Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

QA > flashcards_QA > Flashcards

flashcards_QA

1
Q

Q1: What is the main objective of software testing

A

A1: To identify and fix defects in the software to ensure it meets the specified requirements and quality standards.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Q2: What are the main types of software testing

A

A2: Unit testing_ integration testing_ system testing_ acceptance testing_ performance testing_ security testing_ and regression testing.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Q3: What is unit testing

A

A3: Testing individual components or modules of a software application in isolation to ensure they work correctly.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Q4: What is integration testing

A

A4: Testing the interaction between integrated units/modules to ensure they work together as expected.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Q5: What is system testing

A

A5: Testing the complete and integrated software system to verify that it meets specified requirements.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Q6: What is acceptance testing

A

A6: Testing conducted to determine if the software meets the business requirements and is ready for deployment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Q7: What is regression testing

A

A7: Re-testing software after changes to ensure that new defects have not been introduced and existing functionality is not broken.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Q8: What are the main stages of the Software Testing Life Cycle (STLC)

A

A8: Requirement analysis_ test planning_ test case development_ environment setup_ test execution_ and test closure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Q9: What is a test plan

A

A9: A document outlining the scope_ approach_ resources_ and schedule for testing activities.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Q10: What is a test case

A

A10: A set of conditions and steps to be executed to verify a particular feature or functionality of the software.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Q11: What is a defect or bug

A

A11: A flaw or error in the software that causes it to produce incorrect or unexpected results.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Q12: What is black-box testing

A

A12: Testing the software without knowledge of its internal code structure_ focusing on inputs and outputs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Q13: What is white-box testing

A

A13: Testing the internal structures or workings of an application_ also known as structural testing.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Q14: What is exploratory testing

A

A14: An informal testing approach where testers actively explore the application to find defects without predefined test cases.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Q15: What is automated testing

A

A15: Using software tools to execute pre-scripted tests on the software application before it is released into production.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Q16: What is Active Directory

A

A16: A directory service developed by Microsoft for Windows domain networks_ providing authentication and authorization.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Q17: What is a domain controller

A

A17: A server in an Active Directory domain that responds to security authentication requests (logging in_ checking permissions).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Q18: What is Group Policy

A

A18: A feature of Windows Server that allows administrators to implement specific configurations for users and computers in the domain.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Q19: What are the roles available in Windows Server

A

A19: Examples include Active Directory Domain Services_ DNS Server_ DHCP Server_ File and Storage Services_ Web Server (IIS)_ and more.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Q20: What is Hyper-V

A

A20: A native hypervisor developed by Microsoft that allows for creating and managing virtual machines.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Q21: What is DHCP and what does it do

A

A21: The Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol assigns IP addresses to devices on a network automatically.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Q22: What is the difference between NTFS and ReFS

A

A22: NTFS (New Technology File System) is a file system that provides performance_ reliability_ and advanced features. ReFS (Resilient File System) is designed to offer improved data integrity_ availability_ and scalability.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Q23: What are FSMO roles

A

A23: Flexible Single Master Operations roles are specialized domain controller tasks in an Active Directory environment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Q24: What is WSUS and what is its purpose

A

A24: Windows Server Update Services (WSUS) is a server role that allows administrators to manage the distribution of updates released through Microsoft Update.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Q25: What is Server Core

A

A25: A minimal installation option for Windows Server that reduces the disk space_ servicing requirements_ and attack surface by excluding the GUI.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Q26: How do you promote a server to a domain controller

A

A26: By installing the AD DS role and using the dcpromo command or Server Manager to configure it as a domain controller.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Q27: What is a RODC

A

A27: A Read-Only Domain Controller holds a read-only copy of Active Directory database and is used in scenarios where security is a concern.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Q28: What is the purpose of Windows Server Backup

A

A28: To provide backup and recovery solutions for Windows Server environments.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Q29: What is PowerShell and why is it important

A

A29: PowerShell is a task automation and configuration management framework from Microsoft_ consisting of a command-line shell and associated scripting language. It is important for automating administrative tasks.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Q30: What is a GPO

A

A30: A Group Policy Object is a collection of settings that control the working environment of user accounts and computer accounts.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Q31: What is the OSI model and what are its layers

A

A31: The OSI model is a conceptual framework used to understand network interactions. Its layers are: Physical_ Data Link_ Network_ Transport_ Session_ Presentation_ and Application.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Q32: What is an IP address

A

A32: An IP address is a unique identifier assigned to a device on a network to facilitate communication.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Q33: What is the difference between IPv4 and IPv6

A

A33: IPv4 uses 32-bit addresses allowing for 4.3 billion unique addresses_ whereas IPv6 uses 128-bit addresses allowing for a vastly larger number of unique addresses.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Q34: What is a subnet

A

A34: A subnet is a segmented piece of a larger network_ designed to improve performance and security.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Q35: What is a router and what does it do

A

A35: A router is a networking device that forwards data packets between computer networks_ directing traffic on the Internet.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Q36: What is a switch and what is its function

A

A36: A switch is a networking device that connects devices within a network and uses MAC addresses to forward data to the correct destination.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Q37: What is a VLAN

A

A37: A Virtual Local Area Network is a logical subdivision of a network that combines devices from different physical LANs into a single broadcast domain.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Q38: What is DNS and how does it work

A

A38: The Domain Name System translates human-readable domain names (like www.example.com) into IP addresses that computers use to identify each other on the network.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Q39: What is DHCP and why is it used

A

A39: The Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol automatically assigns IP addresses and other network configuration parameters to devices on a network.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Q40: What is NAT and why is it important

A

A40: Network Address Translation allows a single device_ such as a router_ to act as an agent between the Internet and a local network_ which helps to improve security and reduce the number of public IP addresses needed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Q41: What is a firewall and what is its purpose

A

A41: A firewall is a network security device that monitors and controls incoming and outgoing network traffic based on predetermined security rules.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Q42: What is VPN and what is it used for

A

A42: A Virtual Private Network extends a private network across a public network_ allowing users to send and receive data as if their devices were directly connected to the private network.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Q43: What is the difference between TCP and UDP

A

A43: TCP (Transmission Control Protocol) is connection-oriented and ensures reliable data transmission_ whereas UDP (User Datagram Protocol) is connectionless and allows faster transmission but without reliability guarantees.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Q44: What is an SSL/TLS and why is it used

A

A44: Secure Sockets Layer / Transport Layer Security protocols are used to secure communications over a computer network by encrypting the data transmitted between devices.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Q45: What is the function of a network gateway

A

A45: A network gateway connects different networks_ allowing data to flow between them and translating protocols as necessary.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Q46: What is the function of an access point

A

A46: An access point allows wireless devices to connect to a wired network using Wi-Fi.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Q47: What is bandwidth

A

A47: Bandwidth is the maximum rate of data transfer across a network path_ measured in bits per second (bps).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Q48: What is latency in networking

A

A48: Latency is the time it takes for a data packet to travel from the source to the destination across a network.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Q49: What is a MAC address

A

A49: A Media Access Control address is a unique identifier assigned to a network interface for communications at the data link layer of a network segment.

50
Q

Q50: What is port forwarding

A

A50: Port forwarding is a network technique used to allow external devices to access services on a private network by mapping an external port to an internal IP address and port.

51
Q

Q51: What is a network topology

A

A51: Network topology refers to the arrangement of different elements (links_ nodes) in a computer network.

52
Q

Q52: Name some common network topologies.

A

A52: Common network topologies include bus_ star_ ring_ mesh_ and hybrid topologies.

53
Q

Q53: What is the difference between a hub and a switch

A

A53: A hub broadcasts data to all devices in a network segment_ whereas a switch sends data only to the specific device it is intended for.

54
Q

Q54: What is Quality of Service (QoS)

A

A54: Quality of Service is a set of techniques to manage network resources and ensure the performance of critical applications by prioritizing certain types of traffic.

55
Q

Q55: What is a network protocol

A

A55: A network protocol is a set of rules that govern data communications between devices in a network_ ensuring proper data transfer.

56
Q

Q56: What is a collision domain

A

A56: A collision domain is a network segment where data packets can collide with each other when being sent on a shared medium_ causing network performance issues.

57
Q

Q57: What is a broadcast domain

A

A57: A broadcast domain is a logical division of a network in which any broadcast sent over the network is heard by all devices within that segment.

58
Q

Q58: What is an IPsec VPN

A

A58: An IPsec VPN uses Internet Protocol Security to encrypt and secure data transmission between two or more networks over an IP network.

59
Q

Q59: What is the function of a proxy server

A

A59: A proxy server acts as an intermediary between a client and a server_ often used to improve security_ manage traffic_ and cache data.

60
Q

Q60: What is SNMP

A

A60: Simple Network Management Protocol is used for network management_ monitoring_ and configuring network devices such as routers_ switches_ and servers.

61
Q

Q61: What is an SSID

A

A61: Service Set Identifier is the name assigned to a Wi-Fi network_ used to identify and connect to the network.

62
Q

Q62: What is 802.11

A

A62: 802.11 is a set of IEEE standards for wireless local area networking (Wi-Fi).

63
Q

Q63: What is Ethernet

A

A63: Ethernet is a widely used network technology for local area networks (LANs) that defines wiring and signaling standards for the physical layer and protocols for the data link layer.

64
Q

Q64: What is a traceroute

A

A64: Traceroute is a network diagnostic tool used to track the path that packets take from one network node to another_ helping to identify bottlenecks and routing issues.

65
Q

Q65: What is the difference between a public IP address and a private IP address

A

A65: A public IP address is assigned to a device that is directly accessible over the Internet_ while a private IP address is used within a private network and not routable on the Internet.

66
Q

Q66: What is Wireshark

A

A66: Wireshark is a network protocol analyzer used to capture and interactively browse the traffic running on a computer network.

67
Q

Q67: What is the purpose of a DHCP lease

A

A67: A DHCP lease defines the duration for which a DHCP server assigns an IP address to a client device. After the lease period expires_ the client must renew the lease.

68
Q

Q68: What is a firewall rule

A

A68: A firewall rule is a set of criteria used to allow or block specific network traffic based on factors like IP address_ port number_ and protocol type.

69
Q

Q69: What is load balancing

A

A69: Load balancing is the process of distributing network or application traffic across multiple servers to ensure no single server becomes overwhelmed_ improving responsiveness and availability.

70
Q

Q70: What is BGP

A

A70: Border Gateway Protocol is a standardized exterior gateway protocol used to exchange routing information between different networks on the Internet.

71
Q

Q71: What is MPLS

A

A71: Multi-Protocol Label Switching is a technique used to speed up and shape network traffic flows by assigning labels to data packets for efficient routing.

72
Q

Q72: What is a WAN

A

A72: A Wide Area Network is a telecommunications network that extends over a large geographical area_ connecting multiple local area networks (LANs).

73
Q

Q73: What is the purpose of network segmentation

A

A73: Network segmentation involves dividing a network into smaller segments or subnets to improve performance_ manageability_ and security.

74
Q

Q74: What is a CDN

A

A74: A Content Delivery Network is a distributed network of servers that deliver web content and other digital assets to users based on their geographic location_ improving load times and reliability.

75
Q

Q75: What is a network bridge

A

A75: A network bridge connects and filters traffic between two or more network segments_ making them act as a single network.

76
Q

Q76: What is DMZ in networking

A

A76: A Demilitarized Zone is a physical or logical subnetwork that contains and exposes an organization’s external-facing services to an untrusted network_ typically the Internet_ while protecting the internal network.

77
Q

Q77: What is a packet sniffer

A

A77: A packet sniffer is a tool that captures and analyzes network packets to monitor and troubleshoot network traffic.

78
Q

Q78: What is a network interface card (NIC)

A

A78: A NIC is a hardware component that connects a computer to a network_ allowing it to communicate with other devices.

79
Q

Q79: What is a network socket

A

A79: A network socket is an endpoint for sending or receiving data across a network. It includes the IP address and port number of the target device.

80
Q

Q80: What is a network collision

A

A80: A network collision occurs when two or more devices on the same network segment attempt to send data simultaneously_ causing the packets to collide and be discarded.

81
Q

Q1: What is smoke testing

A

A1: A preliminary test to check the basic functionality of the application_ ensuring that the major functions work and the build is stable enough for further testing.

82
Q

Q2: What is sanity testing

A

A2: A subset of regression testing focused on verifying specific functionalities after minor changes_ ensuring they work as expected.

83
Q

Q3: What is the difference between validation and verification

A

A3: Verification ensures the product is built correctly according to specifications_ while validation ensures the built product meets user needs and requirements.

84
Q

Q4: What is a test suite

A

A4: A collection of test cases intended to test a software program to ensure that it meets specified requirements.

85
Q

Q5: What is usability testing

A

A5: Testing to evaluate how easy and user-friendly the software is_ often involving real users to perform tasks.

86
Q

Q6: What is boundary value analysis

A

A6: A testing technique that involves creating test cases based on boundary values of input domains to identify potential edge cases.

87
Q

Q7: What is equivalence partitioning

A

A7: A testing technique that divides input data into equivalent partitions that can be tested with a single test case to reduce the total number of test cases.

88
Q

Q8: What is a defect lifecycle

A

A8: The sequence of stages a defect goes through from identification to closure_ typically including states like New_ Assigned_ Fixed_ Verified_ and Closed.

89
Q

Q9: What is exploratory testing

A

A9: An informal testing approach where testers actively explore the application to find defects without predefined test cases_ relying on their experience and intuition.

90
Q

Q10: What is alpha testing

A

A10: Testing performed by the internal staff at the developer’s site_ usually before releasing the product to external users or customers.

91
Q

Q11: What is beta testing

A

A11: Testing performed by a select group of external users or customers in a real-world environment before the final release of the product.

92
Q

Q12: What is test-driven development (TDD)

A

A12: A software development approach where test cases are written before the code is written_ ensuring the code meets the requirements from the start.

93
Q

Q13: What is behavior-driven development (BDD)

A

A13: A software development approach that extends TDD by writing test cases in a natural language format_ facilitating communication between developers_ testers_ and non-technical stakeholders.

94
Q

Q14: What is code coverage

A

A14: A measure used in software testing to describe the degree to which the source code is tested by a particular test suite.

95
Q

Q15: What is a test environment

A

A15: The setup of software and hardware on which the test team will execute the test cases_ including operating systems_ network configurations_ databases_ and other components.

96
Q

Q16: What is Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS)

A

A16: A feature that provides single sign-on (SSO) to authenticate a user across multiple web applications over the life of a single online session.

97
Q

Q17: What is a forest in Active Directory

A

A17: A forest is the top-level container in an Active Directory structure that contains one or more domain trees and represents the security boundary within which users_ computers_ and other resources are accessible.

98
Q

Q18: What is the purpose of the Global Catalog (GC)

A

A18: The Global Catalog is a distributed data repository that contains a searchable_ partial representation of every object in every domain within an Active Directory forest.

99
Q

Q19: What is DFS (Distributed File System)

A

A19: DFS allows administrators to group shared folders located on different servers into one or more logically structured namespaces_ improving accessibility and manageability.

100
Q

Q20: What is NIC teaming

A

A20: NIC teaming_ also known as Load Balancing and Failover (LBFO)_ is a feature that allows multiple network interface cards to be combined for redundancy and improved performance.

101
Q

Q21: What is the difference between a full backup and an incremental backup

A

A21: A full backup copies all data_ whereas an incremental backup only copies data that has changed since the last backup.

102
Q

Q22: What is the purpose of Windows Server Update Services (WSUS)

A

A22: WSUS allows administrators to manage the distribution of updates released through Microsoft Update to computers in a corporate environment.

103
Q

Q23: What is a shadow copy

A

A23: Shadow Copy is a feature that allows for creating snapshots of files or volumes at specific points in time_ providing backup and recovery options.

104
Q

Q24: What is the difference between a primary and secondary DNS server

A

A24: The primary DNS server holds the original read-write copy of all zone records_ while the secondary DNS server contains a read-only copy and helps with load balancing and redundancy.

105
Q

Q25: What is a Hyper-V Replica

A

A25: A feature that allows virtual machines to be replicated from one Hyper-V host to another for disaster recovery purposes.

106
Q

Q26: What is the purpose of Server Manager in Windows Server

A

A26: Server Manager is a management console that provides a single interface for managing server roles_ features_ and configuration across multiple servers.

107
Q

Q27: What is DirectAccess

A

A27: A feature that allows remote users to securely access internal network resources without the need for traditional VPN connections.

108
Q

Q28: What is the purpose of Failover Clustering

A

A28: Failover Clustering provides high availability and scalability for applications and services by grouping multiple servers to work together as a single system.

109
Q

Q29: What is BitLocker

A

A29: BitLocker is a data protection feature that encrypts the entire drive to protect data against unauthorized access if the computer is lost or stolen.

110
Q

Q30: What are security policies and how are they applied in Windows Server

A

A30: Security policies define security settings for users and computers_ applied using Group Policy to enforce security standards across the network.

111
Q

Q31: What is a Virtual Private Network (VPN)

A

A31: A VPN allows secure_ encrypted connections over the Internet_ enabling remote access to a private network.

112
Q

Q32: What is Windows Deployment Services (WDS)

A

A32: WDS is a network-based installation service that allows for the deployment of Windows operating systems to computers without needing physical media.

113
Q

Q33: What is the purpose of Remote Desktop Services (RDS)

A

A33: RDS allows users to remotely access applications_ data_ and desktops hosted on a Windows Server from various devices and locations.

114
Q

Q34: What is the purpose of the Event Viewer

A

A34: Event Viewer is a tool that allows administrators to view and analyze log data generated by the operating system and applications for troubleshooting and monitoring purposes.

115
Q

Q35: What is the Windows Server Core installation option

A

A35: Server Core is a minimal installation option that includes only the essential components needed to run specific server roles_ reducing the attack surface and maintenance requirements.

116
Q

Q36: What is a Virtual LAN (VLAN)

A

A36: A VLAN is a logical grouping of network devices that can be managed as if they were on the same physical network_ enhancing network segmentation and management.

117
Q

Q37: What is the role of a DHCP relay agent

A

A37: A DHCP relay agent forwards DHCP requests and replies between clients and servers when they are not on the same physical subnet_ facilitating network configuration in larger environments.

118
Q

Q38: What is the purpose of the Windows Server Backup feature

A

A38: Windows Server Backup provides backup and recovery solutions for Windows Server environments_ allowing administrators to protect and restore data.

119
Q

Q39: What is iSCSI and its role in Windows Server

A

A39: Internet Small Computer Systems Interface (iSCSI) is a protocol that allows clients to send SCSI commands to storage devices over IP networks_ enabling the use of remote storage as if it were local.

120
Q

Q40: What is the purpose of the Print Management console

A

A40: The Print Management console allows administrators to manage printers and print servers across the network_ including deploying and managing printers_ drivers_ and print queues.

121
Q

What is Quality Assurance?

A

It encompasses all activities designed to ensure the software development and maintenance processes are adequate to produce a quality product. This includes process management, methodologies (e.g., Agile, Waterfall), and standards (e.g., ISO, CMMI).

122
Q

What are the key QA practices?

A
  • Code Reviews: Regularly reviewing code to catch errors early.
  • Continuous Integration/Continuous Deployment (CI/CD): Automating the build, testing, and deployment processes.
  • Automation Testing: Using tools like Selenium, JUnit, or TestNG to automate repetitive tests.
  • Defect Management: Tracking and managing defects from detection to resolution.

QA (1 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions