

A

1 month of receiving them as per the Employment Relations Act

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22
Q

What is a near miss?

A

e.g. minor car crashes where no injury occurred

A near miss is an unplanned or unexpected event that occurs as a result of
Police work activities and, under slightly different circumstances, could
have resulted in harm to a person but did not. A near miss includes “loss
only” incidents where damage was caused to Police property but no
people were harmed. A
near-miss is an opportunity to prevent a future injury before someone is
hurt

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23
Q

What is NOT
unacceptable
behaviour?

A

• Differences of opinion.
• Legitimate leadership action to improve performance and insistence
on high standards of performance, cooperative team working,
punctuality and attendance.
• An isolated incident of abruptness

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24
Q

What is
unacceptable
behaviour?

A

bullying, cyberbullying, discrimination,
harassment, sexual harassment, racial harassment, indecent assault,
sexual violation

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25
Q

Sec 114 - officer requirements

A

The officer must be in uniform, or wearing a distinctive cap, hat or helmet, with a badge of authority affixed to it or be using flashing blue or blue and red flashing lights and sound a siren when stopping a vehicle.

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26
Q

Under section 114 of the Land Transport Act you may stop a vehicle and require details of the driver or owner if the vehicle is not the driver’s.
How long may you keep them stopped for?
What details may you require?
What can you do if you SUSPECT they fail/refuse or give false details?

A

Up to 15 minutes

Full name, DOB, Address, occupation, phone number
State whether they are the owner of the vehicle and if not give above details of the owner

Arrest without warrant

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27
Q

R v Roulston [1998] 2 NZLR 468 – internal search

A

Strip seeach - placed drugs in mouth. Held nostrils to force out. Lawful as no mouth search - fear he would choke

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28
Q

Define: mental disorder

A

in relation to any person, means an abnormal state of
mind (whether of a continuous or an intermittent nature), characterised
by delusions, or by disorders of mood or perception or volition or
cognition, of such a degree that it –
(a) Poses a serious danger to the health or safety of that person or of
others; or
(b) Seriously diminishes the capacity of that person to take care of
himself or herself;

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29
Q

CYP is on bail breaches-

A

the child or young person has on 2 or more previous occasions breached a condition of that bail (whether or not the same condition)

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30
Q

Our business; our Priorities: (x3)

A

The three priorities held in Our Priorities are,

  • Be first then do,
  • Delivering the service New Zealand is expects and deserves,
  • Focused prevention through partnerships
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31
Q

Where can you take identifying particulars for a summons:

A

Any place (including for fingerprints and photo)

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32
Q

Medical certificate must

A

be submitted before the end date of an employee’s
previous medical certificate and

must state how long taken off work

Must have REVIEW date

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33
Q

Sec 18 - People in possession of arms

A

If you have reasonable grounds to suspect a person is carrying arms or is in possession of them, and

  • they are in breach of the Arms Act 1983 or
  • by reason of their physical or mental condition, are incapable of having proper control or may kill or cause bodily injury to any person
  • under the Domestic Violence Act they have a PO or a PSO is in place

you may

  • search the person or anything in their possession or under their control (including a vehicle) and seize any arms found
  • you can enter a place or vehicle to search and seize any arms found

Unless impracticable obtain approval from a Sgt.

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34
Q

What is the standard of proof that must be reached for voice identification evidence

A

The burden of proof imposed on the prosecution under s 46 is proof of reliability on the balance of probabilities. “probably reliable”

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35
Q

When a witness needs to refresh their memory from a statement they have made, what must be required:

A

• The leave of the judge must be obtained
• The document must be shown to every other party in the proceeding
• The document must have been “made or adopted” by a witness “at a
time when his or her memory was fresh

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36
Q

Rongonui v R fresh memory for statment

A

Court held that statement 6 weeks after is still fresh

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37
Q

Communication assistance for defendant/ witness in court

A

May include assistance such as provision of an
interpreter, and any other mechanism or technological aid that can help
witnesses and defendants to give or understand evidence

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38
Q

Purpose of a Victim Impact Statement: (x3)

EVAC II

A

(a) enable the victim to provide information to the court about the
effects of offending; and
(b) assist the court in understanding the victim’s views about the
offending; and
(c) inform the offender about the impact of offending, from the
victim’s perspective.

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39
Q

Offence weapon public

A

Without lawful Or reasonable excuse has knife / offensive weapon / disable substance

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40
Q

Offence weapon private - 202,4B

A

Prima facie to commit offence or threat

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41
Q

General VS Reid

A

Arrest for obstruction not breach of peace if they haven’t breached peace yet

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42
Q

You have been unable to reach a employment resolution for your constable, who has the final say?

A

District Commander or National Manager

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43
Q

Define ‘control’ in regards to command and control

A

Sets priorities and objectives. Responsibility for coordinating response

‘Control’ refers to the responsibility for coordinating and directing the response to an incident. Control sets PRIORITIES and OBJECTIVES, and determines how best to implement them. Control includes the authority to assign tasks to another agency and to coordinate that agency’s wider actions so that it integrates with the wider response.

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44
Q

Define ‘Command’ in regards to command and control

A

Command is … the AUTHORITY and ACCOUNTIBILTY or effectively using available resources and for planning, organising, directing, coordinating and controlling Police resources to achieve the accomplishment of assigned tasks. Command also includes RESPONSABILITIES for the welfare, morale and discipline of assigned staff” (PEM/11/53).

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45
Q

S. 39 Crimes Act; who can use lethal force to effect an arrest?

A

Constables only

S48 for non constables

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46
Q

section 16 of the Evidence Act ( compelable?)

A

Can be not eligible but still compelable

operates to make a person unavailable as a witness if he or she is “unfit to be a witness because of age or physical or mental condition”. However, such people may still be compellable.

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47
Q

An associated defendant is not compellable to give evidence for or against a defendant in a criminal proceeding unless—

A

(a) the associated defendant is being tried separately from the defendant; or
(b) the proceeding against the associated defendant has been determined.

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48
Q

In this section, associated defendant, in relation to a defendant in a criminal proceeding, means a person against whom a prosecution has been instituted for—

A

(a) an offence that arose in relation to the same events as did the offence for which the defendant is being prosecuted;
(b) an offence that relates to, or is connected with, the offence for which the defendant is being prosecuted.

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49
Q

Evidence Act:

Section 73 therefore sets out a basic rule of non-compellability.

A

A defendant facing a criminal trial is an eligible but not a compellable witness for either “the prosecution or the defence in that proceeding” (s73(1) – so a defendant can give evidence but does not have to).

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50
Q

208 O/T

A

Section 208 of the CYPF Act requires that criminal proceedings should not be initiated unless there are no other means of dealing with a matter and any proceedings taken must take the least restrictive form appropriate to the circumstances.

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51
Q

S R v K (17 July
2002)

(Schnitzel Von Krumm as support person?)

A

K, a child suspected of homicide was asked to come to station for questioning.

K not was not arrested and not obliged to accompany.

support person deemed unfit. Police failed to ask K who he would choose as next support person - police can only nominate an option when CYP refuses to do so.

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52
Q

s.222 O/T (ARE YOU 22?)

A

(a)
if permitted to consult with the child or young person pursuant to section 221(2)(b), would attempt, or would be likely to attempt, to PERVERT the course of justice; OR
(b)
cannot with reasonable diligence be located, or will not be available within a period of time that is reasonable in the circumstances,—

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53
Q

Section 8 Evidence act: evidence will be excluded if it

A

(a) have an unfairly prejudicial effect on the proceeding; or
(b) needlessly prolong the proceeding.

54
Q

Arrest 5F offender if there is

A
  • there is sufficient evidence of an offence to arrest, and
  • the tests for prosecution in the Solicitor-General’s Prosecution Guidelines would be met (See Prosecution in the ‘Prosecution or case disposition’ section of this chapter for more information).
55
Q

5F deciding to PSO or other action instead of arrest you must”

A

Consult your supervisor before proceeding.

It is advisable to also consult with the Family Violence Coordinator/Family Harm Specialist who may have relevant information known through multi-agency tables.

56
Q

Decisions regarding Police interventions of Firearms will take into account the offender’s

A

Attitude towards Compliance

57
Q

Factors for consideration for Firearm intervention

A

Extent of harm or risk or risk of harm
Conduct (behaviour, intent capability)
Public Interest
Attitude to Compliance

PACE

58
Q

113 LTA to move a vehicle/forbid driver etc, officer must

A

Must: In uniform, or produce evidence of Authority, or have warrant

(114 - To stop a vehicle: Constable must have hat/uniform or red/blue AND sirens)

59
Q

113 LTA Officer can:

A
Direct Person (details provide)
Inspect ,test and examine a vehicle
Move obstruction 
Direct person to move vehicle 
Forbid unlicensed driver
Forbid HMV no license
60
Q

BOR - Section 21 (don’t look up my bum)

A

Free from unreasonable search or seizure of person, property or correspondence

61
Q

BOR - Section 22 - (don’t subdue)

A

Free from arbitrary arrest

62
Q

BOR Section 23 (is this about me?)

A

Rights when detained, questioned or arrested

63
Q

BOR Section 24 - (underscore)

A

Everyone who is charged with an offence—
(a)
shall be informed promptly and in detail of the nature and cause of the charge; and
(b)
shall be released on reasonable terms and conditions unless there is just cause for continued detention; and
(c)
shall have the right to consult and instruct a lawyer; and
(d)
shall have the right to adequate time and facilities to prepare a defence; and
(e)
shall have the right, except in the case of an offence under military law tried before a military tribunal, to the benefit of a trial by jury when the penalty for the offence is or includes imprisonment for 2 years or more; and
(f)
shall have the right to receive legal assistance without cost if the interests of justice so require and the person does not have sufficient means to provide for that assistance; and
(g)
shall have the right to have the free assistance of an interpreter if the person cannot understand or speak the language used in court.

64
Q

BOR - When are searches unreasonable (x3)

A

Without authority or with excess
Unreasonable manner
In bad faith

65
Q

BOR - section 25 - Everyone who is charged with an offence has, in relation to the determination of the charge, the following minimum rights:

A

(a) The right to a fair and public hearing by an independent and impartial court:
(b) The right to be tried without undue delay:
(c) The right to be presumed innocent until proved guilty according to law:
(d) The right not to be compelled to be a witness or to confess guilt:
(e) The right to be present at the trial and to present a defence:
(f) The right to examine the witnesses for the prosecution and to obtain the attendance and examination of witnesses for the defence under the same conditions as the prosecution:
(g) The right, if convicted of an offence in respect of which the penalty has been varied between the commission of the offence and sentencing, to the benefit of the lesser penalty:
(h) The right, if convicted of the offence, to appeal according to law to a higher court against the conviction or against the sentence or against both:
(i) The right, in the case of a child, to be dealt with in a manner that takes account of the child’s age.

66
Q

Every Police employee must obey and be guided by—

A

Every Police employee must obey the lawful commands of a supervisor.

67
Q

You may detain 1K person for how long

A

12 hour

68
Q

Prevention First: evidence-based deployment review is about MME!

A

measure, monitor and evaluate the quality of our deployment to ensure we deliver

69
Q

At Police there are four key risk categories.

A
  • Operational
  • Corporate
  • Portfolio
  • Strategic
70
Q

X and Y axis of Risk matrix are:

A

Likelihood and Consequence

71
Q

s. 125 S/S a search must be done with:

A

Decency and Sensitivity that affords the detained person Privacy and Dignity

72
Q

S. 118 s/s

A

Search to determine/ exclude rx to object of search

73
Q

S. 8 S/S - Entry without warrant to avoid loss of offender or evidential material

A

In the circumstances set out in subsection (2), a constable may—
(a)
enter a place or vehicle without a warrant; and
(b)
search for and arrest a person that the constable suspects has committed the offence.
(2)
The circumstances are that the constable has reasonable grounds—
(a)
to suspect that the person has committed an offence that is punishable by imprisonment and for which he or she may be arrested without warrant; and
(b)
to believe that the person is there; and
(c)
to believe that, if entry is not effected immediately, either or both of the following may occur:
(i)
the person will leave there to avoid arrest:
(ii)
evidential material relating to the offence for which the person is to be arrested will be destroyed, concealed, altered, or damaged.

74
Q

Communication assistance limits for court

A

Witnesses only allowed assistance to give evidence - not to hear whole trial.
The defendant needs to understand what is being said in order to be able to participate in his or her own defence; other witnesses do not have the same claim.

75
Q

Refreshment of memory OUT of court

A

The documents which the witness uses to refresh his or her memory may have been made by either the witness or by someone else; the requirement is simply that the document relates to matters which are within the witness’s own knowledge

76
Q

Urgent Duty driving principals

A
  • SAFETY of the public, vehicle occupants and police staff takes precedence
  • A DRIVER failing to stop or remain stopped does not in itself a sufficient reason to commence a pursuit
  • The DECISION to not pursue or to abandon a pursuit will be supported
  • Staff may be criminally LIABLE if their manner of driving contravenes legislation
  • A pursuit is only JUSTIFIED when the threat posed by the vehicle, occupant and the necessity to apprehend the driver outweighs the risk of harm created by the pursuit.

S.aD. D. L. J

77
Q

Urgent Duty driving - are you protected from criminal liabitly if you are urgent duty driving without lights / sirens?

A

No. unless tactical approach is justified

78
Q

Any person who deals with a victim should treat them with (x2) and respect (x2)

A

should—

(a) treat the victim with courtesy and compassion; and
(b) respect the victim’s dignity and privacy.

79
Q

What is a ‘Tactical Approach’ for urgent duty driving?

A

Not using Lights/Sirens or where it may aggravate the situation.

For example:
• approaching a scene of a serious crime in progress
• attending a report of a suicidal person, or
• obtaining evidence of a speeding offence, where the offender’s driving is not dangerous and the risk of not using the warning devices is judged as low.

80
Q

What are the 7 Principles in Section 208 of the Oranga Tamariki Act ?
SALSA VC

A

3) All measures when dealing with a CYP should be designed to STRENGTHEN the family or Whanau of the CYP and to help them develop their own means of dealing with the CYP’S offending
1) Unless in the public interest, criminal proceedings should not occur if there is an ALTERNATIVE means of dealing with the matter
6) all sanctions imposed should take the LEAST restrictive form that is appropriate in the circumstances
5) age is a mitigating factor when determining whether to impose SANCTIONS and the nature of the sanctions
2) Criminal proceedings should not occur solely in order to provide any assistance or services to ADVANCE the welfare of the CYP, their family or Whanau
7) VICTIMS views should be considered.
4) CYP should be kept in the COMMUNITY where practicable and safe for the public to do so

81
Q

Sec 266 - When can police close a licensed premise. What are the 5 drivers?

A
Fighting or serious disorder
Offences committed - penalty 5 yrs+
Riot
Threat to public safety
Public nuisance

FTO RP

82
Q

What are the 3 Pou (pillars) of Te Huringa o Te Tai (enhances changing the tide)?

A

Answer:
– Our people and their mindset
– Effective initiatives and improved practice
– Effective partnerships

PEOPLE - PRACTICE - PARTNERSHIPS

83
Q

How can we be sure our conduct complies with the code of conduct? (SELF TEST)

A

Would your decision withstand SCRUTINY? Community, Police Service, Media.

Does my decision ENSURE compliance? Code of Conduct, Policy, General Instructions.

Is my decision LAWFUL? Laws, Regulations, Rules.

Is your decision FAIR? Community, Colleagues, Your family, Others.

84
Q

What are the three core components of our Prevention First model

A

Answer:

  • Deploy to beat demand
  • Target the drivers of demand
  • Mindset: taking every opportunity to prevent harm
85
Q

Under our business model, What is Our Purpose?

A

Be safe, feel safe

86
Q

What are some of the common options for flexible working?

A

Working from home or an alternative location
Flexi time
Part time
Condensed hours

87
Q

Prevention First is designed to support and enhance the delivery of our key outcomes: what are they

A
  • prevent crime and victimization
  • target and catch offenders
  • deliver a more responsive Police service
88
Q

What is New Zealand polices mission?

A

Answer:

To prevent crime and harm through exceptional policing

89
Q

What is AEP?

A

ACC internal to Nzp

90
Q

What are the five frameworks of the PHPF model?

A
Answer:
F1 – Strategy
F2 – Culture
F3 – Leadership
F4 – Capability
F5 – Performance management
91
Q

What are the two documents at Our Business sits along side?

Under the Our Prioities, what are their directions?

A

Answer:
Our Priorities and Our Plan

Answer:
The three priorities held in Our Priorities are,
- Be first then do,
- Delivering the service New Zealand is expects and deserves,
- Focused prevention through partnerships

92
Q

What are the 4 conditions under section 131(2) allow justification of entry, by force if necessary, to be unannounced?

A

Answer:
– Saving a person on the premises from death or injury (S14)
- Situations were giving a warning might endanger the police involved
- Preventing the destruction of evidence (CADD)
- Entering in the course of hot pursuit of an offender (S120)

93
Q

What kind of examples are included where samples may be seized from external body of a detained or arrested person?

A

Answer:
- A swab of the victims blood from the arrested persons neck
- Fingernail scrapings for victims DNA from the fingers of the arrested rape offender
- A swab of a person skin for gun shot residue
– Penile swabs

94
Q

Relation to Phillips v R what was found in relation to Questioning of offender?

A

Answer:
The officer recorded the original statement in his note book but did not record any subsequent retraction or alternative story that the offender later gave him. This is a breach of Rule 5 of the Chief Justice Practice Notes of Police Questioning.

Admissible but unfair

95
Q

In Robertson v R what was the result of the officer recording what the offender had blurted out in a partial admission to a sexual assault?

A

Admissible but broke rules ;
The court found that the officer had breached Rule 5 and Rule 2 by not having the offender view and sign his notebook (5) and the offender was not re-cautioned prior to being spoken to about the allegations (2). It had been 2.5 hours since his last caution.

96
Q

What 4 steps do you take following a direction (or decision) to abandon a pursuit?

Hint: A. I. D. C

A
  • ACKNOWLEDGE any direction to abandon the pursuit
  • IMMEDIATELY reduce speed to increase distance
  • DEACTIVATE lights and sirens ONLY once below speed limit
  • STOP when safe to do so and advise comms of location and that you are stationary
  • COMMENCE inquiry phase

A. I. D. C

97
Q

What was held in TAPARA v Police? Sec 114 Wanting to speak with passenger

A

Vehicle stopped to talk to passanger, not a lawful LTA reason

98
Q

What was held in R V Thomas?
Situation: constables became suspicious of vehicle because the vehicle r/o was a known drug user. Vehicle stop led to discovery of 70gm cannabis and utensils.

A

Vehicle stop unlawful as not stopped for LTA reasons

99
Q

Page vs police s.119 LTA

A

officer failed to give his ID and so EBA on private driveway dropped

100
Q

Sec 73 - Compellability of co-defendants. Can they be witness for their co-defendant?

A

No

1) A defendant in a criminal proceeding is not a compellable witness for the prosecution or defence in that proceeding.
2) An associated defendant is not compellable to give evidence for or against a defendant in a criminal proceeding unless -
a) The defendant is being tried separately or
b) The proceeding against the associated defendant has been determined

A proceeding has been determined if:

  • The charge is withdrawn or dismissed
  • The defendant was acquitted
  • The defendant either pleaded guilty or was found guilty and had been sentenced or otherwise dealt with
101
Q

Under section 18 of the Evidence Act 2006 What is the general admissibility of hearsay?

A

Answer:
Hearsay statement is admissible in any proceeding if-
The circumstances relating to the statement provide reasonable reassurance that the statement as reliable and either –
- the maker of the statement is unavailable as a witness or

  • the judge considers the undue expense or delay would be caused if the maker of the statement were required to be a witness
102
Q

At any time after a person has been charged with an offense, if they request information about an identification witness, what must the prosecutor supply?

A

Answer:
- The name of the witness and (if permitted under section 17, the address) of each identification witness whether or not the prosecutor intends to call them;

  • A statement of any description of the offender given by each witness to the prosecutor or police, and
  • A copy of any identikit picture or a drawing
103
Q

Define circumstantial evidence:

A

Evidence of circumstances that do not directly prove any fact in issue, but which allow inferences about the existence of those facts to be drawn (e.g. the defendant was seen in the vicinity of the scene of the crime).

104
Q

Define direct evidence:

A

Any evidence by a witness as to a fact in issue which he or she has seen, heard or otherwise experienced (e.g. an eyewitness who states that she saw the defendant stab the complainant with a knife gives direct evidence).

105
Q

How long should initial disclosure occur after the

commencement of proceedings

A

Answer:

Generally not later than 15 working days

106
Q

Define: Perjury

A

the offence of wilfully telling an untruth or making a misrepresentation under oath.

107
Q

What are the circumstances relating to a hearsay statement that provide reasonable assurance that the statement is reliable?

A

Answer:
The NATURE and CONTENT of the statement and

The CIRCUMSTANCES that relate to the making of the statement including:

the VERACITY of the person and

the ACCURACY of the observation of the person

N.C.C.V.A.

108
Q

A witness who fails to appear is:

A

UNFAVOURABLE

109
Q

Name 8 grounds under Sec 103 as to reasons why evidence can be given in an alternative way.

A

Answer:

  • FEAR of intimidation
  • The AGE or maturity of the witness
  • TRAUMA suffered
  • ABSENCE or likely absence of the witness from NZ
  • LINGUISTIC or cultural background or religious beliefs
  • The physical, intellectual, psychological or psychiatric IMPAIRMENT of the witness
  • Nature of the EVIDENCE the witness will give
  • NATURE of the proceeding

F. A. T. A. L. I. E. N

110
Q

Associated vs codefendant

A

associated e.g revives stolen goods

Codefendant e.g ag robbery

111
Q

Besides the provisions of section 15-18 of the Evidence Act 2006, generally speaking, under what two circumstances can information be withheld following a request by the defence?

A

Those requests which appear frivolous or vexatious. Requests must be for particular information, not a general request.

112
Q

The terms “control” & “command” consist of what 3 elements?

A

Leadership
Decision making
Control

113
Q

The Police response to any given situation should be, what ?

A

Considered, Appropriate and Timely, it must consider the impact on Police and our partners. This applies to all Police whether a constable or not.

C. A. T

114
Q

What are the differences in implications for firearms licences between PSO and protection orders?

A

For PSOs the licence is suspended and for protection orders they are revoked

115
Q

What was held in JOHNSON v Police?
Situation: two police officers not in uniform STOP vehicle for roadworthiness check and subsequently arrest driver for theft.

A

Answer:
The court held that the offices if I had to use red and blue lights or sirens when stopping the vehicle. They also we’re not wearing uniform or a badge of authority.
Therefore the stop was not deemed lawful and the subsequent arrest and search of this person was challenged.
CIB and other non-uniform members should take particular note of procedural requirements relating to identification contained in section 114

116
Q

What was held in Police vs PAGE?

Situation - EBA on private driveway

A

Court found that can use s.119 in fresh pursuit to stop vehicle on private property and breath test. However this power has an INESCAPABLE duty for the officer to identify themselves along with what power they are using. Officer failed to this and charge dropped.

117
Q

What was held in R V Thomas?
Situation: constables became suspicious of vehicle because the vehicle r/o was a known drug user. Vehicle stop led to discovery of 70gm cannabis and utensils.

A

Answer:
Court on appeal held the vehicle was not stopped under any conditions breaching the Land Transport Act that the vehicle once stopped made it an unlawful stop any subsequent discovery of drugs inadmissible.

118
Q

What was held in Police v DUFF?
Situation call long driver stopped due to driving an excess of 100 km/h. Officer told the driver to remain stopped for the purposes of a driver check. The driver fell to remain stopped And once called was subsequently charged.

A

Answer:
The court found held that the officer was entitled to check the particulars of the driver and or vehicle and was in within the conditions of s113(2) of the Land Transport Act 1998 to ask the driver to remain stopped. Yes

119
Q

What are the four risk categories within Police

A
  • Corporate
  • Operational
  • Portfolio
  • Strategic

COPS

120
Q

There are five steps within the risk management process. What are they?

Hint: C. I .A. E. TA

A
Answer:
Step 1 – establish CONTEXT, be it internal context or external context
Step 2 - IDENTIFY risk
Step 3 - ANALYSE risk
Step 4 - EVALUATE
Step 5 - Take ACTION

C. I. A. E. TA

121
Q

What age does a person have to be to take an oath or affirmation before giving evidence?

A

12 years or older.

Witnesses who are under the age of 12 must be informed of the importance of telling the truth and promise to tell the truth.

122
Q

What is the The Appreciation Format used by New Zealand Police

A
  • Aim
  • Factors
  • Courses of action
  • Outline Plan.

“AFCO”.

123
Q

When a police member has attended a critical incident what time frame must the first appointment with a psychologist be made and what time frame should the second appointment occur within?

A

Answer:
The first appointment with a psychologist will not occur earlier than 72 hours following a critical incident.
The second appointment should occur within 10 days post incident

124
Q

When a person is notified that their CYP is arrested/detained for questioning, what are they entitled to do, must be explained to and cannot do? (x3)

A

Entitled - to visit the CYP
Explain - they CYP’s rights
Cannot - consult privately with the CYP

125
Q

Risk is defined as:

A

The ‘effect of uncertainty on objectives’

126
Q

Define: Risk, Threat, Hazard

A
Risk = the ‘effect of uncertainty on objectives'
Threat = human factor (PRNs / onlookers / media)
Hazard = enviromental factor (Sun burn/ earthquake/ bad lighting)
127
Q

Purpose of victim impact statements:

EVAC II

A

(a)
enable the victim to provide information to the court about the effects of the offending; and
(b)
assist the court in understanding the victim’s views about the offending; and
(c)
inform the offender about the impact of the offending from the victim’s perspective

EVAC II

128
Q

How does Victim Notification Register. work?

A

Once s.29 applies OC must
give VNR form to victim and explain

It is on the victim to submit/ arrange submission of form

129
Q

What is the fundamental condition for the admissibility of evidence

A

that it must be Relevant

130
Q

What two things must you get permission for from the Pursuit Controller following an abandoned pursuit:

A

Permission must be obtained from the pursuit controller before:
• signalling the driver to stop, and if permission is obtained,
• commencing a pursuit in the event the driver fails to stop or remain stopped.

131
Q

Bill of rights s.24,g - rights to someone doesnt speak english

A

shall have the right to have the free assistance of an interpreter if the person cannot understand or speak the language used in court