FLS Didactics Notes Flashcards

1
Q

Scope diameters

A

2-10mm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Scope lengths

A

30-45cm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Options for gas

A

CO2, nitrous oxide, helium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Video tower consists of

A

Light source, camera control unit, video monitor, insufflator

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What light source is used to illuminate the body?

A

300 watt xenon lamp

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

The current density is defined as:

A

the amount of current flowing through a cross sectional area of tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Current density is directly & inversely proportional to:

A

Directly proportional to applied power; inversely proportional to 1) tissue resistance AND 2) the square of the area of tissue through which the current must travel.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Current density formula

A

Current density = current (amps) / area (cm^2)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Don’t place dispersive electrode (grounding pad) on:

A

Hairy skin, scars, bony prominences (decrease contact surface & increase risk of burn)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Cutting mode

A
  • heats tissue quickly –> cell water converted to steam (explodes)
  • heat dissipation = minimal lateral spread, poor thermal coag
  • CONTINUOUS waveform, LOW voltage, little tissue resistance (steam bubble)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Fulguration definition

A

Rapid surface heating with superficial eschar formation and shallow depth of necrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Coag mode

A
  • rapid surface heating with superficial eschar formation & shallow depth of necrosis (fulguration)
  • INTERMITTENT (pulsed) waveform, HIGH voltage
  • heat widely dispersed so no significant cutting
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is current diversion?

A

When current, following the path of least resistance, passes through unintentional pathways.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Capacitative coupling

A

Involves transfer of current from an active electrode, through its insulation, to a passive electrode (must be two conductors separated by an insulator)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Direct coupling

A

“spark”

Unintended direct coupling: when the active electrode comes into contact with other metal instruments, cannulas, or the laparoscope

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Vessel diameter for bipolar tissue sealing devices

A

Up to 7mm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Examples of bipolar devices

A

Kleppinger, Ligasure (tissue placed directly b/w two electrodes)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Hazards of tissue sealing devices

A

1) inadvertent thermal injury
2) inadvertent cutting of patent vessels before sealing
3) improper function if metal is w/in the jaws (staples or clips)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Ultrasonic dissection relies on what type of energy?

A

Mechanical

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

The tissue heating with ultrasonic devices is generated by:

A

Converting electrical energy into high frequency, ultrasonic vibration, utilizing a piezoelectric transducer. Vibration seals and divides tissue.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Ultrasonic high vs low power (cut vs coag)

A

LOWER power settings result in relatively more HEMOSTASIS and HIGHER power settings result in relatively more CUTTING.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are blades/jaws on piezoelectric transducer?

A

Active: vibrating; can injure tissue if touched immediately after use
Passive: backstop to trap tissue against the active blade; minimal heat transferred

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Avoiding inadvertent tissue:

A

1) be aware of contact points the blade is engaging
2) grab & elevate target tissue
3) keep active blade upwards, in view of surgeon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What happens to current density if you half the diameter of a ligature/surgical site?

A

Increases 16 fold

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Cutting mode:

A

During electrosurgery, the method of heating tissue quickly, converting cell water to steam & causing the cell to explode. (low voltage)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Capacitative coupling is a result of using what?

A

Using a metal trocar with a plastic screw anchor. Prevents the trocar from draining its charge.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Where should monitor be positioned?

A

At or just below eye level

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Where should surgeon stand?

A

Opposite of the operative field for best ergonomic position. Wrists slightly pronated, thumbs up.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Ideal ergonomic position for surgeon?

A

Arms at a 30 degree angle from the trunk & elbows flexed 60-120 degrees & the wrists slightly pronated, thumbs up & straight, both radial-ulnar axis and flexion-extension axis are no more than 2-3 degrees of either access.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

When should anticoagulation be discontinued?

A

Most should be discontinued at least 3 days prior to elective surgery.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

NSAIDs pre/peri-operative:

A

There is no proof that non-steroidal anti-inflammatory medication, including aspirin, need to be discontinued prior to safely proceeding with laparoscopic surgery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Pulmonary or cardiac medications recs in the perioperative period?

A

Any pulmonary or cardiac medications are important to continue throughout the perioperative period.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Which ASA Classes are contraindicated in LSC surgery?

A

ASA 4 and ASA 5; may not be appropriate candidates b/c their marginal cardiopulm. reserve is often unable to tolerate the physiological changes caused by pneumoperitoneum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

ASA Class 1

A

Normal healthy person; no organic, physiologic, biochemical, or psych disturbance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

ASA Class 2

A

Mild systemic disease (due to either surgical condition or to concomitant disease); normal pregnancy, smoker, social ETOH drinker, obesity (BMI 30-40), well controlled HTN/DM, mild lung dz

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

ASA Class 2 OB examples

A

normal pregnancy, well controlled GHTN, PreE without, diet controlled GDM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

ASA Class 3

A

Severe systemic dz that causes functional limitations; morbid obesity BMI 40 and up, HTN, COPD, ETOH abuse, ESRD, h/o MI/CVA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

ASA Class 3 Pregnancy examples

A

PreE with SF, GDM with complications or high insulin requirements, thrombolic dz requiring anticoag

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

ASA Class 4

A

Severe systemic dz that is life threatening; recent (<3 mo) MI/CVA/TIA/CAD/stents, ongoing cardiac ischemia, severe valve dysfunction, sepsis, shock, DIC, ESRD not on dialysis; HELLP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

ASA Class 4 Pregnancy examples

A

PreE with SF complicated by HELLP, peripartum cardiomyopathy with EF <40, decompensated heart dz

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

ASA Class 5

A

Moribund pt who’s not expected to live w/o the surgery; uterine rupture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

ASA Class 5 Pregnancy example

A

Uterine rupture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

ASA Class 6

A

Brain dead pt whose organs are being removed for donation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Obese pts

A
  • Longer trocars placed PERPENDICULAR to abd wall

- Length: >100mm (>10cm)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Thin patient trocar placement

A
  • elevated abd wall, insert at 45 degrees towards pelvic
  • place veress away from midline & around costal margin
  • Open/hasson or optical trocar (rec’d if prior abd sx)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Absolute contraindications to LSC (4)

A

1) inability to tolerate OPEN
2) hypovolemic shock (if unable to resuscitate)
3) lack of surgeon training
4) lack of appropriate institutional support

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Relative contraindications to LSC (5)

A

1) Inability to tolerate general
2) Long standing peritonitis
3) large abdominal or pelvic mass
4) Massive incarcerated ventral and inguinal hernias
5) severe cardiopulm dz (can’t tolerate positioning)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Considerations w/ prior abd surgery

A
  • increased adhesions
  • increased risk of enterotomy
  • veress insertion shouldn’t be close to previous incisions
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Cirrhosis considerations

A
  • increased risk of bleeding and postop ascites leak from LSC wounds
  • medically manage ascites before sx
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

During which trimester is LSC safe in pregnancy?

A

ALL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Special precautions for pregnancy and LSC surgery:

A

1) Tailor initial access based on fundal height
2) lower insufflation pressures
3) FHTs pre and post op
4) lateral recumbent position

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Anesthetic options for local anesthesia (3)

A
  1. Bupivocaine
  2. Lidocaine
  3. Ropivacaine
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Arm positioning

A
  • pelvic/lower abd: tuck 1 or both arms, hands not flexed

- upper abdomen: arms on the side, ABducted at 90 degree (not >90 to avoid brachial plexus injury)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Allen stirrups vs candy cane?

A

Allen is better to avoid less extreme angulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Lateral decubitus position

A

-avoid stretch on brachial plexus
-**Roll on dependent side can -protect axilla & plexus
upper arm in a sling
- bean bag can hold pt a the right angle but can cause pressure injuries b/c its stiff (use padding on the bean bag)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Modified decubitus

A

Used to allow rotation b/c full lateral decub. and supine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Entry site for establishing pneumoperitoneum:

A

Umbilicus is most common

58
Q

Alternative entry site for establishing pneumoperitoneum if:

A
  • previous umbilical scar, h/o umbilical hernia repair, if site not optimal location for surgery
59
Q

Most accurate intraperitoneal check

A

Low insufflation pressure (<8mmhg) w/ low to medium flow of CO2

60
Q

Absolute contraindication to blind trocar insertion:

A

1) abdominal scar from prior OPEN surgery in immediate vicinity of trochar insertion
2) Through previously placed intraperitoneal mesh for hernia repair

61
Q

Palmer’s point

A

LUQ midclavicular at anterior axillary line 3cm or two finger breadths below ribs

  • *go lateral to epigastric vessels when using site off midline
    • avoid rectus muscles
62
Q

Most common vessel injured with veress insertion

A

The take off of the right common iliac artery from aorta lies directly below umbilicus; it’s most commonly injured in thin patients (retroperitoneal injury)

63
Q

Hasson (open) technique:

A
  • Make a 2 cm vertical or horizontal skin incision
  • Carry incision down through the skin & subQ
  • incise fascia with scalpel or monopolar cautery on CUT
  • anchor fascia w/ 0 or 2-0 absorbable suture (simple or horizontal matress) (placed before OR after entering peritoneum)
  • dissect preperitoneal fat
  • grasp peritoneum w/ 2 clamps & incise sharply
  • insert blunt tipped trocar under direct visualization
  • secure trocar to the fascia with the previously placed stay sutures
  • connect insufflator tubing & initiate pneumoperitoneum
64
Q

What gas preferred and why?

A

CO2
Available, inexpensive, rapidly absorbed and SOLUBLE in blood, easily eliminated by alveoli in lungs, suppresses combustion

65
Q

CO2 effects

A

INC arterial CO2&raquo_space; INC end tidal CO2&raquo_space; DECR serum pH

66
Q

CO2 pulmonary effects

A
  • INC minute ventilation to eliminate absorbed CO2
  • INC pressure pushing diaphragm cephalad&raquo_space; DECR func residual capacity, INCR peak airway press, DECR pulm compliance & diaphragmatic excursion
67
Q

Cardiac output response

A

Usually DECREASES due to both chemical and pressure effects

68
Q

Cardiac output response (preload, afterload, CO)

A

INCREASED preload, INCREASED afterload, DECREASED cardiac output

69
Q

CO decrease exacerbated by:

A

Reverse T-burg, hypovolemia, underlying cardiac dz, pneumo/vagally induced bradycardia&raquo_space; decreased tissue perfusion manifests as HYPOTENSION, arrhythmia, decr UOP, & INC end tidal CO2

70
Q

decreased tissue perfusion manifests as:

A

HYPOTENSION, arrhythmia, decr UOP, & INC end tidal CO2

71
Q

Intraop actions if symptomatic decreased cardiac output:

A
  • desufflate immediately
  • check insufflator settings/function
  • check for adequate relaxation
  • check intravascular volume status
  • check for other causes such as bleeding
72
Q

Most common cardiac change

A

Sinus tachycardia (mild and self limited)

73
Q

PVCs are due to what affect of CO2?

A

Chemical (PVCs rarely problematic)

74
Q

Bradycardia due to what?

A
  • Vagally mediated & occurs soon after pneumo is established due to PRESSURE effect
  • if severe, stop insuf. & release pneumo. Once stable, can re-establish pneumo w/ lower flow & pressure.
75
Q

Persistent arrhythmia

A

Open or abort procedure

76
Q

Increased IVC resistance due to what?

A

PRESSURE effect of pneumo

reduced LE venous flow rate

77
Q

Alternative gases

A

Nitrous oxide, air, helium, argon

78
Q

Nitrous oxide benefits

A
  • less acid base disturbances
  • better for pts w/ severe cardiopulm dz
  • slightly less postop pain
  • tolerated well w/o gen anesth.
79
Q

Nitrous oxide risks

A
  • does NOT suppress combustion
  • **Fire hazard if using electrocautery in the presence of open bowel (from combustible gas in the bowel)
  • do not use in pts w/o bowel prep or if high risk of bowel perf
80
Q

Renal effects

A
  • UOP unreliable due to PRESSURE effect
  • INCR intra-abd pressure DECREASES renal blood flow & UOP&raquo_space; RENIN/ADH INCREASES
  • intraop oliguria is common
81
Q

Gas embolus

A
  • Small asymptomatic emboli occur frequently

- symptomatic = rare (0.015%)

82
Q

Symptoms of gas embolus

A
  • sudden cardiovasc collapse

- severe hypotension, JVD, tachycardia, MILL WHEEL murmur

83
Q

Treatment of gas embolus

A
  • stop insufflation & evacuate pneumo
  • Place in Tburg, LEFT lateral decubitus w/ head down to prevent embolus from going to R outflow tract “Durants position”
  • Rapid crystalloid fluid administration, 100% O2, TEE to dx if needed
  • Central line placement to evacuate or break up embolus in R heart chamber
84
Q

Core needle biopsy

A
  • Tissue for histology eval (form of incisional bx)
  • 14-18 gauge needle
  • used for bx of liver
85
Q

Incisional bx used for

A

Larger lesions

86
Q

Excisional bx used for

A

Smaller lesions

87
Q

FNA biopsy

A

Cytology specimen, higher yield than washings

20-22 gauge needle

88
Q

Electrocautery and bx

A

Avoid when obtaining specimen. Use only after to help w/ hemostasis (it can alter or distort specimen)

89
Q

Bx of peritoneal lesions

A
  • bx forceps, grasper, scissors
  • small lesion > excisional
  • large lesion > incisional
  • remove via 5 or 10 mm port
90
Q

LN bx

A
  • usually EXCISIONAL bx is done
  • Careful use of energy during bx
  • smaller nodes removed via 10-12mm port, larger nodes using a sac
91
Q

Bx of liver lesions below surface

A

FNA or core needle bx, may need US; hemostasis AFTER specimen is collected

92
Q

Bx of fluid filled liver lesions

A
  • cysts don’t need bx

- avoid vascular lesions b/c they can bleed

93
Q

Bx of generalized liver parenchymal dz (cirrhosis)

A

Core needle bx, wedge bx of edge of liver

94
Q

Bx of solid liver lesion

A
  • small surface lesion: incisional or excisional; if flat, core needle or wedge
  • large surface lesion: incisional bx (core needle or wedge)
  • below surface: FNA or core needle
95
Q

Bx of ovary if high suspicion of cancer

A

Oophorectomy (removal of cyst wall or wedge bx of solid lesion okay if not)

96
Q

Options for bx of ovary (3)

A

1) oophorectomy
2) wedge resection (of solid lesion)
3) bx forceps (on antimesenteric portion)

97
Q

Small superficial lesion on hollow viscous mgmt

A

Can be removed and serosal stitch placed over top

98
Q

Retroperitoneal bx hemostasis

A

Avoid monopolar near major structures; use bipolar, endoloop, clips, etc.
use US if lesion not visible

99
Q

MC bx under US

A

Core needle or FNA

100
Q

Hemostasis after bx in general

A

PRESSURE first, monopolar, bipolar, topical agents, suture, ultrasonic

101
Q

Braided suture (vs monofilament)

A
  • easier to handle
  • lack elastic memory
  • less likely to fray
  • requires less throws
102
Q

Undyed suture

A
  • can absorb blood and are hard to see

- dyed suture preferred

103
Q

Which is preferred? Dyed or undyed suture?

A

Dyed

104
Q

Which is preferred? tapered or conventional needle?

A

Tapered/smooth…they’re safer compared to conventional/cutting needle

105
Q

How far apart should ports be w/ intracorporeal tying?

A

Greater than or equal to 10cm

106
Q

Intracorporeal knot tying ideal suture length

A

15cm or 6in

107
Q

Extracorporeal knot tying ideal suture length

A

76cm or 30in

108
Q

Trocar size for SH needle

A

10-12mm

109
Q

Port size for staples

A

12mm port

110
Q

Clips used for

A
  • small tubular structures

- **NOT for closing openings in hollow organs

111
Q

Clip sizes

A
  • 5 and 10 mm
  • disposable applier: can place multiple clips w/o changing out instrument
  • reusable: metal and plastic clips
112
Q

Linear staplers…general mechanism

A

Places two or three rows of staples on either side of a knife plate that divides the tissue between the staple lines.

113
Q

Staple length and height ranges

A

Length of staple cartridges range from 30mm to 60 mm. Staple size or height ranges from 2mm-4.5mm.

114
Q

Smaller staples vs larger staples

A
  • Smaller: more hemostasis, thinner tissue (vessels or mesentery)
  • larger: thicker tissue
115
Q

Staple color, height, examples

A

1) White/gray = 2-2.5mm = vascular application
2) blue = 3-3.5mm = majority of GI tract
3) green = 4-4.5mm = distal stomach, thick portions of GI tract

116
Q

Choice of staple height depends on:

A

the thickness of the tissue

117
Q

Good maneuvers to control bleeding

A
  • *grasp & hold bleeding source
  • *5mm atraumatic grasper to tamponade
  • add extra trocars/maintain exposure
  • 10 mm suction
  • minimize irrigation
118
Q

Highest risk of injury to epigastics

A

Trocars placed through rectus muscles

119
Q

Port site bleeding: slow, visible source

A

energy source/electrocautery or direct pressure

120
Q

Port site bleeding: high rate, no visible source

A
  • control w/ grasper
  • place foley catheter
  • dissection to find source
  • suture and/or energy source
121
Q

Port site bleeding: heavy bleeding

A
  • full thickness abdominal wall suture
122
Q

Retroperitoneal bleed suspected when

A

Free blood seen in abd cavity with no identifiable source (presume a major vascular injury)&raquo_space; convert to OPEN!!!

123
Q

Management of LSC retroperitoneal bleed

A

CONVERT TO OPEN

124
Q

Retroperitoneal hemorrhage due to veress needle injury

A
  • MC vessel injured is iliac vein during trocar placement
  • can have concomitant bowel injury, inspect bowel
  • may have overlying viscera or be in mesentery of bowel
125
Q

Retroperitoneal hemorrhage due to trocar injury

A
  • more immediate blood loss, more easily dx’d

- attempt to tamponade bleeding while converting to open

126
Q

Monopolar electrocautery for hemostasis used for:

A

small vessels, slow rate of bleeding, need relatively dry operative field

127
Q

Bipolar electrocautery for hemostasis used for:

A

larger vessels, works in “wet” operative field, less lateral spread, lower energy requirement (advanced bipolar = improved hemostatic capability)

128
Q

Hemostatic agents for bleeding control

A
  • *useful for raw surfaces
  • slow rate of bleeding
  • not effective for large vessels
  • some require special applicator
129
Q

Prevention of shoulder pain

A
  • *wound infiltration w/ local anesthetic
  • lower insufflation pressure
  • deliberate evacuation of pneumo after sx
  • multimodal anesthesia
130
Q

Tissue heating relationship to current density

A

**Tissue heating = (current density)^2

131
Q

Cumulative radiation dosage during pregnancy

A

5-10 rads

132
Q

Fetal mortality is greatest when radiation exposure occurs when?

A

w/in 1st week of conception

133
Q

Most sensitive time period for CNS teratogenesis is:

A

b/w 10-17wga
avoid routine radiographs during this time (later in pregnancy, concern shifts towards increased risk of childhood hematologic malignancy)

134
Q

No single diagnostic study should exceed _ rads.

A

FIVE

135
Q

MRI recs in pregnancy

A

MRI without IV Gadolinium can be done at any stage of preg

  • no adverse effects of amIR on fetal development have been reported
  • Gadolinium crosses placenta & can be detrimental
136
Q

CT scan in preg

A
  • may be used judiciously
  • rads can range from 2-5 (pelvis only vs abd/pelvis)
  • safe rad dose but think about teratogenesis & childhood blood cancer
137
Q

PET scan in pregnancy (radionucleotides)

A

safe
including technetium-99m
fetal exposure is <0.5rad

138
Q

Cholangiography

A

may be used selectively

shield lower abdomen to decrease fetal exposure

139
Q

Pregnant patient positioning

A

Left lateral decubitus

Minimize compression of vena cava

140
Q

Pregnant initial port placement

A
  • adjust based on fundal height and previous incisions

- open, veress, or optical trocar

141
Q

Pregnant insufflation pressure

A

10-15mmHg

142
Q

VTE ppx pregnant pt

A

Intra and post-op SCDs and early ambulation