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Aviation Preflight Indoctrination > Flight Rules and Regulations > Flashcards

Flight Rules and Regulations Flashcards

1
Q

IDENTIFY the organization responsible for the publication of the Federal Aviation Regulations (FAR) and the Aeronautical Information Manual (AIM)

A

Federal Aviation Administration

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2
Q

DESCRIBE the relationship between FAR Part 91, OPNAVINST 3710.7, and the AIM

A

FAR 91

  • entitled “General Operating and Flight Rules”
  • Regulations which apply to all aviators in the U.S., military and civilian

AIM

  • “Aeronautical Information Manual”
  • Guide to basic flight information and air traffic control procedures
  • Non-regulatry

3710.7

  • “NATOPS General Flight and Operating Instructions”
  • rules governing the operation of naval aircraft throughout the world
  • certain departures from FARs are authorized by specific waivers.
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3
Q

LIST the regulatory priority of applicable Department of the Navy (DON), Department of Defense (DOD), and Federal Aviation Administration (FAA) publications

A

Priority of Regulations:

  1. NATOPS (DON)
  2. 3710.7 (DON)
  3. FLIPS (DOD)
  4. FAR/AIM (FAA)

DON and DOD publications apply worldwide.

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4
Q

IDENTIFY “shall”, “should”, “may”, and “will” as per OPNAVINST 3710.7

A
  • shall: mandatory
  • should: recommended
  • May: optional
  • Will: indicates futurity, not a degree of requirement
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5
Q

IDENTIFY the responsibilities of Air Traffic Control (ATC), Flight Service Station (FSS), Control Tower, Approach Control (APC), and the Air Route Traffic Control Center (ARTCC)

A

Air Traffic Control (ATC)

  • Enforces FAR Part 91
  • Approves flight plans
  • grants clearances

The following are all ATC sub-agiencies:

Flight Service Station (FSS)

  • provides pilot briefings, en-route communications, some search and rescue services, originates NOTAMs, processes flight plans, etc.
  • “Base Operations” at military airfields provide these services

Control Tower

  • Responsible for the safe, orderly, and expeditious flow of traffic operating on an din the vicinity of an airport
  • three frequencies:
    • Clearance Delivery: relays IFR clearances
    • Ground: aircraft movement on the ground
    • Tower: clearance to takeoff and land

Approach Control (APC)

  • primary function is to control Instrument Flight Rules (IFR) traffic in the terminal area

Air Route Traffic Control Center (ARTCC) “Center”

  • controls IFR traffic enroute (i.e. IFR traffic that is between terminal areas)
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6
Q

IDENTIFY the responsibilities of the Pilot in Command

A

FAR defines PIC as “the pilot responsible for the operation and safety of an aircraft during flight time. The PIC is directly responsible for, and is the final authority as to the operation of that aircraft.”

3710.7 defines PIC as “the pilot who is assigned by the unit commander, or a delegated authority, the responsibility for the safe, orderly flight of the aircraft and well-being of the crew.

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7
Q

IDENTIFY the OPNAVINST 3710.7 requirements for preflight planning

A

The PIC shall be familiar with all availiable information appropriate to the intended operation. This includes, but is not limited to:

  • available weather reports and forecasts
  • NOTAMs
  • fuel requirements
  • alternate airfields available
  • any anticipated traffic delays
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8
Q

IDENTIFY the purpose of a flight plan

A
  • relays important info to departure, destination, and intermediate agencies
  • establishes a baseline for lost communication and missing aircraft procedures if necessary
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9
Q

IDENTIFY the pilot’s responsibilities for acquiring a flight weather brief

A
  • Naval avaiators shall be thoroughly familiar with weather conditions for the area of flight
  • For flights under Instrument Meteorological Conditions (IMC), naval aviators shall obtain a flight route weather brief from a DOD qualified forecaster or approved forecasting service.
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10
Q

IDENTIFY the provision which allows deviation from established rules

A

Both the FAR and 3710.7 allow pilots to deviate from established rules during emergencies requiring immediate action.

The PIC must be ready to answer for such deviations.

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11
Q

IDENTIFY the pilot’s responsibilities concerning Authorized Airfields, Fuel Purchases, and Closing of Flight Plans

A

Authorized Airfields:

  • PIC shall ensure they are aware of and meet airfield operating requirements and, when necessary, have satisified prior permission required (PPR) requirements.

Civilian Airfields

  • Permitted when such operations contribute to mission accomplishment, add value to training, or are otherwise in the interests of the government.
  • The following should be considered:
    • local or special procedures
    • Runway length and taxi load bearing capabilities
    • DOD contract services for fueling and servicing
    • appropriate security and force protection plans

Fuel Purchases

  • PIC shall make every effort to puchase fuel from military or government contract sources
  • Non-contract fuel is only authorized when:
    • Mission requirements dictate
    • Flight terminated as the result of emergency
    • Flight terminated at an alternate airport

Closing Flight Plans

  • responsibility of the PIC/formation leader
  • Military installations: pilot shall verbally confirm the closing of the flight plan with tower or base ops or deliver a copy of the flight plan form to base operations
  • Non-military installations: Closed with flight service through any means available
  • Cancellation of an instrument flight plan while airborne does not meet requirements for “closing out” the flight plan. A landing report must be delivered.
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12
Q

IDENTIFY the OPNAVINST 3710.7 requirements for Safety and Survival equipment, including Safety Belt and Shoulder Harness, Aircrew Personal Protective Equipment, Life Rafts, and Parachutes

A

Safety belt and shoulder harness:

  • shall be worn and tightened, between takeoff and landing, by each person, except when necessary duties require temporary removal.
  • Inertial reels shall be manually locked for all takeoffs and landings, and at all other times when high g forces may be encountered

Aircrew Personal Protective Equipment

(certain items may be omitted for cargo/transport category airplanes)

  • Protective helmit
  • boots
  • gloves
  • flight suit
  • ID tags
  • survival knife
  • personal survival kit
  • signal device (night flights, flights over water, etc._
  • survival radios
  • emergency beacon
  • flashlight (night flights)
  • dry suits (when required)
  • g-suits (in aircraft equipped for their use)
  • life preserver (near water, duh)
  • laser eye protection (suspected threat environment)
  • Supplemental Emergency Breathing Devices (SEBD) (helicopters, tilt-rotor, E-2, C-2)
  • CBRND (threat areas)

Life Rafts

  • Must be carried when there is a significant risk of water entry in the event of a mishap

Parachutes

  • PIC must ensure a parachutes are available for all flight personnel and passengers
  • All flight personnel and passengers must be familiar with the location, type of parachute, and bailout procedures
  • Increased risk of injury when surface winds exceed 25 knots
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13
Q

IDENTIFY the requirements for oxygen use

A

As a general rule, all occupants shall use supplamental oxygen when cabin altitude exceeds 10,000’.

  • The pilot at the controls and aircrew participation in physical activity shall use supplemental oxygen continuously above 10,000’ cabin altitude
  • When oxygen is not available to all occupants, flight between 10,000’ and 13,000’ shall not exceed 3 hours, and flight above 13,000’ is prohibited
  • Aircraft without any supplamental oxygen shall not exceed 1 hour above 10,000’ and shall not exceed 12,000’

Tactical Jet

  • Oxygen shall be used by all occupants from takeoff to landing.
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14
Q

IDENTIFY principle factors affecting aircrew performance

A
  • FATIGUE
  • dehydration (most treatable cause of fatigue)
  • weather
  • extreme temperatures
  • nighttime operations
  • use of vision imaging systems
  • mission delays
  • use of PPE and Aviation Life Support Systems (ALSS)
  • duration of duty period
  • quality and duration of sleep
  • amount of recent flying
  • jet lag
  • physical health
  • additional duties
  • misuse of alcohol, caffeine, tobacco, or supplements
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15
Q

IDENTIFY the OPNAVINST 3710.7 regulations for Human Performance and Aeromedical Factors

A

Crew rest and sleep:

  • crew rest is the non-duty time before a flight duty period begins.
  • must include an opportunity for 8 hours of uninterrupted sleep for every 24 hr period
  • Flight crew should not be scheduled for continuous alert or flight duty in excess of 18 hours.

Drugs

  • Use of prescription and OTC drugs by flight personnel is prohibited unless specifically approved by a flight surgeon.
  • Consumption of alcohol is prohibited within 12 hours of any mission brief or flight planning. In addtion, aircrew must be free of hangover effects prior to flight
  • Tobacco-use prohibited in naval aircraft
  • Caffeine-excessive intake should be avoided

Pregnancy- grounded

Illness

  • All illnesses shall be evaluated by flight surgeons

Immunizations and injections

  • Flight personnel shall not participate in flight duties for 12 hours after receiving an immunization or injection

Blood donation

  • Flight personnel grounded for 4 days following donation of 1 pint of blood
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16
Q

DESCRIBE runway orientation

A

Magnetic direction rounded to nearest 10° with last digit removed. (e.g. airplane would have a heading of 090° on runway 09)

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17
Q

IDENTIFY airport visual devices, including Aldis lamp signals, airport signs, waveoff signals, visual wind/landing indicators, and airport lighting

A

ALDIS lamp

  • Steady Green
    • Ground - cleared to take off
    • Air - Cleared to land
  • Flashing Green
    • Ground- cleared to taxi
    • Air - Return for landing
  • Steady Red
    • Ground - stop
    • Air - give way to other aircraft cont. circling
  • Flashing Red
    • Ground - taxi clear of runway in use
    • Air - Airport unsafe do not land
  • Flashing White
    • Ground - Return to starting point on airport
    • Air - not used
  • Alternating red and green
    • exercise extreme caution

Airport signs

  • Mandatory Instruction- white letters red background
  • Location- yellow letters yellow borders black background (black square, you’re there)
  • Direction- black letters yellow background
  • Destination- black letters yellow background
  • Information-black letters yellow background
  • Runway remaining- white letters black background

Waveoff signals- red flare, hand paddles or flags or aldis lights or runway waveoff light within the approach lighting system

Visual wind/landing indicators- Wind cone, wind sock or wind tee. The large end of the wind cone or sock points into the wind as does the large end of the crossbar.

Airport lighting- Approach Light System ALS, Visual Glideslope indicators, VASI, IFOLS, SGSI, Runway edge lights etc.

18
Q

IDENTIFY the following terms: Visual Meteorological Conditions (VMC), Instrument Meteorological Conditions (IMC), Visual Flight Rules (VFR), and Instrument Flight Rules (IFR)

A
  • *Visual Meteorological (VMC):** flight weather conditions expressed in terms of visibility, distance from clouds, and ceiling, which are equal to or better than a specified minima.
  • *Instrument Meteorological Conditions (IMC):** Flight weather conditions which are less than the minama specified for VMC. IMC also exists whenever a visible horizon is not distinguishable.
  • *Visual Flight Rules (VFR):** Rules governing the procedures for conducting flight under visual conditions.
  • *Instrument Flight Rules (IFR):** Rules governing the procedures for conducting flight under instrument conditions.
19
Q

IDENTIFY the principle of see and avoid

A

When weather conditions permit, regardless of flight plan, pilots are required to observe the presence of, and maneuver to avoid other aircraft.

20
Q

IDENTIFY the weather requirements for VFR flight, including takeoff, en route, and destination weather

A
  • *Takeoff:** Ceiling must be at least 1000’ AGL with prevailing visibility at 3sm or greater.
  • *Enroute:** Maintain VMC throughout flight per the weather criteria for the classification of airspace being flown in.
  • *Destination:** 1000’ ceiling / 3sm visibility minimum (ETA +/- 1 hr)
21
Q

IDENTIFY the alternatives if en route weather is less than required for VFR flight

A
  1. Alter route of flight so as to continue under VMC
  2. Remain in VMC until a change of flight plan is filed and IFR clearance is obtained
  3. Remain in VMC and land at a suitable alternate
22
Q

IDENTIFY the general requirements for IFR

A
  • Must have an ATC clearance in controlled airspace
  • Aircraft must be certified and equipped for IFR flight
  • Pilot must be instrument rated and current

All flights in naval aircraft shall be conducted in accordance with instrument flight rules to the maximum extent practicable.

23
Q

IDENTIFY the requirements for IFR flight, including instrument approaches, landing minimums, destination and alternate flight planning weather minimums, and IFR fuel requirements

A

Instrument Approach Landing Minimums:

  • Published in DOD FLIP for specific approaches.
  • Multi-Piloted Aircraft: an approach may be attempted when weather is at or below minimums only if the aircraft is able to proceed to a suitable alternate in the event of a missed approach
    • May also apply to single-pilot aircraft with an assisting NFO if certain criteria are met.
  • Single-Piloted Aircraft: shall not attempt an approach if reported weather is below minimums.
    • Absolute minimums for a precision approach are 200 ft ceilings (or HAT) and visibility 1/2 SM (or 2400’ RVR)
  • Pilots may not descend below MDA or DH unless:
    1. they have the runway environment in sight and
    2. a safe landing can be executed
  • When directed by a controller, execution of a missed approach is mandatory

IFR fuel requirements

  • No alternate required: fuel required to destination, plus 10% fuel reserve, but at least 20 minutes (same as VFR)
  • Alternate required: sufficient fuel to fly to approach fix at destination, then to an alternate, plus 10% fuel reserve, but at least 20 minutes
24
Q

IDENTIFY the rules concerning VFR and IFR cruising altitudes

A

VFR: Above 3000 AGL and below 18,000’ MSL

  • Courses 360 to 179 Odd thousands plus 500
  • Courses 180 to 359 Even thousands plus 500

(NEODD SWEVEN) or (East is odd, West is Even odder)

IFR: Below 18,000’ MSL:

  • Courses 360 to 179 Odd thousands
  • Courses 180 to 359 Even thousands

Flights above 18000’ MSL but below FL 290:

  • Courses 360 to 179 Odd flight levels
  • Courses 180 to 359 Even flight levels

Flights at FL 290 or above:

  • Courses 360 to 179 any flight level at 4000’ intervals beginning at FL 290
  • Courses 180 to 359 any flight level at 4000’ intervals beginning at FL 310
25
Q

IDENTIFY aerobatic flight

A

Intentional maneuver involving bank angles greater than 60 degrees, pitch angles greater than +/- 45 degrees, or accelerations greater than 2.0g

26
Q

IDENTIFY the rules concerning aerobatic flight

A

No aerobatic flight when

  • over any congested area of a city town or settlement
  • over an open air assembly of persons
  • within class b, c, d, or e airspace
  • below an altitude of 1500 foot AGL
  • When visibility is less than 3 SM
  • 3710.7 adds:
    • if prohibited by a particular aircraft NATOPS manual
    • stretches jurisdiction world wide
27
Q

IDENTIFY the rules concerning unusual maneuvers in class B, C, and D airspace, in a classroom

A

Pilots shall not perform or request clearance to perform unusual maneuvers in class b c or d airspace if such maneuvers are not essential to the performance of the flight. ATC personnel are not permitted to approve a pilots request, or ask a pilot to perform these manuvers.

28
Q

IDENTIFY the difference between controlled and uncontrolled airspace

A

Controlled Airspace: A generic term that covers the different classifications of airspace and defined dimensions within which air traffic control service in provided. ATC has the ability and authority to control that airspace

Uncontrolled Airspace: A generic term for all airspace under FAA jurisdiction that is not Class A B C D or E and in which no ATC services are provided.

29
Q

IDENTIFY the dimensions of and requirements for entry into the following controlled airspaces: Class A, Class B, Class C, Class D, Class E, and Class G

A
  • Class A : All airspace from 18000’ MSL up to FL600 overlying continental US.
    • Must operate under IFR.
    • Pilot and aircraft must be instrument certified.
    • Transponder with Mode C.
    • IFR clearance must be received from ATC
  • Class B: Generally consists of airspace from the surface to 10000’ MSL surrounding the busiest airports in terms of IFR operations and passenger boardings. It has two or more layers.
    • Pilot must have Private Pilot Cert. or higher
    • Operable VOR or TACAN receiver
    • Transponder with mode C
    • ATC clearance
    • Establish two-way radio communications with ATC prior to entry.
  • Class C: Generally consists of airspace from the surface to 4000’ surrounding airports that have an operational control tower.
    • operable transponder with mode
    • establish two way radio comms with ATC prior
  • Class D: consists of the airspace extending from the surface to 2500’ AGL surrounding airports with an operational control tower.
    • Two way radio comms with ATC need to be established.
  • Class E: is the controlled airspace that is not designated Class A B C D begins at 14,500 MSL (really 1200’ or 700’ AGL over most of U.S.) no defined vertical limit except for 18000’ MSL.
    • VFR aircraft must volunteer for control
  • Class G: Uncontrolled airspace
30
Q

IDENTIFY the dimensions of and types of airspace that make up VOR airways and Jet Routes

A

VOR Airways: identified by letter V followed by a number. They extend from 1200’ AGL to but not including 18000 MSL. Width is 4nm on either side of center line.

Jet Routes: standardize routing in class A airspace and are designated by the letter J and a number. They extend from 18000’ MSL to FL450 and have no defined width.

31
Q

IDENTIFY the requirements for Mode C

A

All aircraft operating within the following areas, in addition to previously defined requirements for class A B and C airspaces must be equipped with an operable mode c transponder:

  • All airspace at and above 10000’ MSL
  • Class B: all airspace within 30 nm of a Class B airport from the surface to 10000 MSL.
  • Class C: Above the ceiling and lateral boundaries up to 10000’ MSL
32
Q

IDENTIFY the VFR weather minimums for all classifications of airspace

A

(3152) BELOW 10,000’ MSL (Class C, D, E, and G at night):

  • 3 SM visiblity
  • 1000’ above clouds
  • 500’ below
  • 2000’ horizontal

(5111) ABOVE 10,000’ MSL (Class E and G if also above 1200’ AGL):

  • 5 SM visibility
  • 1000’ above clouds
  • 1000’ below
  • 1 SM horizontal

CLASS B:

  • 3 SM visibility
  • clear of clouds

Class A: VFR not allowed

Class G, day, below 1200’ AGL regardless of MSL altitude:

  • 1 SM visibility
  • clear of clouds

Class G, day, above 1200’ AGL, but below 10,000’ MSL

  • 1 SM visibility
  • 1000’ above clouds
  • 500’ below
  • 2000’ horizontal
33
Q

IDENTIFY the purposes of, and entry restrictions for, the following Special Use Airspaces: Prohibited Area, Restricted Area, Warning Area, Military Operations Area (MOA), and Alert Area

A

Prohibited Airspace

  • flight of aircraft is prohibited
  • established for security or other reasons associated with national welfare

Restricted Areas

  • flight subject to restriction
  • unusual, often invisible, hazards to aircraft such as artillery firing, aerial gunnery, or guided missiles
  • must have prior approval granted by the controlling agency to enter

Warning Areas

  • generally in international airspace, over water
  • similar hazards as resricted areas
  • permission is not needed to enter

Alert Areas

  • high volume of pilot training or an unusual type of aerial activity, such as hot air ballooning, parachuting, or glider plane operations.
  • permission is not needed to enter

MOAs

  • established for the purpose of separating certain military training activities from IFR
  • do not need permission to enter if VFR

Controlled Firing Areas

  • activities which could be hazardous to nonparticipating aircraft
  • spotter suspends activity when aircraft fly over
  • not charted
34
Q

IDENTIFY the rules concerning the use of aircraft lighting

A

Position Lights

  • 30 minutes prior to official sunset until 30 minutes after official sunrise
  • when the flight visibility is less than 3 SM

Anti-Collision Lights

  • red or white strobes or rotating beacons
  • shall be used from engine start to shutdown
  • may be turned off when they present a hazard

Landing/Taxi Lights

  • should be utilized for all taxi movements ashore during the hours of darkness unless a taxi signalman is directing the aircraft.
  • use of these lights during landing approaches (both day and night) is recommended

Formation Flight Lighting

  • all aircraft in the flight shall have external lights on,
  • at least one aircraft shall have lights on bright and the anti-collision light on when lighting is required
35
Q

IDENTIFY an aircraft’s relative position by using aircraft position lights

A
  • red light on port (left) wingtip
  • green light on starboard (right) wingtip
  • white light on tail (or on wingtip shining aft)

If you just see a red light the aircraft is traveling from right to left relative to you

If you just see a green light, the aircraft is traveling from left to right relative to you

If you see a white light, the aircraft is heading away from you

If you both a red and green light, the aircraft is heading directly toward you.

36
Q

IDENTIFY the rules concerning right-of-way between aircraft

A
  • The least maneuverable aircraft has the right of way (generally)
    • Hot air ballons (least maneuverable)
    • Gliders
    • Airships
    • Airplanes
    • Helicopters (most maneuverable)
  • An aircraft in distress has the right of way over all other traffic
  • Landing aircraft have the right of way over other aircraft in flight or operating on the surface.
    • When two aircraft are approaching for landing, the lower one has right of way
  • Overtaking: aircraft being overtaken have right of way
    • overtaking aircraft shall alter course to right
  • Approaching head on: both aircraft shall alter course to the right
  • Converging: the aircraft to the others right has the right of way
37
Q

IDENTIFY the FAR Part 91 and OPNAVINST 3710.7 (series) rules concerning altitude restrictions

A
  • *FAR 91 Rules**
  • *Over Congested Areas:** 1,000’ above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 2,000’ of the aircraft
  • *Other Than Congested Areas** –500’ AGL is the minimum altitude
  • *Sparcely popluated areas:** the aircraft may not be operated closer than 500’ to any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure.
  • *Anywhere**–A pilot should maintain an altitude such that if the engine fails, an emergency landing may be executed without undue hazard to persons or property on the surface.

Note: Helicopters may be operated at less than the minimums prescribed above if the operation is conducted without hazard to persons or property on the surface.

  • *3710.7 Rules**
  • *During VFR Operations**–Except when necessary for takeoff and landing, or when the mission of the flight requires otherwise, flights in fixed-wing aircraft shall not be conducted below an altitude of 500’ above the terrain or surface of the water.

During IFR Operations–When out of controlled airspace and unless the mission of the flight requires otherwise, an aircraft shall not be flown less than 1,000’ above the highest terrain, surface of the water, or obstacle within 22 miles of the intended line of flight.

38
Q

IDENTIFY the airspeed restrictions in the following airspaces: Below 10,000’ MSL, Below Class B Airspace, and within Class B, C, and D Airspace

A

Below 10,000’ MSL-250 knots indicated
Inside Class B Airspace- 250 knots
Below Class B – 200 knots
Class C and D Airspace (within 4 nm of the primary airport of a Class C or D airspace, surface up to 2,500’) AGL 200 knots.

Note: FAR Part 91 also states that if the minimum safe airspeed for any particular operation is greater than the maximum speed prescribed above, the aircraft may be operated at that minimum speed.

39
Q

IDENTIFY the rule concerning careless or reckless flying

A

The FAR prohibit pilots from operating an aircraft in a careless or reckless manner so as to endanger the life or property of another.

40
Q

IDENTIFY the rule concerning the annoyance to civilians and endangering private property

A

“Flights of naval aircraft shall be conducted so that a minimum of annoyance is experienced by persons on the ground. It is not enough for the pilot to be satisfied that no person is actually endangered. Definite and particular effort shall be taken to fly in such a manner that individuals do not believe they or their property are endangered.”

41
Q

IDENTIFY the restrictions on flight in the vicinity of the following areas: Noise sensitive and wilderness areas, wildlife preserves, temporary flight restrictions, commercial carriers, and aircraft of civil registry

A

Noise sensitive and wilderness

3710.7 states that pilots shall avoid noise-sensitive and
wilderness areas when at altitudes of less than 3,000’ AGL, except when in compliance with an approved traffic or approach pattern, VFR and IFR training routes, or special use airspace.

Wildlife preserves
Commanding officers of aviation units shall take steps to prevent aircraft from frightening wild fowl or driving them from their feeding grounds. When it is necessary to fly over known wildlife habitations, an altitude of at least 3,000’ AGL shall be maintained, conditions permitting

Temporary flight restrictions
Incidents or events, which generate a high degree of public interest, can create hazardous air traffic congestion. In such cases, temporary flight restrictions may be imposed prohibiting the operation of nonessential aircraft in airspace over the area.

Commercial carriers/Aircraft of Civil Registry
such aircraft shall be avoided by a margin of at least 500’ vertically and/or 1 sm laterally, unless ordered otherwise by competent air traffic control authority.

42
Q

IDENTIFY the restrictions on flat hatting and zooming of vessels

A
  1. 7 prohibits flat hatting or any maneuvers conducted at low altitude and/or a high rate of speed for thrill purposes over land or water.
  2. 7 restrictions on zooming are not intended to hamper standardized shipping/ antisubmarine warfare surveillance rigging and photography procedures as defined in appropriate fleet operating instructions.

Aviation Preflight Indoctrination (6 decks)

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