fle5

Question 1

Which of the following biomolecules lower the energy of activation of a biological reaction?

I. DNA polymerase
II. DNA ligase
III. Telomerase
A) I only B) II only C) I and II only D) I, II, and III

Answer 1

D- they are all enzymes so they all lower activation energy

Question 2

When considering a double-reciprocal Lineweaver-Burk plot, the binding affinity between the substrate and the enzyme is best approximated by the magnitude of the:
A) x-intercept. B) y-intercept. C) inverse of the x-intercept. D) inverse of the slope.

Answer 2

c: x intercept is 1/Km so binding affinity= Km = invert of x intercept.

Question 3

If the plasma membrane of a human muscle cell is subjected to detergents and enzymatic hydrolysis, which monomeric components will be found in the resulting solution?

  I. Amino acids
 II. Fatty acids
III. Nucleic acids
IV. Carbohydrates
A) II only B) I and II only C) I, II, and IV only D) I, II, III, IV

Answer 3

C

Question 4

Which enzyme does NOT catalyze an irreversible step of glycolysis in cancer cells?
A) Hexokinase B) Phosphoglycerate kinase

C) Phosphofructokinase D) Pyruvate kinase

Answer 4

Answer B is correct. There are three reactions in glycolysis that have such large negative DG values in the forward direction that they are essentially irreversible. These are the three steps that must be bypassed using alternative reactions and enzymes during gluconeogenesis (the synthesis of glucose from pyruvate, an approximate reversal of glycolysis). The three irreversible steps are catalyzed by: hexokinase (a.k.a., glucokinase), phosphofructokinase, and pyruvate kinase. Therefore, Answers A, C and D are incorrect because these are enzymes that catalyze irreversible steps of glycolysis. Answer B, phosphoglycerate kinase, catalyzes the conversion of 1,3-bisphosphoglycerate to 3-phosphoglycerate. This is a step of glycolysis, but it is reversible. Therefore, Answer B is the correct answer to this NOT question type.

Question 5

what are the irreversible step of glycolysis in cells?

Answer 5

hexokinase, phosphofructokinase and pyruvate kinase

Question 6

what is geometry of atom surrounded by 6 bonds?

Answer 6

octahedral

Question 7

Two wires with opposing current are placed near one another. In this arrangement, the magnitude of the:
A) force created by the magnetic fields will be zero.
B) force created by the magnetic fields will be at a maximum. C) magnetic field, B, will cause the wires to attract one another. D) magnetic field, B, will cause the wires to repel one another.

Answer 7

D

Question 8

The strength of the dipole moment generated in a polar-covalent molecule can be calculated using which two variables?
A) Charge and atomic size 
B) Electronegativity and atomic size 
C) Charge and distance
D) Electronegativity and atomic number

Answer 8

Answer C is the correct choice. Option C is the only answer that takes distance into account. The relevant formula for calculating dipole moment is helpful, but not necessary to answer the question: µ = qr, where µ is the dipole moment, q is the charge, and r is the distance. The strength of the dipole is a function of both the charge and the distance across which that charge acts. Answer A should be eliminated because it is only half right: the charge is used directly to calculate the strength of the dipole, but atomic size is not. Answers B and D can be eliminated because electronegativity is a measure of the tendency of an atom to attract a bonding pair of electrons. This does not appear in the relevant equation and cannot be used to calculate the dipole moment.

Question 9

London dispersion forces are the major contributor to intermolecular attractions between:
A) nonpolar molecules.
B) polar-covalent molecules. 
C) ions. 
D) hydrogen bonds.

Answer 9

Answer A is correct. London dispersion forces, considered a part of van der Waals forces, are the weakest type of intermolecular interaction. They occur between any two molecules that are very close to one another, but are most relevant to nonpolar molecules because they are the only intermolecular attraction experienced by nonpolar molecules. London dispersion forces occur due to instantaneous induced dipoles resulting from short-term changes in the location of electrons. For this reason, they are sometimes called “induced dipole-induced dipole” interactions. Answer B describes a dipole-dipole intermolecular interaction. Answer C is an example of an ionic interaction. Answer D, hydrogen bonding, occurs when the dipole created by a hydrogen bound to an electronegative atom (F, O or N) causes a strong intermolecular attraction.

Question 10

When antidiuretic hormone is acting on the collecting tubules of the kidney in response to acute dehydration, the osmolarity of the ascending limb of the Loop of Henle will:
A) remain constant. B) increase. C) decrease. D) oscillate

Answer 10

Choice C is the correct answer. When a person becomes dehydrated, the brain secretes antidiuretic hormone (ADH), which increases water reabsorption at the collecting ducts. Reabsorption occurs through pores (aquaporin proteins) that are opened up in the collecting ducts, allowing water to pass into the medulla. As a result, there will be more water in the medulla. A more dilute medulla shifts the equilibrium between the filtrate in the ascending limb and the medulla, driving more ions out of the ascending limb (Note: recall that the ascending limb is impermeable to water, but highly permeable to ions). This increased removal of ions decreases the osmolarity of the filtrate in the ascending limb, so choice C is the correct answer.

Question 11

what type of saccharides can humans not digest?

Answer 11

B linked saccharides CANNOT be digest by humans

saccharides are sugars (mono, poly, saturated,..)

Question 12

Facilitated diffusion through the plasma membrane moves a substance:
A) down its concentration gradient and requires energy. B) down its concentration gradient and releases energy.

Answer 12

B

Question 13

The primary role of oxygen in aerobic cellular respiration is to:
A) oxidize glucose. B) enter glycolysis. C) donate electrons to the electron transport chain. D) accept electrons from the electron transport chain.

Answer 13

D - so that protons can be pumped out

Question 14

Ribosomes bound to the rough endoplasmic reticulum:
A) are enclosed within a dual bilayer membrane. B) synthesize proteins primarily used inside the cell. C) are identical to ribosomes found in prokaryotic cells. D) synthesize hydrolytic enzymes and secretory proteins.

Answer 14

Answer D is correct. Ribosomes bound to the rough endoplasmic reticulum in eukaryotic cells synthesize hydrolytic enzymes that function in the lysosomes, or proteins that are secreted by the cell.

Question 15

Which of the following is a potential acetylation agent found in the Tip60 active site?
A) Acetate ion B) Acetamide C) Acetic anhydride
D) Acetyl-CoA

Answer 15

D- The question asks for an acetylating agent that could be found in the active site of Tip60. Acetic anhydride (Answer C) is an acetylating agent used in laboratory organic synthesis, but is not a natural biological molecule in vivo. Acetamide (Answer B) contains an amide linkage that is stable due to resonance and therefore unlikely to donate an acetyl group. Acetate ion (Answer A) is an end product of metabolism and is not used as an acetylating agent. Acetyl-CoA (Answer D) is commonly used by enzymes in the body for acetylation reactions as the carbonyl carbon is easily attacked by the nucleophilic nitrogen of an amino acid residue.

Question 16

For an enzyme catalyzed reaction, initial reaction velocity is linearly related to which variable?
A) Solution pH B) Enzyme concentration
C) Temperature D) Substrate concentration

Answer 16

Answer B is correct. The relationship between product formation and initial enzyme concentration is proportional, while the relationship between product formation and initial substrate concentration is not. In the Michaelis-Menten Equation, the numerator includes a product of [S] and the denominator includes a sum of [S], which means the relationship between velocity and [S] cannot be linear.

This eliminates Answer D. Enzyme activity has a maximum pH below and above which activity drops, eliminating Answer A. Enzyme activity has a maximum temperature below and above which activity drops, eliminating Answer C. Furthermore, enzymes quickly become denatured at elevated temperatures. Answer D is incorrect because, as the substrate concentration increases, the initial reaction velocity levels off. Students should be familiar with the common graph of V0 vs [S], which is hyperbolic, not linear. It approaches an asymptote at Vmax.

Question 17

During DNA replication, which enzyme removes RNA nucleotides from the primer and adds equivalent DNA nucleotides to the 3’ end of Okazaki fragments?
A) Helices B) Primase C) Ligase D) DNA polymerase

Answer 17

D

Question 18

In a certain species of mice, black skin (B) is dominant to albino skin (b) and a long tail (L) is dominant to a short tail (l). Given this information, which mating will produce only heterozygous offspring?
A) BBll x bbLL
B) BbLl x BbLl 
C) bbll x bbLL 
D) BBLL x BBll

Answer 18

Answer A is correct. For the cross shown in Answer A, at the B locus, all progeny would be Bb, which is heterozygous, and at the L locus all progeny would be Ll, which is also heterozygous. Answer B can be eliminated because Bb x Bb would produce ¼ BB, ½ Bb, and ¼ bb. Therefore, only one-half of the progeny would be heterozygous at that locus. Answer C can be eliminated because all progeny would be bb, which is homozygous, not heterozygous. Answer D can be eliminated because all progeny would be BB which is also homozygous, not heterozygous.

Question 19

After leaving the stomach, in which order does food travel through the regions of the small intestine?

Answer 19

Duodenum → jejunum → ileum

Question 20

From which structure in a human cell do functional ribosomes originate?
A) Endoplasmic reticulum B) Mitochondria C) Golgi apparatus D) Nucleolus

Answer 20

D

Question 21

Which adult tissue is embryologically derived from the ectoderm?
A) Gastrointestinal epithelium B) Sensory epithelium
C) Peritoneal membrane D) Nuclear membrane

Answer 21

Answer B is correct. The sensory epithelium of the eyes, ears, and nose, along with all of the major structures of the brain, spinal cord, and peripheral nervous system, are derived from the ectoderm. For future reference, a few counterintuitive ectoderm structures students may not recognize include the hair and nails, the subcutaneous glands, and the enamel of the teeth. Answer A is false because gastrointestinal epithelium is derived from the endoderm. The endoderm also gives rise to a few epithelial linings students may not recognize, such as respiratory epithelium, the linings of the urinary bladder and urethra, and the epithelial cells that surround the tympanic cavity and auditory tube. The liver and pancreas are also derived from endoderm, though many students mistakenly remember these organs as mesoderm; usually because most simplified models for remembering germ layers suggest that the “organs” come from the mesoderm. Answer C is false because the peritoneum and most of the major organs are derived from mesoderm. Answer D is false because the nuclear membrane is a cell-level structure, not a tissue.

Question 22

A molecular biologist plans to amplify the human OPG gene using the polymerase chain reaction (PCR). What information will allow this biologist to establish the correct elongation time, and to design the correct forward and reverse primers?
A) The length of the OPG protein.
B) The amino acid sequence of the OPG protein.
C) The length and nucleotide sequence of the OPG gene.
D) The location of the promoter region in the OPG gene.

Answer 22

Choice C is correct. In order to design an effective PCR strategy, two pieces of information are required. First, one must know the length of the gene to be amplified so that the correct elongation time can be determined. Second, one must know the nucleotide sequence of the primer region in order to design forward and reverse primers. These primers must be complementary to the 3’ ends of both strands for the region being targeted. The first step of PCR is to melt the DNA, creating two single strands. The DNA is then cooled and these primers anneal to their intended complementary nucleotide sequence. This allows DNA polymerase to copy only those segments. The polymerase will not copy other segments because it requires a primer. These facts best match Answer C. Answers A and B can be eliminated because they both reference the protein produced by the OPG gene. No information is needed about the protein product produced from the gene. Answer D is false because the location of the promoter region is not necessary information for PCR.

Question 23

Which neurological condition is associated with significant disruptions of memory?
A) Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis B) Korsakoff’s syndrome
C) Multiple sclerosis D) Parkinson’s disease

Answer 23

B- The correct answer is B. Korsakoff’s syndrome is characterized by profound memory disruption and is often associated with excessive use of alcohol. A is incorrect. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis, also known as Lou Gehrig’s disease, is a fatal disease process in which nerves that control voluntary muscles degenerate. C is incorrect. Multiple sclerosis is an autoimmune disorder in which the myelin sheath of axons in the central nervous system degenerate. D is incorrect. Parkinson’s disease is a neurodegenerative disorder characterized by loss of voluntary movement as a function of degeneration of dopaminergic projections from the substantia nigra to the basal ganglia.

Question 24

Freud suggested that individuals engage in motivated forgetting of information that evokes significant anxiety. Which Freudian ego defense mechanism best fits this description?
A) Projection B) Reaction formation C) Regression
D) Repression

Answer 24

Choice D is correct. Repression occurs when uncomfortable thoughts are pushed outside of conscious awareness. Answer A is incorrect because projection involves putting one’s own anxieties onto another person. Answer B is incorrect because reaction formation occurs when a person acts in ways that are opposite to their true desires or thoughts. Finally, Answer C is incorrect because regression occurs when an individual reverts to childlike patterns of behavior when experiencing anxiety.

Question 25

what is prevalence of anxiety, schizophrenia and depression in US?

Answer 25

seize - 1%
anxiety - 18%
depression 10%

Question 26

Which of the following indications are positive symptoms of schizophrenia?

  I. Flat affect
 II. Anhedonia
III. Disorganized thought
IV. Hallucinations
A) I and II only B) I and IV only C) III and IV only

Answer 26

C- positive affects only

I and II (lack of empathy)- negative

Question 27

Individuals who use excessive amounts of cocaine often experience psychotic-like episodes which include hallucinations and delusional thinking. Given the neurotransmitter system associated with schizophrenia, cocaine most likely has which pharmacological effect?
A) Glutamate agonist. B) GABA antagonist. C) Dopamine agonist. D) Opioid antagonist.

Answer 27

c- Choice C is correct. Positive symptoms of schizophrenia are related to increased levels of dopamine activity. Given that cocaine produces these symptoms, we would expect this drug to agonize dopamine neurotransmission. A is incorrect. There is some evidence to suggest that glutamate levels are lower in individuals suffering from schizophrenia, although this observation is certainly less well-known than the link between dopamine and schizophrenia. However, a glutamate agonist would not be expected to bring on psychotic episodes. B is incorrect. GABA is the primary inhibitory neurotransmitter in the central nervous system. A GABA antagonist might act as a stimulant, but it would not be expected to bring on psychotic episodes. D is incorrect. Opioid antagonists would not be expected to bring on psychotic episodes.

Question 28

A patient has the physical symptoms of acute appendicitis, and reports extreme anxiety that his appendix is about to rupture. However, his doctors verify that he does not have appendicitis or any other medical condition. Following consultation with a psychiatrist, the patient is most likely to be diagnosed with:
A) illness anxiety disorder. B) conversion disorder. C) somatic schizophrenia. D) somatic symptom disorder.

Answer 28

D

a- hypochondriac but questions stems specify that there’s physical symptoms

Question 29

In toddlers and infants, which test is most frequently used to determine attachment style?
A) Adult Attachment Scale B) The Stanford Marshmallow Test C) Approach-Avoidance Test D) The Strange Situation Test

Answer 29

Answer D is correct. Infant attachment is tested using the Strange Situation test in which an infant is observed with their primary caregiver in the presence of a stranger, when left alone with the stranger, and when the caregiver returns. Answer A is false because the Adult Attachment Scale (AAS) is used, as the name implies, for assessing attachment types in adults, not toddlers and infants as the question stem requires. Answer B is false because this is a test conducted at Stanford University in the late 1960s to study delayed gratification among children. Answer C is incorrect because an approach-avoidance test is used to estimate the strength of an aversion by making food available in connection with an aversive stimulus during severe food deprivation. If the subject is unwilling to tolerate the stimulus to obtain the food reward even though they are severely food deprived, this indicates very high aversion.

Question 30

If improved memory is assumed to be the result of differences in neurological structure, which brain region is most likely to be structurally different in securely and insecurely attached adolescents?
A) Frontal lobes B) Hippocampus C) Amygdala D) Cerebellum

Answer 30

Answer A is correct. The frontal lobes are most closely associated with executive functions, which include both working memory and attention. Therefore, if securely attached adolescents exhibit superior working memory, and if that improved memory has a structural component, this difference is most likely to be found in the frontal lobes. Answer B is false because the hippocampus is primarily involved in episodic memory formation. Answer C is false because the amygdala is involved in emotional processing. Answer D is false because the cerebellum is involved in motor and sensory processing.

Question 31

what is difference between crystal and fluid memory ?

Answer 31

Crystallized intelligence refers to the knowledge and skills acquired over the lifetime. Measures like verbal and general world knowledge would be most related to crystallized intelligence.

Fluid intelligence is highly correlated with working memory and processing speed.

Question 32

The sociological concept of “tactful blindess” suggests that in a public restroom one should:
A) ignore offensive sounds and smells from bathroom stalls.
B) keep one’s eyes directed straight forward while using urinals.
C) allow small children to “cut in line” in order to use the bathroom.
D) engage in small talk with others while washing one’s hands.

Answer 32

Answer A is correct. Tactful blindness is a term used by sociologist Erving Goffman to explain how individuals purposefully ignore mistakes or blunders in the interaction process, especially those that would threaten an individual’s face. In sociology, the term “face” refers to a mask maintained by individuals that mirrors how they want to be perceived by others in a variety of social spaces. People strive to maintain the face they have created, and are emotionally attached to its maintenance. Thus, they feel good when their faces are maintained and the loss of face causes emotional pain. The English colloquialism “to save face” probably drives from this concept. In most social interactions people cooperate by using politeness strategies to maintain each other’s faces. In a bathroom setting, ignoring sounds or orders produced by others is an example of tactful blindness that allows all players to maintain face despite engaging in what would otherwise be embarrassing or discrediting acts. Answer B may be tempting distractor because its structure suggests a form of blindness. However, purposefully ignoring the presence of another person is not tactful blindness. Tactful blindness refers specifically to ignoring blunders made by others, and the mere presence of another person in a neighboring stall is not a blunder. Answers C and D are both examples of some of the general polite niceties in which most people engage in public spaces, but neither is an example of ignoring another person’s mistake to allow them to save face.

Question 33

Erving Goffman would most likely consider which location in a doctor’s office to be the back stage?
A) The waiting area, located behind the reception desk. B) The laboratory, a shared space in the very back of the building.
C) The doctor’s desk, located inside her private office.
D) The reception area, located just inside the main entrance.

Answer 33

Answer C is correct. In order to answer this question correctly, understanding of the differences between front stage and back stage is important. Front stage is the region where actors engage in performance before an audience. Back stage is the region where the audience is not permitted and where the actors find relief from role demands. The doctor’s private desk, located in a private office behind a closed door, would be a back stage area. Answers A and D are both incorrect because these are overtly public areas where interaction with others is frequently required; they are therefore classic examples of a front stage area. Answer B is incorrect because it is described as a shared space. The use of the words “back” or “behind” in referencing the actual geographic location of a space have little to do with the terms “front stage” and “back stage.” A location at the very front of the office could be a back stage area if it were private.

Question 34

In this study, women and men acted very differently in their social interactions with persons of their own gender in a public bathroom. Which sociological concept best accounts for these differences?
A) Socialization B) Feminism C) Patriarchy D) Stereotypes

Answer 34

Answer A is correct. Socialization is the process of learning behavior through social interactions with family, peers, and other social institutions. At an early age, individuals are socialized on how to act and interact with others in a public bathroom setting. In this instance, socialization also teaches people how to act differently based on their gender. Boys are socialized to engage in the distancing behaviors described in the passage, while girls are socialized to view the bathroom as place of gathering and manage personal fronts. Answer B is wrong because feminism, or feminist theory, shines light on social problems, trends, and issues that are otherwise overlooked or misidentified by the historically dominant male theorists and institutions. Feminist theory is a conflict theory that explains many of the gender inequalities that exist due to patriarchy and the oppression of women. The gender differences in bathroom behavior mentioned in the passage are not easily explained using feminist theory. Answer C is wrong because patriarchy describes an ideology that believes that men are superior to women in society. The research presented in this passage does not suggest any contention or inequality, just gendered differences in social behavior. Answer D is wrong because stereotypes are gross generalizations about human behavior or actions. In this case, there is no mention of how women or men are stereotyped, so choice D should be eliminated.

Question 35

what is Gordon Allport’s “contact hypothesis”?

Answer 35

The contact hypothesis is a sociological theory that holds that contact between members of different social groups will help reduce prejudice. According to the information in the passage, “prior contact heightened positive affect” in the sample of schoolchildren who participated in Study 2.

Question 36

One disabled study participant reported to a researcher that, “My boss only talks to me when I am doing something wrong. I don’t know when I am doing something right.” Which construct is most useful in explaining the behavior of this “boss”?

A) Stigma extension
B) Affirmative action C) Epistemic authority
D) Discrimination

Answer 36

Answer A is correct. Stigma extension refers to a tendency to impute limitations to a person’s abilities beyond those of the disability itself. In this scenario, it would refer to the boss’s apparent belief that the speaker needs to be told when they are not performing their job correctly, but that praise would be wasted as the speaker cannot be expected to exceed the limitations of their disability. Therefore, Answer A could be a useful construct for interpreting the behavior of the boss. Answer B can be eliminated because affirmative action refers to preferential hiring of racial minorities or underserved groups. In this scenario, it might be that the boss hired a disabled person with this motive in mind, but a) no such information is given to the examinee so that supposition would be pure conjecture, and b) affirmative action would not explain the pattern of criticism described in the question stem. Therefore, Answer B is not a good choice. Answer C is incorrect because epistemic authority refers to situations in which only people with certain kinds of experience can claim privileged knowledge about what it is like to have that experience. In this scenario, it is the speaker who claims epistemic authority, not the boss. Answer D is false because discrimination refers to acts of exclusion against certain classes of persons. In this scenario we only know that the boss is not particularly kind to the speaker and it is not possible to know if this behavior is discriminatory. Therefore, Answer D is not a good choice. Answer A is likely the most useful construct for explaining the boss’s behavior.

Question 37

Which hypothetical research finding, if assumed to be true, would most weaken the argument that children diagnosed with an Autism Spectrum Disorder (ASD) are cognitively impaired?
A) The same genes associated with ASDs are found to be predictive of above-average performance on a cognitive task in non-autistic individuals. B) The same genes associated with ASDs are found to be predictive of below-average intelligence in non-autistic individuals. C) An individual with an ASD successfully memorizes an entire set of encyclopedias. D) A randomly selected group of ASD patients performs at a slightly above-average level on a standardized cognitive task.

Answer 37

Choice D is the correct answer. If randomly selected ASD patients outperform the averages on a standardized measure of cognitive ability this is direct and clear evidence contradicting the argument posed in the stem. Students may be distracted by the term “slightly,” but this is inconsequential because the stem does not ask for the evidence to be quantified and there is not a better answer available that describes “significant” above-average performance. Answer A is false because it is the non-autistic persons who are performing well. The genes may be shared, showing a link or association of some sort, but the evidence is weak to support what the ASD patients could do cognitively. Answer B is false because it describes below-average cognitive performance. Answer C is false because a single individual performing a task is not evidence of a trend across an entire population.

Question 38

Which Gestalt principle would suggest that a series of raised dots would be more likely to be grouped together if they were presented adjacent to a series of raised squares?
A) Closure B) Common fate C) Continuity D) Similarity

Answer 38

Choice D is correct. The principle of similarity suggests that “like” objects are more likely to be grouped together. Answer A is incorrect because closure suggests that we are likely to see incomplete shapes as whole figures. Answer B is incorrect because common fate suggests that things that move together are more likely to be grouped. Answer C is incorrect because continuity suggests that we are more likely to perceive groups of objects as aligned in smooth, continuous lines or contours.

Question 39

The illustration below is first recognized by some viewers as a pair of human faces, while other viewers immediately see a fancy vase or goblet. Which Gestalt principle is illustrated by this phenomenon?

A) Closure B) Figure Ground
C) Proximity D) Similarity

Answer 39

Choice B is correct. This classic example illustrates the Gestalt principle of Figure Ground. The observer can either see a vase (white figure with black background) or two faces (black figure with white background). It is an example of Figure Ground because what you perceive depends upon what you define to be the background (which is almost never a decision the viewer makes consciously). Answer A is incorrect because closure suggests that we are likely to see incomplete figures as whole shapes. Answer C is incorrect because proximity suggests that objects that are near to one another are more likely to be grouped together. Answer D is incorrect because similarity suggests that objects alike in form are more likely to be grouped together.

Question 40

Suppose the researchers reported that participants got progressively more accurate at correctly identifying when a contour was not present in the random dot display after completing multiple sessions. This outcome would provide the most evidence for which conclusion?
A) Participants’ hit rate increased across sessions.
B) Participants’ miss rate decreased across sessions.
C) Participants’ Type 1 error rate decreased across sessions.
D) Participants’ Type 2 error rate decreased across sessions.

Answer 40

Choice C is correct. This question tests the terminology used in two arenas, signal detection tasks, and the differentiation between Type 1 and Type 2 errors. In signal detection theory, as hit rates increase, miss rates decrease, whereas false alarms increase with a decrease in correct rejection rates. Meanwhile a Type I error is a false positive; it is the incorrect rejection of the null hypothesis, or saying that something exists when it does not. A Type 2 error is a false negative; it is the incorrect acceptance of a false null, or saying that something does not exist, when it does. Since this question establishes that correct rejection rates increased across sessions (i.e., stating a contour was not present in that trial when none was actually there), false alarms, or Type I false positives, were decreasing. Answer A is incorrect because although hit rates likely increased across sessions, we cannot prove form the information provided that they actually did. We only know that the rate at which a non-contour was identified as “no contour” increased. Answer B is incorrect because, like Answer A, we cannot confirm whether miss rates decreased based on the information provided. Answer D is incorrect because this is the opposite error type. A Type 2 error is a false negative. That would be saying that a contour was not present when a contour actually was present. The stem states that participants got better at correctly stating that a contour was NOT present. The only other response option for a situation in which no contour is present is to say that a contour was present, which would be a false positive. False positive, or Type I errors, decreased across the trial, which is why Answer C is correct.

Question 41

The results of this study provide support for the idea that stereotypes can be formed as a result of:
A) viewing in-group members as similar to one another and out-group members as different from one another. B) viewing in-group members as different from one another and out-group members as similar to one another.
C) becoming friends with a member of an out-group.
D) having indirect contact with a member of an out-group.

Answer 41

Choice B is correct because stereotypes develop when all out-group members are viewed as similar (known as outgroup homogeneity). Rather than considering each individual based on merit or personal characteristics, it is easy to apply a stereotype to everyone in the group. We tend to see members of our own group, or in-group as different from one another relative to out-groups. Thus, response A is incorrect. Becoming friends with an out-group member and becoming more familiar with their individual characteristics would decrease the likelihood of stereotyping. Similarly, knowing that a friend in your in-group is a friend of an out-group member (termed indirect contact) would also reduce stereotypes. Therefore, answers C and D should be eliminated because neither scenario is likely to lead to the formation of stereotypes.

Question 42

A man always feeds his cat a high-end brand of cat food that comes in a can. He uses an electric can opener to open these cans. He has discovered that when he uses the can opener to open other types of cans his cat runs into the kitchen expecting to be fed. The cat has been:
Aclassically conditioned to respond to the sound of the can opener.

B) operantly conditioned to respond to the sound of the can opener. C) trained to respond to the sound of the can opener, which is an unconditioned stimulus. D) trained to respond to the sound of the can opener, which is a fixed ratio reinforcement schedule.

Answer 42

Answer A is the correct answer. Classical conditioning occurs when a behavior automatically occurs due to the pairing of an unconditioned stimulus (such as food) with a conditioned stimulus (such as the ringing of a bell or the sound of a can opener). In this case, the cat has paired the sound of the can opener with food and eventually has the same immediate reaction to the sound of the can opener alone as it would automatically have to food itself. Answer B is incorrect because operant conditioning is a type of learning that changes behavior through the use of rewards and punishments that increase or decrease behavior. Answer C is false because the sound of the can opener is a conditioned stimulus, not an unconditioned stimulus. Answer D is false because no information is given about reinforcement schedules. The sound of the can opener is a conditioned stimulus, not a reward. Therefore, even if the sound was made on some sort of schedule, it would not be an example of a reinforcement schedule.

Question 43

A drug that blocks ion channels will impede the normal function of which cellular structures?

I. Mitochondria
II. Neuron cell membrane
III. Muscle cell sarcoplasmic reticulum
A) I only B) II only C) II and III only D) I, II, and III

Answer 43

D
Choice D is correct. Statements I, II and III are all correct. Statement I is true because the inner mitochondrial membrane contains the ATP synthase enzyme, a specialized ion channel that allows H+ ions to pass from the intermembrane space to the mitochondrial matrix while using the associated energy to produce ATP. Statement II is true because sodium and potassium ion channels are pivotal to the creation and propagation of action potentials in neurons. Statement III is true because the sarcoplasmic reticulum contains calcium channels that regulate the release of calcium during muscle contraction. Because all three statements are accurate, answers A, B and C must be eliminated.