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AP® Biology flashcards Biology 101 flashcards
1
Q

(T/F) Photosynthesis occurs in the spongy layer of the mesophyll of a leaf

A

False.

Photosynthesis occurs in the palisade layer of the mesophyll of a leaf.

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2
Q

What are the two types of roots

A

Traproot & Fibrous

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3
Q

What happens when the turgor pressure in cells decreases too much?

A

The plant wilts.

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4
Q

What is a fixed action pattern?

A

A complex, coordinated, innate behavioral response to specific patterns of stimulation.
The sign stimulus/releaser elicits the highly stereotyped behavior that must be completed once begun.

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5
Q

(T/F) Imprinting can only take place during a brief critical period

A

True

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6
Q

In classical conditioning, in order to elicit the conditioned response from the conditioned stimulus, what must be presented along with the conditioned stimulus during the conditioning period?

A

The combination of presenting the conditioned stimulus along with the unconditioned stimulus during the conditioning period elicits the conditioned response later on.

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7
Q

(T/F) Operant conditioning may be used only to make an organism avoid a certain type of behavior.

A

False.
Operant conditioning may be utilized to make an organism repeat or avoid a certain type of behavior, depending on whether that behavior is associated with a reward or punishment, respectively.

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8
Q

Place the following objects in the order in which they exist in the energy pyramid, from the top to the bottom: Secondary costumers, producers, sunlight, detrivores, primary consumers.

A

Sunlight -> Producers -> Primary consumers -> secondary consumers -> detrivores.

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9
Q

What are omnivores?

A

Omnivores are heterotrophs that consume both plants and animals

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10
Q

What role do animals have in the nitrogen cycle?

A

The wastes and dead remains of plants and animals provide the amonia used by nitrifying bacteria to produce nitrites and nitrogen dioxide and used by nitrifying bacteria to produce free nitrogen in the atmosphere.

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11
Q

(T/F) Nitrogen fixation occurs in the stalks of leafy green vegetable plants.

A

False.

Bacteria on the roots of legumes are responsible for nitrogen fixation.

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12
Q

(T/F) Chemosynthetic bacteria do not rely on photosynthesis for survival.

A

True.

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13
Q

What are the three directly biological sources of CO2 in the environment?

A

Respiration
Photosynthesis
Decomposition
of plants and animals materials by bacteria of decay.

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14
Q

Place the following in order of levels of biological organization, from the smallest to the largest:
Biosphere, Community, Ecosystem, Organism, Population

A

Organism -> Population -> Community -> Ecosystem -> Biosphere

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15
Q

What are the characteristics of the population growth curve that occurs more often in nature?

A

The logistic growth curve is an S-shaped curve that plateaus @ a value of K (The carrying capacity).
The max # of organisms the environment can support result of the limited amount of resources.

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16
Q

(T/F) In comensalistic relationship, both organisms involved benefit.

A

False.

Comensalistic relationship: One organism benefits the host not harmed.

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17
Q

What is the principle behind ecological succession?

A

Organisms that live in a given environment alter the environment to make the living conditions less favorable for itself and more favorable for the community that succeeds it.

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18
Q

What are the characteristics of Tundra?

A

Permanent Permafrost, little h2o, near poles, small plants, caribou, polar bears, artic foxes & hares.

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19
Q

Which environment with the greatest diversity of plants and animals?

A

Tropical rain forest.

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20
Q

What type of nervous system do annelids employ?

A

Primitive central nervous system with a brain composed of fused ganglia.

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21
Q

What type of nervous system do arthropods employ?

A

Primitive central nervous system with a brain composed of fused ganglia with specialized sense organs.

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22
Q

(T/F) Coelenterates employ a nerve net as their nervous system?

A

True

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23
Q

What is asexual reproduction?

A

Any reproductive process that does not involve the fusion of gametes.

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24
Q

(T/F) Binary fission (Prok) entails an equal division of cytoplasm as well as nuclear contents.

A

True

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25
Q

(T/F) Budding entails an equal division of cytoplams as well as nuclear contents.

A

False.
Budding is an asexual reproductive process characteristic of yeast in which there is an equal divisio of genetic material and unequal division of cytoplasm.
The daughter cell may pinch off and live independenltly, or remain connected and live as part of the larger colony.

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26
Q

What is parthenogenesis?

A

Development of an egg in the absence of fertilization, resulting in a haploid organism.
ie: frogs

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27
Q

What type of excretory system do annelids employ?

A

Excrete urea through nephridia in skin.

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28
Q

What type of excretory system do arthropods employ?

A

Produce uric acid in the malpighian tubules and eliminate it through rectum.

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29
Q

(T/F) In coelenterates, ammonia and CO2 diffuse directly into the environment.

A

True

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30
Q

(T/F) In Protozoans, ammonia and CO2 diffuse directly into the environment.

A

True

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31
Q

What are the five kingdoms of living organisms?

A 
Monera
Protista
Fungi
Plantae
Animalia
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32
Q

What are the subdivisions used classifying an organism withing a given kingdom?

A 
Kingdom
Phylum
Subphylum
Class
Order
Family
Genus
Species
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33
Q

What is the founder effect?

A

loss of genetic variation that occurs when a new population is established by a very small number of individuals from a larger population

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34
Q

(T/F) Convergent evolution is due to homology.

A

False.

Convergent evolution sis due to analogy

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35
Q

What are the name of the male and female reproductive organs of a plant and their parts?

A

Male: Stamen
-Filament
-long stalk-like segment
-anther
-small sac @ top of the filament
Female: Pistil
-stigma (the sticky surface that catches pollen)
-style (the area the pollen tube grows down)
-Ovary (eventually forms the fruit and contains seeds called ovules)

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36
Q

Where and what type of gametes are formed in male and female plants?

A

Pollen is produced in the anther; the embryo sac forms in the ovules.

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37
Q

How many N are the plant gametes, embryo and endosperm?

A

plant: 1N
Embryo: 2N
Endosperm: 3N

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38
Q

What is phototropism?

A

Phototropism is the phenomenon in which a plant grows toward its light source.

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39
Q

What type of circulatory system do annelids employ?

A

Closed.

Simple circulatory system

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40
Q

What type of circulatory system do arthropods employ?

A

Open circulatory system

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41
Q

What type of circulatory system do coelenterates employ?

A

Diffusion

cyclosis

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42
Q

What type of circulatory system do protozoans employ?

A

Diffusion, Cyclosis

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43
Q

What type of respiratory system do annelids employ?

A

Gas exchange via diffusion through moist skin (Worms)

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44
Q

What type of respiratory system do arthropods employ?

A

Gas exchange through respiratory tracheae which branch extensively through the body. air enters and leaves the trachea via openings on the surface called spiracles.
(Grasshopper)

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45
Q

What type of respiratory system do coelenterates employ?

A

Gas exchange via diffusion through individual cell membranes contacting aqueous environment.

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46
Q

What type of respiratory system do Protozoans employ?

A

Gas exchange via diffusion through individual cell membranes contacting aqueous environment.

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47
Q

What type of Digestive system do annelids employ?

A

One-way, two opening digestive tract

Worms

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48
Q

What type of Digestive system do arthropods employ?

A

One-way, tow opening digestive tract

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49
Q

What type of Digestive system do coelenterates employ?

A

Extracellular digestion in the gastrovascular cavity (Hydra)

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50
Q

What type of Digestive system do protozoans employ?

A

Intracellular Digestion

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51
Q

What happens during the light cycle?

A

Light energy is used to produce ATP via photophosphorylation and photolysis (Splitting of water), while forming O2 and NADPH

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52
Q

What happens during the dark calvin cycle?

A

ATP & NADPH formed during the light reaction are used to fix CO2 into organic material. Light is not required, but the dark cycle usually occurs during the day when the light reaction provides ATP and NADPH

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53
Q

(T/F) Sugars may be synthesized once the light cycle has shut down?

A

True.

The dark calvin cycle can continue without light.

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54
Q

What molecule provides the reducing power needed during the synthesis of sugar?

A

NADPH

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55
Q

(T/F) Photosynthetic organisms use CO2 and H2O to produce carbohydrates, proteins and lipids?

A

True

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56
Q

In what organelle does photosynthesis occur?

What photosynthetic pigment is used?

A

Organelle: Chloroplast
Pigment: Chlorophyll

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57
Q

What structure lets gases in and out of the plant?

What regulars the opening and closing of these structures?

A

Stomates

Guard Cells.

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58
Q

What is the net reaction for photosynthesis?

A

6 CO2+ 12 H2O+ Light Energy -> C6H12O6 + 6 H2O

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59
Q

Describe Convergent Evolution

A

Independent development of similar characteristics by non-related groups.

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60
Q

Describe Parallele Evolution

A

Process whereby related groups independently develop similar characteristics due to analogous environmental pressures.

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61
Q

Describe Divergent Evolution

A

Process whereby related groups independently develop dissimilar characteristics.

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62
Q

when are two populations descending from the same ancestral stock considered to be different species?

A

when they can not longer interbreed and produce viable offspring

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63
Q

What is adaptive radiation

A

emergence of a number of distinct lineages from a single ancestral species.
The different lineages usually result when a group begind to exploit a different niche.

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64
Q

How does genetic drift diff from gene flow?

A

Genetic drift: changes in gene pool due to change,

Gene Flow: changing gene pool due to the migration of individuals.

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65
Q

(T/F) Stabilizing selection maintains a well adapted uniform character in a population.

A

True

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66
Q

How does disruptive selection affect the phenotype of a population?

A

Disruptive selection favors the phenotypical extremes, leading to the expression of two or more phenotypic forms.

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67
Q

How does directional selection affect the phenotype of a population?

A

Directional selection favors the expression of one phenotypical extreme.

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68
Q

What are the 5 necessary conditions for the Hardy-Weinberg equation to hold true.

A
  1. No immigration
  2. No mutation
  3. Large population
  4. Random mating
  5. Genes in a population are equally successful @ reproducing
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69
Q

(T/F) Lamarck’s theory of evolution is based on the inheritance of acquired characteristics

A

True

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70
Q

(T/F) Lamarckian evolution holds true in a number of different circumstances

A

False

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71
Q

Define fitness according to Darwin

A

Ability for an organism to mate and produce fertile offspring

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72
Q

What is an operon?

A

gene that regulates bacterial transcription.

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73
Q

What is an inducible system?

A

requires the presence of an inducer for transcription to occur.

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74
Q

What is a repressible system?

A

repressible system is in a constant state of transcription unless a corepressor is present to inhibit transcription.

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75
Q

Describe the lytic and lysogenic cycles

A

lyric cycle: results in the production of new progeny that cause the cell to lyse.
Lysogenic Cycle: results in incorporation of the viral DNA into the bacterial DNA where it remains inactive.
A lysogenic cycle may progress to a lytic cycle

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76
Q

What are the threw mechanisms by which bacteria can increase genetic variability?

A
  1. Transformation: incorporation of foreign chromosome fragments.
  2. Conjugation: Transfer of genetic material between two bacteria.
  3. Transduction: Virus carries DNA between two bacteria.
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77
Q

What is a retrovirus?

A

RNA virus that codes for the enzyme reverse transcriptase, which uses the RNA as a template for DNA synthesis.

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78
Q

What is a prophage (provirus)?

A

Bacterial virus that has integrated into its host cell genome.

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79
Q

What are the three stages of polypeptide synthesis?

A

Initiation, elongation & termination

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80
Q

What are the three types of base pairs mutations that can occur during the protein synthesis?

A

Substitutions, insertions, and deletions.

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81
Q

What is transcription?

A

process where mRNA is synthesized from a DNA template.

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82
Q

What is translation?

A

process where proteins are synthesized from a mRNA template.

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83
Q

What is an exon?

An intron?

A

exon: coding sequence on a gene.
Intron: non-coding sequence on a gene.

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84
Q

What is a codon?

A

3 base sequence on mRNA that codes for a specific amino acids.

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85
Q

What is an anticodon?

A

3-base sequence on tRNA that is complementary to a mRNA codon.

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86
Q

(T/F) DNA synthesis proceeds in the 3’ to 5’ direction.

A

False.

DNA synthesis proceeds in the 5’ to 3’ direction.

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87
Q

What are the three types of RNA, and what are their functions?

A 
Messenger RNA (mRNA): contains the codons for peptide chain synthesis.
Transfer RNA (tRNA): transports amino acids to the ribosome during protein synthesis.
Ribosomal RNA (rRNA): structural component of ribosomes.
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88
Q

Name the four nitrogenous bases in DNA

A

Adenine, Cytosine, Guanine, Thymine.

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89
Q

Name the purines.

Name the pyrimidines.

A

purines: adenine and guanine.
pyrimidines: cytosine and thymine.

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90
Q

What is the base-pairing in DNA?

How many bonds hold the bases together?

A

Adenine- Thymine (2 H bonds)

Cytosine- Guanine (3 H bonds)

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91
Q

Name three differences between RNA and DNA

A

RNA uses ribose instead of deoxyribose.
RNA replaces thymine with Uracil
RNA is single-stranded

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92
Q

(T/F) Females can express a sex-linked recessive trait.

A

True.

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93
Q

What is nondisjunction?

A

the failure of homologous chromosomes or sister chromatids to separate properly during cellular reproduction.

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94
Q

(T/F) In humans, most sex-linked genes are located on the Y chromosome.

A

False. Most are located on X chromosomes.

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95
Q

What percentage of daughters will inherit their father’s sex-linked gene?

A

100%

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96
Q

What percentage of sons will inherit their father’s sex linked gene?

A

0%

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97
Q

What percentage of sons will inherit their mother’s sex linked gene (assuming a heterozygous mother)?

A

50%

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98
Q

Red flowers crossed with white flowers yield pink flowers. What kind of dominance is portrayed in this example?

A

Incomplete dominance

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99
Q

What is endocytosis?

A

cell membrane invaginates, forming an intracellular vesicle containing extracellular medium.

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100
Q

What is exocytosis?

A

cell fuses with the cell membrane and releases its contents to the extracellular medium.

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101
Q

(T/F) Facilitated diffusion requires energy.

A

False.

all forms of diffusion are passive processes.

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102
Q

Define active transport.

A

net movement of dissolved particles against their concentration gradient with the help of carrier molecules.
ATP required.

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103
Q

(T/F) Active transport requires energy.

A

True

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104
Q

What is a membrane receptor?

A

protein or glycoprotein that binds to molecules in the extracellular environment.

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105
Q

Can small polar and non-polar molecules easily cross the cell membrane?

A

Yes because of their size.

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106
Q

How does a large charged molecule cross the cell membrane?

A

via carrier protein

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107
Q

(T/F) The nucleus is surrounded by a single-layered membrane.

A

False, it’s double layered.

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108
Q

Given: P= dominant (purple) p= recessive (White)

What would be the phenotypic ratio of a PP x pp cross?

A

100% purple

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109
Q

Given: P= dominant (purple) p= recessive (White)

What would be the phenotypic ratio of a Pp x Pp cross?

A

75% purple : 25% white

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110
Q

Given: P= dominant (purple) p= recessive (White)

What would be the phenotypic ratio of a Pp x pp cross?

A

50% purple: 50% white

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111
Q

Given: P= dominant (purple) p= recessive (White)

What would be the genotypic ratio of a Pp x pp cross?

A

50% Pp : 50% pp

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112
Q

Given: P= dominant (purple) p= recessive (White)

What would be the genotypic ratio of a Pp x Pp cross?

A

25% PP : 50% Pp : 25% pp

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113
Q

Summarize Mendel’s 1st Law (Law of segregation)

A

Law of segregation states that alleles segregate during meiosis specifically:

  • Gene exist in alternative forms (alleles)
  • An individual inherits two alleles for each trait, one from each parent.
  • The two alleles segregate during meiosis.
  • if two different alleles are present, only on will be fully expressed.
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114
Q

Summarize Mendels 2nd Law (Law of independent assortment)

A

sties that alleles of unlinked genes assort independently during meiosis

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115
Q

What are alleles?

A

different forms of the same gene they occupy same position on homologous chromosomes.

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116
Q

Define genotype

A

genetic makeup of an individual.

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117
Q

Define Phenotype

A

physical manifestation

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118
Q

Define Homozygous

A

Homozygous have two copies of the same allele for a given trait.

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119
Q

Define heterozygous

A

Heterozyous have two different alleles for a given trait.

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120
Q

Which type of photoreceptor cell is specialized for color vision?
Which type is specialized for low light conditions?

A

Cones: Color
Rods: Night

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121
Q

What is the fovea?

A

are in the retina with high density of cones.

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122
Q

what are the components of the middle ear?

A

Tympanic membrane
Malleus
Incus
Stapes

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123
Q

What are the components of the inner ear?

A

Cochlea

Corti

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124
Q

Which part of the nervous system radiates the body for “flight or fight”?

A

Sympathetic Nervous system.

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125
Q

What are the functions of the parasympathetic division of the nervous system?

A

slows down body and conserves energy.

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126
Q

Which division of the nervous system inhibits digestion?

A

Sympathetic

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127
Q

(T/F) Dorsal root ganglia house the cell bodies of sensory root fibers

A

True

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128
Q

What are the components of hindbrain?

A

Cerebellum
Pons
Medulla oblongata

129
Q

What is the function of the cerebellum?

A

coordination

130
Q

What part of the brain controls autonomic activities?

A

Medulla oblongata

131
Q

What are the four regions of the spinal cord?

A

Cervical
Thoracic
Lumbar
Sacral

132
Q

What is the largest part of the human brain?

A

Cerebral cortex

133
Q

what is the function of the cerebral cortex

A

processes and integrates sensory input and motor response and controls memory

134
Q

What is the function of the hypothalamus?

A

visceral functions such as hunger, thirst and sex drive.

135
Q

(T/F) The cerebral cortex is the relay center for visual and auditory impulses.

A

False.

The midbrain is the relay center for visual and auditory impulses.

136
Q

Which type of neuron serves as a link between motor and sensory neurons?

A

Interneurons

137
Q

What are the two major subsystems of the nervous system?

A

Central Nervous system and Peripheral nervous system

138
Q

What are the components of the central nervous system>

A

brain and spinal cord.

139
Q

What is saltatory conduction?

A

Jumping of an action potential between unmyelinated nodes of ranvier.

140
Q

What happens when an action potential reaches a synapse (in a mammal) ?

A

the electrical signal causes the release of neurotransmitters from the presynaptic membrane into the synapse.

141
Q

what is the function of a sensory afferent neuron?

A

carries impulses from sensory organs to brain and spinal cord.

142
Q

what is the function of a motor efferent neuron?

A

transmits impulses from the brain and spinal cord to muscles or glands.

143
Q

(T/F) In a resting neuron, Na+ concentration is higher inside the cell than outside the cell.

A

False

Na+ higher outside then inside.

144
Q

Do Na+ ions rush into or out of the cell during depolarization?

A

into the cell during depolarization.

145
Q

Do K+ ions rush into or out of the cell during repolarization?

A

out of the cell during depolarization.

146
Q

(T/F) A neuron can conduct during the refractory period.

A

False.

A neuron is unable to respond to stimulus during refractory period.

147
Q

What is hyper polarization?

A

a state where the potential across the membrane is more negative than the resting potential.

148
Q

What is the function of a dendrite?

A

conducts nerve impulses towards the cell body.

149
Q

What is the function of an axon?

A

conducts nerve impulses away form the cell body.

150
Q

What is the composition of a myelin sheath?

A

CNS: composed of the membranes of oligodendrocyes.
PNS: composed of membranes of schwann cells.

151
Q

What protein complex is responsible for the resting potential (-70 mV) of a neuron?

A

Sodium potassium pump.

152
Q

Which two hormones are secreted by the ovaries?

A

estrogen and progesterone.

153
Q

What are the four phases of the menstrual cycle?

A

Follicular phase
Ovulation
Lutheal phase
Menstruation.

154
Q

What is the corpus luteum?

A

Develops from a ruptured follicle in the ovary and secretes estrogen and progesterone.

155
Q

what is a coenzyme?

A

organic cofactor for an enzymatic reaction

156
Q

what are the energy carrier molecules for a cell’s metabolic processes?

A

ATP, NAD+, NADP+ and FAD

157
Q

how do ATP, NAD+, NADP+ and FAD store energy?

A

ATP: high energy phosphate bonds

NAD+, NADP+ and FAD: high-potential electrons

158
Q

What is the net reaction for glycolysis?

A

Glucose + 2ADP + 2 Pi + 2NAD+ -> 2 Pyr + 2ATP + 2 NADH + 2H + 2 H2O

159
Q

What happens to the free energy (delta G) of a reaction if it is catalyzed by an enzyme?

A

The free energy of an enzyme-catalyzed reaction is the same as the reaction without the enzyme.

160
Q

What happens as the concentration of substrate is increased in an enzyme-catalyzed reaction?

A

The reaction rate increases until most of the active sites are filled and then the reaction rate reaches a plateau

161
Q

(T/F) At very high concentrations of substrate, reaction rate approximates Vmax

A

True

162
Q

(T/F) Viruses are obligate intracellular parasites

A

True

163
Q

What is a bacteriophage?

A

virus that infects bacteria only

164
Q

what are the components of a virus?

A

A protein coat and nucleic acid.

165
Q

what kinds of nucleic acids are found in viruses?

A

single or double stranded DNA or RNA

166
Q

what is the function of centrioles?

A

spindle fiber formation during cell replication. found only in animals

167
Q

what is a centrosome?

A

region of a cell that contains the centrioles

168
Q

(T/F) Proteins synthesized by RER are secreted directly into the cytoplasm.

A

False.

They are secreted into the cisternae of RER and then sent to SER where they are secreated into vesicles.

169
Q

What is the function of the golgi apparatus?

A

receives vesicles from SER, modifies them and repackages them into vesicles for distribution

170
Q

What happens to a secretory vesicle after it is released from the golgi apparatus?

A

fuses with the cell membrane to release its contents via exocytosis.

171
Q

which endocrine organ secretes insulin and glucagon?

A

The pancreas secretes insulin and glucagon

172
Q

how does glucagon affect blood glucose levels?

A

increases blood glucose levels

173
Q

how does insulin affect blood glucose levels?

A

decreases blood glucose levels

174
Q

(T/F) too much insulin causes hypoglycemia

A

true

175
Q

which endocrine gland secretes epinephrine and norepinephrine?

A

adrenal medulla

176
Q

(T/F) Epinephrine and norepinephrine return the body to its resting state and increase nutrient absorption.

A

False.

they slow down digestion and increase basal metabolic rate.

177
Q

What are some of the effects of epinephrine?

A

increase heart rate
increased blood glucose level
increase blood supply to brain, muscle and heart
decrease digestion and excretion

178
Q

name the three types of hormones secreted by the adrenal cortex

A

glucocorticoids
mineralocorticoids
cortical sex hormones

179
Q

what is the function of cortisol?

A

increases the blood glucose levels

180
Q

what important mineralocorticoid is released by the adrenal cortex?

A

aldosterone

181
Q

Name the hormones secreated by the thyroid gland

A

Thyroxine
triiodothyronine
calcitonin

182
Q

how do thyroid hormones affect metabolism?

A

increase metabolism

183
Q

how does calcitonin affect the level of Ca+ in blood plasma?

A

decreases blood plasma calcium

184
Q

what hormone does the parathyroid gland produce and what is its function?

A

parathyroid hormone and increases blood plasma calcium.

185
Q

Name the hormone synthesized by the posterior pituitary.

A

none

posterior pituitary stores hormones oxytocin and ADH synthesized in the hypothalamus

186
Q

what two hormones are released by the posterior pituitary and what are their functions?

A

Oxytocin: increases contractions
ADH: promotes absorption of water in nephron

187
Q

(T/F) The Hypothalamus regulates both the anterior and posterior pituitary through hormone secretion and neurosecretory cells

A

True

188
Q

Name all the hormones secreted by the anterior pituitary gland.

A 
GH
Prolactin
Adrenocorticotropic hormone ACTH
Thyroid stimulating hormone TSH
Luteinizing hormone LH
Follicle stimulating hormone FSH
189
Q

(T/F) Growth hormone promotes bone and muscle growth.

A

True

190
Q

What is the function of prolactin?

A

stimulates production of breast milk

191
Q

What is the target gland of ACTH?

A

ACTH acts on the adrenal cortex

192
Q

What is the function of TSH?

A

causes the thyroid to uptake iodine and produce thyroid hormone.

193
Q

(T/F) LH and FSH are secreted only in females?

A

False.

194
Q

What is the general function of Endoplasmic reticulum

A

transport of materials throughout the cell

195
Q

What is the difference between an endocrine gland and an exocrine gland?

A

Endocrine: secrete hormones directly into the blood stream.
Exocrine: secrete substances that are transported by ducts.

196
Q

The anterior pituitary is regulated in part by what other endocrine gland?

A

hypothalamus

197
Q

Where and how does ADH affect the nephron?

A

ADH makes the distal convulated tubule and collecting duct more permeable to H2O

198
Q

(T/F) Urine leaves the kidney via the ureter and leaves the bladder via the Urethra.

A

True

199
Q

Is urine hypertonic or hypotonic to blood?

A

hypertonic

200
Q

What are some of the functions of the liver?

A

regulation of blood glucose, detoxification of toxins, beta-oxidation of fatty acids, destruction of old red blood cells.

201
Q

(T/F) Aldosterone stimulates the reabsorption of Na+ and H2O from the distal tubule and collecting duct.

A

True

202
Q

Would high levels of aldosterone result in concentrated or dilute urine?

A

concentrated urine

203
Q

How would low levels of aldosterone affect blood pressure?

A

low levels of aldosterone lead to reduced blood plasma volume and therefore reduced blood pressure.

204
Q

Would high levels of ADH (vasopressin) result on concentrated or dilute urine

A

High levels of ADH result in concentrated urine.

205
Q

What is the primary purpose of the kidney?

A

regulate salt and water concentration in the blood.

206
Q

Where are amino acids, glucose, and vitamins reabsorbed in the nephron?

A

proximal convoluted tubule.

207
Q

Where in the loop of henle does water passively diffuse out?

A

descending limb

208
Q

(T/F) Water passively diffuses into the ascending limb.

A

False.

the ascending limb is impermeable to water.

209
Q

Define homeostasis.

A

maintenance of a stable internal environment.

210
Q

What are the primary homeostatic organs in mammals?

A

kidney
liver
large intestine
skin

211
Q

What are the three regions of a kidney?

A

pelvis
medulla
cortex

212
Q

(T/F) A nephron is situated such that the loops of henle runs through the medulla.

A

True

213
Q

How is material exchanged between the nucleus and the cytoplasm?

A

The nuclear membrane contains nuclear pores that selectively allow for the exchange of materials.

214
Q

What is a histone?

A

structural protein complexed with euk DNA to form a chromosome.

215
Q

What is the function of the nucleolus?

A

synthesizes ribosomal RNA (rRNA)

216
Q

What is the function of a ribosome?

A

sight of protein translation (assembly) during protein synthesis.

217
Q

(T/F) Plant cells have all of the organelles of an animal cell, plus a cell wall and chloroplast.

A

False.

218
Q

What is cytosol?

A

fluid component of the cytoplasm

219
Q

Define fluid mosaic model

A

cell membrane consist of a phospholipid bilayer with proteins embedded throughout.

220
Q

Name the components of a typical bacterial cell.

A

Cell wall, cell membrane, cytoplasm, ribosomes, flagella, and DNA

221
Q

Where does respiration occur in the bacterial cell?

A

cell membrane

222
Q

(T/F) all multi-cellular organisms are composed of euk cells.

A

True

223
Q

Which type of euk cells have a cell wall?

A

Plant cells and fungal cells have a cell wall.

224
Q

(T/F) Bacteria and viruses are examples of prok cells.

A

False

225
Q

Describe bacterial DNA

A

single circular chromosomes

226
Q

(T/F) Bacteria contains ribosomes

A

True

227
Q

What is the function of immunoglobins (antibodies)?

A

attract other cells that can phagocytize an antigen or cause antigens to clump together.

228
Q

(T/F) Skin, ciliated muscosa, macrophages and inflamatory responses are all examples of non specific defense mechanisms.

A

True

229
Q

What happens to interstitial fluid that doesn’t diffuse into a capillary?

A

Excess interstitial fluid is picked up by the lymphatic system and returned to the circulatory system.

230
Q

(T/F) platelets play a key role in the immune response.

A

False.

Platelets are key players in clot formation.

231
Q

Which proteins are essential for proper clotting?

A

Thrombin and fibrin are essential for clot formation.

232
Q

What is the function of a macrophage?

A

Phagocytizes foreign matter.

233
Q

What is plasma?

A

liquid component of blood.

234
Q

What are the cellular components of blood?

A

erythrocytes
leukocytes
platelets

235
Q

(T/F) all arteries carry oxigenated blood and all veins carry deoxygenated blood.

A

False.
Pulmonary arteries & Umbilical arteries carry deoxygenated blood.
Pulmonary veins and umbilical veins carry oxygenated blood.

236
Q

(T/F) the right side of the heart pumps blood into pulmonary circulation and the left side pumps blood into systemic circulation.

A

True

237
Q

Starting with the right atrium, trace the path of blood flow throughout the body

A

Right atrium, right ventricle, pulmonary arteries, pulmonary capillaries, pulmonary veins, left atrium, left ventricle, aorta, arteries, arterioles, capillaries, venules, veins, vena cava.

238
Q

Which part of the brain controls breathing?

A

Medulla oblongata

239
Q

What are the three components of the large intestine?

A

Cecum
colon
rectum

240
Q

What is the primary function of the large intestine?

A

absorb water and salts

241
Q

Where does protein digestion begin? Lipid digestion?

A

Protein digestion begins in the stomach and lipid digestion begins in the small intestine.

242
Q

Which component of the nervous system inhibits digestion?

Which component promotes digestion?

A

Inhibit: Sympathetic
Promotoes: Parasympathetic

243
Q

Which segment of the small intestine is primarily responsible for digestion?

A

The duodenum is primarily responsible for digestion.

244
Q

Which segment of the small intestine is primarily responsible for absorption?

A

The jejunum and ileum are primarily responsible for absorption.

245
Q

Why is pancreatic juice basic (High pH)?

A

Pancreatic juice contains biocarbonate ion, which serves to neutralize the acidic chyme from the stomach. This is necessary because pancreatic enzymes work best ar a slightly basic pH

246
Q

(T/F) Bile is manufactured in the liver, stored in the gall bladder, and facilitates lipid digestion.

A

True.

247
Q

What is peristalsis?

A

wave-like contractions that propel food through the digestive tract.

248
Q

What two sphincters separate the stomach from the rest of the alimentary canal?

A

cardiac phincter

pyloric sphincter

249
Q

What are the three segments of the small intestine?

A

duodenum
jejunum
ileum

250
Q

Name the structures of the human alimentary canal (in order)

A 
Oral cavity
Pharynx
Esophagus
Stomach
Small intestine
large intestine
251
Q

What enzyme does saliva contain and what does it digest?

A

salivary amylase digest starch carbohydrates

252
Q

Which types of muscle display myogenic activity?

A

Cardiac and smooth muscle

253
Q

What is the role of calcium in the initiation of sarcomere contraction?

A

Calcium binds with troponin, which causes a conformational shift in tropomyosin, expressing the myosin binding site.

254
Q

Which compound is needed to release myosin from its binding site on actin?

A

ATP is needed to release myosin from its binding site on actin.

255
Q

(T/F) A muscle fiber exhibits an “all or nothing” response.

A

True

256
Q

Which component of the nervous system innervates smooth muscle?

A

autonomic nervous system

257
Q

Which type of muscle are under involuntary control?

A

smooth & cardiac

258
Q

One molecule of glucose requires how many turns of the citric cycle?

A

The citric acid cycle TCA completes two cycles per molecule of glucose

259
Q

How many ATP, NADH & FADH2 are created in one turn of the citric cycle?

A

1 ATP
3 NADH
1 FADH2

260
Q

What is a cytochrome?

A

Molecular electron carrier involved in oxidative phosphorylation

261
Q

When and where does oxidative phosphorilation occur?

A

inner mitochondrial membrane during the electron transport stage of cellular respiration.

262
Q

Does the electron transport chain require oxygen?

A

yes. its the final acceptor which forms water.

263
Q

(T/F) The electron transport chain generates a proton gradient across the inner mitochondrial membrane.

A

true

264
Q

Where does glycolysis occur?

A

cytoplasm

265
Q

Where does the citric cycle occur?

A

inner mitochondrial matrix

266
Q

(T/F) If glucose in unavailable, the body can use carbs, fats and proteins to create energy.

A

true

267
Q

Describe the cell theory

A

all living things are composed of cells.
Cells are the basic functional unit of life.
cells arise only from pre-existin cell.
cells carry their genetic info in the form of DNA

268
Q

(T/F) Electron microscopy can be used for the study of living specimens.

A

False.

Preparation kills the specimen.

269
Q

What type of laboratory method can be used to separate cells without destroying them?

A

low speed centrifugation can separate cells on the basis of type without destroying them.

270
Q

(T/F) Differential centrifugation can be used to separate cells with similar densities.

A

False.

densities are required for separation

271
Q

Name the two distinct groups into which all cells can be categorized.

A

prok

euk

272
Q

What is the key differentiating criterion between prok and euk cells?

A

euk: have membrane bound organelles
prok: no membrane bound organelles

273
Q

During Contraction, what happens to the width of the A-band?

A

Constant width

274
Q

During contraction what happens to the H zone and I bands?

A

Contract and decrease in length

275
Q

(T/F) The release of Ca+2 by the sarcoplasmic reticulum initiates muscle contraction.

A

True

276
Q

(T/F) The sarcoplasmic reticulim must uptake Ca+2 for relaxation to occur

A

True

277
Q

What are the three distinct types of muscle in mammals?

A

skeletal
cardiac
smooth

278
Q

What is the sarcoplasmic reticulum?

A

modified endoplasmic reticulum that stores calcium ions in muscle cells.

279
Q

(T/F) Within a sarcomere, thick filaments are made of actin and thin filaments are made of myosin

A

False
Thin: Actin
Thick: myosin

280
Q

(T/F) Endochondral ossification is the replacement of cartilage with bone?

A

True.

281
Q

What is intramembranous ossification?

A

transformation of mesenchymal tissue into bone.

282
Q

What is the function of a ligament?

A

connect bone to bone & strengthen joints.

283
Q

What is the function of an osteoclast?

A

bone reabsorption

284
Q

What is the function of an osteoblast?

A

bone formation.

285
Q

What are the functions of the skeleton?

A

physical support
protection of delicate organs
source of blood cells

286
Q

What are the two major components of the skeleton?

A

cartilage & bone

287
Q

What are the two types of bone?

A

compact bone & spongy bone

288
Q

(T/F) The allantois and yolk sac form the basis of the umbilical cord.

A

True

289
Q

From what structure does the placenta originate?

A

chorion

290
Q

(T/F) Adult hemoglobin has a higher affinity for oxygen than fetal hemoglobin

A

False

291
Q

What is the function of the ductus venosus?

A

shunts blood away from the fetal liver

292
Q

What is the function of foramen ovale?

A

diverts blood away from the pulmonary arteries and into the left atrium

293
Q

What is the function of the ductus arteriosus?

A

shunts blood directly from the pulmonary artery into the aorta

294
Q

What structures arise from ectoderm?

A

Intergument
Lens of eye
Nervous system

295
Q

What structures arise from endoderm?

A

Epithelial lining of digestive
respiratoy tracts
parts of liver, pancreas, thyroid and bladder.

296
Q

What structures arise from mesoderm?

A 
nusculoskeletal system
circulatory systems
connective tissue
excretory system
gonads
297
Q

(T/F) The placenta and umbilical cord are responsible for fetal respirtation, nutrition and waste removal.

A

true

298
Q

Order the following embryonic stages:

Blastula, Neurula, Morula, Gastrula, Zygote

A 
Zygote
Morula
Blastula
Gastrula
Neurula
299
Q

What is differentiation?

A

specialization of cells that occurs during development

300
Q

What are the 3 primary germ layers?

A

ectoderm, endoderm & mesoderm

301
Q

What is the net gain in ATP from cellular respiration?

A 
Euk= 36 ATP
Prok= 38 ATP
302
Q

(T/F) Cellular respiration requires aerobic conditions.

A

True

303
Q

What are the three stages of cellular respiration?

A
  1. Pyruvate decarboxylation
  2. citric acid (krebs) cycle
  3. electron transport chain
304
Q

(T/F) During pyruvate decarboxylation, a molecule of CO2 is lost, leaving acetyl CoA.

A

True

305
Q

What happens to the number of electrons when a reactant gets reduced?

A

reduction results in the gain of electrons.
OIL
RIG

306
Q

(T/F) All enzymes in the body are proteins.

A

True

307
Q

what is the optimal temp for most enzymes in the body?

A

37 C

308
Q

How many chromosomes are in a human diploid cell?

A

46 chromosomes

309
Q

How many chromosomes are in a human haploid cell?

A

23 chromosomes

310
Q

What are the four types of asexual reproduction?

A

binary fission
budding
mitosis
parthenogenesis

311
Q

What is parthenogenesis?

A

development of an egg into an embryo without fertilization

312
Q

Starting with the ovary, name the different structures of a female reproductive tract.

A 
Ovary
Oviduct (fallopian tube)
Uterus
Cervix
Vagine
313
Q

What is a polar body?

A

small cell that results from unequal distribution of cytoplasm during meiosis

314
Q

(T/F) Dizygotic (fraternal) twins are identical.

A

False.

Monozygotic twins= identical.

315
Q

Name the different structures of the male reproductive tract.

A 
Seminiferious tubules
Epidermis
Vas deferens
Ejaculatory duct
n
Urethra
Penis
316
Q

(T/F) Homologous code for different traits.

A

False.

317
Q

In what phase of meiosis would one find a tetrad?

A

Prophase 1

318
Q

(T/F) Synapsis and crossing over result in genetic recombination.

A

True

OAT-Biology (13 decks)

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