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Learjet 75 CAE Differences > Flashcards > Flashcards

Flashcards

1
Q

Aborted Takeoff

A
  1. Brakes - Apply
  2. Thrust Levers - IDLE
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2
Q

According to the AFM, if the engine oil level checks low during preflight, what is the next step?

A

Start and run engines until stabilized, shut down, and recheck

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3
Q

AFM: What type of oil is approved? Where can that be found in the AFM?

A

Type II, Addendum

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4
Q

After a main hydraulic system failure, which components can be regained by using the Aux Pump/Crossflow?

A

Gear and flaps

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5
Q

Aileron Control Jam

A
  1. Attitude Control - As Required, Use Rudder & Thrust as necessary
  2. ROLL DISC Lever - Pull
    a. Pilot - Control aircraft with the spoilerons.
    b. Do Not use copilot control.
    c Do Not use AIL TRIM.
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6
Q

Are there flashlights available to the crew and, if so, where are they?

A

Yes, two located behind each crewmember seat

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7
Q

Are the winglets heated?

A

No

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8
Q

At how many pounds of thrust is the BR engine rated?

A

3850 lb

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9
Q

At what temperature do the main gear fuse plugs melt?

A

390 F

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10
Q

Below what temperature is an external power source recommended for starting the engines?

A

0 C

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11
Q

Cabin/Cockpit Fire, Smoke, or Fumes

A
  1. Crew Oxygen Masks - Don & 100%
  2. Smoke Goggles - Don
  3. EMER DEPRESS - ON
  4. L&R OXY MIC - ON
  5. Pilot & Copilot Intercom (GTC) - ON
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12
Q

Can both anti-ice pressure regulating valves be opened if only one bleed switch is ON?

A

Yes

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13
Q

Can fuel be transferred from one tank to another with the ENG FIRE PUSH closed?

A

Yes

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14
Q

Can Hi-Flow be on for takeoff?

A

No, due to limitation

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15
Q

Can one alternator provide power to both windshield heating elements?

A

No

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16
Q

Can the AP be on for takeoff and landing?

A

No

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17
Q

Can the engine driven hydraulic pumps be used to charge the brake accumulator?

A

No

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18
Q

Can the generators and APU generator be online at the same time?

A

Yes

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19
Q

Can the generators and GPU all be online at the same time?

A

No

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20
Q

Can the NON-ESS buses be reselected after a single generator failure?

A

Yes

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21
Q

Can you silence the “Cabin Altitude” aural message?

A

Yes, but only after 60 seconds

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22
Q

Can you silence the “Configuration” aural message?

A

No

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23
Q

Does the aircraft use electrical servos or cables and pulleys to actuate the primary flight controls?

A

Cables and pulleys

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24
Q

Does the ESIS have its own standalone pilot/static probe?

ESIS- Electronic Standby Instrument System

A

Yes

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25
Q

Does the L Bleed switch need to be on in order for the Left Emer Press valve to open?

A

Yes

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26
Q

During Mach trim changes, does the autopilot use primary or secondary trim?

A

Secondary

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27
Q

Elevator Control Jam

A
  1. Attitude Control - As Required, Use Pitch Trim & Thrust as Necessary
  2. ELEV DISC - Pull & Rotate
  3. Determine elevator without the jam & transition flight control to that pilot.
    a. Do not apply additional control force to the jammed control.
  4. Do not use PIT TRIM BIAS
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28
Q

Emergency Braking

A
  1. EMERGENCY/PARKING BRAKE - Apply
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29
Q

Emergency Descent

A
  1. Crew Oxygen Masks - Don & 100%
  2. Thrust Levers - IDLE
  3. Autopilot - Disengage
  4. Spoiler - EXT
  5. Descent at MMO/VMO, but not below minimum safe altitude.
  6. DEPLOY (PAX OXY) - ON
  7. L&R OXY MIC Switches - ON
  8. Pilot & Copilot Intercom (GTC) - ON
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30
Q

Emergency Evacuation

A
  1. EMERGENCY/PARKING BRAKE - Set
  2. Thrust Levers - CUTOFF
  3. EMER LIGHTS - ON
  4. EMER BATT, L&R BATT - OFF
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31
Q

Engine Failure - During Approach

A
  1. Control Wheel Master (MSW) - Depress & Release, Yaw Damper & Autopilot Will Disengage
  2. Thrust Lever (operative engine) - Increase as required
  3. Flaps 20
  4. Airspeed - Vref +5
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32
Q

Engine Failure - During Takeoff: Above V1 Speed

A
  1. Rotate at Vr to target takeoff pitch attitude; climb at V2
  2. Gear - UP
  3. Climb to 1500 feet AGL or Obstacle Clearance Altitude (as appropriate), accelerate to V2 + 25, retract flaps, then accelerate to 200 KIAS enroute climb speed
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33
Q

Engine Failure - During Takeoff: Below V1 Speed

A
  1. Brakes - Apply
  2. Thrust Levers - IDLE
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34
Q

Engine Fire

A
  1. Thurst Lever - IDLE (Unless a Critical Thrust Situation Exists)
  2. If continues more than 15 seconds or there are other indications of fire:
    a. Thrust Lever - CUTOFF
    b. Applicable FIRE (ENGINE) - FIRE PUSH
    c. FIRE EXT #1 (ENGINE) - ARMED Push
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35
Q

For how long should the parking brake hold?

A

48 hours

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36
Q

For what types of operations are the aircraft approved?

A

Day, Night, VFR, IFR, Icing

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37
Q

From which pump does the APU receive pressurized fuel?

A

Right

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38
Q

How are the leading edges of the wings heated?

A

Engine bleed air

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39
Q

How are the thrust reversers controlled/actuated?

A

Electrically controlled, hydraulically actuated

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40
Q

How does positive cabin pressure leave the cabin?

A

Outflow valves

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41
Q

How does the nose gear assembly stay in the up position?

A

Uplock mechanism

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42
Q

How do the main landing gear assemblies stay in the up position?

A

Gear door uplocks, gear rests on doors

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43
Q

How is the APU oil level checked?

A

APU test panel

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44
Q

How is the engine protected from icing in the fuel?

A

Fuel oil heat exchanger

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45
Q

How is the landing gear actuated during normal extension/retraction?

A

Hydraulically

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46
Q

How is the navigation frequency (that the ESIS uses for navigation) changed?

A

GTCs, PFD remote

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47
Q

How is the nosewheel steering actuated?

A

Electrically

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48
Q

How is the nose wheel steering controlled?

A

Rudder pedals

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49
Q

How long should it take for the precheck valve to close on the SPPR?

A

Up to 20 seconds

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50
Q

How many electric fuel pumps are on the Learjet 75 aircraft?

A

Two

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51
Q

How many electric hydraulic pumps are installed on the aircraft?

A

One

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52
Q

How many emergency exits are there?

A

Two

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53
Q

How many fire bottles are able to extinguish a main engine fire?

A

Two

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54
Q

How many fire bottle(s) are able to extinguish an APU fire?

A

One

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55
Q

How many fire loops are on each engine?

A

One loop, three sections (accessory gear box, tailcone, and engine firewall)

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56
Q

How many flight directors are installed on the aircraft?

A

Two

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57
Q

How many handheld fire extinguishers are installed?

A

Three

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58
Q

How many hydraulic reservoirs are installed on the aircraft?

A

One

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59
Q

How many ice detect lights are on the aircraft?

A

One on copilot fuselage

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60
Q

How many pitot static probes does the aircraft have?

A

Three

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61
Q

How many tires are on each main gear strut?

A

Two

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62
Q

If an engine ITT exceeds temperature limits, to what color will the EI change?

A

Red

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63
Q

If one ADC fails, can the autopilot be reengaged?

A

Yes

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64
Q

If one AHRS fails, can the autopilot be reengaged?

A

No

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65
Q

If spraying with deicing fluid is not necessary, but ice protection will be required for takeoff, what is the minimum time required for the ice protection to be on before takeoff?

A

Two minutes

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66
Q

If the ailerons jam, how will roll control subsequently be accomplished?

A

Spoilerons controlled through the pilot control yoke

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67
Q

If the checklist instructs to “pull and reset” a circuit breaker, how many times can this be done?

A

Once

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68
Q

If the destination elevation is 1327 ft, what is the landing altitude setting?

A

1400 ft

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69
Q

If the engine oil temperature indication is amber because it is too cold, what should be remembered regarding the thrust lever?

A

Allow oil temperature to increase to 30 C prior to increasing thrust above idle. If cold ambient conditions prevent oil temperature from obtaining 30 C, idle thrust may be exceeded as required.

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70
Q

If there is a fire in one of the main engine, will a fire bottle automatically deploy?

A

No

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71
Q

if taxi lights are selected on, will they illuminate regardless of gear position?

A

No, only if the corresponding gear is down and locked

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72
Q

Immediate Engine Airstart

A

Affected Engine:
1. Thrust Lever - IDLE
2. STBY (FUEL) - ON

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73
Q

In abnormal operation, on What DU(s) can the landing gear status be displayed?

A

DU1 and DU3

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74
Q

In normal operation, on what DU is the landing gear status displayed?

A

DU2

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75
Q

In the event that hydraulic crossflow is required, what system(s) will operate?

A

Landing gear, flaps

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76
Q

Is EMER PRESS still possible with the PACK switch off?

A

Yes

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77
Q

Is pressurization of the cabin controlled by modulating the amount of air entering the cabin or by modulating the amount of air exiting the cabin?

A

Exiting

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78
Q

Is the aircraft approved for ditching?

A

No

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79
Q

Is the aircraft certified for ditching?

A

No

80
Q

is the baggage compartment heated?

A

Yes

81
Q

Is the bus-tie normally open or closed?

A

OpenIs

82
Q

the cabin pressurized with HP or LP?

A

HP at low power setting; LP otherwise

83
Q

Is the cargo compartment pressurized?

A

No

84
Q

Is there an AC source of electrical power?

A

Yes, two alternators

85
Q

“Left” or “Right” Reverser Unsafe - Above V1 Speed

A
  1. Rotate at VR to target takeoff pitch attitude; climb at V2
  2. Gear - UP
  3. Climb to 1500 feet AGL or Obstacle Clearance Altitude (as appropriate), accelerate to 200 KIAS enroute climb speed.
86
Q

“Left” of “Right” Reverser Unsafe - Below V1 Speed

A
  1. Brakes - Apply
  2. Thrust Levers - IDLE
87
Q

List some ways to disconnect the AP.

A

AP/YD button, barrel trim switch, MSW, AHRS, ICSG2

88
Q

Loss of Both Generators and Both Main Batteries

A
  1. L&R BATT - On, One at a Time
  2. L&R GEN Circuit Breakers (respective ELECTRICAL group) - Set
  3. Engine N2 - 80% or Above
  4. L&R GEN - One at a Time, Depress (Approx 1 sec)
89
Q

Maneuvering Load Factor limits (flaps down)

A

2.0 to 0.0 g

90
Q

Maneuvering Load Factor limits (flaps up)

A

2.9 to -1.0 g

91
Q

Maximum fuel imbalance (takeoff, enroute, and landing)

A

200 lb

92
Q

Maximum landing weight

A

19,200 lb

93
Q

Maximum pressure altitude enroute

A

51,000 ft

94
Q

Maximum pressure altitude (takeoff and landing)

A

14,000 ft

95
Q

Maximum ramp weight

A

21,750 lb

96
Q

Maximum takeoff weight

A

21,500 lb

97
Q

Maximum Tire Speed

A

165 KIAS (groundspeed)

98
Q

Maximum water depth (takeoff and landing)

A

3/4 in.

99
Q

Maximum zero fuel weight

A

Aircraft not modified by SB 75-11-01: 16,000 lb
Aircraft modified by SB 75-11-01: 16,500 lb

100
Q

Minimum flight weight

A

14,000 lb

101
Q

MMO - Mach trim inoperative - AP OFF

A

0.76 to 0.78 MI (23,000 to 42,000 ft) and 0.78 MI > 42,000 ft

102
Q

MMO - Mach trim inoperative - AP ON

A

0.81 MI

103
Q

MMO - Mach trim operative

A

0.81 MI

104
Q

MMO (standby instruments)

A

0.75 MI

105
Q

Must both gear squat switches be in GROUND mode to arm the thrust reversers?

A

Yes

106
Q

Must the parking brake be set in order to get an accurate brake wear pin indication?

A

Yes

107
Q

Name some components on the emergency hot bus.

A
  • Squibs
  • FWSOV
  • Pylon light
  • Entry light
  • Emergency light
108
Q

Nosewheel Steering Malfunction

A
  1. Control Wheel Master (MSW) - Depress & Release
  2. Thrust Levers - IDLE
109
Q

Once armed, when will the emergency lighting automatically activate

A

Duel GEN failure, deployment of PAX O2 masks

110
Q

Once the crew O2 mask has been donned, how can the pilot ensure 100% has been selected?

A

Push upwards on 100% tab

111
Q

On what DU(s) are the engine indications normal displayed?

A

DU2

112
Q

On which DU can the PFD be displayed?

A

Any of them

113
Q

Pitch Axis Uncommand Motion

A
  1. Control Wheel Master (MSW) - Depress & Hold
  2. Attitude Control - As Required
  3. Thrust Levers - As Required
114
Q

QRH: Is there a checklist for ditching?

A

Yes

115
Q

QRH scenario: What is the minimum O2 requirement for 5 pax?

A

327 liters (S-7.1 QRH)

116
Q

Recovery from inadvertent Overspeed

A
  1. Thrust Levers - IDLE
  2. Autopilot - Disengage
  3. SPOILER - EXT
  4. Identify aircraft pitch & roll attitude.
  5. Level wings.
  6. Elevator & Pitch Trim - As Required
117
Q

Roll or Yaw Axis Uncommanded Motion

A
  1. Control Wheel Master (MSW) - Depress & Hold
  2. Attitude Control - As Required
118
Q

Rudder Control Jam

A
  1. Attitude Control - As required, Use Roll Control & Thrust as necessary
119
Q

Scenario: How does an AHRS no. failure appear prior to 80 kt?

A

Black EFIS screen background and red X over attitude display

120
Q

Should you intentionally overpower the AP?

A

No

121
Q

Stall

A
  1. Lower the pitch attitude to reduce angle of attack.
  2. Level the Wings.
  3. Thrust Levers - T/O (Manual APR, if Required)
  4. Accelerate out of stall condition.
122
Q

Tailwind Component - Landing

A

10 kt

123
Q

Tailwind Component - Takeoff (10,000 ft and below)

A

10 kt

124
Q

Tailwind Component - Takeoff (above 10,000 to 12,000 ft)

A

5 kt

125
Q

Tailwind Component - Takeoff (above 12,000 ft)

A

0 kt

126
Q

TAWS - “PULL UP”, “OBSTACLE, OBSTACLE, PULL UP”, “TERRAIN, TERRAIN, PULL UP”

A
  1. Autopilot - Disengage
  2. Thrust Levers(s) - APR
  3. Climb at maximum practical rate.
  4. SPOILER lever - RET
  5. GEAR - UP
127
Q

To which systems/components does the hydraulic system supply pressure for operation?

A

Landing gear/inboard doors, brakes, flaps, spoiler/spoilerons, thrust reversers

128
Q

Under what FAR Part is the Learjet 75 certificated?

A

Part 25

129
Q

Vfe, Flaps 8

A

250 KIAS

130
Q

Vfe, Flaps 20

A

200 KIAS

131
Q

Vfe, Flaps 40

A

150 KIAS

132
Q

Vle

A

260 KIAS

133
Q

Vlo

A

200 KIAS

134
Q

Vmca, Flaps 8

A

107 KIAS

135
Q

Vmca, Flaps 20

A

107 KIAS

136
Q

Vmcg - Rudder Boost On, APR ON or OFF

A

105 KIAS

137
Q

Vmcl, Flaps 8

A

110 KIAS

138
Q

Vmcl, Flaps 40

A

102 KIAS

139
Q

Vmo

A

330 KIAS

140
Q

Vmo (standby instruments)

A

Up to 22,000 ft - 331 KIAS and 22,000 to 26,800 ft - 330 KIAS

141
Q

What actuates the rudder boost?

A

Rudder pedal force

142
Q

What are APU starter cooling periods?

A

1 minute, 2 minute, 15 minutes

143
Q

What are some APU limitations?

A
  • Ground operations only
  • max pressure alt 10,000 ft
  • must be shut down prior to takeoff,
  • prohibited during de-ice ops
  • do not takeoff with amber APU FAIL CAS,
  • max continuous load is 300 amps
144
Q

What are some thrust reverser limitations? (6 items)

A
  • Ground operations only
  • Paved surfaces
  • Do not back up the airplane
  • Touch and go prohibited
  • Max reverse usable down to 40 KIAS
  • TR CBs must not be intentionally pulled in flight unless specified
145
Q

What are the approved fuels?

A

JP-5, JP-8, Jet A, Jet A-1

146
Q

What are the Delta P limits?

A

9.9 to -0.5 psid

147
Q

What are the main engines starter duty time limits?

A

1 minute
2 minute
30 minute

148
Q

What component cools the air that is forced into the cabin?

A

ACM/Pack

149
Q

What conditions will cause the bus-tie to automatically close?

A

Engine start
Single GEN failure
APU/GPU operation

150
Q

What does an amber “ICE DETECT” CAS mean?

A

Ice detected and ice protection is not on

151
Q

What does an amber IGN EI indicate?

A

Dual ignitor plug failure

152
Q

What does a white hash annunciator on the landing gear panel indicate?

A

Respective main inboard gear door is not locked up or down

153
Q

What does a white IGN EI indicate?

A

One ignitor plug is not firing

154
Q

What does a yellow LOC mean in the HSI?

A

Both active NAV sources are selected to the same short range NAV source

155
Q

What does pushing the FIRE PUSH button do?

A
  • Related fuel shutoff valve closes
  • CLOSED indication shows on the related FIRE switch
  • Flashing FIRE PUSH illumination goes to staedy
  • Extinguishing agent containers become armed
  • FIRE EXT 1 and 2 light illuminate
  • Related DC generator and AC alternator go offline
  • Related engine ignitors go offline
  • Related thrust reverser control unit goes offline and prevents the thrust reverser isolation valve from opening.
156
Q

What emergency light protection do we have with WOW?

A

Turns off after 10 to 12 minutes

157
Q

What functions do the electric standby fuel pumps serve (with APU)?

A

Backup to main ejector pumps, crossflow, engine starting, APU operation

158
Q

What happens to the thrust lever with an uncommanded deploy?

A

Automatic retard system forcibly moves the TL to IDLE

159
Q

What indicates a dual generator failure?

A
  • L/R GEN OFF
  • bus-tie open
  • NON-ESS OFF
  • L/R MAIN and MAIN AV buses, OFF
  • EMER illuminates
  • Red LR GEN FAIL
160
Q

What indicates a single generator failure?

A
  • GEN OFF illumination in the S/I
  • bus-tie closure
  • NON-ESS shed
  • Amber L or R GEN FAIL CAS
161
Q

What is max defueling pressure?

A

-10 psig

162
Q

What is max refueling pressure?

A

55 psig

163
Q

What is minimum refueling pressure?

A

20 psig

164
Q

What is PIT TRIM BIAS and when is it used?

A

System to help hold elevator back pressure, used during jammed stabilizer

165
Q

What is the alternate landing gear extension method?

A

Free fall

166
Q

What is the main source of pressure for the hydraulic system?

A

One engine-driven pump on each engine

167
Q

What is the maximum continuous amperage from the generators

A

300 amps

168
Q

What is the maximum fuel capacity of the Learjet 70 and 75 aircraft?

A

200 lb

169
Q

What is the normal hydraulic pressure for the aircraft hydraulic system?

A

3000 psi

170
Q

What is the position of the surge bleed valve when the DEEC is in manual mode?

A

1/3 open

171
Q

What is the purpose of the Deploy switch on the PAX/OXY pressurization panel?

A

Passenger oxygen mask manual deployment

172
Q

What is the time limit for takeoff power? APR power?

A

Takeoff and APR are the same:
(10 minutes with one engine inop)
(5 minutes with all engines operating)

173
Q

What lights are located on the main gear struts?

A

Taxi

174
Q

What main function does an AC source of electrical power provide?

A

Windshield heat

175
Q

What powers the windshield heating elements?

A

AC alternators

176
Q

What sources of electrical power are available?

A

Two main batteries, one EMER battery, GPU, APU

177
Q

What types of brakes are installed?

A

Carbon brakes

178
Q

What type of engine does the Learjet 75 aircraft have?

A

TFE-731-40 (BR)

179
Q

What type of hydraulic fluid is used?

A

MIL-H-5606

180
Q

What will activate the “Configuration” aural message?

A

Aileron/rudder/pitch trim
PITCH TRIM BIAS
PITCH TRIM miscompare
Parking brake
Flaps not 8 or 20
TRs UNL
Spoilers extended
CHECK TOLD CAS

181
Q

When does the right standby fuel pump come on automatically?

A

APU and engine starts

182
Q

When lowering the landing gear, does the aux pump come on?

A

Yes

183
Q

When must HI FLOW be off?

A

Takeoff, landing, anti-ice operations, flight above 30,000 ft

184
Q

When must the engine sync be off?

A

Takeoff, landing, single-engine operations

185
Q

When the landing altitude is set below 8000 ft, what are the indications in the cockpit of a pressurization problem?

A

8750: amber CAS, amber box, single chime, master caution warning, falshing cabin alt on CPC
9500: EMER PRESS activates
10000: red CAS, red box, aural CABIN ALT, flashing cabin alt on CPC
13750: outflow valves close
14500: PAX O2 masks deploy, EMER lights activate

186
Q

Where are the crew smoke goggles located?

A

Sidewall compartment

187
Q

Where are the fuel drains located?

A

Belly abeam wing

188
Q

Where is the standard (40 cu ft) O2 bottle located?

A

Nose section

189
Q

Where is the vent for the fuel tanks located?

A

Fuselage abeam no. 1 engine cowling

190
Q

Which switch provides standby pitot heat?

A

Right pitot switch

191
Q

Which windshield heat fails if the left alternator fails?

A

Left

192
Q

Why is the right AMP load usually higher than the left?

A

EMER BATT charging

193
Q

Will pressing the FIRE PUSH switch have any control on the operation of the thrust reversers?

A

Yes, the TRs will not operate

194
Q

WINDSHEAR - “WINDSHEAR, WINDSHEAR, WINDSHEAR”

A
  1. Autopilot - Disengage
  2. Thrust Lever(s) - APR
  3. Rotate smoothly to the takeoff/go around pitch attitude, allowing airspeed to decrease if necessary. Do not retract flaps or landing gear.
  4. If the aircraft continues to descent, increase pitch target attitude smoothly and in small increments, bleeding airspeed as necessary to stop descent. Use stall warning onset (stick shaker) as upped limit of pitch attitude.
  5. Maintain escape attitude and thrust and delay retracting flaps or landing gear until safe climb-out is assured.
195
Q

Within how many hours of engine shutdown should the engine oil level be checked?

A

Within 1 hour of shutdown

196
Q

Without having the “armed” caption, what will pushing the extinguisher button do?

A

Nothing

197
Q

With the DEEC turned off, what is the engine overspeed protection?

A

Mechanical governor limiting N2 to 105%

Learjet 75 CAE Differences (1 decks)

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