FLT Controls & Hydraulics Flashcards

0
Q

What are the main components for the primary flight controls?

A

Cyclic/Collective Servoactuators, Cyclic/Collective Mixer Assembly, Main Rotor Swashplate, Directional Servoactuator, Tail Rotor Swashplate, Stabilator

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1
Q

What are the five Flight Control Systems?

A
Collective
Cyclic
Upper 
Directional
Stabilator
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2
Q

What control system receive and combine control inputs from the collective and cyclic control sticks for vertical, longitudinal, and lateral flight?

A

Upper Flight Control System

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3
Q

What assembly receives control inputs from the two lateral links and the torque link and transmits these control inputs to the main rotor?

A

Swashplate assembly

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4
Q

What assembly transmits rotational power to the rotating Swashplate from the main rotor head?

A

Scissors Assembly

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5
Q

Stabilator movement is provided by two tandem linear __________ actuators mounted back to back.

A

Electrical

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6
Q

The primary hydraulic system provides hydraulic power to the _______, ________, and ________ control servo actuators

A

Collective, Cyclic, and Directional

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7
Q

The Utility Hydraulic System provides _________ hydraulic power to the servo actuators and _________________________.

A

Redundant

Utility hydraulic system components

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8
Q

The _______________ will provide emergency hydraulic power to the servo actuators, should both the primary and utility hydraulic systems fail.

A

Utility Accumulator

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9
Q

The _____________ is used to optimize the pitch angle of the airframe at various air speeds.

A

Stabilator Control System

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10
Q

The stabilator improves longitudinal handling characteristics and ______________ of the helicopter for improved ___________________.

A

Forward visibility

Flight-crew effectiveness

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11
Q

What positions the stabilator?

A

Stabilator actuator

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12
Q

What are the degree ranges the stabilator can articulate in the auto mode?

A

-5 degrees trailing edge up to +25 degrees trailing edge down

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13
Q

If aircraft exceeds ____ KTAS, the aircraft will revert the horizontal stabilator to the auto-mode.

A

80 KTAS

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14
Q

What are the degree ranges the stabilator can articulate in the manual mode?

A

-10 degrees trailing edge up to +35 trailing edge down

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15
Q

The stabilator icon is displayed in white _______.
The icon is yellow if ________.
The icon is red if ________.

A

Manual mode is selected and normal flight
Stabilator is detected as failed
Nominal airspeed is exceeded

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16
Q

The FMC release switch disengages the ______________.

A

Stability Command Augmentation System (SCAS)

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17
Q

Although Prohibited unless in a failed or partial failed mode, what MPD page allows the crew member to turn off the force trim?

A

A/C UTIL –> FMC TRIM

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18
Q

The ___ controls are the only controls with the force trim spring attached. The ____ has the same feel because his controls are connected to the _____.

A

PLT has spring
CPG does not have spring
PLT

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19
Q

Pressing the force trim button on the cyclic (up) allows what?

A
  • force trim momentarily to disengage (magnetic spring)

- stability augmentation system (SAS) actuators to reset

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20
Q

The Flight Management Computer (FMC) commands the position of the flight control actuators based on what inputs?

A

Crew station LVDTs, ARDDs, EGI, HADS, radar altimeter, and pressure sensors

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21
Q
The FMC has software logic which provides for
1-
2-
3-
4-
A

1- Attitude Hold
2- Altitude Hold
3- Automatic Stabilator Control
4- Stability Command Augmentation Subsystem (SCAS)

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22
Q

What forms of attitude hold does the FMC provide?

A

Attitude, Velocity, Position, Heading

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23
Q

What are the two types of altitude hold?

A

Radar and Barometric

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24
Q

Controlled by the FMC, the SCAS has three functions:

A

Stability Augmentation System (SAS), Command augmentation System (CAS), and the Hold Modes

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25
Q

What are the outputs of the Stability Augmentation System?

A

Rate Damping
Turn Coordination
Atmospheric Upset Damping

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26
Q

When is SCAS automatically engaged?

A

Following EGI alignment

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27
Q

The SAS provides rate damping and turn coordination at air speeds greater than ___ KTAS. It also dampens external forces (wind gusts) to the airframe to stabilize the helicopter.

A

40 KTAS

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28
Q

What is the SAS authority in each of the servos?

A

All 10% except Longitudinal FWD (20%)

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29
Q

Approx how long does it take to reset the SAS ability on the Servoactuator when it is saturated?

A

3 sec of holding down force trim

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30
Q

__________ is defined as an increased response to the flight control movement. The _____ provides a uniform aircraft response for a given control input at all air speeds.

A

Command Augmentation System (CAS)

CAS

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31
Q

Attitude hold is active (accelerating) from _________.

Decelerating, it will not turn off until below ______.

A

40 KTAS - Vne

30 KTAS

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32
Q

Position Hold is designed to ________________.

A

Hold the aircraft over a given position on the ground

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33
Q

Below ______, the position hold uses pitch and roll SCAS to maintain a precise position over a selected geographic location.

A

5 knots ground speed

34
Q

Velocity hold is active from __________ ground speed, depending on whether the aircraft is accelerating or (decelerating).

A

5 - 40(30)

35
Q

Altitude hold is provided thought the _____ SCAS

A

Collective

36
Q

When will Radar altitude hold be engaged?

A

EGI ground speed is less than 40 knots and radar alt less than 1428’

37
Q

When will ALT Hold disengage?

A

Collective displaced > 0.5 inch
97% > Nr > 104%
Either ENG exceeds 100% TQ
Either ENG exceeds 867*C

38
Q

_____ is an emergency fly by wire __________________ which permits continued control of the aircraft in the event of jammed or severed mechanical controls in any of the 4 axis.

A

BUCS

Backup Control System

39
Q

What are the two reasons for which BUCS will be engaged?

A

1- FMC senses a mistrack between LVDT inputs and servo RAM LVDT outputs
2- If a jam has occurred and the crew member decouples an ARDDS

40
Q

If there is only a mistrack between the PLT and CPG LVDT, what will occur?

A

BUCS FAIL

41
Q

If the flight controls are severed, the FMC will engage BUCS after sensing _______________.

A

A mistrack between the flight control LVDTs and the servo RAM LVDTs

42
Q

The primary side of the Servo-actuator has an _______________ that allows the FMC to affect the flight controls.

A

Electro-Hydraulic Valve (EHV)

43
Q

What does failure of the primary hydraulic system result in the loss of?

A

FMC SCAS (SCAS, SAS, and BUCS)

44
Q

If the ____________, the ___________ shutoff valve will close, isolating the directional Servoactuator from the utility hydraulic system. In this condition, the _____________ cannot provide emergency hydraulic power to the directional Servoactuator when EMER HYD is selected; the tail rotor will remain fixed pitch.

A

Utility Hydraulic fluid level is low
Low-Level
Utility Accumulator

45
Q

The _______________ is a potentiometer that translates control motion into an electrical signal that is utilized by the FMC to provide SCAS, SAS, BUCS, and hold mode functions.

A

Linear Variable Differential Transducer (LVDT)

46
Q

The ______ provides the means to physically disconnect a crew station flight control from it’s associated linkage and is located by each flight control. The _______ senses when this decoupling occurs.

A

ARDD

Rotary Variable Differential Transducer (RVDT) - consistently monitored by the FMC

47
Q

During BUCS operation the mechanical spool is locked out, giving the SAS sleeve ____ authority.

A

100%

48
Q

Describe the BUCS sequence: JAMMED CONTROL AXIS

A

1- crew member rolls ARDD
2- RVDT informs FMC that ARDD is decoupled
3- Full control via BUCS is assumed after 3 seconds “easy on”

49
Q

Describe the BUCS sequence: JAM IN CPG STICK

A

1- CPG stick jammed above ARDD, cannot roll it
2- PLT rolls ARDD
3- RVDT informs FMC of rolled ARDD
4- PLT LVDT commands system and full control after 3 seconds

50
Q

Describe the BUCS sequence: JAM BETWEEN/AFT of CREWSTATIONS

A

1- decouple the ARDD
2- BUCS engaged upon RVDT informing the FMC
3- 3 seconds easy on for whomever decoupled

51
Q

Describe the BUCS sequence: SEVERED CONTROL AXIS

A

PLT LVDT mistrack with RAM A actuator LVDT and CPG to RAM B LVDT. FMC engages BUCS

52
Q

Describe the BUCS sequence: SEVERANCE BETWEEN THE CREWSTATIONS

A

CPG controls move freely and there is a mistrack reported to the FMC. BUCS FAIL as the PLT’s controls are correct according to FMC. CPG locked out, unless BUCS trigger is used (PLT incapable of flying)

53
Q

Describe the BUCS sequence: SEVERANCE OF BOTH CREWSTATIONS

A

PLT and CPG are free to move to mech stop. Mistrack between LVDT and servo are detected by FMC. BUCS on in 1 sec

54
Q

If the PLT decouples his ARDD first he has flight controls through his LVDTs. The CPG can obtain control by __________________.

A

Decoupling his ARDD and pressing the BUCS trigger

55
Q

If the CPG decouples first he has flight controls through his LVDTs. The PLT can obtain control by _________________.

A

Decoupling his ARDD

56
Q

If a severance mistrack occurs with both sticks mistracking both RAM LVDTs, the PLT LVDTs have control. __________________________.

A

ARDD/RVDT signals are ignored. The CPG can gain control by pressing his BUCS trigger.

57
Q

If the CPG activates BUCS through his trigger, BUCS engages under CPG LVDT control if a stick mistrack occurs and ARDD/RVDT signals ______________.

A

Are ignored

58
Q

How can the crew members attempt to reset a BUCS FAIL?

A

Toggling the appropriate SAS channel on the A/C UTIL page

59
Q

What is the only way to exit BUCS?

A

Successful completion of an IBIT

60
Q

While in BUCS, ______ functions are not available in that axis.

A

SCAS

61
Q

[WARNING] - When BUCS is engaged do not release the flight controls until ________________________. _____________ May or May not be engaged.

A

The flight has been completed and the main rotor has come to a complete stop. Force trim

62
Q

How can crew members attempt to reset faults found from Flight Control BITs?

A

Toggling the SCAS switches on the A/C UTIL page

63
Q

Flight control IBIT (BUCS test) may not run correctly when using ________________.

A

AGPU. Some carts don’t work well

64
Q

What is happening when the aircraft “thumps” when running a BUCS test (FLT CNTRL IBIT)?

A

FMC is testing the full authority of the SAS

65
Q

[CAUTION] - FMC DISENGAGED

What occurred?

A

FMC has disengaged in one or more axis

66
Q

[CAUTION] - FMC FAIL

What occurred?

A

AC power is available > 3 sec when FMC failed

67
Q

[CAUTION] - AUTO/MAN STAB FAIL

what occurred?

A

SP detects a failure in both AUTO and MAN stabilator modes

68
Q

[CAUTION] - MAG FORCE TRIM OFF

What occurred?

A

Magnetic force trim is detected as OFF

69
Q

[CAUTION] - BUCS ON
BUCS ON (PLT/CPG) (AXIS)
What occurred?

A

The BUCS is engaged in unknown axis
Or
Engaged in specified axis

70
Q

[CAUTION] - BUCS FAIL

What occurred?

A

The BUCS has failed in unknown or specified axis

71
Q

[CAUTION] - HOVER DRIFT

What occurred?

A

Hover drift of greater than 48 feet detected (one rotor disc)

72
Q

What are the two halves of the flight control servoactuators?
Which half supports FMC? Which supports EMER HYD?

A

Primary and Utility
PRI - FMC
UTIL - EMER HYD

73
Q

What components are supported by the UTILITY HYD System?

A
Tail wheel lock actuator
Rotor break
APU starting motor (accumulator)
Weapon System Components
Emergency Hydraulic Pressure
74
Q

What servoactuators are driven by the PRI HYD System?

A

Collective / Lateral / Longitudinal

Directional

75
Q

Only the PRI side of the servos has an Electro-Hydraulic Valve that allows ___________________ to affect flight controls. Failure in the PRI results in a loss of these functions.

A

FMC and BUCS

76
Q

Approx what is the quantity of Hydraulic Fluid in the PRI HYD system?

A

3 quarts

77
Q

[CAUTION] - Do NOT place the rotor brake in _____ with the rotors turning.

A

LOCK

78
Q

The Primary Hydraulic Pump draws low-pressure fluid from the ____________ and provides pressurized (_____ psi) fluid to the _______________.

A

Primary Hydraulic Reservoir
3000 psi
Primary Hydraulic Manifold

79
Q

What drives the PRI HYD pump?

A

Main XMSN Accessory Gearbox (AGB)

80
Q

What is the flow rate of the PRI HYD Pump?

A

Up to 6 gallons per min

81
Q

The ____________ stores, filters, supplies, and regulates hydraulic fluid for the PRI HYD System.

A

Primary Hydraulic Manifold

82
Q

What does the PRI HYD Reservoir do?

A

Stores low-pressure fluid for system use

83
Q

The PRI/UTIL HYD Reservoir fluid capacity is __ pint. The fluid is pressurized by IPAS air to 31 +/- 3 psi to prevent _______________.

A

1 pint

Prevent pump cavitation and fluid foaming