Florida Flashcards

1
Q

Where must your DEA certificate be kept?

A

At the registered location

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2
Q

Where/when are DEA registrations required?

A

Separate at each principal place of business where controlled substances are stored

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3
Q

How often do you renew your DEA license

A

3 years

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4
Q

Which forms do you use to apply for your DEA certificate vs registration?

A

Form 222 = schedule 2 order forms; registration is form 224

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5
Q

What schedule drug is propoxyphene?

A

IV

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6
Q

What schedule drug is diazepam?

A

IV

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7
Q

What schedule drug is fentanyl?

A

II

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8
Q

What do you do with your DEA scripts and registration when you retire?

A

Notify nearest office and send DEA certificate and unused order forms to office

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9
Q

If you have controlled drugs stolen, who must you notify (and what form)?

A

DEA and form 106

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10
Q

If you move to a new business address what must you request for your DEA license?

A

Modification of registration

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11
Q

How long must you keep your controlled logs?

A

2 years

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12
Q

Who do you have the right to not employ (4)?

A
  1. Any felon related to controlled substances
  2. Any person denied DEA registration
  3. Any person with revoked DEA license
  4. Any person with surrendered DEA license
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13
Q

What are requirements for the animal wards (4)?

A

Capable of sanitation, proper ventilation, light, size consistent with welfare

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14
Q

What are requirements for the exam room (4)?

A

Trash can, sink, disposable towels, exam table (NOT soap dispenser)

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15
Q

What are requirements for the pharmacy (4)?

A
  1. Blood storage or donor available
  2. Accurate drug log and patient records/locks for controlled/DEA license
  3. Segregation of storage for expired drugs
  4. Disposable needles and syringes
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16
Q

What are requirements for the CPR area (4)?

A
  1. O2 equipment
  2. anesthesia equipment
  3. sterile instruments/ drapes/caps/masks
  4. OR table
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17
Q

What are requirements for the lab (5)?

A
  1. Centrifuge
  2. Microscope
  3. Urinalysis equipment or outside lab
  4. Hematology/chem or outside lab
  5. Microbio equipment or outside lab
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18
Q

What do the in-house drug labels need to have (3)?

A

Name, strength, expiration

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19
Q

What should drugs be distributed in?

A

Child resistant containers (unless specific request not to)

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20
Q

What do distributed drug labels need to have (7)?

A
  1. Drug
  2. Strength/quantity
  3. Expiration date
  4. Instructions
  5. Name/species of pet
  6. Last name of owner
  7. Name/address/phone of vet
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21
Q

What do controlled drug labels need in addition to the normal label?

A

DEA number of the practitioner

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22
Q

How often must you inspect drugs and what do you with the expired?

A

Every 12 months and quarantine expired

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23
Q

What are legend drugs?

A

Prescription drug - any drug or active ingredient described by the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic act

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24
Q

What is a veterinary lend drug?

A

Drug solely for veterinary use

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25
What is a pedigree paper?
Document or electronic form containing info that records each distribution of ANY LEGEND DRUG until final sale to a pharmacy or person administering drug
26
What happens if wholesaler fails to deliver or acquire complete PEDIGREE PAPERS for a legend drug?
3rd degree felony
27
What happens if you prescribe a controlled or legend drug in excessive quantities?
$2k fine + one year probation
28
What do you need to have for schedule II drugs?
Separate drug logs!
29
What do you need to have for schedule III, IV, and V drugs?
Separate inventories of these from schedule II so they are readily available for at least 2 years
30
What is an adulterated drug?
A drug that has been contaminated, may be poisonous, unsafe color additive, expired, mixed with other substances, returned to wholesaler, legend drug WITH NO PEDIGREE PAPERS, different strength or purity from label
31
If you make up your own meds for otitis externa, how must you label it?
Label - common name + quantity of active ingredients, then normal label, possibly register
32
Owner is running out of digoxin on a Sunday - how much can a pharmacist script?
One time only 72 hour supply
33
How much ether can you have without a permit?
Less than 2.5 gallons
34
What animals must be vaccinated for Brucella?
ALL FEMALE CALVES born in the state that will be used for DAIRY BREEDING
35
What do you identify calves with when vaccinated for Brucella?
Official shield tattoo "V" registered by USDA in RIGHT EAR, preceded by numeral of the quarter of the year and last numeral of the year
36
What ear should the brucella vaccinated calf be tagged in?
RIGHT EAR
37
What does the brucella vaccine tag need to say?
Designated state prefix, letter "V", two additional letters and 4 numerals. Registration tattoos or individual brand numbers may be substituted for official ear tags
38
What must you do to send in your report of brucella vaccine proof?
Duplicate reports sent to department
39
What form needs to be filled out with a TB test in cattle?
MUST FILE REPORT OF TB TEST using USDA APHIS VS form 6-22 with Florida dept of agriculture
40
What must you do if you find a positive TB cow?
If by PE, TB test, or other means you find a positive cow, IMMEDIATELY REPORT to Florida dept of agriculture
41
Which animals are required to have TB tests?
All cattle, bison, dairy goats, and cervidae
42
What form do you need for EIA?** Where do you find the information?
VS form 10-11. Information of test reporting is found in document 5C-18.004 Report of test****
43
What is the EIA test report form?
Results of all EIA tests reported on VS form 10-11 (Apr 90).
44
Where must your EIA test be certified?
Authorized lab representative approved by USDA - requires full signature not initials
45
Where will the lab send carbon copies of the completed VS form 10-11 (Apr 90) for EIA to (5)?
1. The submitting vet 2. The owner 3. The USDA 4. Area vet-in-charge 5. Department
46
How can the owner get the original carbon copy for the EIA test?
Submitting vet can submit written permission with the sample that the owner may pick up the carbon copy after lab completes requirements as written by 5C-18.004
47
How do you confirm a positive EIA test?
Agar gel immuno diffusion (AGID) test
48
Where do you report positive EIA tests? When must it be reported by?
All positives report to Department by telephone immediately after completion. If obtained outside of normal business hours, must be reported by 9am on the next business day
49
To file a report of positive EIA, what 5 pieces of information must you provide?
1. Accession number 2. Owners name and address 3. Name and description of animal 4. Location of animal 5. Name of vet who submitted sample
50
How long should serum from EIA test samples be retained and how is it stored?
Two years, stored frozen
51
Who contains zoonotic and animal threatening diseases (2)?
1. Department of Agriculture and Consumer Services | 2. Department of health
52
When can you use a GROUP MEDICAL RECORD?
10 or more of same animal by same owner - BUT, if one needs treatment, it needs its own record
53
If a vet dies, what must happen for the medical records?
Notice must be published within 30 days in the newspaper with the greatest circulation in the county that the medical records are available - must keep for 2 years
54
If a vet retires or relocates, how long must records be kept?
3 years
55
How long before you open must you apply for a vet premises permit?
No less than 14 days
56
Who holds premises permit if part of a multi-hospital chain?
LICENSED RESPONSIBLE VET at that clinic
57
When are inspections for the veterinary premise permits held?
Rotating basis every 5 years; unannounced random inspections of 1% of the vet premises each year
58
When is the biennial self inspection form turned in and by whom?
Returned within 60 days signed by a licensed vet responsible for managing the establishment
59
Do house-calls ned premise permits?
NO - but mobile practices do
60
What are requirements for a mobile practice (3)?
1. Clean, sterile syringes/needles, antiseptic IV equipment 2. If sx - sterilization and materials 3. WRITTEN AGREEMENT with local hospital for long-term hospitalization, radiology, or surgery if not offered by mobile vet
61
What can a limited service practice offer and how frequently??
1. Vax clinic and parasite control | 2. Not more than every 2 weeks and less than 4h/day
62
What information do you register for a limited service practice and how long before the clinic is held?
Register each clinic name, address, date, time, and duration 28 days before offering clinic
63
What must you have at the limited service practice?
PE and hx on each patient, vet onsite, hold records for 3 years and must be available to client/their vet within 24h
64
How often must you renew your state license?
Every 2 years
65
What happens if your license has lapsed in activity? (less than 4 years)
1. Satisfy CE 2. File completed application as per 61g18.23.001 (1) 3. Pay active status fees for the biennials they were inactive + reactivation fee
66
What happens if your license has lapsed in activity? (greater than 4 years)
1. Satisfy C | 2. File app 61g18.23.001 (1)
67
What happens if your license has lapsed in activity? (Delinquent license - expired without electing active or inactive)?
Must show CE, apply for active or inactive status before the expiration of the biennium which the license became delinquent in (or license =null and void), pay active status or inactive status fee, delinquent status fee, and processing fee
68
Can a senior student at a clinic do spays?
If working as a preceptor under immediate supervision of a licensee and the preceptorship is required for graduation then YES
69
Who can work without a state license (7)?
1. Faculty in school, interns and residents, vet students 2. US Gov't vet when performing OFFICIAL DUTIES 3. Someone working on their own animal 4. Part time for herd work (castrations, debeakings, dehornings) 5. Vets or people under their supervision developing drugs/serums/tx 6. Vet tech or aid working under responsible vet 7. Board certified vet requested to help with a specific case
70
How long is a temporary license good for?
30 days
71
What animals can you treat with a temp license?
Only the animals of the owner identified on the temp license application or has filled out an app is is responding to an emergency for the tx of animals of multiple owners
72
What type of felony is it when using the name of "vet" when not licensed, practicing without a license, presenting ones own as that of another
3rd degree felony - different penalties for each offense - most are cease and desist order, fine up to $5k/offense, and one year probation if you do become licensed ; others = revocation
73
What happens if you practice vet med without a license?
3rd degree felony if applicant or non-licensed vet = $3K fine and one year probation, if not a vet $3K fine for each count
74
All tasks delegated to a vet aide, nurse, tech, intern, employee must be performed with immediate supervision of the license veterinarian EXCEPT (2)
1. Administration of medication and treatment, excluding vaccines, as directed by the vet 2. Obtaining samples and performance of Dx tests, including radiographs, as directed by the vet
75
What tasks given to a vet tech must be immediately supervised?
Administration of anesthesia, tranquilization, and giving vaccines requires immediate supervision
76
If found guilty of a crime not involving vet med?
Suspend license if felony
77
If adjudicated mentally incompetent?
Suspension or denial of licensure until there is a legal restoration of the licensee’s competency to be followed by probation
78
If unable to practice veterinary medicine due to illness, drunkenness, or drug use? **
The department can compel | the licensee to submit to a mental or physical exam (license suspension until rehabilitated, then probation)
79
If felony which relates to vet med?
Revocation of license
80
If other crime which relates to vet med?
Denial of licensure of applicant, $2k fine and suspension to revocation of license
81
Who can do euthanasia?
Licensed veterinarian, certified vet tech who is an employee, or a employee or agent of a public or private agency, animal shelter, or other facility that handles strays who has completed a certified euthanasia tech from program accredited by CVTEA or an employee or agent of a public or private agency or shelter who has taken the 16 hr euthanasia technician cert course
82
What is the best method of euthanasia in emergency vs normal?
``` EMERGENCY = shooting (law officer, animal control officer, veterinarian) NORMAL = sodium pentobarbital or sodium pentobarbital with lidocaine or a sodium pentobarbital derivated ```
83
What drug can you NOT USE for euthanasia?
PHENOBARB, SUCCINYL CHOLINE; Cannot use succinylcholine, curare, a NM blocking agent, or a chamber which causes a change in body oxygen
84
What is the order of preference for euthanasia?
IV, IP, IC, solution or powder added to food
85
Which animals must be inspected before slaughter?
Cattle, sheep, swine, goats, horses, mules, and other equines are inspected before slaughter (not poultry)
86
When do dogs need a certificate of veterinary inspection?
1. When transported into the state for sale | 2. For sale within the state
87
What must be done for dogs being transported into the state?
Tests, vaccines, and anthelmintics must be given no more than 30 days and no less than 14 days before entry into the state
88
What must be done for dogs for sale within the state?
Tests, vaccinations, and anthelmintics must be administered before the dog is offered for sale (unless not in the best medical interest as found by veterinarian
89
What requirements for tests/vaccines/parasites are required in dogs (9)?
Canine distemper, leptospirosis, bordatella, parainfluenza, hepatitis, parvo, rabies (if over 3 months old), roundworms, hookworms
90
What requirements are there for testing of dogs or cats under 4 months old?
Under 4 months old: all done no more than 21 days before sale within the state
91
What requirements are there for testing of dogs or cats older than 4 months old?
Over 4 months old: all must be administered at or after 3 months, but no more than 1 yr before the sale within the state
92
What requirements for tests/vaccines/parasites are required in cats (6)?
Panluekopenia, feline viral rhinotracheitis, calici virus, rabies (if over 3 mo), hookworms, roundworms
93
What must the certificate of veterinary inspection contain?
1. age, sex, breed, color, health record 2. PRINTED OR TYPED NAMES OF THE ADDRESSES OF THE PERSON FROM WHERE ANIMAL WAS OBTAINED 3. COSIGNOR OR SELLER 4. COSIGNEE OR PURCHASER 5. Examining veterinarian and the veterinarian’s license number 6. All vaccines and dewormers given with manufacturer, vaccine, type, lot number, expiration date, dates of administration, and must state that vet says the animal is free from infectious/contagious disease and no evidence of internal or external parasites (including coccidiosis, ear mites, but excluding fleas and ticks)
94
When must an exam take place for a cats/dgs certificate of vet inspection?
No more than 30 days before sale within the state + fecal, FELV test, and HW test for dogs over 6 months old
95
What is the law for someone that forges, counterfeits, alters or substitutes an official certificate of veterinary inspection of one animal for another?
3rd degree felony
96
If fraudulently issuing or using a false health cert ?
Suspension of your license + 1 year probation + $3K fine