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PPL - Flight Planning > Flight Planning > Flashcards

Flight Planning Flashcards

1
Q

Longitude lines are called ____ of longitude

A

MERIDIANS

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2
Q

Where is the prime meridian situated
Name and Longitude

A

GREENWICH MERIDIAN
o° LONGITUDE

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3
Q

Longitude is reference from which 2 points on the compass from the prime meridian

A

EAST to WEST of prime meridian

Longitutde are cicles slicing up the plant from the North to the South.
Latitude are circles slicing up the plant horizontally i.e. from a side on view, the circles go around the plant horizontally measured in degrees from the equator

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4
Q

180° opposite of the prime meridian is referred to as what

A

ANTI MERIDIAN

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5
Q

Latitude lines are called ____ of latitude

A

PARALLELS

Longitutde are cicles slicing up the plant from the North to the South.
Latitude are circles slicing up the plant horizontally i.e. from a side on view, the circles go around the plant horizontally measured in degrees from the equator

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6
Q

How do you read the following location

N52°33’15” E001°21’55”

A

North 52° lattitude, 33 minutes and 15 seconds
East 001° longitude, 21 minutes, 55 seconds

On a chart, move north then east to find position

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7
Q

Longitude lines get CLOSER or FURTHER apart closer to the equator

A

FURTHER APART

Close to the poles, lines of longitude get closer together, meaning the measurement between longitude lines at the equator would be MORE than at the poles

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8
Q

A measurement of 1/60th of a degree in latitude is known as what

A

NAUTICAL MILE

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9
Q

1 knot is the unit of speed defining what distance travelled in what time

A

1nm in 1 hour

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10
Q

Navigational direction on earths surface

Always uses the following 3 references;
1. Reference from ____
2. Measured in ____
3. Expressed in ____ digits

A
  1. NORTH
  2. DEGREES
  3. 3 DIGITS
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11
Q

Earths magnetic north is not uniform. What can influence it

A

GEOGRAPHIC FEATURES
Field can be “bent”

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12
Q

What are the lines of equal magnetic variation called

A

ISOGONALS

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13
Q

What is an ISOGONAL

A

Lines of equal magnetic variation

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14
Q

What is the definition of VAR

A

Difference in bearing between True North and Magnetic North

VAR = Variation

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15
Q

Maps and charts (generally) reference TRUE or MAGNETIC north

A

TRUE

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16
Q

Aviation charts reference elevations from which point

A

AMSL
Average Mean Sea Level

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17
Q

Elevations are not shown on a chart unless they reach which height

A

500 ft AMSL

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18
Q

It is not possible to guarantee elevation clearance unless flying with the altimeter set to which reference in the kollsman window

A

QNH

References AMSL

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19
Q

Contour lines on a map indicate what

A

Equal lines of elevation

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20
Q

On a chart/map, what is the definition of an obstruction

A

MAN-MADE OBJECT

Obstructions given in reference to AMSL

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21
Q

What are 4 examples of a man-made obstruction

A
  1. Mast
  2. Pylon
  3. Radio Tower
  4. Tall Building
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22
Q

Tall obstructions on charts above ____ ft have 2 references.
What are the references

A
  1. 1000 ft
  2. AMSL and AGL

AGL - Average Ground Level i.e. level above the ground

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23
Q

Obstructions are not shown on a chart unless they reach more than ____ ft

A

328 ft

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24
Q

What does MEF stand for

A

MAXIMUM ELEVATION FIGURE

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25
Q

MEF is referenced against which point

A

AMSL

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26
Q

MEF is marked on a chart/map at which intervals

A

Each 30 minute Lat/Long

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27
Q

What does an MEF define

A

TALLEST OBSTACLE or HEIGHEST TERRAIN

within referenced grid

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28
Q

What are 3 specific areas defined on aviation charts that a pilot must consider during flight planning

A
  1. DANGER
  2. RESTRICTED
  3. PROHIBITED

REMEMBER: You are a DeRP if you do not plan properly!!

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29
Q

A danger area on a chart prefixed with asterix means what

A

PROHIBITED ENTRY

Protected by By-laws

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30
Q

When planning a flight, you may need to contact danger area services. What are the 2 services;
1. DACS
2. DAAIS

A
  1. Danger Area Crossing Service
  2. Danger Area Activation Information Service
31
Q

On a chart, how do you read the following danger area information;
D121/0.6

A

Danger area 121
From surface to 600 ft AMSL

32
Q

Danger areas can be activated by what publication

A

NOTAM

Notice to Airman

33
Q

Aviation Chart Features

What is HIRTA

A

HIGH INTENSITY RADIO TRANSMISSION AREA

34
Q

Aviation Chart Features

What is GVS

A

GAS VENTING STATION

35
Q

Aviation Chart Features

A VOR is identified by what shape on a chart

A

HEXAGON

Solid outline, dot in the middle

LINK HERE

36
Q

Aviation Chart Features

An NDB is identified by what shape on a chart

A

CIRCLE

Solid small outline with dot in the middle surrounded by multiple dots

LINK HERE

37
Q

Aviation Chart Features

An instrument approach is identified by what shape on a chart

A

ELONGATED ARROW & CHEVRONS

LINK HERE

38
Q

What are 3 line features on the ground that are good reference features

A
  1. ROADS
  2. RIVERS
  3. RAILWAY LINES
39
Q

Vertical navigation levels can be given in what 3 references.
What Q code correleates

A
  1. ALTITUDE - QNH
  2. HEIGHT - QFE
  3. FLIGHT LEVEL - SPS (1013)
40
Q

pressure settings

QFE references what level

A

HEIGHT ABOVE AIRFIELD

41
Q

QNH references what level

A

ALTITUDE ABOVE AMSL

42
Q

RPS references what level

A

ALTITUDE AMSL
Lowest pressure forecast in next 2 hours for given ASR

ASR - Altimeter Setting Region

43
Q

When flying below controlled airspace, what pressure setting is typically flown and where can pressure setting be obtained

A
  1. Local QNH
  2. Obtained from any aerodrome beneath the controlled airspace

Use RPS if you cannot obtain QNH from aerodrome

44
Q

Private flying, non commercial

The amount of fuel you must have remaining in the tank after landing;
1. Day
2. Night or IFR

A
  1. 30m
  2. 45m
45
Q

Airfield information

Airfield charts may include the following information;
1. ____ hours
2. ____ of fuel
3. ____ (directions and heights)
4. ____ (NAP)
5. ____ (VRP)
6. ____ (PPR)

A
  1. Operational Hours
  2. Availability of Fuel
  3. Circuit Patterns
  4. Noise Abatement Procedures
  5. Visual Reference Points
  6. Prior Permission Required
46
Q

In regards to communication frequencies, what is a DOC

A

DESIGNED OPERATIONAL COVERAGE

47
Q

Where can a NOTAM be obtained

A
  1. AIS Website
  2. PIB - Preflight Information Bulletin
48
Q

Meteorological information - Form F215

What are the 4 definitions for detailing weather;
1. W
2. F
3. O
4. I

A
  1. Widespread
  2. Frequent
  3. Occasional
  4. Isolated

Widespread - Many +50%
Frequent - Little separation +50%
Occassional - 25% - 50%
Isolated - <25%

49
Q

What does the following define

Implies conditions affecting many places, which will be difficult to avoid (Greater than 50% of area)

A

WIDESPREAD

50
Q

What does the following define

Little separation between phenomena, and the spatial coverage is greater than 50% of the area forecast to be affected by the phenomenon. Features will be difficult to avoid

A

FREQUENT

51
Q

What does the following define

An area consists of well separated features which are forecast to affect an area with a maximum spatial coverage of between 25% and 50% of the area concerned. These features can be avoided

A

OCCASIONAL

52
Q

What does the following define

Used if an area consists of individual features which are forecast to affect an area with a maximum spatial coverage of between less than 25% of the area concerned. These features can be easily avoided.

A

ISOLATED

53
Q

What are the differences in time intervals between a TAF and METAR

A
  1. TAF - 9, 24, 30 hours
  2. METAR - 30 or 60 mins

REMEMBER:
TAF has 3 letters, 3 time periods
METAR has 6 characters (as in 6 for 60 minutes). Half of 6 is 3 (as in 3 for 30 minutes)

54
Q

What are the 2 prob codes and the chances something will happen

A
  1. PROB30 = Might happen
  2. PROB40 = Will happen
55
Q

What is the period of validity for a TEMPO

A

Periods of UP TO 1 HOUR
No more often than would occupy MORE THAN HALF of the forecast period

i.e. if the forecast period is 8 hours, the TEMPO conditions would not last more than 4 hours.

56
Q

A way to remember the difference between a TAF and METAR

what is the difference between a TAF and METAR

A

TAF = Forecast
METAR = Actual At Runway

57
Q

MIlitary Codes

Colour | Cloud Level | Visibility
Blue | 2500ft | 8km
White | 2000ft | 5km
Green | 700ft | 3700m
Yellow 1 | 500ft | 2500m
Yellow 2 | 300ft | 1600m
Amber | 200ft | 800m
Red | < 200ft | < 200m
Black | Aerodrome closed

General Knowledge

A

Green 737
Yellow1 525
Yellow2 316
Amber 28

58
Q

What is the military 1) cloud and 2) visibility for the following code

BLUE

A
  1. 2500ft
  2. 8km
59
Q

What is the military 1) cloud and 2) visibility for the following code

WHITE

A
  1. 1500ft
  2. 5km
60
Q

What is the military 1) cloud and 2) visibility for the following code

GREEN

A
  1. 700ft
  2. 3700m
61
Q

What is the military 1) cloud and 2) visibility for the following code

YELLOW 1

A
  1. 500ft
  2. 2500m
62
Q

What is the military 1) cloud and 2) visibility for the following code

YELLOW 2

A
  1. 300ft
  2. 1600m
63
Q

What is the military 1) cloud and 2) visibility for the following code

AMBER

A
  1. 200ft
  2. 800m
64
Q

What is the military 1) cloud and 2) visibility for the following code

RED

A
  1. < 200ft (or sky obscured)
  2. < 800m
65
Q

What is the military 1) cloud and 2) visibility for the following code

BLACK

A

AIRFIELD CLOSED

66
Q

What is a VOLMET

A

Recoded weather service available over VHF radio

67
Q

What is the range of a VOLMET transmission

A

200nm
30,000ft

68
Q

Formal flight plans are advised to be submitted if the flight takes place over what 3 areas

A
  1. SEA
  2. 10+ miles from coast
  3. SPARSLEY POPULATED
69
Q

If your flight crosses an international boundary (FIR), what MUST a pilot do

A

SUBMIT FLIGHT PLAN

70
Q

Flight plans must be submitted ____ minutes prior to what.

A
  1. 60 minutes
  2. Brakes off

30 minutes is the exception to submit a flight plan. This is long enough for transmission to be received, but really pilots should stick closley to the 60 minute requirement

71
Q

Why must a flight plan be closed

A

AVOID SEARCH AND RESCUE ACTION

72
Q

ICAO Flight plan content

  1. Times are in ____
  2. Departure times are from ____
  3. Speeds (TAS) are ____ or ____
A
  1. UTC
  2. BLOCKS OFF
  3. KNOTS or KPH
73
Q

What does EET stand for on an ICAO flight plan form

A

ESTIMATED ELAPSE TIME

74
Q

What frequeny band do VOR stations operate in and what bindings

A

112.00 to 117.975 MHz
25kHz

.00, .x025, .x50, .x75

PPL - Flight Planning (2 decks)

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