Flashcards from GPT
What is “etymology” in medical terminology?
The study of the origin and history of words, helping to understand, remember, and communicate complex terms.
From which languages do most medical terms originate?
Greek and Latin.
What is a prefix in medical terminology?
A part added to the beginning of a word to modify its meaning.
What is a suffix in medical terminology?
A part added to the end of a word to alter its meaning.
What are six signs of skin infection?
Pain, swelling, redness, fever, throbbing, and discharge.
What is inflammation?
An objective symptom characterized by redness, pain, swelling, and elevated temperature.
Define “chronic” and “acute” in medical terms.
Chronic refers to conditions that are long-term or habitual, while acute refers to conditions that are new and severe
What does “contagious” mean?
It refers to an infectious or communicable disease that can be spread by contact.
Define “etiology” and “pathology.”
Etiology is the study of disease causes, and pathology is the study of disease itself.
What are primary skin lesions?
Skin changes caused directly by disease processes, such as blisters or pustules.
What are secondary skin lesions?
Lesions that evolve from primary lesions or from a patient’s activities, like scars or crusts.
Give an example of a primary skin lesion.
A mosquito bite, which is a wheal.
What is a mole?
A small, pigmented spot on the skin, which may contain hair and potentially lead to skin cancer if it changes in appearance.
What is melanoderma?
Hyperpigmentation caused by increased activity of melanocytes; examples include chloasma and lentigines.
What is leukoderma?
Hypopigmentation due to decreased melanocytes, as seen in albinism or vitiligo.
What are comedones?
Also known as blackheads, these are masses of sebum trapped in hair follicles.
What is acne?
A chronic inflammatory condition of the sebaceous glands, seen in forms like acne simplex and acne vulgaris.
What is bromhidrosis?
A condition characterized by foul-smelling perspiration.
What is melanoma?
The most deadly form of skin cancer, often identified by changes in moles’ color, size, or shape.
What is the ABCDE guide for melanoma detection?
Asymmetry, Border irregularity, Color variation, Diameter increase, and Evolving changes in the spot.
Describe basal cell carcinoma.
The most common, least dangerous skin cancer, appearing as red, pale, or pearly lumps or dry, scaly areas.
What characterizes squamous cell carcinoma?
A thickened, red, scaly spot that may bleed, crust, or ulcerate, often found on sun-exposed areas.
What is diabetes?
A metabolic disease in which the body’s inability to produce enough insulin causes elevated blood glucose levels.
What are the four types of diabetes?
Type 1, Type 2, Gestational Diabetes, and Prediabetes.
Which is the most common type of diabetes?
Type 2 Diabetes.
What are five risk factors for Type 2 Diabetes?
Obesity, sedentary lifestyle, family history of diabetes, age over 45, and high blood pressure.
Name four symptoms of diabetes.
Increased thirst, frequent urination, fatigue, and blurred vision.
How is diabetes monitored?
Through blood glucose testing, HbA1c levels, and oral glucose tolerance tests.
What are some complications of uncontrolled diabetes?
Heart disease, kidney failure, nerve damage, and vision loss.
What is the Oral Glucose Tolerance Test (OGTT)?
A test measuring the body’s ability to metabolize glucose, commonly used for gestational diabetes screening.
What is COPD?
Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease, causing airflow blockage and breathing issues, including emphysema and chronic bronchitis.
How does COPD differ from asthma?
COPD usually worsens over time and lung function rarely returns to normal, while asthma can be controlled and lung function often returns to normal between episodes.
What is Bronchiectasis?
Permanent dilation of bronchi/bronchioles caused by chronic infections and destruction of supporting tissues.
What are the four types of asthma?
Intermittent, Mild Persistent, Moderate Persistent, and Severe Persistent.
What factors contribute to asthma development?
Genetic factors, obesity, air pollution, exposure to allergens, and respiratory infections in infancy.
Name three types of asthma medications.
Relievers (e.g., bronchodilators), preventers (e.g., corticosteroids), and symptom controllers (e.g., long-acting bronchodilators).
How do you find your personal best peak flow for asthma management?
Perform peak flow testing twice daily for two weeks when asthma is well-controlled, and use the highest result as your baseline.
What is the most common type of lung cancer in women and non-smokers?
Adenocarcinoma.
What is Pulmonary Edema?
Accumulation of fluids in the lungs, often due to left ventricular heart failure or renal failure.
What is Bronchopneumonia?
A lung infection starting in the bronchi, spreading to alveoli, often involving multiple lobes.
What causes Tuberculosis in the lungs?
Mycobacterium tuberculosis, leading to granulomatous inflammation, diagnosed via sputum culture and tuberculin test.
What is a Mental State Examination (MSE)?
An objective assessment of a person’s current mental state through observation and interaction.
Name the standard elements of an MSE.
Appearance, Behavior, Conversation, Affect, Perception, Cognition, Insight, Judgment, and Rapport.
What are three clues to poor mental state based on physical health?
Poor grooming, neglect of physical health (e.g., obesity, jaundice), and physical signs of poor self-care.
What might impaired grooming and self-care indicate?
Possible neglect due to mental illness.
What is psychomotor agitation?
Restlessness, pacing, excessive sweating, and signs of high arousal (often seen in anxiety).
What is psychomotor retardation, and when is it commonly seen?
Slowed movements and lack of non-verbal gestures, commonly seen in major depression or bipolar disorder.
How is “form of thought” assessed?
By observing the coherence and organization of thought, with impairments seen in disorders like psychosis.
What are delusions in terms of thought content?
Abnormal beliefs held with strong conviction, not based on reality.
Describe “thought blocking.”
A sudden stop in the flow of thought, often observed in psychotic disorders.
What is the difference between mood and affect?
Mood is a long-term emotional state, while affect is a short-term expression of emotion.
Define true hallucinations versus pseudo-hallucinations.
True hallucinations are perceived as coming from outside the mind, while pseudo-hallucinations are felt to be internally generated.
List five types of perceptual disturbances.
Hallucinations, illusions, déjà vu, jamais vu, and synesthesia.
What is the aim of cognitive testing?
To detect organic brain syndromes like dementia or delirium.
Name three types of time-related memory.
Immediate (registration), short-term, and long-term memory.
What is the purpose of the Montreal Cognitive Assessment (MoCA)?
To screen for cognitive impairments, such as those seen in dementia.
What are four aspects of age-related decline?
Brain volume shrinkage, slower neuron function, decreased social/cognitive activity, and increased brain inflammation.
How does age-related memory loss differ from dementia?
Dementia includes functional impairment affecting daily life, whereas normal aging may cause minor memory slips without significant impact on daily activities.
What are the “Four D’s” that are not dementia?
Delirium, Depression, Damaged Brain, and Developmental Delay.
When should we worry about dementia? (List three signs)
- Memory loss disrupting daily life
- confusion with time or place
- difficulty with familiar tasks.
What is prospective memory, and how is it affected by aging?
The ability to remember to perform planned tasks, which often declines with age.
What percentage of people over 85 are estimated to have dementia?
Around 30%.
What does “insight” refer to in an MSE?
A person’s understanding of their mental state and its impact on their life.
How is “judgment” assessed in an MSE?
By evaluating the client’s recent decisions and their ability to weigh consequences.
Why is rapport important in an MSE?
It predicts the client’s ability to engage and cooperate with treatment.
How is a fall defined?
An event where an individual comes to rest on the ground or a lower level, with or without loss of consciousness.
What are the common impacts of falls on older adults?
Physical injury, prolonged hospital stays, loss of independence, psychological effects, and low survival rates (especially with hip fractures).
What percentage of injury hospitalizations in Australia are due to falls?
Falls represent 42% of injury hospitalizations.
Name five major risk factors for falls.
- Physical inactivity
- muscle weakness
- environmental hazards
- cognitive impairment
- use of sedative medications.
List three environmental risk factors for falls.
- Poor lighting
- wet or uneven floors
- obstacles like cords or equipment.
Who is at the highest risk of falling?
People aged 65+ and individuals with a history of previous falls.
What are the levels of fall injuries?
- None
- Minor
- Moderate
- Major
- Death
- UTD (Unable to Determine).
Describe the symptoms of a hip fracture.
Pain in the hip/groin, swelling, inability to stand, and limited leg rotation.
What is the HEAR ME checklist in fall prevention?
Hazards, Educate, Anticipate, Round, Materials, Exercise.
Name four steps for preventing falls.
Educate about risk factors, make environmental changes, assess after falls, and review medications.
What are two main goals of fall prevention for clients?
Maintain safety and reduce risk of injury.
What are some standard precautions for low-risk clients?
Orient to the environment, ensure non-slip footwear, keep bed in the lowest position, and secure frequently used items.
What interventions are used for high-risk clients?
Raise side rails, place a high-risk label, assess for physical therapy needs, and consider 1:1 monitoring.
How does the National Center for Injury Prevention recommend preventing falls?
Through a combination of medical treatment, rehabilitation, and environmental adjustments.
What is the purpose of the Timed Up and Go (TUG) Test?
To measure dynamic balance and assess fall risk; a time over 12 seconds indicates increased risk.
What does the 5x Sit-to-Stand Test assess?
Lower limb strength and endurance; taking over 13.6 seconds suggests mobility disability.
Describe the 4-Stage Balance Test.
It assesses static balance through four increasingly challenging positions; inability to maintain Stage 3 (Tandem stand) suggests fall risk.
What is the FROP-Com tool?
A comprehensive falls risk assessment tool evaluating 13 factors, designed for use in community settings.
What are the key components of the Falls Risk Assessment Tool (FRAT)?
Falls risk status, risk factor checklist, and action plan for intervention.
What does a below-average score on the 30-Second Sit-to-Stand Test indicate?
Increased risk of falls due to lower strength and mobility.
Why is it important to obtain vital signs from a patient?
Vital signs are critical indicators of a patient’s physical functioning and help identify if immediate medical intervention is needed.
What is considered a normal body temperature
Typically 36.5°C to 37.5°C, with fever defined as greater than 38°C–38.5°C.
