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Flight Rules Flashcards

1
Q

What are the VMC criteria for aircraft in Class A, C, E, or G above 10000ft?

A

Visibility: 8000m

Distance from cloud: 1500m horizontal, 1000 ft vertical

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2
Q

What are the VMC criteria for aircraft in Class A, C, E, or G below 10000ft?

A

Visibility: 5000m

Distance from cloud: 1500m horizontal, 1000 ft vertical

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3
Q

True or False. VFR may only be conducted in VMC.

A

True

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4
Q

When navigating by visual reference to the ground or water, what must a pilot do?

A

Positively fix the aircraft’s position by visual reference to features marked on topographical charts at intervals not exceeding 30 minutes.

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5
Q

When not navigating by visual reference to the ground or water, what must a pilot do?

A

Comply with the requirements of IFR flight, under regulation 91.287 and the associated MOS as if the flight were an IFR flight.

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6
Q

Can VFR flights be conducted at supersonic speeds?

A

No. VFR flights must be conducted at subsonic speeds and in accordance with speed restrictions.

CASR 91.283

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7
Q

Unless a pilot holds an appropriate rating (Command Instrument Rating or night VFR rating) and the aircraft is equipped for flight at night, a flight must not depart from an aerodrome __________

A
  1. Before first light or after last light; and
  2. Unless the estimated time of arrival (ETA) for the destination is at least 10 minutes before last light allowing for any required holding.
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8
Q

In which ICAO annex are the visual flight rules found?

A

Annex 2 - The Rules of the Air

Chapter 4 - Visual Flight Rules

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9
Q

If clearance has NOT been obtained, when shall VFR flights NOT take off or land where or enter what?

A

At an aerodrome within a control zone.

Or enter the aerodrome traffic zone or traffic pattern:
- when the ceiling is less than 450 m (1500 ft); or
- when the ground visibility is less than 5 km.

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10
Q

Unless authorised by the appropriate ATS authority, VFR flights shall not be operated _______

A
  1. above FL 200
  2. at transonic and supersonic speeds
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11
Q

When will VFR flights not be given authorisation to operate above FL 290?

A

Where a vertical separation minimum of 300 m (1000 ft) is applied above FL 290.

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12
Q

When is a VFR flight permitted to be flown less than 300m (1000ft) above the highest obstacle within 600m of the aircraft over congested areas?

A

When necessary for takeoff and landing, or with permission from the appropriate authority.

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13
Q

When is a VFR flight permitted to be flown less than 150m (500ft) above the highest obstacle within 600m of the aircraft over non-congested areas?

A

When necessary for takeoff and landing, or with permission from the appropriate authority.

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14
Q

Above what level should cruising levels be used?

A

Above 3000ft

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15
Q

When shall VFR aircraft comply with cruising levels?

A
  1. when operated within Class C and D airspace;
  2. when forming part of aerodrome traffic at controlled aerodromes; or
  3. when operated as special VFR flights
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16
Q

What shall an aircraft operated as VFR which wishes to change to compliance with IFR do?

A
  1. if a flight plan was submitted, communicate the necessary changes to be effected to its current flight plan; or
  2. submit a flight plan to the appropriate air traffic services unit and obtain a clearance prior to proceeding IFR when in controlled airspace
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17
Q

A VFR flight operating within or into areas, or along routes, designated by the appropriate ATS authority shall _______

A

maintain continuous air-ground voice communication watch on the appropriate communication channel of, and report its position as necessary to, the air traffic services unit providing flight information service.

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18
Q

When is VFR flight on top of more than SCT of cloud available?

A

When the following conditions are met:

  1. VMC can be maintained for the entire flight, including climb, cruise and descent.
  2. The visual position fixing requirements or other navigational requirements are met.
  3. Prior to conducting a flight on top of more than SCT cloud, the PIC must ensure that current forecasts and observations (including those available in-flight observations) indicate that conditions in the area of, and during the period of the planned descent below the cloud layer will permit the descent to be conducted in VMC.
  4. The position at which descent below cloud is planned to occur must be such as to enable continuation of the flight to the destination and, if required an alternate aerodrome in VMC
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19
Q

Before committing to operate VFR flight on top of more than SCT cloud, pilots should be _________

A

Confident that meteorological information used is reliable and current, and clearly indicates that the entire flight will be able to be conducted in VMC.

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20
Q

True or False: Pilots should not initiate VFR flight on top of more than SCT cloud when weather conditions are marginal.

A

True.

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21
Q

When an aircraft can’t be flown in accordance with the VFR, what must the pilot do?

A

Comply with the Instrument Flight Rules.

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22
Q

What are the pneumonics to assist in remember the directions associated with cruising levels?

A

WEEO - West Evens, East Odds

NOSE - North Odds, South Evens

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23
Q

At what levels will VFR flights cruise?

A

x000ft + 500

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24
Q

At what levels will IFR flights cruise?

A

x000ft

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25
Below 3000ft should a VFR flight be flown at a cruising level appropriate to its magnetic track?
Yes, whenever practicable.
26
When may pilots request a level not conforming to the table of cruising levels?
When it is determined by the PIC to be essential to the safety of the flight and its occupants. In such circumstances, the phrase “DUE OPERATIONAL REQUIREMENT” must be included with the level change request.
27
When will ATC assign cruising levels not conforming to the cruising tables?
When traffic or other operational circumstances require.
28
What is a 'special VFR clearance'?
A clearance permitting VFR flights to fly below VMC criteria.
29
What are pilots responsible for when operating under a special VFR clearance?
AIP ENR 1.2-1 1. the flight is conducted clear of cloud; 2. the visibility is not less than: i. for aeroplanes, 1,600m; ii. for helicopters, 800m; or iii. for balloons, 100m below 500FT AGL and 3,000m at and above 50FT AGL; 3. A helicopter is operated at such a speed that the pilot has adequate opportunity to observe any obstructions or other traffic in sufficient time to avoid a collision; and 4. the flight is conducted in accordance with the requirements of CASR 91 with regard to low flying.
30
In which class of airspace is special VFR clearance not permitted?
Class E
31
At night, VFR flights must be flown above ________
CASR 91.277 MOS12.03 1. any published LSALT for the route or route segment 2. any minimum sector altitude published in the AIP 3. the LSALT for the route 4. the lowest altitude for the route calculated in accordance with the method prescribed in MOS 12.03 6. 1,000 ft above the highest obstacle on the ground or water within 10 NM ahead of, and to either side of, the aircraft at that point on the route or route segment
32
When is a VFR flight permitted to fly below the minimum height at night?
1. When taking off or landing 2. within 3 NM of the aerodrome when taking off or landing 3. When flying in accordance with an air traffic control clearance.
33
What kinds of night VFR operations require more than a standard night VFR rating?
1. an operation using a night vision imaging system, or 2. a night aerial application operation below 500 ft AGL.
34
Where shall a signalling lamp be provided?
At a controlled aerodrome in the aerodrome control tower.
35
What capabilities does a signalling lamp require?
1. should be capable of producing red, green and white signals; 2. should be capable of being aimed manually at any target as required
36
What does a steady green signal to aircraft mean?
In flight: Authorised to land if pilot satisfied no collision risk exists On the aerodrome: Authorised to take-off if pilot satisfied no collision risk exists
37
What does a steady red signal to aircraft mean?
In Flight: Give way to other aircraft and continue circling On the Aerodrome: Stop
38
What does a flashing green signal to aircraft mean?
In Flight: Return for landing On the Aerodrome: Authorised to taxi if pilot satisfied that no collision risk exists
39
What does a flashing red signal to aircraft mean?
In Flight: Aerodrome unsafe - do not land On the Aerodrome: Taxi clear of landing area in use
40
What does a flashing white signal mean to aircraft?
In Flight: No significance On the Aerodrome: Return to starting point on Aerodrome
41
What does a flashing green signal mean to vehicles and pedestrians?
Permission to cross landing area or to move onto taxiway
42
What does a steady red signal mean to vehicles and pedestrians?
Stop
43
What does a flashing red signal mean to vehicles and pedestrians?
Move off the landing area or taxiway and watch out for aircraft
44
What does a flashing white signal mean to vehicles and pedestrians?
Vacate the manoeuvring area in accordance with local instructions
45
What does flashing runway/taxiway lighting mean to vehicles and pedestrians?
Vacate the runway or taxiway and observe the tower for light signal
46
Where is a horizontal white dumbbell signal located and what does it mean?
Adjacent to wind direction indicator. Use only hard surface movement areas. Where there are sealed and gravel manoeuvring areas, use only the sealed surfaces. Where there are constructed gravel and natural surface manoeuvring areas, use only the gravel surfaces.
47
Where is a white cross ground signal located and what does it mean?
(i) Adjacent to wind direction indicator. (ii) On manoeuvring area. (i) Aerodrome completely unserviceable. (ii) An area marked by a cross or crosses with the limit delineated by markers is unfit for use by aircraft.
48
Where is a white double cross ground signal located and what does it mean?
Adjacent to the wind direction indicator. Gliding operations in progress.
49
When must IFR be used by flights?
In circumstances other than VMC
50
True or False. A flight plan must be submitted for IFR flights?
True
51
When an IFR flight outside controlled airspace is unable to to comply with the table of cruising levels, what must the pilot do?
1. Notify the appropriate ATS unit of the intended change in operating level, and any subsequent changes; and 2. in the event of conflict with another aircraft complying with the Table of Cruising Levels, give way to that aircraft or assume a cruising level in accordance with the Table of Cruising Levels until the aircraft with which it is in conflict is past and clear.
52
Where are LSALT for IFR flights published?
MAP, NOTAM or AIP Supplement.
53
What size is an LSALT grid on ERC-H?
4 degrees lat by 4 degrees long
54
What size is an LSALT grid on TAC & ERC-L?
1 degree lat by 1 degree long
55
Where an aircraft is off track, whether by failure of radio Navaid or pilot navigation, what must the pilot do?
Ensure that the aircraft is flown not lower than 1000FT above the highest terrain or obstacle within a circle centred on the DR (dead reckoning) position. The radius of the circle should be 5NM plus 20% of the air distance flown since the last positive fix.
56
For routes and route segments not shown in AIP, what will LSALT be?
No less than 1000ft above the highest terrain or obstacle within an area of 5NM surrounding and including the area established to account for navigation error.
57
For routes defined by radio navaids or to be navigated by DR: draw lines from the departure point or en route navaid at an angle of ________ either side of track (________ for DR). At a limit of _________ either side of track, parallel track to abeam the destination and join the lines by a semicircle ___________on the destination
1. 10.3 degrees 2. 15 degrees 3. 50NM 4. centred
58
How must the LSALT be determined for RNP 2 operations?
By considering the area within an area 5 NM surrounding and including the departure point, the destination and each side of the nominal track
59
Which class of airspace are VFR flights not permitted in?
Class A
60
Which classes of flight/airspace are not subject to ATC clearance?
Class G VFR flights in Class E
61
Where are airspace classes/restrictions found?
MATS 2.4.1
62
In order of priority, which three locations should be used for an accuracy check of an altimeter?
1. Tarmac 2. Threshold 3. Airfield Reference Point Elevation
63
What margin of error should an IFR altimeter have?
Within 60ft
64
When is an IFR altimeter deemed unserviceable?
+ or - 75 ft
65
When the first check indicates an altimeter is unserviceable, are further checks permitted?
A single second check is permitted at another location on the same airfield.
66
Where an aircraft has an altimeter with a margin of error between 60 ft and 75 ft what is permitted?
Flight under the IFR to the first point of landing, where the accuracy of the altimeter can be re-checked, is approved. In the event that the altimeter shows an error in excess of 60FT on the second check the altimeter is to be considered unserviceable for flight under the IFR
67
Can an aircraft fitted with two altimeters continue to operate under IFR if only one altimeter reads the nominated elevations to within 60 ft?
Yes, provided only a single altimeter is required for the category of operation. Should the remaining altimeter have an error in excess of 75FT, that altimeter must be placarded unserviceable and the maintenance release appropriately endorsed.
68
With an accurate QNH set, what margin of error is acceptable for VFR altimeters?
Within 100ft. Within 110 ft at test sites above 3300 ft.
69
When can a QNH be considered accurate?
If provided by an ATIS or an automatic remote-reporting aerodrome sensor.
70
Where should site elevation be derived from?
From aerodrome survey data published by Airservices or supplied by the aerodrome owner.
71
At what altitude is the transition altitude?
10000 ft.
72
What is the altimeter reference when cruising above the transition layer?
1013.2 hPa - International Standard Atmosphere Pressure
73
What will the altimeter reference be below the transition altitude?
- the current local QNH of a station along the route within 100NM of the aircraft - if local QNH is not known, the current Area Forecast QNH
74
When shall an aircraft change from QNH to 1013.2?
When climbing after passing the transition altitude of 10000 ft.
75
When shall an aircraft change from 1013.2 to QNH?
On descent, prior to entering the transition layer
76
Is cruising permitted in the transition layer?
No.
77
Where is QNH available from?
- a reporting station - the ATIS - the Terminal Area Forecast - the Area Forecast - AERIS - from ATS
78
What are the requirements of an Area QNH?
Must be within 5hPa of the actual QNH of any low level point within or on the boundary of the area. Must not differ from an adjoining area by more than 5hPa
79
When does ATS provide the Area QNH?
To all flights cruising at or below the transition altitude on receipt of their departure report.
80
When area QNH is at what level, are Flight levels 110,115, 120, 125 respectively not available to be used.
FL 110 - below 1013 hPa FL 115 - below 997 hPa FL 120 - below 980 hPa FL 125 - below 963 hPa
81
Expressions of height using 1013.2 as a reference must always include which phrase?
Flight Level.
82
Altitudes measured from QNH should be express how?
Full numbers (thousands/hundreds), adding if necessary 'on ... (QNH)'
83
In which classes of airspace may a pilot of an IFR flight, operating at VMC at or below FL180 request to climb/descend VFR?
Classes D and E.
84
What information will ATC provide when a pilot is cleared to climb/descend VFR?
- mutual traffic information service on IFR flights; - traffic information service on known VFR flights as far as practicable; and - a flight information service Note: IFR separation is not provided
85
Pilots of IFR flights with clearance to climb/descend VFR must ______?
- comply with the VFR visibility and distance from cloud criteria; - comply with instrument flight rules that are applicable to the flight; i.e., position reporting, radio communications, cleared route, adherence to ATC clearance, etc; - visually maintain obstacle clearance. Additionally, the pilot accepts the responsibility for wake turbulence separation.
86
Where are noise abatement procedures (NAP) published?
DAP East and West
87
What do NAP apply to?
All jet aircraft and other aircraft having a maximum takeoff weight (MTOW) greater than 5700KG
88
In what circumstances will noise abatement not be a determining factor in runway selection?
1. In conditions of low cloud, thunderstorms and/or poor visibility 2. Runway completely dry: i. Crosswind including gusts exceeds 20 KT or ii. Downwind including gusts exceeds 5KT 3. Runway not completely dry: i. Crosswind including gusts exceeds 20 KT or ii. Any downwind 4. When wind shear has been reported 5. When, in the opinion of the PIC, safety would be compromised by runway conditions or any other consideration
89
True or false. ATC may vary the requirement to follow NA flight paths for operational reasons such as weather or traffic density.
True
90
Outside ATC hours, when must aircraft comply with NAPs?
Only where they do not conflict with circuit requirements in ERSA (for that location).
91
True or false. For departing aircraft, NA flight paths may take the form of a SID.
True
92
True or false. For arriving aircraft, Standard Arrival Route (STAR) clearances do not follow preferred NA flight paths.
False

Aviation Legislation (4 decks)

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