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Abbreviated Review > FMFWO Hard > Flashcards

FMFWO Hard Flashcards

1
Q

War in Afghanistan

A

Operation Enduring Freedom
2001
“GWOT”

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2
Q

failed Battle of Fallujah

A

Vigilant Resolve

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3
Q

MOH for semaphoning an emergency lift under Spanish and American shellfire

A

John Quick
- battle of Cuzco Well in Guantanamo Bay, Cuba. an operation to seize a base

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4
Q

MOH for Chinese Boxer Rebellion & First Caco War

A

Daniel Daly

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5
Q

MOH for Veracrus and First Caco War

A

Smedley Butler

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6
Q

WWII battles

A

Wake Island
Guadalcanal
Tarawa
Mariana Islands
Bougainville
Iwa Jima
Okinawa

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7
Q

Second Battle of Khe Sanh

A

1968
Mariens defended a base at Khe Sanh from attack by two North Vietnamese divisions
- heavy bombardmebt but did force them to withdraw

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8
Q

year of first black Marines

A

1949

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9
Q

year SecDef lifted restrictions and allowed women to fly combat aircraft

A

1993

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10
Q

key sources for Marine Corp roles & functions

A

USC Title 10,
DODD 5100.01 “Functions of the DOD and its Marine Components”,
Marine Corps Manual

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11
Q

Roles/Functions of Marine Corp (short)

A
  • maintain the MC reserve
  • provide FMF w/combined arms and air components….
  • provide detachments and organizations for service on armed vessels of the Navy…
    -provide marine forces for airborne operations
  • provide close air support for ground forces
  • conduct complex expeditionary operations in the urban littorals an other challenging environments
  • conduct amphibious operations
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12
Q

role of Marine Corps in amphibious operations

A

MC has primary responsibility for the development of amphibious doctrine, tactics, techniques, and equipment

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13
Q

characteristics of MAGTF

A
  • task organization for Marine Corp
  • balanced air ground combined arms formation under a single commander
  • principle organization for all marine Corp missions across the range of military operations
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14
Q

definition of expeditionary

A

to send forces abroad

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15
Q

PTP

A

predeployment training plan

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16
Q

mission of MEU

A

provide a forward deployed flexible sea-based MAGTF capable of conducting amphibiou operations, crisis response, and limited contingency operations
- commanded by a Colonel
- CE
- GCE - BLT
-ACE - composite squadron
- LCE - CLB

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17
Q

team of the MEB

A

led by General
- GCE = Regimetnal Landing Team
- LCE: CLR
MAG - ACE

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18
Q

composition of a MEF

A

CE = HQ group
MARDIV = GCE
MAW = ACE
MLG = LCE

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19
Q

MCCDC

A

Marine Corp Combat Development Center
- focuses on training and education
- their greatest focus is on logistics

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20
Q

CD&I

A

Combat Development and Integration
- develops future operational concepts and determine how to best organize, train, educate, and equip the Marine Corp of the Future
- falls under the MCCDC (Marine Corp Combat Development Center)

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21
Q

8 things the MCCDC does

A

Marine Corp Combat Development Center
develop warfighting concepts,
science and technology and experimentation,
capability portfolio managemnt and joint cpability integration,
training and education,
operational analysis & wargaming,
warfighting requirements,
warfighting and training programming and transitions with planning to programming,
develop, publish, and maintain doctrine

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22
Q

MARCORSYSCOM

A

DeptNavy systems command for MC ground weapons and information technology
- responsible for R7D, acqusition, and lifecycle amnagement of MC funded material and information systems

“primarily focused on equipping the force at the strategic level”

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23
Q

fundamental to the MPF

A

Maritime Prepositioning Force
- interoperability with joint forces & its rapid introduction fo combat forces into austere environmetns

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24
Q

Maritime Prepositioning Force ships that have EMFs

A

Expeditionary Medical Facilities 150 (EMF-150) are onboard USNS Dahl and Sisler

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25
Q

equipment and supplies aboard the Maritime Prepositioning Force

A

30 days

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26
Q

mission and relationship of 1st MLG to the MAGTF

A

to provide DIRECT support to the MEF GCE and GENERAL support/sustained tactical-level logistics support above the organic capabilities of supported elements of the MEF

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27
Q

mission and relationship of 1st Medical Battalion to MAGTF

A

to be manned, trained, and equipped to conduct life-sustaining medical support in both friendly and austere environments on land, air, and sea in support of the I MEF and MAGTF globally

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28
Q

4 principles of risk management

A

accept risk when benefit > costs,
accept no unnecessary risk,
anticipate and manage risk by planning,
make risk decisions at the right level

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29
Q

5 steps of ORM

A

identify the hazards,
assess the hazards,
make risk decisions,
implement controls,
supervise

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30
Q

3 substeps of the first step of ORM

A

“Identify the Hazards”
conduct an operational analysis,
conduct a PHA (preliminary hazard analysis)
determine root cause of hazards

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31
Q

3 substeps of the second step of ORM

A

“Assess the Hazards”
determine severity & probability,
assign a RAC (risk assessment code)

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32
Q

5 options for controlling risk (per ORM)

A

reject risk,
accept risk,
delay an action,
transfer the risk,
compensate for risk

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33
Q

3 types of ORM controls

A

engineering, administrative, physical

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34
Q

decibels where you need hearing protection

A

> 84 dBA (weighted decibels
OR
140 db peak sound pressure

While the dB scale is based only on sound intensity, the dBA scale is based on intensity and on how the human ear responds.

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35
Q

classes of Fire

A

A - wood/cloth/paper. water or AFFF
B - flammable liquids AFFF, Halon, PKP. MUST secure gas flow
C-eneergized electron. Co, Halon, water. best is to deenergize then handle as a Class A
D- combustable metals. water using fog pattern BUT explosions may occur so shield yourself
K-cooking fire like oils and fats

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36
Q

extinguish a class B fire

A

flammable liquids
AFFF, Halon, PKP (potassium bicarbonate)
- NEVer extinguish unles the flow of gas can be secured. that’s the most important thing about extinguishing these tyhpes of firs

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37
Q

extingish a class C fire

A

deenergize then handle as a Class A

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38
Q

BITS

A

back in the saddle

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39
Q

2 parallel Chains of Command within the DOD

A

Service & Operational

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40
Q

chain of command
Prez-SecDef-Combatant Commanders

A

Operational Chain of Command

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41
Q

chain of command
Prez-SecDef-SECNAV/CMC-forces not under Combatant Commanders

A

Service Chain

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42
Q

role of SecDef

A

principle defense policy advisor
- exercises authority, direction, and control othe DON
- Deputy Secretary is delegated full power/authority to act for Secretary

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43
Q

role of SecNav

A

authority under USC Title 10 to conduct all affairs for DON
- recruit, organize, supply, equip, train, mobilize/demob
- oversees construction/outfitting/repair of USN ships, equipment, and facilities
- formulation/implementation of policies and programs that are consistent with national security policies and objectives

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44
Q

Unified Combatant Command

A

command with a broad enduring mission under a single commander and composed of significant assigned components of two or more Mil Departments.

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45
Q

4 functional Combatant Commands

A

Cyber, TRANSCOM, Strategic, Special Operations

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46
Q

highest ranking Marine Corp Officer

A

CMC - Commandant of the MC. Member of Joint Chiefs of Staff.
reports to SecNav in parallel to the CNO

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47
Q

outcome of MARFORPAC & MARFORCOM

A

gives the geographic Combatant Commanders scalable MAGTFS that possess the unique ability to project mobile, reinforceable, sustainable combat power across a range of military operations

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48
Q

lead echelon of the MEF

A

MEF [Fwd]: prepares for the arrival of the rest of the MEF

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49
Q

commander who provides aid, protection, complement, or sustains another commander’s force

A

supportING commander

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50
Q

SupportING commander

A

aids, protects, complements, & supports another commander

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51
Q

JSCP

A

Joint Strategic Capabilities Plan

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52
Q

contents of an establishing directive between a supportED & supportING comamnder

A

purpose of support,
effects desired,
scope of action,
forces/resources allocated,
time/place/level/duration of support,
relative priority of the supporting effort,
authority -if any- to modify in the event of exceptional opportunity or emergency,
degree of authority granted to the supported commander over the supporting effordtq

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53
Q

COCOM

A

Combatant Command (command authority)
- nontransferable/cannot be delegated- to perform the functions of command over assigned forces
organize/employ
assign tasks
designate objectivrs
give authoritative direction over all aspects of military operations, joint training, and logistics necessary to accomplish the missions assigned to the command

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54
Q

ADCON

A

direction/exercise of authority over subordinates with respect to administration and support
- organization, control of resources, equipment, personnel management, training, readiness, discipline, other matters not included in the operational missions of hte subordinate or other organizations

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55
Q

OPCON

A

operational control
- authority to perform the functions of command over subordinate forces
- oragnize/employ forces
- assign tasks
- designate objectives
- give authoritative direction

OPCON is a command authority that may be exercised by CDRs at any echelon at/below the level of COMD
- OPCON is able to be delegated from and lesser authority than COCOM

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56
Q

TACON

A

Tactical Control
- authority over assigned/attached forces or forces made available for tasking
- limited to the detailed direction and control of movements and maneuvers within he operational area necessary to accomplish assigned missions or task assigned by the commander

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57
Q

authority granted by a CDR to a subordinate to consult/coordinate an action

A

DIRLAUTH (direct liaison authorized)

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58
Q

4 categories of support a CDR may exercise over assigned attached forces

A

general
direct
close support
Mutual

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59
Q

general support

A

support given to a supported forces as a WHOLE rather than a subdivision

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60
Q

direct support

A

support given to a specific force where they must answer directly for all needs

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61
Q

Joint Task Force

A

joint force to accomplish missions within specific limited objectives and do not require centralized control of logistics

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62
Q

ad hoc versus formal agreement between nations

A

alliance
coalition - ad hoc

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63
Q

coalition

A

arrangement between +2 nations for common action and with specific objectives

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64
Q

DRRS

A

Defense Readiness Reporting System

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65
Q

5 pillars of institutional readiness

A

unit readiness
capability and capacity to meet requirements
high quality people,
infrastructure sustainment,
equipment modernization

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66
Q

P-level

A

percentage of personnel strength and MOS fill cacluations

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67
Q

S-level

A

equipment and supplies possessed

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68
Q

R-level

A

material readiness conditoin

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69
Q

PEI

A

principal end item

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70
Q

MEE

A

Mission Essential Equipment

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71
Q

DRSS reporting requirements for medical equipment

A

DRRS only asks for AMAL 631 & 645 (STP equipment and FRSS equipmetn)

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72
Q

METL

A

mission essential task list
- list of command’s essential task with appropriate conditions and performance standards to assure successful mission accomplishment
- assessment of METs is based on prsent state not future projections

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73
Q

meaning of ACE

A

not a formal command. categorizes the functionality of specific forces within the MAGTFG

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74
Q

role of ACE Commander

A

MAGTF principle advisor and SME of aviation

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75
Q

primary mission of the ACE

A

support the MAGTF during all phases of expeitioanry oerpations as well as during sustained operations ashore

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76
Q

6 functions of Marine Corp aviation

A

A’s:
air reconnaissance
AAW
assault support

control of aircraft & missiles
EW
OAS

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77
Q

subfunctions of Air Reconnaissance (a function of the ACE)

A

visual,
electronic,
multisensor

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78
Q

subfunctions of Control of Aircraft & Missiles (a function of the ACE)

A

air direction
air control

air control: airspace management & airspace control

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79
Q

subfunctions of Electronic Warfare (a function of the ACE)

A

attack, protection, warfare support

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80
Q

subfunctions of OAS (a function of the ACE)

A

CAS

DAS
- air interdiction
-armed reconaissance

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81
Q

subfunction of AAW (function of ACE)

A

OAAW

Air Defense
- active & passive

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82
Q

subfunction of Assault Support (function of ACE)

A

LITECAR

logistical support
illumination of the battlefield
TRAP
air evacuation
Combat assault transport
air delivery
aerial refueling

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83
Q

definition of OAS

A

air opts conducted against enemy installations, facilities, and personnel in order to directly assist in the attainment of MAGTF objectives by destroying enemy resources or isolating enemy forces

  • principle support of warfighting is via fires and force protection (OAS/DAS)
  • OAS allows the CDR to influence the battle by projecting firepower to shape events in time and space
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84
Q

air attack against a target briefed in advance

A

air interdiction

opportunity targets = armed reconaissance

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85
Q

AAW

A

actions used to destory or reduce the enemy air and missile threat to acceptable levels

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86
Q

primary purpose of AAW

A

gain and maintain whatever degree of air superiority that is required
&
force protection

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87
Q

OAAW

A

operations conducted against enemy air assets and air defense systems before they can be launched or assume an attacking role

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88
Q

air defense

A

defensive measures designed to destory attacking enemy aircraft/missiles or to nullify/reduce the effectiveness of an enemy attack

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89
Q

Electronic Warfare

A

any military action involving the use of electromagnetic and directed energy to control the electromagnetic spectrum or to attack the enemy

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90
Q

DASC[A]

A

direct air support center {airborne]

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91
Q

air direction

A

authority to regulate the employment of air resources (aircraft & surface to air weapons) to maintain a balance between their availability and assigned priorities for their use

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92
Q

air control

A

authority to direct the physical maneuver in flight or to direct engagement of an aircraft/weapon system with the enemy
(broken down further into airspace management and airspace control)

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93
Q

airspace management

A

coordination
integration
regulation of the use of airspace based on defined dimensions

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94
Q

airspace control

A

authority to direct the maneuver of aircraft so that the best use is made of assigned airspace
- positive control is a method of airspace control that relies on positive identification, trackign, and direction of aircraft wtihin an airspace

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95
Q

MAW

A

ACE for the MEF
- HQ for the ACE CE
- capable of performing all 6 functions of Marine Aviation

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96
Q

MAG

A

ACE for the MEB
- smallest aviation unit designed to conduct operations with no outside assistance except access to a support of supplies

primary mission of MAG: provide AAW and OAS support for MAGTF operations from a variety of main bases, FOBS, and aircraft carriers

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97
Q

MALS

A

Marine Aviation Logistics Squadron
- logistical support, guidance, and direction to MAG squadrons
- intermediate level maintence
- aviation supply support
_ coordination
- deploy/provide support packages
- Class V ordinance and ammunition’s logistics support

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98
Q

task of VMGR

A

Marine Aerial Refueler Transport Squadron
- provide tactical aerial refueling for Marine aviation units and serve as an aircraft platform fo rthe DASC(A)

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99
Q

EAF

A

expeditionary airfields

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100
Q

VMR

A

Marine Tactical Electronic Warfare Squadron
- airborne EF

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101
Q

role of the VMU

A

Unmanned Aerial Vehicle Squadron
- reconnaissance, surveillance, & target acquisition
- real time target information
- BDA (battle damage assessments)

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102
Q

VMFA

A

Marine Fighter/Attack Squadron

intercept/destroy enemy aircraft and surface targets
multisensory imagery reconnaissance
supporting arms coordination

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103
Q

VMA

A

Marine Attack Squadron

attack and destroy surface targets
helicopter escort

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104
Q

VMM

A

Marine Medium Tilt-Rotor Squadron

transport combat troops, supplies, & equipment
Primary: combat assault troop transport

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105
Q

HMH

A

Marine Heavy Helicopter Squadron

assault helicopter transport of heavy weapons, equipment, supplies, and combat assault transport of troops

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106
Q

HMLA

A

Marine Light Attack Helicopter Squadron

combat utility helicopter support
attack fire support
fire support coordination
airborne C2 platform for command element
airborne escort

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107
Q

MWSG

A

Marine Wing Support Group

primary task: provide the capability to establish and maintain airfields, FOB, and groud support elements

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108
Q

MWSS

A

Marine Wing Support Squadron

aviation ground support: internal airfield communications, weather forecasting, crash/fire/rescue services, refueling, sick call

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109
Q

MACCS

A

Marine Air C2 system

C2 giving the ACE the ability to monitor, supervise, and influence the application of the ACE’s six functino

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110
Q

air direction

A

authority to regulate the employment of air resources by balancing an air resource’s availability against its assigned priorities and missions

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111
Q

air control

A

authority to direct the physical maneuver of an aircraft in flight/surface to air weapons

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112
Q

regulates use of air resources by balancing availability & priorities/missions

A

air direction

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113
Q

authority to direct the physical maneuver of aircraft/surface to air weapon in flight

A

air direction

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114
Q

airspace management

A

coordination, integration, and regulation of airspace usage in a defined dimension that results in the optimal use of available space

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115
Q

difference between airspace management and airspace control

A

is that coordination, integration, and regulation of airspace usage in a defined dimension that results in the optimal use of available space

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116
Q

senior air C2 agency

A

TACC: tactical air command center

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117
Q

main air control center
subordinate air control center

A

main: TACC = Tactical Air Command Center

TAOC: tactical air operations center
DASC: direct air support center

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118
Q

TAOC

A

Tactical Air Operations Center
furnished by the MACS: Marine Air Control Squadron

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119
Q

provides the MAGTF’s organic surface to air weapons

A

LAAD

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120
Q

DASC

A

Direct Air Support Center

furnished by MASS. Marine Air Support Squadron

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121
Q

MASS

A

Marine Air Support Squadron

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122
Q

MACG composition

A

Marine Air Control Grup
- MTACS: Marine tactical air command Squadron
- MASS: Marine Air Support Squadron
- MACS: Marine Air Control Squadron
LAAD
MWCS: Marine Wing Communications Squadron

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123
Q

mission of LAAD battalion

A

close-in
low altitude
surface to air weapons fires in defense of MAGTF assets
task-oriented ground security forces in defense of MAGTF air sites

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124
Q

protects ACE assets

A

LAAD battalion

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125
Q

mission of VMU

A

reconnaissance, surveillance, target acquisition
- real time target information, battle damage assessments, adjust indirect fires weapons, TRAP

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126
Q

role of MWSS

A

Marine Wing Support Squadron

provides all essential on the ground support requirements to ACE

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127
Q

3 levels of maintence

A

organizational
intermediate
depot

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128
Q

organizational maintence

A

inspect
service
lube
adjust
replace parts
mnor assembilies

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129
Q

intermediate maintence

A

modification
replacement
fabrication
repair
calibration

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130
Q

depot maintence

A

major repair
overhaul
modification

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131
Q

only heavy lift helicopter in DOD

A

CH-53E or K
E: Super Stallion
K: King Stallion

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132
Q

payload of the heavy helicopter

A

CH-53K

30 passengers
24 litters

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133
Q

F/A-18

A

Horney
VMFA

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134
Q

Harrier

A

AV-8

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135
Q

payload of Osprey

A

24 passengers
12 litters

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136
Q

aka C-130

A

Hercules

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137
Q

mission of C-130

A

air to air refueling
assault support
CAS
MIR: multisensor imagery reconnaissance

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138
Q

C-130 payload

A

ground troops - 92
paratroop - 64
litter= 74

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139
Q

AH-1

A

Super Cobra

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140
Q

AH-1Z

A

Viper

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141
Q

mission of HMLA

A

support the MAGTF by the following:

OAS
utility support
armed escort
supporting arms

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142
Q

short for UAS

A

RQ - _

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142
Q

TMS

A

Type, Model, Series

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142
Q

FoUAS

A

family of unmanned aircraft systems

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143
Q

RQ - _

A

UAS

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144
Q

small UAS family

A

Puma, Raven, Wasp
(large to small)

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145
Q

mission of MARDIV

A

provide forces for amphibious assaults (or other ops as directed)

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146
Q

CEB

A

combat engineer battalion

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147
Q

GCE of MEU

A

Battalion Landing Team
- infantry battalion plus combat enablers

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148
Q

GCE of MEF

A

MARDIV

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149
Q

mission of infantry regiment

A

locate
close with
destroy

the enemy

BY
Fires
&
Maneuver

or repel his assault by fire and close combat

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150
Q

major element of close combat power of the MARDIV

A

infantry regiment

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151
Q

basic tactical unit with which the infantry battalion accomplishes its mission

A

rifle comapneies

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152
Q

nucleus of the BLT

A

infantry battalion is the basic tactical unit of ground combat power and the nucleus of the BLT

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153
Q

infantry battalion

A

locate
close with
destroy

the enemy

BY
Fires
&
Maneuver

or repel his assault by fire and close combat

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154
Q

locate
close with
destroy

the enemy

BY
Fires
&
Maneuver

or repel his assault by fire and close combat

A

infantry regiment
infantry battalion

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155
Q

differences in the role of artillery regiment, infantry regiment, and infantry battalion

A

artillery regiment: primary source of fire support for the MARDIV

infantry battalion: basic tactical unit of ground combat power

infantry regiment: major element of close combat power for the MARDIV

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156
Q

mission of artillery regiment

A

furnish close and continuous fire support by neutralizing, destroying, or suppressing targets that threaten the success of the supported unit

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157
Q

4 standard artillery tactical missions

A

direct support
reinforcing
general support-reinforcing
general support

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158
Q

COC

A

combat operations center

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159
Q

primary mission of the HQ Battalion of GCE

A

exercise C2 and administration of the MARDIV

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160
Q

FSCC

A

fire support coordination center

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161
Q

mission of tank battalion

A

close with and destroy the enemy

armor-protected firepower
shock effect
maneuver

and to provide anti-mechanized fire in support of the mardiv

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162
Q

antitank platoon

A

unarmored anti-mechanized support tot he divsin

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163
Q

scout platoon

A

provides the tank battalion w/an organic mounted reconnaissance capability

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164
Q

what should employment of the tank battalion take advantage of

A

organizational speed
mobility
firepower

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165
Q

mission Assault Amphibious Bn

A

train, maintain, and prepare an assault amphibian battalion capable of conducting amphibious and mechanized operations in order to support the GCE w/maneuver, fires, force protection, C2, & logistics

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166
Q

how is the Assault Amphibious Bn primarily employed

A

primarily employed to mechanize the surface assault elements of a regimental landing team, assault amphibian battalion elements may be employed in a combat service support role in the FEBA or beach support area

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167
Q

FEBA

A

forward edge of battle

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168
Q

mission of LAR Bn

A

reconnaissance, security, economy of forces
limited offensive ops or delay operations

speed, firepower, maneuver

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169
Q

mission of Combat Engineer Battalion

A

enhance mobility, counter-mobility, survivability, and provide limited general engineering support that is required for the functioning of the MARDIV

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170
Q

mission of RECON Bn

A

conduct advanced force operations, battlespace shaping,
amphibious/ground/airborne reconnaissance,
observe, identify, and report intelligence infomrations

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171
Q

provides the GCE with water and land based capabilities

A

AAV

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172
Q

benefit of AAV

A

9.1 pounds per square inch so it can operate in soft soil that tanks and LAV can’t

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173
Q

capabilities of AAV

A

open ocean ops through the surf
armored protection
9.1 pounds per square inch so can operate where tanks/LAV can’t

174
Q

most seaworthy landing craft in military service

A

AAV

175
Q

how to think about the LAV platform

A

NOT: infantry fighting vehicle or as an armored personnel carrier

YES: armored reconnaissance vehicle that lacks sufficient armor protection and troop density to perform missions normally assigned to a mechanized infantry unit

LAR develop situations on a battlefield that present opportunities for rotary/fixed wing attack aircraft plus provide more detailed information and maintain a continuous all-weather presence on the battlefield

176
Q

use of the tank platform

A

maneuver element
- armored protection
- shock effect
- rapid maneuver
- precision long range direct fire

designed primarily as an offensive weapon regardless of if the operation is offensive or defensive

177
Q

fire support tasks

A
  • supporting TIC
  • supporting CDR CONOOPS
  • integrating fire support w/the scheme of maneuvering
178
Q

marine corp warfighting philsophy

A

rapid
flexible
opportunistic maneuver capabilities

179
Q

FSCM

A

fire support coordinatin measures

180
Q

Code of Conduct Article 1

A

I am an American. I serve in the forces that guard my country and our way of life. I am prepared to give my life in its defense.

181
Q

Code of Conduct Article 2

A

I will never surrender of my own free will. If in command, I will never surrender member of my command while they still have the means to resist

182
Q

Code of Conduct Article 3

A

If I am captured, I will continue to resist using all means available.

I will make every effort to escape and aid others to escape.

I will accept neither parole nor special favors from the enemy

183
Q

start of all Code of Conduct Articles

A
  1. I am an American. I serve in the forces which guard my country and our way of life…
  2. I will never surrender of my own free will. If in command…
  3. If I am captured, I will continue to resist by all means available. I will make every effort to escape…
  4. If I become a prisoner of war, I will keep faith with my fellow prisoners
  5. When questioned, should I become a POW, I am required to give…
  6. I will never forget I am an American responsible for my actions, and dedicated to the principals which made my country free
184
Q

topics of each article of the Code of Conduct

A
  1. American
  2. Never Surrender
  3. Resist & Escape
  4. Faith
  5. Questioning
  6. Never Forget
185
Q

relationship between the Code of Conduct & USMJ

A

CoC is a guide and simple creed. no punitive powers like UCMJ
UCMJ is military regulation with punitive powers

186
Q

belligerent

A

person engaged in hostilities against the US or its multinational powers

187
Q

MTW

A

major theatres of war

188
Q

OMFTS

A

applies maneuver warfare to expeditionary power projections in naval operations as part of a campaign

189
Q

7 things OMFTS enables the force to do

A

shatter the adversary’s cohesion,
pose menacing dilemmas,
apply disruptive firepower,
establish superior tempo,
focus efforts to maximize effects,
exploit opportunity,
strike unexpectedly

190
Q

OMFTS is based on 6 principles

A

focus on the operational objective,
use the sea as maneuver space,
generate overwhelming tempo and momentum,
pit friendly strength against adversary weakness,
emphasize intelligence, deception, and flexibility
integrate all organic, joint, and combined assets

191
Q

STOM

A

tactical implementation of OMFTS to achieve the JFC operational objectives and is the application maneuver warfare to amphibious operations at the tactical level

192
Q

how does STOM treat the sea?

A

protective barrier and unrestricted avenue of approach

193
Q

difference between ship to shore movements AND STOM

A

STOM thrusts MARFOR ashore at multiple points to concentrate at the decisive place and time in sufficient strength to enable success

goal: create multiple dilemmas too numerous for the adversary commander to respond thereby disrupting his cohesiveness and diminishing the adversary’s will or capacity to resist

194
Q

FHA

A

programs to relieve or reduce the results of natural/man-made disasters such as pain, disease, hunger, or privation
- compliments. FHA operations are conducted outside of US and its territories

195
Q

coordinates the USA’s response to FHA

A

USAID
Bureau for Democracy, Conflict, and Humanitarian Assistance
OFDA

196
Q

OHDACA

A

Overseas Humanitarian, Disaster, and Civic Aid
- Congressional funded

197
Q

policy “Humanitarian and Civic Assistance Activities”

A

DODI 2205.2

198
Q

Denton Program

A

permits DOD to provide transportation of privately donated HA cargo to foreign countries using military transportation on a space available basis

199
Q

Funded Transport Program

A

permits transportation of cargo and DOD nonlethal excess property worldwide for NGO/IGO.

200
Q
A

Cb terrorism
counterdrug
MIO - maritime interception operations
enforcing exclusion zones
Humanitarian assistance
NEO
peace ops

201
Q

ROE

A

directives issued by competent military authority which delineate the circumstances and limitations under which the US forces will initiate and/or continue combat engagement with other forces encountered

202
Q

counterrerrorism

A

activities/operations taken to neutralize terrorists and their organizations/networks IOT render them incapable of using violence to instill fear and coerce governments/societies to achieve their goals

203
Q

FID

A

participation by civilian/military agencies of a government in any of the action programs taken by another gov/other designated organization to free and protect its society from
subversion
lawlessness
insurgency
terrorism, and other threats to security

204
Q

counterinsurgency

A

comprehensive civilian and military efforts designed to simultaneously defeat and contain insurgency and address its root causes

205
Q

stability operations

A

maintain or reestablish a safe and secure environment, provide essential governmental services, emergency infrastructure reconstruction, and humanitarian relief

206
Q

HAZMAT

A

any material that, bc of quantity, concentration, or physical/chemical properties, may prose a hazard to human health or the environment during use, handling, storage, Transportaion, or spill

207
Q

MDMS

A

doc that contains potential health effects of exposure to chemicals and safe working procedures when handling it
- essential starting point for development of a complete health and safety program

208
Q

list of hazardous materials in the workspace

A

AUL
on ships, SHML (ship hazardous material list)

209
Q

steps when you discover a hazardous spill

A

notify
evaluate
contain and damage control
dispersion of gases/vapors
cleanup/decontamination
disposal of contaminated maerials
certification for reentry

210
Q

radio frequency

A

number of completed cycles per second.
measured in hertz

211
Q

frequency of radio waves

A

high

212
Q

range of high frequency

A

ground = up to 50 miles ground and 100-8K miles ky

213
Q

range of VHF

A

ground - up to 30 miles
sky - 50-150 miles

214
Q

range of UHF

A

ground - up to 50 miles
N/A sky

215
Q

principle means of communication for MAGTF

A

single channel radio

216
Q

SCR

A

single channel radio

217
Q

SCR and HF, VHF, and UHF

A

VHF and UHF bands is limite dto lines of sight
HF can support long range communciations

218
Q

type of radio frequency that can support long range communciations

A

HF
- VHF and UHF are shorter

219
Q

use of UHF

A

forward air control ground to air. needs line of sight for reliable communciations. greater range when to sky b/c no obstruction.

220
Q

primary limiting factor of UHF

A

critical line of sight “what you see is what y ou get”

221
Q

primary use of UFH radios

A

air to groudn communciations

222
Q

what kind of radio is SINCGARS

A

VHF

223
Q

SINCGARS

A

single channel groudn and airborne raido system

224
Q

primary communication for C2 and fire support on the battlefield

A

SINCGARS and VHF

225
Q

COTS

A

commerical off the shelf

226
Q

primary limiting factor for VHF radios

A

range (reliable up to 10 miles. foliage reduces range)
frequency available

227
Q

primary advantage of HF radios

A

long-range and over the horozon communication

228
Q

primary limiting factor of HF radios

A

frequency allocation
bandwidth availability
weather, sunrise, & sunset can be difficult to

229
Q

2 modes of propagation in HF radios

A

ground wave
sky wave

230
Q

why do you need 2 HF frequencies during a 24hr period

A

b/c the reflective nature of the ionosphere will change when the sunlight hits it. (sky wave propagation)
- need a low night frequency and a high day frequency

231
Q

skip zone

A

no signals will be received from a particular transmitter for a particular frequency
- formed where the nearest point at which a sky wave is received is beyond the furthers point at which a ground wave is received

232
Q

INFOSEC

A

protection of information/information systems against unauthorized access or modification of information (storage, processing, or transmit and against denial of services to authorized users(

233
Q

COMSEC

A

communications security
- protection resulting form all measures designed to deny unauthorized persons information of value that might be derived from the possession and study of telecommunications or mislead unauthorize persons in their interpretations of such possession and suty

234
Q

goal of COMSEC

A

protect friendly communication from enemy exploitation while ensuring unimpeded use of hte assigned electromagnetic spectrum
- responsibility for COMSEC is the command and individual users

235
Q

steps to use SINCGAR

A
  1. LOAD
  2. Singel Channel (SC)
  3. MAN (manual)
  4. FREQ
  5. CLR (clear)
  6. enter your desired frequency
  7. store (STO)
  8. SQ (squelch on)
236
Q

radio low power range

A

200-400 meters

237
Q

radio high power range

A

5-10km

238
Q

radio PA range

A

PA = power amplifier
10-40km but this setting is only for vehicle mouted radios equipped with a power amplifier

239
Q

options for service rifle

A

M164A
M4 carabine with RCO

240
Q

specs of the combat rifle

A

lightweight
5.56mm
magazine fed
gas operated
air cooled
shoulder fired

241
Q

options on the rifle selector lever

A

safe
semi
burst

242
Q

bolt-carrier assembly (rifle)

A

stripping
chambering
lockign
firing
extractin
ejection of cardiages

243
Q

types of rifle ammunitino

A

ball (M855)
tracer
dummy
blankM

244
Q

primary ammunition of the rifle

A

Ball (M855)
green tip

245
Q

green tip bullet

A

Ball (M855)

246
Q

red tip bullet

A

tracer

247
Q

difference between the dummy and blank bullets

A

dummy - six grooves. open primer well. dry fire
blank- no projectile. violet tip

248
Q

bullet with six grooves

A

dummy

249
Q

bullet with open primer well

A

dummy

250
Q

bullet with no projectile

A

blank

251
Q

violet tip bullet

A

blank

252
Q

study of projectiles and their effects

A

ballistics

253
Q

purpose of rifling in the barrel of a gun

A

twist rate relates to stability. longer heavier rounds require more spin

254
Q

Condition 1

A

safety on
magazine inserted
round in chamber
bolt forward
ejection port covered with

255
Q

weapons condition when the bullet is in the chamber

A

Condition 1

256
Q

weapons condition with no bullet or magazine

A

Condition 4

257
Q

weapons commands

A

Load: make condition 3 by inserting magazine

Make Ready: make condition 1 by chambering a round

Fire
Cease Fire

Unload - make condition 4
show clear

258
Q

3 main groups of a disassembled rifle

A

upper receiver
bolt carrier
lower receiver

259
Q

pistol used by MC

A

M9 service pistol

260
Q

specs of the Service Pistol

A

M9
semiautomatic
magazine-fed
recoil-operated
double action
- 15 rounds

261
Q

rounds in the M9

A

15

262
Q

what happens when the last bullet if fired

A

slide automatically locks to the rear

263
Q

single action mode

A

pistol fired when the hammer is cocked. hammer cocked to the rear before the trigger is pulled.

264
Q

double action mode

A

hammer moved to the rear as the trigger is being pulled

265
Q

components of the M9

A

slide assembly
barrel assembly
receiver

266
Q

parts of the M9 service pistol

A

firing pin
firing pin block
striker
extractor
loaded chamber indicator

267
Q

extractor of the service pistol

A

pulls the brass from the chamber after the round is fired

268
Q

8 steps of firing a service pistol

A

firing
unlocking
extracting
ejecting
cocking
feeding
chambering
locking

269
Q

bullets for service pistol

A

M882 9mm ball. dummy can be used during training.

270
Q

Condition 1 pistol

A

magazine inserted
round in chamber
slide forward
safety on

271
Q

Condition 4 pistol

A

magazine removed
chamber empty
slide forward
safety on

272
Q

2 ways to check a pistol’s conditoin

A

checking the round indicator
conduct a chamber check

273
Q

6 commands used when weapons handling

A

Load
Make Ready
Fire
Cease Fire
Unload
Show Clear

274
Q

stoppage

A

unintentional interruption int eh cycle of operations
- normally discovered when pistol won’t fire

275
Q

pistol fails to fire/unintentional interruption in the cycle of operations

A

stoppage

276
Q

failure of a pistol to act as it should

A

malfunction

277
Q

fighting knife

A

K-Bar

278
Q

aka hand grenade

A

M67

279
Q

danger range of grenades

A

casualty producing - 15 meters
kill zone - 5meter

280
Q

grenade launcher

A

M204.
attached to the M16 just under the barrier and forward of the slip ring

281
Q

types of Machine Gun

A

M249
M240G
M2 ,50 caliber
MK-19

282
Q

primary role of mortar untis

A

provide a CDR with immediately available responsive and lethal/nonlethal indirect fires. also reinforce direct fires during close combat

283
Q

purpose of mortar fires is

A

close support fires
counter fires
interdiction fires
harassment fires
deception fires

284
Q

harassment fires

A

disturb enemy troops, curtail movement, lower morale by the threat of losses

285
Q

deception fires

A

deceive/confuse enemy
- fire false preparatory fires on enemy position or LZ. deceptive smoke screens to focus enemy in one location while friendly forces attack another

286
Q

interdiction fires

A

divert, disrupt, delay, or destroy an enemy’s surface military potential before it can be used effectively against firendly forces

287
Q

FPF

A

final protective fires

288
Q

effects of mortar fires

A

destruction (permanently out of action)
neutralization (temporarily ineffective/unusable)
suppressive
obscuration
illuminatin

289
Q

current medium mortar

A

81mm.
93lbs and broken down into seeral smaller loads for easier carrying.
rounds = 15lbs each

290
Q

weight of the rounds for the 81mm mortar

A

15lbs each

291
Q

Howitzer movement

A

M777, Osprey, CH-53 Super Stallion, Chinook

292
Q

aka Chinook

A

CH-47

293
Q

rate of fire of Howitzer

A

sustained = 2 rounds/min
intense - 4 rounds/min up to 2 min

294
Q

range of Howitzer

A

30km

295
Q

MLRS

A

Multiple Launch Rocket Systems

296
Q

HIMARS weight

A

24,000 lbs

297
Q

maximum rate of fire of HIMARS

A

6 rockets

298
Q

TOW weapon system

A

Targeted Optical Wire-guided weapon system
- an antitank weapon for long-range employment at armored targets

299
Q

principle purpose of camoflage

A

prevent direct observation and recognition

300
Q

protection from hostile firs

A

cover

301
Q

cover

A

protection from hostile fires

302
Q

concealment

A

protection from observatino or surveillance from hostile observatino. no hostile fire protection

303
Q

5 paragraph operation order

A

SMEAC
admin/logistics
command/

304
Q

5 paragraph order
- nfo about friendly forces

A

Situation (SMEAC)
- higher unit mission (task and CDR intent)
- adjacent unit mission (task/intent) left/front/right/rear
- supporting unit task/mission

305
Q

5 paragraph order
-info about hostiel forces

A

SALUTE = composition, disposition, strength
capabilities to DRAW-D
enemy most probably COA

306
Q

DRAW-D

A

defend
reinforce
attack
withdraw
delay

307
Q

SALUTE

A

size activity location unit time equipment

308
Q

5 paragraph order
- info about execution

A

CDR intent
CONOPS
subordinate element missions (main element, supporting efforts, reserve(
coordinating instructions

309
Q

report enemy information

A

SALUTE
size
activity
location
unit
timeing Equiipment

310
Q

IBE

A

improved ballsitic eyewear

311
Q

ESAPI

A

enhanced small arms protective inserts

312
Q

IMTV

A

improved modular tactical vest

313
Q

FROG

A

flame resistant organizaitonal gear

314
Q

rotor blade diameter of UH-1

A

50

315
Q

rotor blade diameter of CH-53

A

100

316
Q

concise narrative report of important information

A

SPOTREP
- SALUTE if enemy infomratoin. messages are in bock letters

317
Q

sketch that is on transparent paper

A

overlay

318
Q

part of the map that identifies topographical symbols

A

legend

319
Q

reading maps at night

A

read maps while under red light

320
Q

dip or low point in the ground between points of higher ground and

A

saddle

321
Q

looks like an hourglass on a map

A

saddle

322
Q

ridge

A

sloping line of higher ground
U or V shaped on map. closed end of the contour points away from higher ground

323
Q

low point in the groudn

A

depression

324
Q

draw

A

stream course that is less developed than a valley
U/V shaped pointing toward higher ground
- draw could be considered the initial formation of a valley

325
Q

problem of draws

A

less developed stream course than a valley. narrow w/o level ground. no maneuver room

326
Q

spur

A

short continuous sloping line of higher ground normally jutting out from the side of a ridge

327
Q

most common military method to express direction

A

azmuth

328
Q

azimuth

A

horizontal angle measured clockwise form a north base line

329
Q

grid azimuth

A

when an azimuth is plotted on a map between point A and point B, the points are joined by a straight line. protractor is used to measure eh angle between grid north an the draw line
- the measured azimuth is the grid azimuth

330
Q

convert between gride and magnetic azimuth

A

magnetic compass give magnetic azimuth. to plot the line on a grid map, you have to change the magnetic azimuth to grid azimuth. use declination diagram

331
Q

military use of gride and magnetic azimuth

A

magnetic: navigating with a compass or dead reckoning
grid: writing orders, controlling movement, looking at graphic control measures

332
Q

G-M angle

A

angular size that exists between grid north and magnetic north
- there is an angular difference between grid north and magnetic north

333
Q

first step for the navigator in the field

A

orient the map

334
Q

location of an unknown point by successfully occupying at least 2-3 known positions on the ground. them map sighting to the unknown place

A

intersection

335
Q

intersection

A

location of an unknown point by successfully occupying at least 2-3 known positions on the ground. them map sighting to the unknown place

336
Q

2 methods of intersection

A

map and compass,
straightedge

337
Q

resection

A

locate your position on a map by determine the grid azimuth to at least 2 well-defined locations that cna be pinpointed on the map

338
Q

locate your position on a map by determine the grid azimuth to at least 2 well-defined locations that cna be pinpointed on the map

A

resection

339
Q

role of the OPT

A

operational planning team
- helps frame problems, develops and wargames COA, and assists the staff in the preparation and transition of the order

340
Q

MCPP steps

A

problem framing,
COA development, war gaming< comparison and decision, orders development, transition

341
Q

first step of MCPP

A

problem framing

342
Q

purpose of the problem framing step of MCPP

A

gain an understanding of the problem,
enhance understanding of the environment and nature of that problem,
identify what must be accomplished, where, when, and why.

purpose: articulate din teh mission statement (task and purpose)

343
Q

quote about planning

A

“no amount of subsequent planning can solve a problem insufficiently understood. so problem framing is the most important step in planning”

344
Q

purpose of the 2nd step of MCPP

A

COA development
- provide the CDR with options for accomplishing the mission within their intent
- promotes understanding of the environment, problem, and approach to solve the problem

345
Q

characteristics of a developed COA

A

suitable
feasible
acceptable
distinguishable
complete

346
Q

suitable COA

A

“does the COA accomplish the purpose and task?”
“does it comply with the CDR guidance?”

347
Q

feasible COA

A

“does the COA accomplish the mission within the available time, space, and resources?”

348
Q

acceptable COA

A

“is the COA proportional and worth the cost in personnel, equipment, material, time, or position”
“is it consistent with the law of war and is it militarily/politically supportable?”

349
Q

distinguishable COA

A

“does the COA differ significantly from other COA?”

350
Q

complete COA

A

“does the COA include all tasks to be accomplished?”
“does it address the entire mission (main and supporting efforts, reserve, and associated risk”

351
Q

purpose of step 3 of MCPP

A

wargaming
- examine and refines options in light of adversary capabilities and potential actions/reactions. plus characteristics of the OE and actions of non-mil stakeholders

352
Q

3 steps of a wargame

A

action
reactuib”ciybteraction

353
Q

options the CDR has in the MCPP COA comparison and decision step

A

select a COA w/o modification,
w/modification,
develop new COA by combination,
discard all and resume problem framing/COA development

354
Q

orders reconciliation

A

internal process where the staff conducts a detailed review of the entire order
purpose: ensure basic order and annexes/appendices/attachments are complete and in agreement

355
Q

internal process of reviewing an OPORD for completeness and agreeableness

A

orders reconciliation

356
Q

orders crosswalk

A

external process. compares order to external ones (HHQ, adjacent, subordinate) to achieve unity of effort and ensure superior commander’s intent is met

357
Q

actions taken in the Orders Development phase of MCPP

A

orders reconciliation - internal process to check order for correct and completeness
orders crosswalk - external. check with HHQ/subordinate/adjacent
ROC and confirmation briefs

358
Q

ROC

A

rehearsal of concept

359
Q

COG that can be attacked for potential gain

A

critical vulnerabilities

360
Q

relative combat power

A

gives planners an understanding of friendly and adversary force strengths and weaknesses relative to each other

361
Q

2 categories of CCIR

A

PIR - priority intelligence requirements
FFIR

362
Q

commander’s intent

A

CDR’s personal expression ofthe purpose of the operation
- clear, concise, easily understood.
- end states or conditoins that when satisfied accomplisht ehpurpose
- allows subordinates teoexercise judgement and intiative
-

363
Q

TFFDD

A

force requirements and force flow for assessment purposes. used to analyze sourcing and transportaiton feeasibility

364
Q

fundamental responsibility of command

A

plannign

365
Q

coordinate action towards a common purpose

A

integrated plannign

366
Q

3 concepts of planning

A

single battle concept
integrated planning
top down plannign

367
Q

concept of single-battle concept

A

operations/events in one place have profound and consequential effects on other areas and events
- thus, the battlespace is an invisible entity

368
Q

FUNCPLAN

A

functional plan
- plans that cover specific types of functions/activities (aviation, logistics, communications…)
- planning developed when operations are anticipated that involve the conduct of mil operations in non-hostile or peacetime

369
Q

Maintenace Bn

A

general suport
intermediate maintence

370
Q

Supply Bn

A

general support supply except bulk fuel and Navy funded stock/progrmms

371
Q

Engineering Support Bn

A

enhance M/CM/S and EOD. also handlign/storage/distributin of bulk I and III.

372
Q

Med Bn tasks

A

C2
health service support via forward resuscitative care
med reg
prev med
med intelligence
casualty decontaminating treatment
coordinate pt evacuation

373
Q

LCE of a MEB

A

CLR

374
Q

6 functions of combat logistics

A

supply
maintenance
transportation
general engineering
health service support
services

375
Q

subfunctions of supply (a function of combat logistics)

A

determination of requirements,
requisition authority,
storage,
procurement,
distribution,
salvage,
disposal

376
Q

subfunctions of maintenance (function of combat logsitics)

A

inspect/classify
service and repair
modification
rebuilding nd overhaul
reclaimatin
recovery and evacuation

377
Q

subfunctions of general engineering (function of combat logistics)

A

engineer reconnaissance
bridging
facilities management
EOD
demolition/obstacle removal
bulk fuel (receive, distribute, store)
power generation and distribution
water production and distribution

378
Q

support vehicles of the LCE

A

7 Ton/Medium Tactical Vehicle Replacement/MTVR
HMMWV high mobility multi wheeled vehicle
MRAP

379
Q

casualties in the M997

A

4 litter
8 ambulatory

380
Q

first 5 classes of supply

A
  1. substance/rations
  2. minor end items/clothing/tools…
  3. POL
  4. construction
  5. amunitino
381
Q

Class VI items

A

personal demand items and nonmilitary sales

382
Q

Class VII items

A

major end items like weapons, vehicles…

383
Q

class of medical supply

A

Class 8

384
Q

Class IX and X supply

A

9- repair parts
10- nomilitary material to support nonmilitary progrms

385
Q

DACG

A

Departure Airfield Control Group
- primary contract with Air Mobility Command (AMC) at the APOE.
DACG receive deploying equipment and personnel from the unit at the APOE. makes sure all are prepared for air shipment and delivers cargo to the ready line

386
Q

AAA

A

arrival and assembly area
- area identified for arrival, offload, and assembly or forces/equipment/supplies

387
Q

APOE

A

location for marshaling, staging, and loading aboard aircraft

388
Q

APOD

A

airfield within the AAA selected to offload personnel and materials

389
Q

CRAF

A

civil reserve air fleet

390
Q

SPOE

A

selected port location for marshalling, staging, and loadign ships

391
Q

types of staff for the CO

A

Chief of Staff
Principle Staff
Special staff
personnel staff works directly for the CO (command master chief, secretary, sergeant major, aids)

392
Q

mission of the CE

A

C2, direct, plan, and coordinate the air, ground, logistics, intelligence, and communciatinos/iformation systsm

393
Q

role of chief of staff

A

principle staff officer for CO
executive management of general/executive and special staff
- directs staff tasks, coordinates staff , and ensures efficient and prompt staff resonse

394
Q

role of chaplain

A

matters pertaining to moral, spiritual, a nd religious wlle being of the command

395
Q

role of Comptroller

A

budgeting
accounting
disbursing
auditing/reviewing

396
Q

department of Comptroller

A

financial management
S4 with the exception of disbursing which is S1
comptrollers only at large commands

397
Q

S-1 role

A

personnel strength management,
personnel replacement management,
discipline, law, and order,
POW
casualty managemetn,
HQ management,
perosnnel management
morale personnel
prepares the Annex E (Personnel) to the OPLAN/OPORD
ADj, Career planing
disbursing
postal officer
disbursing
MWR

398
Q

principle role of S3

A

training
plans
operatoins
organizatinos

399
Q

role of S5

A

long-range future plannign
joint planning

400
Q

S-7

A

variety of options
- training, safety, isnpections, readiness, exercises

401
Q

which S shop is the comptroller

A

financial management
S-8

402
Q

S-shop for civil affairs

A

S-9

403
Q

S-shops 7-0

A

7- exercises, training, readiness, inspections, safety…
8- comptroller
9- civil affairs

404
Q

CMC

A

Command Master Chief
senior enlisted advisor for formulation/implementation of policies pertinent to morale, welfare, job satisfaction, discipline, utilization, training of all enlisted

405
Q

responsible for all enlisted at the command center

A

Command Master Chief
CMC

406
Q

role of the Sergeant major

A

discipline, welfare, conduct, morale, leadership of enlisted

407
Q

enlisted command leadership

A

CMC - Command Master Chief
Sergeant Major

408
Q

T/O

A

each UIC has an assigned T/O&E which details their Total Force Structure requirements consistent with what METS they must be able to perform

409
Q

BISOG

A

Blue in Support of Green (dollars)

410
Q

mission of a MEF CE is t

A

to deploy and be employed by a CCDR as a standalone CE or with augmentation, as a core element of a JTF HQ

411
Q

battalions that fall under the CE

A

MEF HQ Group
Radio Bn
Communcation’s Bn
Intelligence Bn
CI/HUMMINT Company
MC Imagery Support
ANGLICO
CAG - civil affairs

412
Q

CAG

A

civil affairs group
provides the MAGTF commander w/specialty trained and organize civil affairs personnel IOT facilitate ethe planning, coordination dn execution of civil=-military operations

413
Q

ANGLICO

A

liaison capability to plan, coordinate, employ, and conduct fires in support of joint, allied, and coalition forces

414
Q

types of amphibious operations

A

demonstration
raid
assault
withdrawal
support to other operations

415
Q

embarkation phase of amphibious operations

A

LF with equipment and supplies embark in their assigned shipping

416
Q

movement phase of amphibous operations

A

elements of hte force move from point of embarkation to the operational area

417
Q

amphibious assault

A

establishment of a landing force on a hostile shore

418
Q

amphibious demonstration

A

show of force w/o actual contact

419
Q

feint

A

deception to the location/time of the actual offensive action
- offensive action involving enemy condatct

420
Q

L-hour

A

hour on D-Day when the deployment operation is to commence
OR
first helicopter of the ship to shore movement touches down

421
Q

first helicopter touch down of the ship to shore movement

A

L-hour

422
Q

difference between H-hour and L-hour

A

L- hour: helicopter lands
H-hour: landing craft hts the beach

423
Q

mission of LCAC & LCU

A

land heavy vehicles, equipment, personnel, and cargo in an amphibious assault

424
Q

hospital capabilities of LSD Harper’s Ferry

A

1 OR
1 ICU
5 ward

425
Q

hospital capabilities of LSD Whidby ISland

A

1OR
7 ward

426
Q

hospital capabilities of LPD

A

2 OR
6 ICU
22 ward

427
Q

hospital capabilities of LHD

A

6 OR
600 beds

428
Q

role of LPD

A

embark, transport, and land elements of a landing force in amphibious assaults

429
Q

antiterrorism

A

defensive measures to reduce the vulnerability of individuals and property to terrorist acts
- scalable and proportionable

430
Q

force protection

A

preventative measures to mitigate hostile actions against DOD personnel, resources, facilities, critical information
= FPCON is defensive yet proactive

431
Q

FPCON Alpha

A

nonspecific threat of terrorism or hostile acts directed at DOD

432
Q

FPCON Charlie

A

terrorism/hostile act has occurred within the area of interest or intellligence indicates a targeted attack is likely

433
Q

FPCON Delta

A

terrorist act/hostility has occurred or intelligence states it is expected

434
Q

ok to use deadly force

A

inherent right to self defense & defense of others, & serious offenses to other persons
assets vital to national security or national critical infrastructure,
inherently dangerous property,
arrest, apprehension, escape,

Abbreviated Review (2 decks)

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