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Return to Service Refresher > Flight Operations - Overview > Flashcards

Flight Operations - Overview Flashcards

A compilation of material from the SOPs, FOM, AFM, GADPM, systems slides, and U.S. Ops Spec

1
Q

Max ramp weight

A

64,130 lbs

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2
Q

Max take-off weight

A

63,930 lbs (200 lbs less than max ramp weight)

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3
Q

Max landing weight

A

61,750 lbs (2,180 lbs less than max take-off weight)

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4
Q

Max landing weight (steep)

A

58,000 lbs

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5
Q

Max zero fuel weight

A

57,000 lbs

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6
Q

Max forward baggage

A

510 lbs

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7
Q

Max baggage aft 1

A

2,630 lbs

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8
Q

Max baggage aft 2

A

1,000 lbs

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9
Q

Max baggage aft 1 & 2

A

2,630 lbs

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10
Q

Max usable fuel

A

11,724 lbs

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11
Q

Max crosswind landing & take-off

CAT II - Canada

Cat II - USA

A

18 knots

15 knots

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12
Q

Max crosswind landing & take-off

Contaminated runway

A

14 knots

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13
Q

Max crosswind landing & take-off

Compact snow

A

20 knots

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14
Q

Max crosswind landing & take-off

CRFI

A

Check crosswind chart

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15
Q

Max crosswind landing & take-off

Ice/Wet Ice

A

0 knots

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16
Q

Max tailwind (take-off)

Flap 5 or contaminated

A

10 knots

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17
Q

Max tailwind (take-off)

Flap 10 or 15

A

20 knots

Bleeds OFF, INCR REF OFF, NTOP or MTOP - per supplement 3

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18
Q

Max tailwind (landing)

Flap 35

A

20 knots

Bleeds OFF, INCR REF OFF, NTOP or MTOP - per supplement 3

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19
Q

Max tailwind (landing)

CAT II

A

10 knots

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20
Q

Max tailwind (landing)

Steep Approach

A

5 knots

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21
Q

Max tailwind (landing)

LAHSO

A

3 knots

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22
Q

Max tailwind (landing)

CYTZ contamination or RNAV runway 08

A

0 knots

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23
Q

Max tailwind (landing)

Ice/Wet Ice

A

0 knots

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24
Q

Max Headwind

CAT II

A

24 knots

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25
Q

Va

A

204 knots

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26
Q

Vb

A

210 knots

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27
Q

Vlo

A

200 knots

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28
Q

Vle

A

215 knots

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29
Q

Flap 5 max (& gate)

A

200 knots (180 knots)

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30
Q

Flap 10 max (& gate)

A

181 knots (not applicable)

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31
Q

Flap 15 max (& gate)

A

172 knots (160 knots)

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32
Q

Flap 35 max (& gate)

A

158 knots (140 or 150 knots)

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33
Q

Max holding speed

A

200 knots

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34
Q

Max tire speed

A

182 knots

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35
Q

Vmo - below 8,000’

A

245 knots

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36
Q

Vmo - 10,000’

A

282 knots

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37
Q

Vmo - 18,000’

A

286 knots

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38
Q

Vmo - 20,000’

A

275 knots

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39
Q

Vmo - 25,000’

A

248 knots

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40
Q

Hydraulics

1 & 2 system pressures

A

2900 - 3100 PSI

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41
Q

Hydraulics

3 system pressure

A

2600 - 3250 PSI

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42
Q

Hydraulics

Quantities for dispatch (%)

A

1 - 40%
2 - 40%
3 - 45%

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43
Q

Hydraulics

System 1 controls:

A 
F - flaps
A - anti-skid
I - inboard spoilers
R - rudder (lower)
E - elevator (outboard)
P - PTU
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44
Q

Hydraulics

System 2 controls:

A 
L - landing gear
O - outboard spoilers
N - nose-wheel steering
E - emergency brake
R - rudder (upper)
E - elevators (center)
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45
Q

Hydraulics

System 1 quantity

A

8 quarts

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46
Q

Hydraulics

System 2 quantity

A

12 quarts

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47
Q

Hydraulics

System 3 controls:

A

Elevators (inboard)

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48
Q

Hydraulics

System 3 quantity

A

2.6 quarts

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49
Q

Hydraulics

Alternate Landing Gear Extension quantity:

A

1 quart

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50
Q

Engine Cranking

First & second attempts (start & rest times)

A

70 seconds

two minute rest

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51
Q

Engine Cranking

third attempt (start & rest times)

A

70 seconds

30 minute rest

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52
Q

Engine Cranking

APU first attempt (start & rest times)

A

60 seconds

5 minutes

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53
Q

Engine Cranking

APU second attempt (start & rest times)

A

60 seconds

30 minutes

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54
Q

Engine Cranking

Minimum temperature for a start or re-light

A

-40C

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55
Q

Structural

Max temperature

A

50 C or ISA + 35, whichever is lower

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56
Q

Structural

Min temperature

A
  • 54C
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57
Q

Structural

Service Ceiling

A

25,000’

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58
Q

Steep Approach

committed, if the engine fails

A

300 ft.

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59
Q

CAT II approach

General considerations (5)

A

1) no related onboard equipment failures
2) A/C certified and pilots trained
3) no single engine
4) configured by FAF
5) max GS of 3.5 degrees

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60
Q

CAT II approach

Essential Ground Elements (6)

A

1) LOC and GS
2) HIAL
3) TDZ lights and RCL
4) Edge, Threshold, End lights
5) RVR A & B
6) Alternate back-up power

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61
Q

CAT II approach

Tolerances:

1) GS
2) LOC
3) Airspeed & Trim
4) Stability
5) AP disengaged by:

A

1) one dot
2) 1/3 dot
3) established normal
4) no unusual turbulence
5) 100 ft. AGL

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62
Q

Nosewheel

Max deflection with pedals

A

8 degrees

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63
Q

Nosewheel

Max deflection with steering

A

70 degrees

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64
Q

Nosewheel

Max deflection - castering

A

120 degrees

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65
Q

Nosewheel

minimum U-turn width

A

85 ft.

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66
Q

De-ice pressure

A

18 PSI +/- 3

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67
Q

Normal cabin pressure

A

5.46 PSI +/- 0.1

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68
Q

Max cabin pressure

A

5.95 PSI

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69
Q

Max cabin pressure (take-off and landing)

A

0.5 PSI

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70
Q

Max cabin altitude

A

8,000 ft.

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71
Q

Oxygen pressure (2 crew) based on 21 C

A

1300 PSI

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72
Q

Oxygen pressure (3 crew) based on 21 C

A

1800 PSI

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73
Q

Minimum brake pressure

Starting engine #2 first

A

500 PSI

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74
Q

Minimum brake pressure

Starting engine #1 first

A

1,000 PSI

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75
Q

Engines (each)

NTOP 90%

A

4,580 SHP

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76
Q

Engines (each)

MTOP 106%

A

5,071 SHP

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77
Q

Engines (each)

Emergency (max 20 seconds)

A

6,200 SHP

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78
Q

MTOP time limit

A

5 minutes

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79
Q

ITT - max Continuous

A

880 C

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80
Q

ITT - max start (20 seconds)

A

920 C

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81
Q

RPM (normal range)

A

660 - 1020 RPM

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82
Q

RPM (caution/yellow)

A

1020 - 1071 RPM

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83
Q

RPM (overlimit/red)

A

> 1071 RPM

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84
Q

RPM (over-limit/red)

A

> 1071 RPM

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85
Q

Oil System

Quantity (per engine)

A

5.9 gallons

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86
Q

Oil System

Normal Operating Range (temperature)

A

0 - 107 C

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87
Q

Oil System

Prop Heat ON range (temperature)

A

65 C - 107 C

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88
Q

Oil System

Minimum temperature for engine start

A

-40 C

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89
Q

Oil System

Minimum temperature for un-feather

A

-18 C

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90
Q

Oil System

Minimum temperature for greater than ground idle

A

0 C

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91
Q

Oil System

Minimum temp for inlet ice protection

A

55 C

55 C required for take-off but 65 C required 3 minutes after)

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92
Q

Oil System

Minimum pressure

A

44 PSI

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93
Q

Oil System

Transient pressure

A

44-61 PSI

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94
Q

Oil System

Normal pressure

A

62 PSI - 72 PSI

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95
Q

Batteries

Minimum battery temp for take-off

A

-20 C

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96
Q

Batteries

Max battery load for start

A

0.4

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97
Q

Batteries

Max battery load for take-off

A

0.1

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98
Q

Fuel

Max imbalance

A

600 lbs.

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99
Q

Fuel

Fuel heater outlet

A

0 C to 71 C

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100
Q

Maximum runway slope

A

+/- 2 degrees

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101
Q

Boarding temperatures

A

18 C to 29 C

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102
Q

Min temp for FANS FAIL

A

5 C

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103
Q

ECS automatic temperature range

A

15 C to 27 C

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104
Q

ECS manual temperature range

A

2.8 C to 71 C

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105
Q

Max OAT for windshield heat

A

20 C

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106
Q

APU

Max temperature

A

50 C or ISA + 35 (whichever is lower)

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107
Q

APU

Max temperature with louvres

A

21 C

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108
Q

APU

Minimum temperature

A

-35 C

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109
Q

APU

Minimum fuel to start

A

1,000 lbs (from the left tank)

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110
Q

Dimensions

WIngspan

A

93’ 3”

111
Q

Dimensions

Fuselage Length

A

101’ 10”

112
Q

Dimensions

Total Length

A

107’ 9”

113
Q

Dimensions

Total Height

A

27’ 4”

114
Q

Dimensions

Main Landing Gear distance (struts/outers)

A

28’ 10”

31’ 9”

115
Q

Dimensions

Propeller Clearance

A

3’ 2”

116
Q

Dimensions

Ground to Wing Tip

A

12’ 10”

117
Q

Dimensions

Propeller Diameter

A

13’ 6”

118
Q

Supplement 3:
10-20 knot tailwinds

Conditions (3)

A

1) T/O flap 10 or 15
2) Landing flap 35
3) Controls checked into wind

119
Q

Supplement 3:
10-20 knot tailwinds

Not permitted if: (10)

A

1) anti-skid inop
2) nose steering inop
3) steep approach
4) Red. NP t/o or landing
5) CAT II approach
6) Flight spoilers inop
7) contaminated runway
8) take-off into icing
9) YTZ contaminated
10) Bleeds on

120
Q

Supplement 21:
Take-off or landing with bleeds ON

Not permitted if: (3)

A

1) tailwind exceeds 10 kt
2) Inop uptrim
3) take-off with RTOP
4) operation from unpaved landing strips
5) operating on runways greater than 2 degrees of slope

121
Q

Supplement 37:
Contaminated Runways

Not permitted if:

A

1) tailwind exceeds 10 kt
2) Inop anti-skid
3) Nosewheel steering inop
4) Steep approach
5) Flight spoilers inop
6) CYTZ contaminated
7) Reduced NP used

122
Q

Batteries

Emergency Mode duration

A

60 minutes

123
Q

Batteries

HOT BAT temperature

A

Exceeding 71 C

124
Q

NH% when starter becomes DC generator

A

50%

125
Q

External Power

EPCU - Voltage protection limits

A

< 22 V, and

> 31 V

126
Q

AC power available when (condition lever position and prop RPM)

A

Condition Lever: 850 or higher

Props: Idle/660 RPM or higher

127
Q

APU

Output:

Controlled by:

A

28V DC current via 400A generator

Bleed air to ECS

Controlled by APU FADEC

128
Q

APU

Selecting Bleeds how long after APU stabilizes

A

2 minutes

129
Q

Light switch that activates the FDR

A

anti-collision set to “red” or “white”

stops recording when switched “off” if:

  • aircraft on ground
  • at least one engine not operating (based on oil pressure)
130
Q

Emergency Lighting power supply

A

4 self-contained 6.4 V ni-cad battery packs above passenger compartment

131
Q

Hydraulics

Firewall Shutoff Valve powered by:

Closed when:

Fire Panel Status

A

1) Battery bus

2) closed when:
a) Pull FUEL/HYD OFF handle is pulled,
b) HYD quantity low
c) HYD fluid overheats

3) Green light - open
White Light - closed

132
Q

Hydraulics

ISO VLV closes at this quantity

A

below 25% (fluid loss) in #1 or #2 system

133
Q

Hydraulics

Priority Valve closes when

A

1 system falls below 2100 PSI - shuts HYD PRESS to Flaps and PTU

134
Q

Hydraulics

PTU functions by:

A

Uses #1 HYD PRESS to power hydraulic motor that operates a pump to pressure #2 system

135
Q

3 HYD System

Hydraulics

Operates automatically when (2)

Operates manually when (1)

A

1) either HYD system fails
2) Dual engine failure
1) HYD #3 ISO VLV switchlight is pushed

136
Q

Emergency Brakes

Brake accumulator provides how many applications

A

6 applications

137
Q

Max altitude with Landing Gear extended and doors CLOSED

A

20,000’

138
Q

Max altitude with Landing Gear extended and doors OPEN

A

15,000’

139
Q

Alternate Gear Extension speed

A

185 knots

140
Q

Number of ailerons & spoilers per wing

A

1 aileron (mechanically controlled & operated)

2 spoilers (mechanically controlled & hydraulically powered)

141
Q

Roll disconnect - who controls what?

A

Captain - flight spoilers

First Officer - ailerons

142
Q

Auto pitch trim activated when: (4)

A

1) flaps extended or refracted 15 or 35 degrees
2) autopilot not engaged
3) airspeed less than 180 knots
4) manual pitch trim is not commanded

143
Q

Stick pusher operates when: (3)

A

1) below 215 knots
2) above 200’ AGL
3) stick pusher PUSH OFF has not been pushed in

144
Q

NACA vent purpose

A

ventilate and pressurize fuel - in the surge bay

145
Q

Magnetic Float Stick

1) Units of Measurement
2) Inaccurate when

A

1) Volume, not Gallons

2) Less than 100 G or greater than 700 G

146
Q

What powers the accessory gearbox

A

High Pressure shaft (connected to single stage NH turbine that powers the centrifugal compressor)

147
Q

What powers the propeller via reduction gearbox

A

Power shaft, connected to the two-stage power turbine

148
Q

What turbine powers the NL shaft

A

NL turbine, located after the NH turbine - powers the axial compressor

149
Q

What follows the NH and NL turbines?

A

two-stage power turbines

150
Q

What is powered by the accessory gearbox? (4)

A
  • oil pressure & scavenge pumps
  • High pressure fuel pump
  • Permanent magnet alternator
  • DC starter/generator
151
Q

Permanent Magnetic Alternator

1) What does it power?
2) How many per engine?
3) How is it powered?

A

1) The Engine Control System
2) 2 per engine - if one fails, the other takes over
3) HP turbine via accessory gearbox when above NH 20%, powered by respective DC Essential Bus when below

152
Q

Power Level controls what? (2)

A
  • engine power in the forward range

- propeller speed and blade angle from idle through to reverse

153
Q

Overtravel region output

A

125% of maximum take-off rating, propeller automatically set to 1020 RPM

154
Q

Uptrim increase value

A
  • Increases from NTOP to MTOP or 10% of selected take-off power requested
155
Q

FADEC protection limits:

1) Reverse
2) Forward power range
3) Overtravel

A

1) 35%
2) 106%
3) 125%

(however if the plane had an unscheduled feather at high power settings, the FADEC will prevent over-torque at 135%

156
Q

FADEC Protection limits

Fuel shutoff command given when NH exceeds:

A

108%

157
Q

Propeller Reduction Gearbox controls: (4)

A

1) Pitch Control Unit
2) Propeller Overspeed Governor
3) Main Hydraulic Pump
4) 115V AC Variable Frequency Generator

158
Q

Hydraulic pressure lost in reverse - propeller response

A

Automatically changes to max reverse blade angle

159
Q

Beta Range power lever position

A

FLIGHT IDLE to DISC

blade angle set by power lever input

160
Q

Propeller Reverse Mode

Prop RPM range

A

660 RPM to 950 RPM

FADEC schedules power up to a max limit of 1500 SHP

161
Q

Propeller Overspeed Protection

1) first defense (hydraulic)
2) second defense (electronic)

A

1) High pressure oil supply drops when prop RPM exceeds 1071 RPM
2) FADEC signals metering unit to reduce fuel supply when propeller exceeds 1140 RPM

162
Q

Overspeed protection in reverse

A

Hydraulic system is locked out - electronic section is only means of over-speed protection

163
Q

Automatic Underspeed Protection Control

Activates when?

A

Np drops below 816 RPM while torque remains above 50%

#1 AND #2 PEC caution light illuminates

164
Q

Max Take -off (MTOP)

1) max torque
2) Max ITT
3) Max NL
4) Max NH
5) Max Prop RPM
6) Oil Pressure
7) Oil Temp

A

1) 106%
2) 880 C
3) 100%
4) 100%
5) 1020 RPM
(max allowable continuous NP overspeed is 1071 RPM)
6) 61-72 PSI
7) 0 - 107 C

165
Q

Normal Take-off (NTOP

1) max torque
2) Max ITT
3) Max NL
4) Max NH
5) Max Prop RPM
6) Oil Pressure
7) Oil Temp

A 
1) 90.3%
2, 3, 4) Varies per ambient air temp.
5) 1020 RPM (max allowable continuous NP overspeed is 1071 RPM)
6) 61-72 PSI
7 0-107 C
166
Q

Max Continuous

1) max torque
2) Max ITT
3) Max NL
4) Max NH
5) Max Prop RPM
6) Oil Pressure
7) Oil Temp

A

1) 100%
2) 880 C
3) 100%
4) 100%
5) 1020 RPM (max allowable continuous NP overspeed is 1071 RPM)
6) 61-72 PSI
7) 0 - 107 C

167
Q

Starting

1) Max ITT
2) Oil Pressure
3) Oil Temp

A

1) 920 C
2) 100 max
(165 PSI: Max oil pressure at discing with OAT below 0 C)
3) min. -40 C

168
Q

Transient (20 seconds)

1) max torque
2) Max ITT
3) Max NL
4) Max NH
5) Max Prop RPM
6) Oil Pressure
7) Oil Temp

A

1) 135%
2) 920 C
3) 102.3%
4) 101.2%
5) 1173 RPM
6) 44-61 OR 72-100
7) max 125 C (5 seconds max for torque values above flight idle and less than 55%)

169
Q

Max Reverse

1) max torque
2) Max ITT
3) Max NL
4) Max NH
5) Max Prop RPM
6) Oil Pressure
7) Oil Temp

A

1) 35%
2) 880 C
3) 100%
4) 100%
5) 1020 RPM
6) 61-72 PSI
7) 0-107 C

170
Q

Number of fire portable extinguishers in main cabin

A

4 (two aft, one forward, one flight deck)

each has PBE located nearby

171
Q

Engine fire bottle(s):
1) how many & location

2) shots per bottle

A

1) 2 bottles in the aft left wing root

2) two shots of suppressant per bottle

172
Q

Cargo compartments:

1) number of sensors in aft compartment
2) number of sensors in fore. compartment

A

1) two (rear & front)

2) one

173
Q

Baggage fire extinguishers

1) How many & type

A

Fore & aft: one HIGH RATE bottle

LOW RATE bottle share between fore and aft compartments, in equipment bay

(low rate extinguisher discharges into aft hold after 7 MINUTES)

174
Q

Lav smoke detection

1) How many detectors?
2) Who gets notified?

A

1) one

2) Cabin Crew, not Flight Crew

175
Q

Lav smoke extinguishing

1) How is lav protected?

A

1) protected by a thermally activated fire extinguisher, with no electrical interference

176
Q

When is bleed air is available to de-icing system & door seals?

A

Is available whenever engines are running, regardless of the position of the bleed air switches

177
Q

Which ports use inflatable door seals?

A

L1 and Aft Baggage

178
Q

Only bleed position permitted for take-off:

A

Min (any others will show “bleed” in aber text, indicating a mis-configuration

179
Q

APU provides bleed air when: (3)

A

1) aircraft on ground
2) BLEED switches off
3) bleed OPEN switch selected on APU panel

180
Q

Which valves are opened/close with the BLEED switches

A

NSOVs
Note:
a) valves always fail CLOSED
b) bleed air will ALWAYS flow to de-icing system and the oil ejector)
c) HPSOV will command open if LP insufficient

181
Q

APU bleed over-pressure protection:

A

aft safety valve is pulled open with the operation of APU bleed

182
Q

AC Pack components:

A

1) two air cycle machines
2) one dual heat exchanger
3) two flow bypass valves (controls air temp out of the pack)
4) flow control shut off valve (FCSOV)
5) ram air inlet

183
Q

ECS Airflow control differences:

1) Digital channel:
2) Analog channel

A

1) digital channel - modulates airflow

2) analog channel - does not modulate the FCSOV - it’s either fully open or closed

184
Q

Air conditioning: return air breakdown:

A

25% to flight deck, 75% to cabin

right pack: feeds cabin – left pack: feeds cabin & flight deck

185
Q

Number of avionics fans required for dispatch

A

two of the three

186
Q

System that maintains and controls cabin pressure is called:

A

Cabin Pressure Control

governs outflow rate from the pressurized areas

187
Q

Cabin Pressure:

System is powered by which bus?

A

28 V DC left main bus

188
Q

Cabin Pressure:

Aft outflow valve is open when? (2)

A

1) Engine power levers are set less then 60⁰ on
the ground. This prevents pressurization

2) One engine is running at idle or the APU is
operating

189
Q

Forward Safety Valve - what happens to cabin altitude when opened?

A

“The forward safety valve may be used with the automatic system operating during flight to evacuate smoke from the flight compartment, without depressurizing the airplane”

190
Q

Altitude activating “CABIN PRESS” warning light:

A

9800’

191
Q

Dual Distributing Valves

1) What do they do?
2) When do they do it?

A

1) DDVs control the bleed air flow to the de-ice boots

2) Heated whenever the:
a) MODE SELECT is in the manual, slow, or fast position
b) SAT is less than +5

192
Q

Airframe Mode Select

Number of modes/timing sequences:

A

MANUAL - DDVs heated manually

SLOW - Automatic de-ice boot operation
and sequencing. 3 minute cycle ( 36
seconds for de-ice boot operation and 144
second dwell time)

FAST - Automatic de-ice boot operation
and sequencing. 1 minute cycle ( 36
seconds for de-ice boot operation and 24
second dwell time)

193
Q

Pitot Static Probes

1) 1 # 2 are heated by electricity from:
2) standby is heated by electricity from:

A

1) respective AC bus

2) 28V right essential DC bus

194
Q

Battery Power Only!

Essential buses power the following EIS: (4)

A

1) MFD 1
2) ED
3) MFD 1 reversion selector on the ESID ESCP
4) ALL pushbutton on the ESID ESCP

195
Q

Number of transponders

A

2 (one will be in STBY mode)

196
Q

TCAS modes (3)

A

ABOVE (+8700’ to -2700’)
NORM (+/- 2700’)
BELOW (+2700’ to -8700’)

197
Q

All RAs are inhibited when: (2)

A

1) below 1100’ AGL when climbing

2) below 900’ AFL when descending

198
Q

All RA announcements are inhibited when: (2)

A

1) below 600’ AGL when climbing

2) Below 400’ AGL when descending

199
Q

Radar Antennae tilt range

A

+/- 15 degrees

200
Q

Take-off warning horn sounds when:

A

weight on nose wheel, PLs brought above 50%
and:

  • spoilers extended
  • elevator trim beyond take-off range
  • park brake on
  • condition lever(s) not at max
  • flaps extended more than 20 degrees or less than 3.5 degrees
201
Q

ARCDU 1 is powered by: (2)

A

left essential bus and right main bus

202
Q

ARCDU 2 is powered by: (2)

A

right essential bus and left main bus

203
Q

FDR recording capacity

A

25 h of continuous loop

204
Q

CVR recording capacity

A

most recent 2 hours of all communication & clock data

205
Q

Oxygen

Cabin is equipped with how many bottles?

A

3 emergency bottles (each bottle can sustain 3 pax for 30 minutes)

2 first aid bottles

206
Q

PBE

1) How much oxygen will it generate for the user?
2) How many units are onboard?

A

1) 15 minutes, but oxygen will depend on the amount of air exhaled
2) 4 (flight deck, above wardrobe, 2 in left doghouse)

207
Q

TSAFE Briefing

A

T - type of entry
S - Speed
A - Altitude, as appropriate
F - Fuel (destination, alternate, and reserve in terms of time)
E - Expected Approach or further clearance time

208
Q

LAHSO weather minima (operable ILS but no PAPI or VASI)

A
  • ceiling no less than 1500’

- visibility no less than 5 sm

209
Q

LAHSO weather minima (operational PAPI or VASI)

A
  • ceiling no less than 1000’

- visibility no less than 3 sm

210
Q

LAHSO runway requirements (7):

FAA - LAHSO Night requirement (1):

A

1) Operations on wet runways prohibited
2) must have visual or electronic guidance
3) wind shear reported within 20 minutes of LAHSO clearance
4) Max tailwind of 3 knots
5) Late LAHSO clearance (i.e. below 1,000 AGL)
6) If approach needs to be flown higher (following heavy)
7) Minimum 5,000 ft. at sea level (Q400 is a “Group 6” aircraft)
1) Only conducted when there is an approved FAA lighting condition for LAHSO operation installed

(Canada does not have lighting requirement)

211
Q

Captain will operate the controls when: (8)

A

1) Take-off with RVR below 1200
2) YTZ wind 310-350 AND speeds greater than 20 knots steady, or gusts greater than 25 knots
3) RW26 NIGHT landing greater than 58,000 lbs
4) conducting a CAT II landing at CAT II minima
5) MTOP is required for take-off
6) Any tailwind component on take-off
7) Contaminated runway on take-off
8) At Captain’s directive

212
Q

No Alternate IFR Operations

1) Weather requirements: (3)
2) Destination Airport requirements: (3)

A

Destination weather one hour before and after ETA:

1) No risk of thunderstorms or freezing precipitation
2) No risk of any restrictions to visibility of less than 3 SM
3) Forecast weather:
a) Visibility 6 SM or greater, and ceiling 1500’ (2000’ in USA) or more;
b) Visibility 3 SM or greater, and ceiling 1000’ above FAF altitude, using the approach with the 2nd lowest usable limits

1) two separate & suitable runways for the aircraft
2) Two independent, usable IFR approach aids and approaches
3) emergency standby power

213
Q

MEL Categories:

Category A time limit

A

Valid for the time period specified in the “remarks or exceptions”

214
Q

MEL Categories:

Category B time limit

A

Valid for 3 days, excluding the day of discovery

215
Q

MEL Categories

Category C time limit

A

Valid for 10 days, excluding day of discovery

216
Q

MEL Categories:

Category D time limit

A

Valid for 120 days, excluding the day of discovery

217
Q

Operational Maintenance & MEL

“EM” means:

A

There are elementary

maintenance procedures required for compliance.

218
Q

Operational Maintenance & MEL

“O” means:

A

There are operational

procedures required for compliance.

219
Q

Operational Maintenance & MEL

“M” means:

A

There is a maintenance

procedure that requires a licensed AME.

220
Q

First Officer may complete a “Captains Only” landing when:

A

Captain has 100 PIC on type AND First Officer has 300 hours on type

**First Officer exempt from these restrictions when operating with a Training Captain or ACP

221
Q

Additional 50’ - SCDA approach - exemption criteria (5)

Exemption valid in which country(s)

A
  1. No failure of a system that may affect performance
  2. Aircraft is below the normal maximum landing weight
  3. Landing weight not limited by aborted landing climb performance
  4. Height loss in go-around not expected to be greater than normal
  5. Aircraft has:
    a) two serviceable barometric altimeters
    b) one serviceable radar altimeter
    c) one serviceable GPWS or TAWS
  6. Canada only - not the US under any circumstance
222
Q

RVOP parameters: (RVR)

A

Less than RVR 2600 down to & including RVR 1200

223
Q

LVOP parameters (RVR)

A

Less than 1200, but greater or equal to RVR 600

224
Q

Take-off minima RVR 600

Runway equipment required: (2)

A
  1. functioning HIRL, centreline lights AND visible centreline markings
  2. at least two RVR sensors, (approach end and midpoint) each reading no less than RVR 600**

**midpoint can be waived if unserviceable, and approach and departure sensors read no less than RVR 600

225
Q

Take-off minima RVR 600

Required equipment: (2)

A
  1. attitude indicators on both sides with index lines capable of reading pitch angle up to 15 degrees
  2. approved failure warning system for essential instruments (attitude indicators, HSI, directional gyros)
226
Q

Take-off minima RVR 600

Crew experience requirements: (3)

A
  1. Captain’s only
  2. Trained in the previous 12 months on a synthetic training device & certified on the PPC
  3. 100 hours PIC experience on type
227
Q

Take-off minima RVR 1200

Runway equipment required: (3)

A
  1. HIRL, OR
  2. runway centreline lights, OR
  3. visible centreline markings

** US at night: HIRL OR centreline lights

228
Q

Take-off minima RVR 1200

Runway equipment required: (2)

A
  1. attitude indicators on both sides with index lines capable of reading pitch angle up to 15 degrees
  2. approved failure warning system for essential instruments (attitude indicators, HSI, directional gyros)
229
Q

Approach Ban - Imposed by the following: (2)

A
  1. RVR readings below specified values
  2. Reported ground visibility below specified values

** U.S. - approach ban governed by plate values

230
Q

Porter Ops Spec Approach limits:

A

down to 50% of the approach plate visibility, depending on the approach type

231
Q

U.S. Alternate Minima:

  1. At wast one non-precision or precision with straight-in minima
  2. At least two non-precision or precision approaches providing straight-in minimums to two different and suitable runways
A
  1. Add 400’ to the CAT I HAT or HAA & Add 1 SM to the CAT I landing minimum
  2. Add 200’ to the hither CAT I HAT of the two approaches, Add 1/2 SM to the higher CAT I landing minimums of the two approaches
232
Q

Fuel Computation - DEST

A

Comprised of fuel required for:
1. take-off and climb to 1,500 ft AGL at take-off power

  1. climb to anticipated altitude
  2. cruise to top of descent (all known factors included)
  3. descent to FAF, plus holding/vectoring, approach & landing
233
Q

Fuel Computation - ENRT RES

A

Based on 5% of the DEST fuel, to a max of 15 mins.

** likely not seen on Porter flights due to issuing criteria**

234
Q

Fuel Computation - ALTN

A

Comprised of fuel required for:

  1. climb from missed approach point to anticipated cruising altitude
  2. cruise to the alternate at “Long Range Cruise” (LRCRZ) found in the AOM
  3. descent to the FAF, approach, landing
235
Q

Fuel Computation - FINAL

A

Fuel for 45 minutes at max Endurance at 5,000’ above alternate airport at forecast weight and temp (found in AOM)

236
Q

Fuel Computation - ADD

A

Additional Contingency Fuel - fuel added for foreseeable, KNOWN, conditions

237
Q

Fuel Computation - BIN BRF

A

Min fuel required for departure

DEST + ENRT RSV + ALTN + FINAL + ADD

238
Q

Fuel Computation - EXTRA

A

Excess fuel, not required for the safe operation of the flight i.e. tankering or unknown emergency scenarios

239
Q

Fuel Computation - TOTAL BRF

A

MIN BRF + EXTRA

240
Q

Fuel Computation - TAXI

A

Fuel required to start engines and taxi to departure end of runway (approx. 15 lbs/min, but no less than 200 lbs)

241
Q

Fuel Computation - RAMP

A

Sum of TOTL BRF and TAXI

242
Q

Fuel Computation - MIN DIV

A

Sum of the ALTN and FINAL - is what should be available on arrival at destination MDA/DH

243
Q

RW26 visual & glideslope guidance angle:

A

4.8 degrees

244
Q

Additional landing distance per extra 10’ over the landing threshold:

A

200’

245
Q

Additional landing distance for every knot of excessive airspeed

A

2% extra distance

246
Q

Number of first aid kits onboard

A

two (fore and aft)

** may depart if inventory is taken (MEL 25-60-2)

247
Q

Number of crash axes onboard:

A

one, located behind captain’s seat

248
Q

Number of flashlights onboard

A

four - consistent with each crew members seat

249
Q

Demonstrated Landing Distance profile

A
  • Threshold crossing at 50’
  • Touch down 1,000’ down the runway
  • Discing & max braking to com to a full stop
250
Q

Approach Ban

50% of CAP Advisory Visibility/RVR requirements:

A

1) Must be to straight-in minima (within 15 degrees)

2) Cat I ILS with operative centerline lights
a) Must also have High-Intensity Approach Lighting and High-Intensity Runway Edge Lighting
b) Crew must use PMA, or be Cat II qualified and use
autopilot
c) Flight Director required for autopilot-off PMA

3) Non-Precision Approaches or APV with use of PMA,
autopilot or Heads-Up Display

251
Q

Approach Ban

Requirements in Canada when approaching to land: (2)

A

1) Runway Level of Service for the
runway to be used, AND:

2) Approach Ban Minima for the
approach to be flown

252
Q

Approach Ban

75% of CAP Advisory Visibility/RVR requirements:

A

1) Cat I ILS without centreline lights

2) Non-Precision Approaches or APV without use of
PMA, autopilot or Heads-Up Display

253
Q

CAT II Approach

Aircraft Requirements: (5)

A

1) Certified for Cat II Approaches (Supplement 16)
2) Approved Aircraft Maintenance Program
3) No MEL that would restrict CAT II operations
4) “CAT II” placard is installed on the aircraft

5) Airplane must have flown a simulated or actual
CAT II approach within the previous 30 days

254
Q

VISIBLE MOISTURE (per Bombardier)

A

Fog with visibility of 1 mile or less, clouds, rain, snow, ice pellets, sleet, or ice crystals.

255
Q

ICING Conditions, In-Flight (per Bombardier)

A

SAT is 5C or below and visible moisture in any form is present.

256
Q

ICING Conditions, Ground (per Bombardier)

A

1) SAT is 10C or below and visible moisture in any form is present,

and/or

2)SAT is 10C or below and operating on runways, taxiways,
ramps, etc., where surface snow, ice, standing water or slush
may be ingested by the engines or freeze on the engines,
nacelles, or engine sensor probes.

257
Q

Freezing Precipitation - is departure permitted with these conditions?

A

May only depart in LIGHT freezing rain or drizzle

check holdover times

258
Q

Type III anti-ice fluid

Fluid penalty is not required, unless:

A

temperature is LESS than -16C

259
Q

Type III anti-ice fluid

How many HOT charts are there?

A

Two:

“Low Speed” - used if temp is equal to, or above, -16C

“High Speed” - used if temp is below -16C

260
Q

Type IV anti-ice fluid

When does fluid penalty apply?

A

at all temperatures

261
Q

When may flights depart into MODERATE icing conditions?

A
  • point of departure meets alternate weather minima & conditions allow for a safe return

**except at YTZ, where YYZ can be used if suitable

262
Q

When may flights operate within known SEVERE icing conditions

A

never.

263
Q

Icing Protection:

“STANDARD” (2)

A

1) pitot-static heat on

2) engine intake doors closed in non-icing conditions

264
Q

Icing Protection

“STANDARD PLUS”

“Standard systems”, plus (3)

A

1) prop heat
2) windshield heat
3) engine intake bypass doors

**must be on any time we are in icing conditions (air or ground)

265
Q

Icing Protection

“ON”

All of the previous systems, plus: (2)

A

1) Air frame mode selector rotary switch to FAST
2) INCR REF SPEED switch ON

**used whenever ice is accumulating on the air frame, EXCEPT for Supplement 76

“take-off into icing conditions to 1,000 AGL with ref speeds switch off”

266
Q

Icing Conditions

Approach Speed additives:

1) Flap 15
2) flap 35

A

1) Increase Vref by 20 kts
2) Increase Vref by 15 kts

**always bug Vref, but mentally fly the faster speed

267
Q

CONTAMINATED runway: (Bombardier definition) (2)

A
  • more than 25% of the runway within the required length or width is covered with standing water, slush, snow, or ice

OR

  • 100% of the runway is covered by compacted snow
268
Q

CONTAMINATED RUNWAY (Bombardier definition)

Runway may be considered non-contaminated when:

A
  • standing water, loose snow, slush is less than 1/8” depth AND braking action is good

OR

If the contaminant is loose, blowing or drifting snow and is not adhering to the runway surface

269
Q

Is there a document that supersedes the CRFI chart?

A

Yes, the Contaminated Crosswind Table, found in the QRH and Route Manual

(approved by Bombardier)

270
Q

CRFI - YTZ Operations

1) Operations are restricted when:
(refer to route manual)

2) Operations are prohibited when:

A

1) CRFI is below 0.60
a) departures - no tailwind,NTOP/MTOP, FL15, Bleeds OFF)
b) landing - NORM NP, no STEEP if runway is contaminated

2) CRFI is below 0.50

271
Q

Q400 Representative Surface

A

Outboard Roll Spoilers

check within 5 minutes of starting the take-off roll

272
Q

WET RUNWAY (Bombardier definition)

A

when there is sufficient moisture on the runway

surface to cause it to appear reflective, but without significant areas of standing water

273
Q

Q400 Aspect Ratio

A

12.806

Return to Service Refresher (1 decks)

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