Flashcards for Exam 2

starting with "recombinant DNA technology"

1
Q

What is Plasmid DNA

A

Small circular pieces of self-replicating DNA found primarily in bacteria.

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2
Q

What is Recombinant Plasmid DNA

A

A type of plasmid DNA that has been artificially altered to include DNA from another source (such as a gene of interest).

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3
Q

Plasmid traits

A
  • Considered extrachromosomal
  • Approx 1 to4 kilobases.
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4
Q

What are vectors

A

Pieces of DNA that can accept, carry, and replicate other pieces of DNA

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5
Q

What is Calcium Chloride Transformation of Bacterial Cells

A

a method used to introduce foreign DNA into bacterial cells.
- “inefficient process”

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6
Q

Process of CaCl2 Transformation

A
  • bacterial cells are immersed into a cold CaCl2 solution for 30 minutes.
  • plasmid DNA is added, and heat ( 30 secs at 42 C) shock temporarily opens the membrane, allowing DNA to enter.
  • plasmid DNA enters bacterial cells and is replicated and expressed in their genes.
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7
Q

What is Electroporation

A

applying a brief pulse of high voltage electricity to create tiny holes in the bacteria cell wall to allow DNA to enter.

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8
Q

What are the advantages of Electroporation

A
  • rapid and more efficient
  • require fewer cells
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9
Q

With reference to recombinant bacteria, what is “selection”

A

Selection is the process of identifying recombinant bacteria while preventing the growth of non-transformed ones (contain plasmid without foreign DNA)

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10
Q

What is Antibiotic Selection

A

a method used to identify bacteria that have successfully taken up a plasmid containing a gene for antibiotic resistance
- cannot distinguish between bacteria that have taken up the desired recombinant plasmid and bacteria that have taken up a plasmid that has recircularized without the successfully taking it in.

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11
Q

What is Blue-White Selection

A

a technique used to identify recombinant bacteria. Bacteria with plasmids containing the lacZ gene can hydrolize X-gal, turning blue. If foreign DNA is inserted into the plasmid, the lacZ gene is disrupted, and these bacteria remain white.

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12
Q

What and when were the first recombinant human proteins marketed

A

Insulin in 1982 and Growth Hormone in 1985

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13
Q

Technique for insulin

A

inserting the cloned human insulin cDNA sequence into a plasmid. The plasmid is then introduced into bacterial cells, which are used to synthesize the insulin protein encoded by the cloned gene.

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14
Q

What was the source of growth hormone prior to recombinant technology

A

human cadavers

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15
Q

Practical Features of DNA Cloning Vector

A
  • Size: Small enough to be separated from the host’s chromosomal DNA.
  • Origin of replication (ori): Starting point of DNA replication, allows plasmid to replicate independently.
  • Copy number: plasmids per cell; usually low, but have high copy number.
  • Multiple cloning site (MCS): Contains recognition sites for several restriction enzymes where DNA inserts are cloned.
  • Selectable marker genes: Allow selection of transformed colonies.
  • RNA polymerase promoter sequences: Enable transcription in vitro and in vivo.
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16
Q

Why cant you use human insulin genomic DNA for a cloning project

A

genomic DNA contains introns (non-coding regions), which bacteria cannot process.

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17
Q

What are DNA Libraries

A

collections of DNA fragments that represent the complete genome of an organism. “held” in plasmid vectors within host bacteria (ex. E. coli)

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18
Q

What are the two types of libraries

A
  • Genomic DNA Libraries
  • Complementary DNA libraries cDNA
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19
Q

Genomic libraries:

A
  • Isolate chromosomal DNA from tissue of interest and digest with a restriction enzyme to produce fragments.
  • Digest the vector with the same enzyme for compatible sticky ends.
  • Use DNA ligase to ligate genomic DNA fragments with plasmids or adapters/linkers.
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20
Q

Disadvantages of Genomic Libraries

A
  • Inclusion of Introns: Both introns and exons are cloned; most genomic DNA in eukaryotes is introns, resulting in a library rich in non-coding DNA.
  • Search Difficulty: Large genomes make finding the gene of interest challenging and time-consuming.
  • Gene Expression Info: Does not provide data on levels of gene expression.
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21
Q

Making complementary DNA from mRNA

A
  • Extract mRNA from tissue of interest
  • Use reverse transcriptase to create double-stranded DNA from mRNA.
  • Add short linker DNA sequences with restriction sites to cDNA ends.
  • Cut with a restriction enzyme and ligate with a cut vector to create recombinant vectors.
  • Transform bacteria with recombinant vectors.
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22
Q

Advantages of cDNA Libraries

A
  • Represents actively expressed genes from the tissue from which mRNA was isolated.
  • Does not include introns.
  • Can isolate genes expressed under specific conditions in a tissue.
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23
Q

Disadvantages of cDNA Libraries

A

Difficult to create if the source tissue lacks abundant mRNA.

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24
Q

Library Screening - Process of Colony Hybridization

A
  • Grow bacteria with recombinant DNA on an agar plate.
  • Place a nylon or nitrocellulose filter over the plate.
  • Treat the filter with an alkaline solution to lyse bacteria and denature DNA; expose to UV light.
  • Denatured DNA binds to the filter as single-stranded DNA.
  • Incubate the filter with a probe tagged with a radioactive nucleotide or fluorescent dye.
  • Probe binds to complementary sequences on the filter (hybridization).
  • Wash the filter to remove excess unbound probe.
  • Expose the filter to X-ray film or a digital camera to detect the fluorescent probe.
  • Compare the film or image to the original agar plate to identify colonies with the gene of interest.
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25
Q

Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR)

A

A technique for amplifying target DNA quickly.
Developed in 1983 by Kary Mullis.

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26
Q

PCR Process- What components are needed for a PCR reaction?

A

Target DNA, nucleotides (dATP, dCTP, dGTP, dTTP), buffer (MgCl₂), DNA polymerase, and forward and reverse primers.

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27
Q

PCR Process- What is the role of the buffer in a PCR reaction?

A

Maintaining the optimal pH and ionic strength for the DNA polymerase to function effectively.
(Typically contains MgCl2).

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28
Q

PCR Process- What are primers in PCR, and what is their function?

A

Primers are short single-stranded oligonucleotides (18-22 nucleotides long) that bind to the target DNA to guide DNA polymerase for replication.

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29
Q

PCR Process- How is the PCR reaction initiated after adding all components?

A

The reaction tube is placed in a thermocycler, which amplifies the target DNA through repeated cycles of heating and cooling. thermocycler for amplification.

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30
Q

PCR Cycle in Thermocylcer - What are the three stages of a PCR cycle?

A
  1. Denaturation (94-96°C)
  2. Annealing (52-58°C)
  3. Extension (70-75°C)
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31
Q

What happens during the denaturation stage of PCR?

A

DNA is heated to 94-96°C to break hydrogen bonds between the strands, separating them for replication.

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32
Q

What occurs during the annealing (hybridization) stage in PCR?

A

Primers hydrogen bond with their complementary sequences at the 3’ ends of the target DNA at 52-58°C.

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33
Q

What happens during the extension (elongation) stage in PCR?

A

DNA polymerase copies the target DNA at 70-75°C, synthesizing new DNA strands.

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34
Q

What is the result of one PCR cycle?

A

The amount of target DNA doubles at the end of each cycle.

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35
Q

How many times is the PCR cycle typically repeated?

A

The PCR cycle is repeated 20-30 times.

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36
Q

Advantage of PCR

A
  • Amplifies millions of copies with a small amount of starting material in a short period of time.
    -To calculate # of copies - T x 2^N
    N = # of PCR Cycles
    T = represents the # of initial target DNAs
  • quicker and more effective than DNA libraries
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37
Q

What DNA Polymerase is used for PCR

A

Taq DNA Pol - isolated from a species known as Thermus Aquaticus that thrives in hot springs.

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38
Q

Disadvantage of PCR

A

Depends on the design of the primers that match the target sequence. Poorly designed primers can lead to non-specific amplification, resulting in unwanted products.

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39
Q

What does Taq Polymerase do

A

it puts a single adenine nucleotide on the 3’ end of all PCR products

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40
Q

How do researchers use the adenine added by Taq polymerase in PCR products?

A

Researchers use a T-vector that has single-stranded thymine on each end, allowing it to base pair with the adenine in the PCR products for cloning purposes.

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41
Q

DNA Sequencing - What is the Sanger Method used for?

A

The Sanger Method, or chain termination sequencing, is used to determine the sequence of nucleotides in a cloned gene.

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42
Q

Who developed the Sanger Method and when?

A

The Sanger Method was developed by Frederick Sanger and colleagues in 1977.

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43
Q

What components are required for the Sanger sequencing reaction?

A

The reaction requires a single primer, denatured DNA template, all 4 dNTPs, DNA polymerase, buffer with MgCl₂, and dideoxynucleotides (ddNTPs).

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44
Q

How do dideoxynucleotides (ddNTPs) terminate DNA synthesis in the Sanger Method?

A

ddNTPs have a 3’ H instead of a 3’ OH, preventing the formation of a phosphodiester bond with the next nucleotide, causing chain termination.

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45
Q

What is the advantage of high-throughput computer-automated sequencing using the Sanger method?

A
  • more than 600 nucleotides can be sequenced per reaction (using capillary electrophoresis)
  • essential in completing the Human Genome Project
  • uses only 1 reaction tube rather than 4
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46
Q

How are ddNTPs detected in Sanger sequencing with capillary electrophoresis?

A

ddNTPs are labeled with different fluorescent dyes, and a laser scans DNA fragments in a capillary tube, causing each dye to emit light at different wavelengths.

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47
Q

What is the role of the computer in high-throughput sequencing with capillary electrophoresis?

A

The computer collects light patterns emitted by the fluorescent dyes and converts them into DNA sequences, handling up to 900 base pairs at a time.

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48
Q

What is next-generation sequencing (NGS) with pyrosequencing?

A

NGS, such as the Roche 454 system, uses pyrosequencing, where pyrophosphate reactions produce light to sequence DNA fragments attached to beads through emulsion PCR.

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49
Q

How does ATP sulfurylase contribute to pyrosequencing in NGS?

A

ATP sulfurylase converts pyrophosphate (PPi) into ATP, which is then used in a reaction with luciferase to produce light in a luciferin-luciferase reaction.

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50
Q

What is the role of luciferase in pyrosequencing?

A

Luciferase converts luciferin into oxyluciferin using ATP, generating visible light that is detected to sequence DNA in pyrosequencing.

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51
Q

What is the principle of NGS (2nd generation sequencing) using the Ion Torrent PGM? Personal Genome Machine

A
  • Utilizes the release of H⁺ ions on a semiconductor
  • DNA → Ions → Sequence
  • Nucleotides flow sequentially over the ion semiconductor chip
  • One sensor per well per sequencing reaction
  • Direct detection of natural DNA extension
  • Millions of sequencing reactions per chip
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52
Q

What are the key features of 3rd-generation sequencing (3rd GS) using Oxford Nanopore Technologies’ MinION?

A
  • Sensor detects changes in ionic current at nanopore
  • nanopore formed in membrane, DNA or RNA pass through
  • 10+ kb read lengths
  • Error rate ~5%
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53
Q

What is Southern Blotting used for

A

Used for gene copy number determination, gene mapping, mutation detection, and PCR product confirmation

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54
Q

What are Key Southern Blotting Steps

A
  1. Cut DNA with restriction enzymes
  2. Separate fragments by agarose gel electrophoresis
  3. Then bascially follow the steps of colony hybridization.
  4. Using audioradiography or a digital camera, the number of bands will represent gene copy number
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55
Q

What is Northern Blot Analysis used for

A

To study gene expression by analyzing mRNA

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56
Q

What are the key steps in Northern blot analysis

A
  1. Isolate RNA from tissue of interest
  2. Separate RNA by gel electrophoresis
  3. Blot RNA onto a nylon filter, UV to fix onto filter.
  4. Hybridize with a labeled DNA probe
  5. Detect bands on autoradiograph, showing the presence and size of mRNA
    - So it determines whether a gene of interest is expressed ( if binded) as the probe corresponds to it.
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57
Q

How is reverse transcription PCR (RT-PCR) used to study gene expression?

A

Used to study mRNA levels when detection is below Northern blot sensitivity

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58
Q

What are the key steps in reverse transcription PCR

A
  1. Isolate mRNA
  2. Use reverse transcriptase to make cDNA
  3. Amplify cDNA region with gene-specific primers using PCR
  4. Run agarose gel to separate amplified cDNA
    - The amount of cDNA produced reflects the amount of mRNA and gene expression levels
59
Q

How is real-time or quantitative PCR (qPCR) used to study gene expression?

A
  • Quantifies amplification in real time
  • Uses special thermal cyclers with lasers to scan light through PCR reactions
  • Fluorescence emitted by a probe or DNA-binding dye correlates with the amount of PCR product
  • Light is captured by a detector and analyzed to quantify PCR products after each cycle
60
Q

What are the two approaches to qPCR for studying gene expression?

A
  1. Taqman probes:
    - Probes are complementary to target cDNA between primers
    - Contain a 5’ reporter and a 3’ quencher
    - Fluorescent light is emitted when the reporter is excited by the laser and then cleaved by DNA pol, leaving only the quencher,
  2. SYBR Green:
    - This dye binds to double-stranded DNA (dsDNA) during the PCR amplification process. When it binds, it fluoresces, allowing for the detection of DNA.
61
Q

What is Fluorescence in situ hybridization (FISH) used for?

A
  • Used to identify a gene’s location on a chromosome.
  • Used to analyze genetic disorders in tissues
  • Visualize the presence and localization of specific RNA molecules in tissues
62
Q

Fluorescence in situ hybridization (FISH) key steps

A
  1. Isolate chromosomes on a microscope slide
  2. Incubate with fluorescently labeled DNA/RNA probe for the gene of interest
  3. Probe hybridizes to complementary sequences on chromosomes
  4. Expose the slide to fluorescent light to visualize probe binding
63
Q

What is a challenge of biotechnology regarding proteins?

A

Understanding and controlling protein folding.

64
Q

Characteristics of proteins

A
  • Complex molecules built of chains of amino acids
  • Have specific molecular weights
  • Have electrical charges
  • Hydrophilic - water loving
  • Hydrophobic - water hating
65
Q

Why is protein folding important

A

The structure and function of a protein depend on proper folding. Incorrectly folded proteins lose their function and can be harmful.
- Can lead to diseases like Alzheimer’s, forms of cancer, and even some heart attacks.

66
Q

Who described the two regular secondary structures of proteins in 1951?

A

Pauling and Corey described alpha helices and beta sheets; the structures are fragile and hydrogen bonds are broken easily.

67
Q

There are four levels of protein structural arrangements -
What is the primary structure of a protein?

A

The primary structure is the amino acid sequence.

68
Q

What is the secondary structure of a protein?

A

The secondary structure occurs when amino acid chains fold or twist due to hydrogen bonds, forming alpha helices or beta sheets.

69
Q

What are the most common shapes

A

Alpha Helix and Beta Sheets

70
Q

How are alpha helices formed?

A

Alpha helices are right-handed spirals stabilized by hydrogen bonds linking nitrogen and oxygen atoms of different amino acids.

71
Q

How are beta sheets formed?

A

Beta sheets are formed by hydrogen bonds linking nitrogen and oxygen atoms, creating parallel or anti-parallel sheets.

72
Q

What is the tertiary structure of a protein?

A

the three-dimensional shape formed when alpha and beta cross-link. IT DETERMINES THE PROTEIN’S FUNCTION.

73
Q

What is the quaternary structure of a protein?

A

The quaternary structure is a unique, three-dimensional complex formed by several polypeptides.

74
Q

What is glycosylation?

A

post-translational modification where carbohydrate units (sugar) are added to specific locations on proteins.

75
Q

How many post-translational modifications occur within eukaryotic cells?

A

More than 100 post-translational modifications occur within eukaryotic cells.

76
Q

What are three ways glycosylation can affect a protein’s activity?

A
  1. Increasing its solubility
  2. Helps proteins correctly position themselves within cell membranes.
  3. Extending the active life of a molecule in an organism
77
Q

What is an example of a glycoprotein used in disease treatment?

A

Glycoproteins can be used as a new way to target and destroy B-lymphoma cancer cells.

78
Q

How does the treatment using glycoproteins for B-lymphoma work?

A

The glycoprotein is combined with a nanoparticle loaded with a chemotherapy drug, targeting cancer cells and increasing the effective dose while protecting normal tissues.

79
Q

What is a time-tested technology that uses proteins in manufacturing?

A

Brewing, winemaking, and cheese making.

80
Q

Recombinant DNA technology made it possible to produce what proteins on demand

A
  • Enzymes
  • Hormones
  • Antibodies
81
Q

How are target proteins produced in biotechnology?

A

Proteins are produced via microbial or mammalian cell culture in a complicated and time-consuming process.

82
Q

What is a bioreactor?

A

A bioreactor is a cell system that produces biological molecules, typically used to produce large batches of the desired protein.

83
Q

How are cells stimulated to produce target proteins in bioreactors?

A

Cells are stimulated through precise culture conditions, including balancing temperature, oxygen, acidity, and other variables.

84
Q

What happens after the proteins are produced in bioreactors?

A

The proteins are isolated, tested at every step of purification, and formulated into pharmaceutically active products, while complying with FDA regulations.

85
Q

How are biosynthetic corneas used in healthcare?

A

Biosynthetic corneas made from cross-linked recombinant human collagen (produced in yeast cells) help regenerate damaged eye tissue and improve vision.

86
Q

How are proteins used in screening for diseases?

A

Proteins, like monoclonal antibodies, are used to detect early biomarkers of diseases. Example: PSA (Prostate-Specific Antigen) test for diagnosing prostate cancer.

87
Q

What are some industrial applications of proteins?

A
  • Food processing
  • Textiles and leather goods
  • Detergents
  • Bioremediation
88
Q

What is directed molecular evolution in protein engineering?

A

a method used to create proteins with new or enhanced properties by mimicking the process of natural evolution in the lab. It involves introducing random mutations into a protein’s gene,by inducing mutagenic PCR.

89
Q

What is site-directed mutagenesis in protein engineering?

A

Site-directed mutagenesis involves introducing specific, predefined changes in a specific location of a sequence of a protein.

90
Q

Give an example of site-directed mutagenesis application.

A

A company produced bacteria and industrial enzymes that can tolerate high cyanide concentrations, which are normally toxic for most bacteria.

91
Q

What are the two major phases in protein production?

A

Upstream processing (protein expression in cells) and downstream processing (protein purification, function verification, and preservation).

92
Q

What is upstream processing in protein production?

A

It involves selecting a cell to be used as a protein source and expressing the protein within the cell.

93
Q

What is downstream processing in protein production?

A

It involves purifying the protein, verifying its function, and ensuring it is stably preserved.

94
Q

Why are bacteria commonly used in upstream protein expression?

A

Bacteria, such as E. coli, grow quickly, are easy to genetically alter, and fermentation processes for bacterial protein production are well understood.

95
Q

What are inclusion bodies in protein production using E. coli?

A

they are foreign proteins that accumulate in the cell’s cytoplasm, which must be purified.

96
Q

What is a fusion protein?

A

a target protein (the one you want to study or use) is combined with another protein that has special properties, like the ability to stick to a purification column.

97
Q

What are the advantages of recombinant protein production in E. coli?

A
  • E.coli genetics are well understood
  • Nearly unlimited quantities of proteins can be produced
  • Fermentation tech is well understood.
98
Q

What are the disadvantages of recombinant protein production in E. coli?

A
  • Foreign proteins need refolding
  • E. coli cannot fold proteins in ways required for many proteins used in mammalian systems
  • Some proteins inactive in humans.
99
Q

How can bacteria be grown for large-scale protein production?

A

Bacteria can be grown in fermenters (anaerobic) or bioreactors (aerobic).

100
Q

Why are oxygen levels and temperature monitored in bioreactors?

A

To ensure ideal conditions for cell growth during protein expression.

101
Q

What is the role of IPTG in protein expression?

A

IPTG effectively initiates the expression of genes under the control of the lac operon.

102
Q

What role do fungi play in protein expression?

A

Fungi are a source of a wide range of proteins used in products like animal feed and beer, and many species are used as hosts for engineered proteins.

103
Q

Why are fungi valuable in protein expression?

A

Fungi are eukaryotic and capable of post-translational modifications, allowing proper folding of proteins.

104
Q

What types of products are proteins from fungi used in?

A

Proteins from fungi are used in products like animal feed and beer.

105
Q

How are plants used in protein expression?

A

They are genetically engineered to produce specific proteins that do not occur naturally.

106
Q

What is an advantage of using plants for protein expression?

A

plants can grow quickly and produce many offspring, this allows for the large-scale production of proteins quickly.

107
Q

Which plant is a popular choice for biotech protein production, and why?

A

The tobacco plant is a great choice because it can rapidly produce large quantities of proteins once genetically modified.

108
Q

What are the disadvantages of using plants for protein expression?

A

Not all proteins can be expressed in plants, they have a cell wall (hard to extract), and the glycosylation process is different.

109
Q

What makes mammalian cell culture systems challenging for protein expression

A

Mammalian cells have complex nutritional requirements, grow slowly, and are easy to contaminate.

110
Q

Why are mammalian cell culture systems still the best choice for protein expression?

A

Mammalian cells are the best choice for producing proteins that are destined for use in humans.

111
Q

What is an animal bioreactor production system used for in protein expression?

A

for monoclonal antibody production; inject mice with an antigen and purifying the secreted antibody.

112
Q

What is an antibody?

A

An antibody is a protein produced in response to antigens of invading viruses or bacteria, which combines with and neutralizes the antigen.

113
Q

What role do antibodies play in the immune system?

A

Antibodies protect the organism by neutralizing antigens, helping resist infectious diseases as part of the immune response.

114
Q

What are baculoviruses used for in protein expression?

A

Baculoviruses are used as vehicles to insert mammalian DNA into insect cells, leading to the production of desired proteins.

115
Q

How do post-translational modifications of proteins differ in insect systems compared to mammals?

A

The post-translational modifications of proteins can be slightly different in insects than in mammals.

116
Q

When is the insect system typically used in protein expression?

A

The insect system is currently used when small quantities of proteins are needed for research.

117
Q

What is the first step in protein purification during downstream processing?

A

Preparing an extract for purification, which involves harvesting entire cells if the protein is intracellular (requiring cell lysis) or collecting culture medium if the protein is extracellular.

118
Q

How is cell lysis achieved when preparing intracellular proteins for purification?

A

Methods include freeze/thaw cycles, detergents, mechanical methods, and the addition of organic alcohols and salts to disrupt the cell wall and release the protein.

119
Q

How are extracellular proteins prepared for purification?

A

he culture medium is easily collected because the protein is excreted into the medium and can be recovered with a pipette.

120
Q

What is the second step in downstream processing protein purification?

A

Stabilizing proteins in solution by maintaining low temperature and proper pH, adding protease inhibitors and antimicrobials, and using additives to prevent foaming and shearing.

121
Q

Why are protease inhibitors and antimicrobials added during the stabilization of proteins in solution?

A

To prevent protein digestion during purification.

122
Q

What is the third step in downstream processing protein purification?

A

Separating components in the extract by exploiting similarities between proteins to separate them from other macromolecules BASICALLY FILTERING

123
Q

How does protein precipitation work as a separation method in downstream protein purification?

A

Hydrophilic amino acids on protein surfaces attract water, and salts like ammonium sulfate or solvents like ethanol are added to precipitate proteins by removing water.

124
Q

What role do salts and solvents play in protein precipitation?

A

Salts such as ammonium sulfate and solvents like ethanol or isopropanol cause proteins to precipitate by removing water from between the protein molecules.

125
Q

What size-based filtration methods are used for protein separation in downstream processing?

A

Centrifugation and membrane filtration (diafiltration), with methods such as microfiltration and ultrafiltration to remove unwanted debris and separate large proteins from small ones.

126
Q

What is the difference between microfiltration and ultrafiltration in protein separation?

A

Microfiltration removes precipitates and bacteria, while ultrafiltration separates large proteins from small proteins.

127
Q

What is a potential problem with membrane filtration in protein purification?

A

Membrane filtration is prone to clogging, especially during ultrafiltration.

128
Q

What is the purpose of dialysis in protein purification?

A

Method of protein separation that removes smaller salts, solvents, and additives by allowing smaller molecules to pass through a semi-permeable membrane while retaining larger molecules like proteins.

129
Q

How does dialysis work in protein purification?

A

It relies on the chemical concept of equilibrium, where dissolved substances migrate from areas of high concentration to lower concentration through a semi-permeable membrane.

130
Q

When salts are removed in dialysis, what are they replaced with?

A

Buffering agents to stabilize proteins for the rest of the process.

131
Q

What is chromatography used for in downstream protein purification?

A

It sorts proteins based on their size or how they bind to other substances as they pass through resin beads in a glass column.

132
Q

How does size exclusion chromatography separate proteins?

A

It uses porous gel beads as a filter system where large proteins work around the beads and small proteins enter the beads, moving slower.

133
Q

How does ion exchange chromatography work in downstream protein purification?

A

It relies on electrostatic charge to bind proteins to resin beads, where contaminants pass through and proteins are later released by increasing the salt concentration.

134
Q

What are the differences between anion exchange and cation exchange resins?

A

Anion exchange resin is positively charged and binds negatively charged proteins, while cation exchange resin is negatively charged and binds positively charged proteins.

135
Q

How does affinity chromatography separate proteins?

A

It relies on the specific and reversible binding of proteins to ligands, with buffer solutions used to wash out unbound molecules and release retained proteins.

136
Q

What is the advantage of affinity chromatography in protein purification?

A

It shortens the purification process and highly selective

137
Q

What is hydrophobic interaction chromatography?

A

It separates proteins based on their repulsion of water, where hydrophobic amino acids in the protein are attracted to hydrophobic molecules coated on the column beads.

138
Q

What is 2-dimensional gel electrophoresis used for in protein purification?

A

It separates proteins based on their isoelectric point and molecular weight, allowing for the separation of similar proteins from each other.

139
Q

What is the isoelectric point in 2-dimensional gel electrophoresis?

A

separation of proteins based on their unique electronic signature.

140
Q

What is SDS-PAGE used for in protein purification?

A

It separates proteins based on size and mass by adding SDS detergent, which evenly distributes sulfate charges along the protein, making separation dependent on size.

141
Q

How are proteins visualized in SDS-PAGE? (polyacrylamide gel electrophoresis)

A

After separation, proteins are stained with Coomassie stain to make them visible.

142
Q

What is the purpose of Western blotting in verifying protein purification?

A

Western blotting is used to detect specific proteins by transferring them from SDS-PAGE to a membrane.

143
Q

How are proteins detected in Western blotting?

A

Primary antibodies bind to the protein of interest, and a secondary antibody coupled to a reporter enzyme is added. A substrate is then used to visualize the bound antibodies.