Flashcards from GPT
1
Q
What is “etymology” in medical terminology?
A
The study of the origin and history of words, helping to understand, remember, and communicate complex terms.
2
Q
From which languages do most medical terms originate?
A
Greek and Latin.
3
Q
What is a prefix in medical terminology?
A
A part added to the beginning of a word to modify its meaning.
4
Q
What is a suffix in medical terminology?
A
A part added to the end of a word to alter its meaning.
5
Q
What are six signs of skin infection?
A
Pain, swelling, redness, fever, throbbing, and discharge.
6
Q
What is inflammation?
A
An objective symptom characterized by redness, pain, swelling, and elevated temperature.
7
Q
Define “chronic” and “acute” in medical terms.
A
Chronic refers to conditions that are long-term or habitual, while acute refers to conditions that are new and severe
8
Q
What does “contagious” mean?
A
It refers to an infectious or communicable disease that can be spread by contact.
9
Q
Define “etiology” and “pathology.”
A
Etiology is the study of disease causes, and pathology is the study of disease itself.
10
Q
What are primary skin lesions?
A
Skin changes caused directly by disease processes, such as blisters or pustules.
11
Q
What are secondary skin lesions?
A
Lesions that evolve from primary lesions or from a patient’s activities, like scars or crusts.
12
Q
Give an example of a primary skin lesion.
A
A mosquito bite, which is a wheal.
13
Q
What is a mole?
A
A small, pigmented spot on the skin, which may contain hair and potentially lead to skin cancer if it changes in appearance.
14
Q
What is melanoderma?
A
Hyperpigmentation caused by increased activity of melanocytes; examples include chloasma and lentigines.
15
Q
What is leukoderma?
A
Hypopigmentation due to decreased melanocytes, as seen in albinism or vitiligo.
16
Q
What are comedones?
A
Also known as blackheads, these are masses of sebum trapped in hair follicles.
17
Q
What is acne?
A
A chronic inflammatory condition of the sebaceous glands, seen in forms like acne simplex and acne vulgaris.
18
Q
What is bromhidrosis?
A
A condition characterized by foul-smelling perspiration.
19
Q
What is melanoma?
A
The most deadly form of skin cancer, often identified by changes in moles’ color, size, or shape.
20
Q
What is the ABCDE guide for melanoma detection?
A
Asymmetry, Border irregularity, Color variation, Diameter increase, and Evolving changes in the spot.
21
Q
Describe basal cell carcinoma.
A
The most common, least dangerous skin cancer, appearing as red, pale, or pearly lumps or dry, scaly areas.
22
Q
What characterizes squamous cell carcinoma?
A
A thickened, red, scaly spot that may bleed, crust, or ulcerate, often found on sun-exposed areas.
23
Q
What is diabetes?
A
A metabolic disease in which the body’s inability to produce enough insulin causes elevated blood glucose levels.
24
Q
What are the four types of diabetes?
A
Type 1, Type 2, Gestational Diabetes, and Prediabetes.
25
Which is the most common type of diabetes?
Type 2 Diabetes.
26
What are five risk factors for Type 2 Diabetes?
Obesity, sedentary lifestyle, family history of diabetes, age over 45, and high blood pressure.
27
Name four symptoms of diabetes.
Increased thirst, frequent urination, fatigue, and blurred vision.
28
How is diabetes monitored?
Through blood glucose testing, HbA1c levels, and oral glucose tolerance tests.
29
What are some complications of uncontrolled diabetes?
Heart disease, kidney failure, nerve damage, and vision loss.
30
What is the Oral Glucose Tolerance Test (OGTT)?
A test measuring the body's ability to metabolize glucose, commonly used for gestational diabetes screening.
31
What is COPD?
Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease, causing airflow blockage and breathing issues, including emphysema and chronic bronchitis.
32
How does COPD differ from asthma?
COPD usually worsens over time and lung function rarely returns to normal, while asthma can be controlled and lung function often returns to normal between episodes.
33
What is Bronchiectasis?
Permanent dilation of bronchi/bronchioles caused by chronic infections and destruction of supporting tissues.
34
What are the four types of asthma?
Intermittent, Mild Persistent, Moderate Persistent, and Severe Persistent.
35
What factors contribute to asthma development?
Genetic factors, obesity, air pollution, exposure to allergens, and respiratory infections in infancy.
36
Name three types of asthma medications.
Relievers (e.g., bronchodilators), preventers (e.g., corticosteroids), and symptom controllers (e.g., long-acting bronchodilators).
37
How do you find your personal best peak flow for asthma management?
Perform peak flow testing twice daily for two weeks when asthma is well-controlled, and use the highest result as your baseline.
38
What is the most common type of lung cancer in women and non-smokers?
Adenocarcinoma.
39
What is Pulmonary Edema?
Accumulation of fluids in the lungs, often due to left ventricular heart failure or renal failure.
40
What is Bronchopneumonia?
A lung infection starting in the bronchi, spreading to alveoli, often involving multiple lobes.
41
What causes Tuberculosis in the lungs?
Mycobacterium tuberculosis, leading to granulomatous inflammation, diagnosed via sputum culture and tuberculin test.
42
What is a Mental State Examination (MSE)?
An objective assessment of a person's current mental state through observation and interaction.
43
Name the standard elements of an MSE.
Appearance, Behavior, Conversation, Affect, Perception, Cognition, Insight, Judgment, and Rapport.
44
What are three clues to poor mental state based on physical health?
Poor grooming, neglect of physical health (e.g., obesity, jaundice), and physical signs of poor self-care.
45
What might impaired grooming and self-care indicate?
Possible neglect due to mental illness.
46
What is psychomotor agitation?
Restlessness, pacing, excessive sweating, and signs of high arousal (often seen in anxiety).
47
What is psychomotor retardation, and when is it commonly seen?
Slowed movements and lack of non-verbal gestures, commonly seen in major depression or bipolar disorder.
48
How is "form of thought" assessed?
By observing the coherence and organization of thought, with impairments seen in disorders like psychosis.
49
What are delusions in terms of thought content?
Abnormal beliefs held with strong conviction, not based on reality.
50
Describe "thought blocking."
A sudden stop in the flow of thought, often observed in psychotic disorders.
51
What is the difference between mood and affect?
Mood is a long-term emotional state, while affect is a short-term expression of emotion.
52
Define true hallucinations versus pseudo-hallucinations.
True hallucinations are perceived as coming from outside the mind, while pseudo-hallucinations are felt to be internally generated.
53
List five types of perceptual disturbances.
Hallucinations, illusions, déjà vu, jamais vu, and synesthesia.
54
What is the aim of cognitive testing?
To detect organic brain syndromes like dementia or delirium.
55
Name three types of time-related memory.
Immediate (registration), short-term, and long-term memory.
56
What is the purpose of the Montreal Cognitive Assessment (MoCA)?
To screen for cognitive impairments, such as those seen in dementia.
57
What are four aspects of age-related decline?
Brain volume shrinkage, slower neuron function, decreased social/cognitive activity, and increased brain inflammation.
58
How does age-related memory loss differ from dementia?
Dementia includes functional impairment affecting daily life, whereas normal aging may cause minor memory slips without significant impact on daily activities.
59
What are the "Four D's" that are not dementia?
Delirium, Depression, Damaged Brain, and Developmental Delay.
60
When should we worry about dementia? (List three signs)
- Memory loss disrupting daily life
- confusion with time or place
- difficulty with familiar tasks.
61
What is prospective memory, and how is it affected by aging?
The ability to remember to perform planned tasks, which often declines with age.
62
What percentage of people over 85 are estimated to have dementia?
Around 30%.
63
What does "insight" refer to in an MSE?
A person’s understanding of their mental state and its impact on their life.
64
How is "judgment" assessed in an MSE?
By evaluating the client’s recent decisions and their ability to weigh consequences.
65
Why is rapport important in an MSE?
It predicts the client’s ability to engage and cooperate with treatment.
66
How is a fall defined?
An event where an individual comes to rest on the ground or a lower level, with or without loss of consciousness.
67
What are the common impacts of falls on older adults?
Physical injury, prolonged hospital stays, loss of independence, psychological effects, and low survival rates (especially with hip fractures).
68
What percentage of injury hospitalizations in Australia are due to falls?
Falls represent 42% of injury hospitalizations.
69
Name five major risk factors for falls.
- Physical inactivity
- muscle weakness
- environmental hazards
- cognitive impairment
- use of sedative medications.
70
List three environmental risk factors for falls.
- Poor lighting
- wet or uneven floors
- obstacles like cords or equipment.
71
Who is at the highest risk of falling?
People aged 65+ and individuals with a history of previous falls.
72
What are the levels of fall injuries?
- None
- Minor
- Moderate
- Major
- Death
- UTD (Unable to Determine).
73
Describe the symptoms of a hip fracture.
Pain in the hip/groin, swelling, inability to stand, and limited leg rotation.
74
What is the HEAR ME checklist in fall prevention?
Hazards, Educate, Anticipate, Round, Materials, Exercise.
75
Name four steps for preventing falls.
Educate about risk factors, make environmental changes, assess after falls, and review medications.
76
What are two main goals of fall prevention for clients?
Maintain safety and reduce risk of injury.
77
What are some standard precautions for low-risk clients?
Orient to the environment, ensure non-slip footwear, keep bed in the lowest position, and secure frequently used items.
78
What interventions are used for high-risk clients?
Raise side rails, place a high-risk label, assess for physical therapy needs, and consider 1:1 monitoring.
79
How does the National Center for Injury Prevention recommend preventing falls?
Through a combination of medical treatment, rehabilitation, and environmental adjustments.
80
What is the purpose of the Timed Up and Go (TUG) Test?
To measure dynamic balance and assess fall risk; a time over 12 seconds indicates increased risk.
81
What does the 5x Sit-to-Stand Test assess?
Lower limb strength and endurance; taking over 13.6 seconds suggests mobility disability.
82
Describe the 4-Stage Balance Test.
It assesses static balance through four increasingly challenging positions; inability to maintain Stage 3 (Tandem stand) suggests fall risk.
83
What is the FROP-Com tool?
A comprehensive falls risk assessment tool evaluating 13 factors, designed for use in community settings.
84
What are the key components of the Falls Risk Assessment Tool (FRAT)?
Falls risk status, risk factor checklist, and action plan for intervention.
85
What does a below-average score on the 30-Second Sit-to-Stand Test indicate?
Increased risk of falls due to lower strength and mobility.
86
Why is it important to obtain vital signs from a patient?
Vital signs are critical indicators of a patient’s physical functioning and help identify if immediate medical intervention is needed.
87
What is considered a normal body temperature
Typically 36.5°C to 37.5°C, with fever defined as greater than 38°C–38.5°C.
88
What is the difference between surface and core temperature?
Core temperature is the temperature of deep tissues and remains constant; surface temperature is that of the skin and varies with environmental conditions.
89
How is body temperature measured?
Methods include heat-sensitive patches, electronic thermometers, and tympanic thermometers.
90
What is hypothermia?
A body temperature drop below 35°C.
91
What is the normal pulse rate for healthy adults?
Between 60 and 100 beats per minute.
92
What is tachycardia?
A pulse rate faster than 100 beats per minute, which may be due to exercise, fever, pain, or drugs.
93
What is bradycardia?
A pulse rate slower than 60 beats per minute, often due to rest, heart block, or certain medications.
94
What is a pulse deficit?
The difference between the apical and radial pulse rates, indicating a faulty heart pumping action.
95
What is a normal respiratory rate?
12 to 20 breaths per minute at rest.
96
What factors can increase respiratory rates?
Fever, illness, anxiety, and exercise
97
When is a respiratory rate considered abnormal?
Less than 12 or more than 25 breaths per minute at rest.
98
How is blood pressure defined?
The pressure exerted by circulating blood on the walls of blood vessels.
99
What is a normal blood pressure reading?
Less than 120/80 mmHg.
100
What factors can affect blood pressure measurements?
- Cuff size
- patient positioning,
- caffeine
- smoking
- stress.
101
What is orthostatic hypotension?
A drop in blood pressure upon standing, causing dizziness or fainting.
102
How do you measure orthostatic hypotension?
Measure blood pressure while supine and then after standing for 2 minutes.
103
What is a normal oxygen saturation level?
Generally 95% to 100%.
104
How is oxygen saturation measured?
Using a pulse oximeter.
105
What is the apical pulse, and where is it found?
The apical pulse represents the actual beating of the heart, located at the fifth intercostal space.
106
Why must multiple blood pressure readings be taken before diagnosing hypertension?
Blood pressure can vary throughout the day, and consistent readings are needed.
107
What must always be asked before performing a physical exam?
Consent from the patient.
108
What are the five elements of a physical exam?
- Inspection
- Palpation
- Percussion
- Auscultation
- Assessment of function.
109
How is a physical examination defined?
A complete assessment of a patient’s physical and mental status using systematic techniques.
110
What aspects should be observed during a general physical exam?
Level of consciousness, mood, personal hygiene, general behavior, and any obvious deformities.
111
What should be checked in terms of posture and body type?
Weight, BMI, waist measurement, and posture from different perspectives.
112
Name the four vital signs.
Pulse, blood pressure, temperature, and respiratory rate.
113
What additional measurements are part of the exam?
Height, weight, BMI, and waist measurement.
114
What three things should you look for on hands and fingers?
Temperature, cyanosis, and signs of conditions like Raynaud’s or nail clubbing.
115
What should be checked during an exam of the head and face?
Teeth, gums, breath smell, jaundice, eye deposits, and tongue condition.
116
Name four things to examine on the neck.
Posture, symmetry, masses or scars, and range of motion.
117
What should be checked when examining the chest and trunk?
Posture, symmetry, breathing movement, and any masses or scars.
118
What techniques are used during chest examination?
Inspection, palpation, percussion, and auscultation.
119
What should be noted during an abdomen and lumbar exam?
Masses, lymph node status, and spine tenderness or tension.
120
What is the role of percussion and auscultation in this exam?
To detect internal sounds and conditions.
121
What are the three components of the musculoskeletal system?
Bones, skeletal muscles, and joints.
122
What movements are part of joint assessment?
Flexion, extension, rotation, circumduction, and more.
123
What is flexion and extension?
Flexion is bending a joint to decrease the angle, while extension increases the angle.
124
What is abduction and adduction?
Abduction is moving a limb away from the midline; adduction is moving it toward the midline.
125
What is a normal rating for muscle strength?
Typically rated on a scale from 0 to 5, with 5 indicating normal strength.
126
What is lateral flexion of the spine?
Bending the spine sideways to the left or right.
127
How are joint movements measured?
Using a goniometer for range of motion.
128
What is posture?
The position of the body at a given point in time or the alignment of body parts for a specific purpose.
129
What is good posture?
A position that distributes gravitational stress for balanced muscle function, minimizes ligament stress, and is effective for daily activities.
130
What are primary curves of the spine present at birth?
Thoracic spine and sacrum.
131
What are secondary curves that develop later?
Cervical and lumbar spine, typically around 3 months of age.
132
Name four factors affecting posture.
Bony contours, ligament laxity, muscle tightness, and pelvic angle.
133
Name two main causes of poor posture.
Positional and structural factors.
134
What are two examples of positional factors?
Muscle imbalances and pain
135
What are two structural factors?
Congenital anomalies and trauma.
136
What is scoliosis?
A lateral curvature of the spine that can be structural (lacking flexibility) or nonstructural (related to leg length discrepancy).
137
What is the difference between Varus and Valgus leg postures?
Varus is an inward angulation of the lower leg (bow-legged), while Valgus is an outward angulation (knock-kneed).
138
Name five causes of Lordosis (excessive inward spinal curvature).
Postural deformity, lax abdominal muscles, heavy abdomen, hip flexion contracture, and fashion (like wearing high heels).
139
What is swayback posture?
A posture where the pelvis is tilted forward, and the lower back arches excessively, causing the upper body to lean backward.
140
What is a simple way to check posture?
Using a plumb line to align key body landmarks and assess deviations.
141
What should be looked for in the anterior view of a posture assessment?
Head straight on shoulders, level shoulders, aligned clavicles, equal waist angles, level iliac crests, and even knee positioning.
142
What should be looked for in the lateral view of a posture assessment?
The head should align over the body, the spine should have a gentle "S" curve, and the pelvis should be in a neutral position.
143
What are five reasons poor sitting posture is a problem?
Increased strain on the body, wear and tear on joints and muscles, balance disruption, inefficient muscle use leading to fatigue, and poor spine health.
144
What does the acronym HIPS stand for in postural evaluation?
History, Inspection, Palpation, Special/Functional Tests.
145
What should be considered in a relevant history for posture assessment?
Overuse, neurological problems, pain, muscle imbalances, and leg length discrepancies.
146
Name some technology tools used in posture assessment.
Video analysis, 3D motion analysis, REBA (Rapid Entire Body Assessment), sway measurement tools, and force plates.
147
What do you look for in the posterior view of a posture assessment?
Heel alignment, pelvis level, spinal alignment, and scapulae positioning.
148
What is the primary importance of obtaining a good clinical history from a client?
It forms 80% of the diagnosis and is essential for understanding the client's symptoms and their background.
149
What are the three main steps in the diagnostic process?
1) Construct a thorough history,
2) Perform a regional examination,
3) Formulate a working diagnosis.
150
Define 'differential diagnosis.'
It is a process of elimination using hypothetical deductive reasoning to determine the most likely diagnosis based on symptoms and clinical findings.
151
What are the four main components of a case history?
1) Personal details,
2) Chief complaint,
3) Life factors,
4) Systems review.
152
What does 'LODCTRRAPPA' stand for in history-taking?
L: Location
O: Onset
D: Duration
C: Course
T: Type/Character/Intensity
R: Radiations
R: Relieving factors
A: Aggravating factors
P: Previous episode history
P: Previous treatments
A: Associated symptoms
153
List the 'Seven Primary Masquerades' that can complicate diagnosis.
Depression
Diabetes
Drugs
Anemia
Thyroid/endocrine disorders
Spinal dysfunction
Urinary tract infections (UTI).
154
What is the difference between a symptom and a sign?
A symptom is what the client feels (e.g., pain), while a sign is what the doctor can see or observe (e.g., swelling).
155
Describe the 'Person-Centered Care' (PCC) model.
The PCC model consists of client narrative, partnership through shared decision-making, and documentation of the client's preferences and values.
156
Why is history-taking considered therapeutic?
It builds an intimate bond between the client and practitioner, helps the client feel understood, and contributes to the therapeutic relationship.
157
What is the CAGE questionnaire used for?
It screens for alcohol dependency with questions on Cutting down, Annoyance by criticism, Guilt, and Eye-openers.
158
Why is it essential to document everything during history-taking?
Clinical records are legal documents, and undocumented information is interpreted as not asked or not performed.
159
Name three life factors to consider in a patient's case history.
Diet and appetite, exercise, and sleep.
160
What should be the approach to history-taking?
Start with open-ended questions, maintain comfortable eye contact, and use active listening to avoid leading questions.
161
In the Systems Review, what areas should be checked for potential issues in cardiovascular health?
Chest pain, shortness of breath, difficulty lying flat, racing heart, and swollen ankles.
162
What are 'LOPQRST' components in history-taking for pain?
L: Location
O: Onset
P: Palliative/Provocative factors
Q: Quality
R: Radiation
S: Severity
T: Timing
163
What does 'working diagnosis' mean?
It’s a provisional diagnosis made based on history and examination, which can change as more information is gathered.
164
What percentage of communication is non-verbal?
55% is non-verbal, 38% is vocal (tone, pitch), and 7% is verbal (words).
165
List the five types of body language.
1) Eye contact,
2) Facial expressions,
3) Posture and stance,
4) Gestures,
5) Spatial relationships.
166
How can too much eye contact be interpreted?
It may suggest dominance, disrespect, or intimidation.
167
What does rapid blinking often indicate?
It can show stress, discomfort, or dishonesty.
168
Describe the difference between a genuine smile and an insincere smile.
A genuine smile involves both the mouth and eyes, while an insincere smile usually only involves the mouth.
169
What is the significance of a person crossing their arms and legs?
It can signal defensiveness or a closed-off attitude.
170
How does cultural background influence body language interpretation?
Cultural norms affect eye contact, gestures, and personal space, which may lead to misunderstandings across cultures.
171
How does neurodiversity affect body language?
Neurodiverse individuals may interpret and display body language differently, such as using fidgeting for focus.
172
What can fidgeting indicate in body language?
Boredom, restlessness, or discomfort.
173
Why is understanding personal space (proxemics) important in body language?
Personal space preferences indicate comfort levels and emotional boundaries, varying by culture and individual.
174
What is the first step in presenting health information to a client?
Understanding your audience, including their values, beliefs, and cultural backgrounds.
175
Why are empathy and compassion important in communication?
They foster trust and openness, creating a supportive environment for dialogue.
176
Why should medical jargon be avoided when communicating with clients?
It can be confusing; clear and accessible language improves understanding.
177
How can health promotion be framed positively?
Focus on benefits of change rather than risks, inspiring motivation and encouraging participation.
178
What is active listening, and why is it crucial?
It involves fully engaging and responding to the client, building rapport and ensuring clear communication.
179
How should you handle individual choices in client communication?
Show respect for their choices, supporting autonomy and encouraging shared decision-making.
180
What are examples of effective non-verbal communication in healthcare?
Maintaining eye contact, nodding, and open body posture to show engagement and respect.
181
How do you ensure you're using evidence-based information when communicating with clients?
Base advice on reliable research and established guidelines, which builds client trust in recommendations.
182
What are the eight National Health Priority Areas (NHPAs) in Australia?
- Arthritis and musculoskeletal conditions,
- Asthma,
- Cancer control,
- Cardiovascular health,
- Diabetes,
- Mental health,
- Injury prevention and control,
- Obesity,
- Dementia.
183
Why are NHPAs important to focus on?
They target major health burdens, allowing for focused efforts to improve health outcomes and reduce disease burden on society and the healthcare system.
184
What is the leading cause of death in Australia?
Cardiovascular disease.
185
Which NHPA has the highest disease burden in Australia?
Cancer.
186
Why was cardiovascular health selected as an NHPA?
It is the leading cause of premature death, has preventable risk factors, and poses a large economic burden.
187
What are the primary types of cardiovascular disease (CVD) in Australia?
Coronary heart disease, stroke, heart failure, acute rheumatic fever, peripheral vascular disease, congenital heart disease.
188
What is the Heart Foundation's Tick Program?
A public health nutrition program that labels foods meeting health standards, promoting healthier choices and encouraging healthier food manufacturing.
189
What are the three categories of disease-related costs?
Direct costs (medical expenses), indirect costs (lost productivity), and intangible costs (pain and suffering).
190
What is osteoporosis, and why is it significant?
Osteoporosis is a progressive loss of bone density that increases fracture risk, impacting the health and mobility of older Australians.
191
Describe the Asthma Friendly Schools Program.
A national program helping schools provide a safer environment for students with asthma, improving quality of life and health outcomes.
192
Why is mental health a priority area?
Mental health disorders are the leading cause of non-fatal disease burden in Australia and impose a large economic burden.
193
What is the purpose of the MindMatters program?
To promote mental health in secondary schools through a whole-school approach, supporting prevention and early intervention.
194
What is the most common type of diabetes in Australia?
Type 2 diabetes, primarily managed through diet, exercise, and medication.
195
What program is used for bowel cancer screening in Australia?
The National Bowel Cancer Screening Program, which uses the Faecal Occult Blood Test to detect cancer early.
196
What are some major risk factors for obesity?
Poor diet, lack of physical activity, and genetic predispositions.
197
How does injury prevention contribute to public health?
Reducing injuries, including intentional and unintentional, lowers the disease burden and economic impact on the healthcare system.
198
What distinguishes Alzheimer's from vascular dementia?
Alzheimer's has gradual onset with progressive memory loss, while vascular dementia often has sudden onset due to cerebrovascular events, with mood fluctuations and physical frailty.
199
Define direct costs in healthcare.
Costs that can be accurately quantified, such as healthcare services, pharmaceuticals, and prevention efforts related to treatment.
200
What are indirect costs related to disease?
Economic impacts of disease that affect productivity, such as absenteeism and the need for unpaid care.
201
What is health screening?
Health screening is a preliminary sorting process that identifies people likely to have a condition and separates them from those who probably do not. It provides a probability, not certainty, of risk.
202
Name five common conditions detected through health screenings.
High cholesterol, diabetes, high blood pressure, osteoporosis, and cancer
203
List three benefits of health screenings.
Early disease detection, improved health outcomes, and reduced disease burden on individuals and communities.
204
What are the aims of screening programs?
To reduce mortality, reduce incidence, lower severity, and provide more choices for treatment by detecting conditions early.
205
What is the difference between sensitivity and specificity in health screening tests?
Sensitivity measures a test's ability to correctly identify true positives, while specificity measures its ability to correctly identify true negatives.
206
What are potential harms associated with health screenings?
False positives, false negatives, overdiagnosis, and unnecessary exposure to treatments.
207
Define health promotion.
Health promotion is the process that enables people to gain control over and improve their health, going beyond healthy lifestyles to well-being.
208
Name the five health promotion approaches.
Medical/Preventative, Behavior Change, Educational, Empowerment, and Social Change approaches.
209
Describe the Medical or Preventative approach to health promotion.
This approach focuses on reducing mortality and morbidity through interventions like immunization, screenings, and risk reduction.
210
What is Primary Prevention?
Preventing the onset of disease through actions like smoking cessation and immunizations.
211
What is the Educational approach to health promotion?
This approach provides information and skills to help people make informed decisions about their health without necessarily persuading them in one direction.
212
What is the Behaviour Change approach in health promotion?
It encourages individuals to adopt healthy behaviors to improve health, often viewing health as the individual's responsibility.
213
Explain the Empowerment approach.
A bottom-up approach where individuals identify their health concerns and gain skills to make necessary changes, with professionals acting as facilitators.
214
Describe the Social Change approach in health promotion.
Focuses on reducing socio-economic health inequalities through policy or environmental changes, aiming to make healthy choices accessible.
215
What are some topics chiropractors are well-suited to teach in health promotion?
Alcohol abuse prevention, dietary guidelines, fall prevention, obesity consultation, and spine health.
216
What is the significance of the Ottawa Charter in health promotion?
It emphasizes that health promotion includes social and personal resources, not just physical well-being, and requires multi-sectoral involvement.
217
What are some success stories in health promotion?
Slip Slop Slap for skin cancer prevention, anti-smoking campaigns, seatbelt use, and random breath testing for alcohol.
218
How does health literacy relate to health promotion?
Health literacy empowers individuals to make informed health choices, engage in health promotion actions, and advocate for quality health services.
