Flight Plan And General Procedures Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
1
Q

What do you need before entering controlled airspace under IFR

A

A filed IFR flight plan

A clearance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

How to file a flight plan

A

FSS (in person, radio, phone)
DUATS (online)
Through radio/phone with ATC
File at least 30 min prior to departure time
Only stored in ATC system for 1.5 hrs past departure time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

How to cancel flight plan

A

Towered airports- auto cancelled by ATC on landing
Non towered airports- you must contact ATC/FSS to cancel
Can cancel anytime not in IMC and outside Class A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are preferred IFR routes

A

Preferred IFR routes are published in the Airport/Facility Directory. If a preferred route is published to your destination, you should file it in your flight plan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Obstacle departure procedure (ODP)

A

ONLY provides obstruction clearance
May be flown without an ATC clearance unless a SID or other instructions are assigned
Graphic ODP denote “obstacle” in chart title
All new RNAV ODPs are avail in graphic form
Found in front of NACO chart books arranged alphabetically by city
Jepp charts show ODPs under airport diagram, large airports separate chart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Define Standard Instrument Departure (SID)

A

Provide obstruction clearance and help reduce radio congestion and workload by simplifying ATC clearances

Pilot NAV SIDs- navigate by charted routes, minimal radio instruction
Vector SIDs- navigation by radar vectors, routes not printed
Some SIDs depict non standard radio failure procedures
File NO SIDs in remarks if you don’t want them
RNAV SIDs and all graphical RNAV ODPs require RNAV 1 performance (+/- 1nm for 95% total flight time)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Standard Terminal Arrivals (STAR)

A

Serves as transition from enough structure to a point from which an approach can begin
Transition routes connect en route fixes to the basic star procedure
Usually named according to the fix at which the basic procedure begins
Put “NO STAR” in remarks of flight plan if you don’t want one
RNAV STARs require RNAV 1 performance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Do you need an alternate

A

If within 1 hour before to 1 hour after ETA forecasted weather is less than…
2,000 ft ceiling and/or
3 SM visibility …
You need an alternate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

IFR cruising altitudes

Based on magnetic compass

A

Odd ducks fly east…
0-179 - odd thousands or FLs
180-359 - even thousands or FLs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

IFR altitudes

General

A

Minimum prescribes, if none…
Mountainous area - 2,000 ft above highest obstacle within 4nm
Non mountainous - 1,000 ft above highest obstacle within 4nm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

IFR minimum fuel requirements

A

Fuel from departure to destination + destination to alternate + 45 min at normal cruise

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Minimum weather required to list airport as an alternate

A

Precision- 600 ft, 2 sm
Non precision- (other than non WAAS GPS) 800 ft, 2 sm
No IAP- ceiling and vis allowing descent from MEA, approach, and landing under basic VFR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Minimum equipment for VFR day flight

A
Altimeter 
Tach
Oil temp
Manifold pressure 
Airspeed indicator 
Temp gauge
Oil pressure 
Fuel gauge
Landing gear pos indicator 
Anti collision lights
Magnetic compass
ELT
Safety belt
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Minimum equipment for VFR night

A
Fuses
Landing lights
Anti collision lights
Position lights
Source of power... battery
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

IFR day equipment requirements

A
VFR day + 
Generator/alternator
Radios (2way and appropriate nav)
Altimeter (baro)
Ball (slip/skid indicator)

Clock (hrs, min, sec installed)
Attitude indicator
Rate of turn indicator
Directional gyro (heading)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Flying with inop equipment

A

Aircraft has MEL? Yes… follow it
No… is it required by…
91.205, AD, equip list, VFR day cert requirements? Yes… no fly
No… flying permitted if…
Equip removed or deactivated and placarded, and pilot or
mechanics deems safe to fly

17
Q

Standard VOE service volumes

A
Terminal - 25NM 1,000-12,000ft
Low - 40 NM 1,000-18,000ft
High - 40NM 1,000-14,500ft
              100NM 14,500-18,000ft
              130NM 18,000-45,000ft
              100 NM 45,000-60,000ft
18
Q

VOR limitations

A

Cone of confusion
Reversed sensing (used incorrectly)
Requires line of sight to station

19
Q

VOR receiver checks

A
Every 30 calendar days
VOT +/- 4 degrees
Repair station +/- 4
Ground check point +/- 4
Airborne checkpoint +/- 6
Dual VOR +/- 4
Prominent landmark: on selected radial at least 20nm from VOR low altitude +/- 6
20
Q

VOR check sign off

A

Date
Error
Place
Signature

21
Q

VOR specs
Distance per dot?
Degrees full deflection?

A

VHF Omni directional Range
108.0-117.95 except 108.10-111.95 with odd tenths
Full scale deflection 10 degrees
Distance off course 200 ft per dot per nm from station
Distance to station = TAS x minutes for bearing change/degrees
Time to station= seconds for bearing change/degrees
Standard service volumes do not apply to published routes

22
Q

DME-distance measuring equipment specs

A

962-1213 MHz
Normally tunes automatically with a paired VHF station (VOR/LOC)
The airborne DME unit transmits an interrogation signal
The ground DME facility receives and replies to the interrogation
The time passed is used by the airborne unit to calculate the slant range distance from aircraft to station
Slant range error is negligible at 1nm from the DME station per 1,000ft

23
Q

NDB- non directional beacon

A
Operates at the 190-535 KHz range 
Low to medium frequency 
ADF- automatic direction finder in aircraft points towards the NDB station
Magnetic bearing=magnetic heading+relative bearing 
Compass locator - 15nm
Medium high - 25NM
High - 50 nm
High high - 75nm
24
Q

Position reporting points

A
ID
Position
Time
Type of flight plan
Altitude 
Name of next fix
ETA to next fix
Supplemental info
25
Q

IFR departure clearance items

A
Clearance
Route 
Altitude 
Frequency 
Transponder
26
Q

Clearance void time

A

Time at which your clearance is void, after which you may not takeoff. You must notify ATC within 30 min of void time if you did not depart.

27
Q

Hold for release

A

You may not takeoff until you have been released for IFR departure

28
Q

Release time

A

Earliest time you may depart under IFR

29
Q

Expect depart clearance time (EDCT)

A

Runway release time given under traffic management programs at busy airports. Must depart no earlier of later than 5 min from EDCT

30
Q

Mandatory reports

A
MARVELOUS VFR C500
Missed approach
Airspeed-10kts or 5% TAS
Reaching a holding fix (time/alt)
VFR on top
*ETA - 3 min change
Leaving a holding fix
*Outer market
Unforecasted Wx
Safety of flight 
Vacating an altitude
*Final approach fix
Radio/nav failure 

*Compulsory reporting points
500- unable to climb/descend 500 fpm

31
Q

IFR takeoff minimums

A

None for part 191

Part 121, 125, 129, 135:

  • prescribed TO mins for runway, if none,
  • 1-2 engines need 1SM vis
  • more than 2 engines need 1/2 SM visor
32
Q

Holding pattern timing

A

At or below 14,000 : 1 min inbound leg
Above 14,000 : 1.5 min inbound leg
DME GPS hold : fly outbound leg to specified distance from fix/waypoint

33
Q

Max holding speeds

A
Up to and including 6,000 : 200kts
6,001-14,000 : 230kts
14,001+ : 265kts
*may be restricted to 175 on some IAPs
*Airforce fields 310
*Navy fields 230 (unless otherwise depicted)
34
Q
IFR altitudes 
DA/H
MAA
MCA
MDA/H
MEA
MOCA
MORA
MRA
MVA
OROCA
A

DA/H descent altitude/height
MAA max authorized altitude
MCA minimum crossing altitude
MDA/H minimum descent altitude/height
MEA minimum enroute altitude (nav/obstruction clearance 1,000 non mtn 2,000 mtn terrain)
MOCA minimum obstruction clearance altitude (nav/obstruction clearance within 22nm of navaid)
MORA minimum off route altitude
MRA minimum receiving altitude
MVA minimum vectoring altitude
OROCA Off route obstruction. Clearance altitude (obstruction clearance within 4nm of course, 1,000 non mtn 2,000 mtn)

35
Q

RVR Visibility

A
1,600=1/4
2,400=1/2
3,200=5/8
4,000=3/4
4,500=7/8
5,000=1
6,000=1 1/4
36
Q

Where do you find preferred IFR routes

A

Chart Supplement