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ABPN > Flashcards > Flashcards

Flashcards

1
Q

White matter imaging

A

DTI

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2
Q

High signal T1, low signal T2, low signal T3

A

fat

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3
Q

Imaging modalities to differentiate different type of neurocognitive disorders

A

PET and SPECT

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4
Q

2 cardiac things Lithum can cause

A

SA block and sick sinus syndrome

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5
Q

Brain imaging findings of BPAD

A

enlarged amygdala; GP (globus pallidus) and putamen volume increase

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6
Q

MR spectroscopy reveals increased choline in what brain areas in depression

A

BG (basal ganglia) and AC (anterior cingulate)

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7
Q

Magnetoencephalography gets magnetic signals from what cells

A

pyramidal cells

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8
Q

Depression has volume reduction in what brain structures

A

Prefrontal cortex, AC (anterior cingulate) cortex, caudate, putamen

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9
Q

OCD has hypermetbolism in what areas

A

orbitofrontal cortex and anterior cingulum

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10
Q

PTSD brain imaging findings

A

smaller hippocampal volume, smaller frontal volumes

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11
Q

carbamazepine monitoring

A

CBC, LFTs, BUN/Cr

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12
Q

Schizophrenia brain imaging findings

A

ventricular enlargement, enlarged caudate, smaller thalamus, smaller temporal lobes

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13
Q

OCD associated with what structure

A

orbitofrontal cortex

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14
Q

what condition can have a normal EEG

A

catatonia

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15
Q

EKG findings of TCAs

A

prolonged PR, QRS, or QT intervals

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16
Q

Nortriptyline therapeutic window

A

50 to 150 micrograms/mL

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17
Q

how long for bleeding on CTH to become isodense with brain tissue?

A

2-6 weeks

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18
Q

Huntington’s disease brain imaging findings

A

loss of caudate (next to ventricles)

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19
Q

DAI best imaged by what modality

A

DWI MRI

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20
Q

L’hermitte’s sign

A

electric shock down neck and to extremities with neck flexion

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21
Q

best dural sinus imaging

A

MRV

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22
Q

hyperintense T2 finding, round/ovoid mass, heterogenous

A

oligodendroglioma

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23
Q

young pt, cystic mass

A

astrocytoma

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24
Q

thick, irregular enhancing, edema

A

glioblastoma

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25
Q

CVA imaging after CTH

A

CTA head/neck

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26
Q

How to test color perception?

A

Hardy-Rand-Ritter test

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27
Q

Digital span is a measure of what?

A

working memory

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28
Q

CJD CSF findings

A

14-3-3 protein

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29
Q

MS CSF findings

A

myelin basic protein

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30
Q

SSPE CSF findings

A

IgG

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31
Q

Pronator drift tests for what

A

UMN lesion

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32
Q

CJD EEG findings

A

slow 1-2 Hz periodic sharp waves with generalized slowing

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33
Q

Toxic metabolic EEG findings

A

Triphasic waves on disorganized background

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34
Q

TIA best test to r/o

A

DWI MRI

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35
Q

Best lab test for heavy drinking

A

CDT (carbohydrate deficient transferrin)

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36
Q

ability to inhibit behavioral responses in adolescence is due to what

A

maturation of the prefrontal cortex

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37
Q

knowledge comes from sensory experiences

A

empiricism

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38
Q

least important thing in evaluating a cultural syndrome?

A

culture of the clinician

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39
Q

Who thought that development was made up of two positions, paranoid-schizoid position and depressive position?

A

Melanie Klein

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40
Q

Who thought that symbol creation was important in understanding human nature?

A

Carl Jung

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41
Q

Who developed hierarchal model of innate behavioral reactions of animals, that motivational impulses build up in the brain and are held in check by blocks?

A

Nikolaas Tinbergen

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42
Q

Who thought that newborn animals bond with the first moving stimulus it perceives?

A

Konrad Lorenz

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43
Q

Who revised Freud’s drive theory?

A

Edith Jacobson

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44
Q

Who created orgone theory and cloudbusters?

A

Wilheim Reich

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45
Q

Who studied bees “waggle dance” regarding relaying information about more distant food sources?

A

Karl von Frisch

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46
Q

rates for anorexia and bulemia

A

are both increasing

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47
Q

secondary enuresis is most associated with what dx?

A

ADHD

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48
Q

CBT is most useful for which aspect of anorexia treatment?

A

relapse prevention

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49
Q

something uncommon to pica

A

leaves

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50
Q

enuresis requires what age as part of criteria

A

that child be at least 5 years old

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51
Q

which type of disorders in childhood predict obesity later in life?

A

depressive

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52
Q

bulimia associated with which personality disorder

A

borderline personality disorder

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53
Q

pica is normal below age what

A

1

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54
Q

rumination disorder is seen in what age range

A

3 months to 1 y/o

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55
Q

primary nocturnal enuresis treatment

A

DDVAP

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56
Q

encorpresis dsm frequency

A

once a month for 3 months

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57
Q

mortality rate of anorexia

A

5%

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58
Q

cause of death of anorexia

A

suicide and MODS

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59
Q

most common eating disorder

A

binge eating disorder

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60
Q

pica in adults occurs with what time of disorders

A

learning disabilities

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61
Q

eating disorder with lowest female to male ratio

A

binge eating disorder

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62
Q

medication most useful for binge/purge behaviors in bulemia

A

fluoxetine

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63
Q

substance that causes relaxed/tranquil then drowsiness, dizziness, nausea

A

GHB

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64
Q

substance causing RTA along with diffuse brain atrophy

A

toluene (inhalants)

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65
Q

what class of medications potentiates the effect of inhalants?

A

benzodiazepines

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66
Q

BAL level with ataxia, nystagmus, slurred speech

A

100-200

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67
Q

describe reward circuit

A

VTA to nucleus accumbens via dopaminergic neurons

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68
Q

vertical nystagmus, which substance use?

A

PCP

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69
Q

caffeine has antagonism at what receptor

A

adenosine

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70
Q

gambling disorder is associated with which personality disorder

A

paranoid personality disorder

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71
Q

gambling affects how many people in the US

A

1 million

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72
Q

herbal incense acts on which receptor

A

cannabinoid

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73
Q

insight oriented therapy in a gambler after how long duration?

A

3 months

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74
Q

ingestion of what gives false positive for BZD?

A

sertraline

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75
Q

opiates inhibit cAMP-dependent phosphorylation where?

A

locus ceruleus

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76
Q

pathological gambling most associated with which axis I disorder?

A

MDD

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77
Q

testosterone above what dose increases mania risk?

A

300 mg

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78
Q

stimulant-induced craving for drugs medicated by which neurotransmitter?

A

glutamate

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79
Q

lowest dose of methadone to induce cross tolerance blockade of opiates?

A

80-120 mg

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80
Q

last area to be affected for physician with a substance use disorder

A

job performance

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81
Q

what substance increases muscle mass by increasing growth hormone?

A

GHB

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82
Q

substance that has most reinforcing effect?

A

cocaine

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83
Q

is loss of a parent before 15 y/o a risk factor for gambling disorder?

A

yes

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84
Q

initial treatment for PCP intoxication?

A

urine acidifcation (remember RTA)

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85
Q

withdrawal of what substance gives vivid and unpleasant dreams?

A

strimulants

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86
Q

how do amphetamines exert their effect?

A

by releasing catecholamines from the neuron

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87
Q

“how many drinks can you hold” test

A

TWEAK

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88
Q

highest sensitivity test for assessing alcohol use disorder?

A

TWEAK

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89
Q

which personality disorder: projection, withdrawal, and controlling behavior

A

paranoid PD

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90
Q

which personality disorder: fantasy and withdrawal

A

schizoid PD

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91
Q

which personality disorder: idealism, omnipotence, rationalization

A

narcissistic PD

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92
Q

which personality disorder: repression, dissociation, externalization of emotion

A

histrionic PD

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93
Q

Kohut’s theory of personality is based on believing what?

A

that an individual has need for empathic interaction with self-objects

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94
Q

Kernberg’s theory of personality believed what?

A

idealization is a defense against rage, envy, contempt, and devaluation

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95
Q

Person who created interpersonal circumplex or interpersonal circle

A

Timothy Leary

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96
Q

Five-factor model of personality?

A

NEOAC

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97
Q

What percent of pts have a PD?

A

30-50%

98
Q

Most prevalent PD?

A

antisocial

99
Q

How heritable is BPD?

A

68% (nice)

100
Q

Lifetime suicide risk in BPD?

A

5-10%

101
Q

Personality disorder with highest reliability with regard to diagnosis?

A

antisocial

102
Q

Personality disorder not in ICD-10

A

schizotypal

103
Q

three personality disorders that can be associated with psychotic sx

A

paranoid, schizotypal, and borderline

104
Q

which personality disorder has diagnostic feature of interpersonal exploitativeness?

A

narcissistic

105
Q

which personality disorder most associated with alcohol?

A

antisocial

106
Q

which personality disorder has a high percentage of female relatives with somatization disorder?

A

antisocial

107
Q

somatization disorder most seen with which PD?

A

histrionic

108
Q

how do PDE5 inhibitors work?

A

increase NO leads to increased cGMP which leads to smooth muscle relaxation and increased blood flow

109
Q

which neurochemicals involved in ability to have orgasm?

A

dopamine and serotonin

110
Q

how does serotonin affect sexual function?

A

it inhibits it by vasoconstricting cavernosal vessels (5HT1D)

111
Q

what dopamine agonist has been used to treat erectile dysfunction

A

apomorphine

112
Q

which 5HT receptor serves sexual function?

A

5HT1A

113
Q

which factor argues against female orgasmic disorder?

A

IPV

114
Q

what is not a risk factor for ED over age 40?

A

fatigue

115
Q

libido, arousal, and pleasure mediated by which neurotransmitter?

A

dopamine

116
Q

in ED, what are testosterone and LH levels?

A

testosterone low; LH high

117
Q

which CYP metabolizes PDE-5 inhibitors?

A

CYP 3A4

118
Q

CYP 3A4 inhibitors

A

ketoconazole, ritinovir, erythromycin, (fluoxetine)

119
Q

what is testosterone used as a treatment for in men?

A

male hypoactive sexual desire disorder

120
Q

which paraphilia has latest age of onset?

A

pedophilia

121
Q

paraphilia with earliest age of onset?

A

transvestitism

122
Q

most pedophiles are homosexual or heterosexual?

A

heterosexual

123
Q

medication for treating paraphilia

A

medroxyprogesterone

124
Q

percent of people with pedophilia who are homosexual?

A

50%

125
Q

most common paraphilia among women

A

sexual masochism disorder

126
Q

autoerotic asphyxiation most common in what group?

A

adolescent boys

127
Q

according to psychoanalytic models, paraphilias arise from what

A

a failure to complete the process of genital adjustment

128
Q

what is the difference between women and men with regard to Alzheimer’s and neurofibrillary tangles?

A

in women, each neurofibrillary tangle unit equals 3-fold increase in women but 20-fold increase in men

129
Q

most specific factor in shaping gender identity?

A

androgen

130
Q

genital self-stimulation begins at what age

A

15 to 19 months

131
Q

sexual orientation recognized at what age?

A

school age

132
Q

what percent seek gender reassignment surgery?

A

10%

133
Q

gender dysphoria associated with what disorder?

A

anxiety disorders

134
Q

at what age does one have a gender identity

A

2-3 years old

135
Q

75% of boys begin cross dressing before what age

A

4 years old

136
Q

ependymoma most likely to cause head size increase in what demographic?

A

babies

137
Q

chorioid plexus carcinoma in what demographic?

A

children with HA

138
Q

opsoclonus-myoclonus paraneoplastic; characterized by what?

A

antibodies against postsynapatic neurons

139
Q

paraneoplastic limbic encephalitis; two characteristics

A

voltage gated K channels; hyponatremia

140
Q

hallmark of paraneoplastic cerebellar degeneration

A

loss of Purkinje cells

141
Q

brain tumor type that develops from embryonic fetal tissue?

A

medulloblastoma

142
Q

types of cancer with paraneoplastic association

A

small cell cancer, breast/gyn cancer, Hodgkin’s lymphoma

143
Q

largest association btwn paraneoplastic disorder and what?

A

thymoma

144
Q

GBM associated with amplification of what gene

A

EGFR gene

145
Q

paraneoplastic stiff-person syndrome associated with which gene

A

anti-amphiphysin

146
Q

hemangioblastoma; what condition?

A

von Hippel Lindau syndrome

147
Q

CrAg screening at what CD4 cutoff

A

100

148
Q

variant CJD, what is seen on light microscopy?

A

florid plaques

149
Q

sporadic CJD, what is seen on light microscopy?

A

spongiform degeneration and astrocytic gliosis

150
Q

mosquitoes transmit epidemic encephalitis via what vector?

A

arbovirus

151
Q

ataxia, tremors, choreoathetosis, Papua New Guinea

A

Kuru

152
Q

most common signs and symptoms of poliomyelitis

A

none

153
Q

brain abscess from sinus or dental infection due to what organism

A

anaerobic strep

154
Q

flu like symptoms, then encephallitis sx, temporal lobe involvement

A

HSV-1 encephalitis

155
Q

complication of rheumatic fever

A

Sydenham’s chorea

156
Q

2 things about fatal familial insomnia

A

thalamus atrophy; PRNP gene

157
Q

GSS syndrome related to CJD but different how?

A

amyloid plaques of abnormally folded protein

158
Q

lobe with AH

A

temporal lobe

159
Q

lobe with VH

A

occipital lobe

160
Q

best imaging modality to look at the dural sinuses

A

MRV

161
Q

pathological laughing and crying: name 3 step pathway

A

frontal cortex, pons, cerebellum

162
Q

akinetic mutism can result from b/l infarctions of what

A

anterior cingulate gyrus

163
Q

where is Broca’s area located?

A

dominant frontal lobe

164
Q

fear/anxiety center, startle

A

amygdala central nucleus

165
Q

which area of the PFC is most involved with anxiety?

A

medial or orbitofrontal cortex

166
Q

CSF produced by what

A

choroid plexus

167
Q

what are cortical columns used for

A

functional units for information processing

168
Q

exposure to light helps entrain the circadian rhythm by activating nonvisual photoreceptors that project where?

A

suprachiasmatic nucleus (which is located in the anterior hypothalamus)

169
Q

gustatory special sensory seizures (auras) localize to what brain structure

A

insula

170
Q

purpose of pineal gland

A

production of melatonin

171
Q

risk taking behavior mediated by what structure?

A

orbitofrontal cortex

172
Q

neuroplasticity is based on what changing?

A

dendritic spikes

173
Q

CNS neurons derive from

A

ectoderm to form the neural tube

174
Q

PNS neurons derive from

A

the neural crest

175
Q

appetite and thirst regulation

A

hypothalamus

176
Q

storing and retrieving long term memories happens in which brain region

A

temporal lobe

177
Q

basal ganglia derived from what embroyonically

A

telencephalon

178
Q

DLPFC functions for what

A

working memory

179
Q

hippocampus located in what region

A

temporal lobe

180
Q

foramen of Monro

A

communication between lateral ventricles with third ventricle

181
Q

medulla oblongata derives from what embryonically

A

myelencephalon

182
Q

mesolimbic pathway connects ventral tegmental area to what

A

ventral striatum (which includes the nucleus accumbens)

183
Q

what does the middle frontal gyrus contain

A

frontal eye field

184
Q

where does the spinal cord end?

A

L1

185
Q

uncinate fasciculus connects what to what

A

anterior temporal lobe to ventral prefrontal region (like OFC)

186
Q

CN 8 exits at what level

A

level of the pons

187
Q

visual information through optic tract to where (x2)

A

lateral geniculate body to primary visual cortex

188
Q

Wernicke’s speech area located where

A

superior temporal gyrusd

189
Q

parasympathetic innervation to ciliary muscles and iris sphincter muscles from where?

A

Edinger-Westphal nucleus

190
Q

brain structure that provides pain, touch, temperature

A

thalamus

191
Q

brain cells that provide nutrients to nerve cells and control chemical composition

A

astrocytes

192
Q

saltatory conduction via nodes of Ranvier via what kind of channels

A

Na channels

193
Q

upbeating nystagmus, lesion where?

A

medulla

194
Q

L cerebellar lesion affects which side and what?

A

L side, skilled movements

195
Q

default mode network of the brain does what

A

involved in reprocessing previously experienced stimuli

196
Q

what is the roof of the 4th ventricle?

A

cerebellum

197
Q

diencephalon is composed of what two structures?

A

thalamus and hypothalamus

198
Q

what forms the lenticular nucleus?

A

globus pallidus and putamen

199
Q

what forms the striatum?

A

caudate and putamen

200
Q

third ventricle walls are made up of what

A

thalamus and hypothalamus

201
Q

SIADH, hyponatremia due to which MAOI?

A

tranylcypromine

202
Q

MAOI with least likelihood for HTN crisis?

A

selegeline

203
Q

phenelzine is a strong MAOI, what are contraindications to it?

A

liver disease, CHF, pheochromocytoma

204
Q

which SNRI/SSRI highest risk in pregnancy?

A

Paxil

205
Q

which SSRI with most norepi reuptake inhibition?

A

Paxil

206
Q

majority of neurotransmitters mediate their effects via

A

G protein coupled receptors

207
Q

receptors with intrinsic enzyme activity

A

tyrosine kinase and phosphatase

208
Q

LSD acts on which 5HT receptor to cause psychomimetic sx?

A

5HT2

209
Q

dopamine to norepinephrine via what enzyme?

A

dopamine hydroxylase

210
Q

rate limiting enzyme for norepinephrine synthesis

A

tyrosine hydroxylase

211
Q

norepinephrine to epinephrine via what enzyme?

A

phenylethanolamine NMT

212
Q

rate limiting enzyme for serotonin synthesis

A

tryptophan hydroxylase

213
Q

serotonin to 5-hydroxyindoleacetic acid via what enzyme

A

MAO

214
Q

measurement of dopamine degradation

A

homovanillic acid

215
Q

end-stage metabolite of norepinephrine

A

VMA vanillylmandelic acid

216
Q

tyrosine to dopamine via what enzyme

A

tyrosine hydroxylase

217
Q

products of choline acetyltransferase

A

aceteylcholine and coenzymeA

218
Q

rate limiting step of acetylcholine synthesis

A

active transport of choline uptake into the presynaptic nerve

219
Q

MAO located where

A

OAM outer area of mitochondria

220
Q

calmodulin, protein kinase C bind what?

A

calcium

221
Q

brussel sprouts are a ** and will affect the metabolism of **

A

1A2, clomipramine

222
Q

venlafaxine is metabolized by ** and these are ** inducers

A

2D6; dexamethasone and rifampin

223
Q

methadone metabolized by what, and what is an inhibitor of this?

A

3A4; clarithromycin

224
Q

how do carbamazepine and St. John’s wort act, and can affect what medication?

A

2C9 inducer; glyburide

225
Q

rifampin inhibits or induces?

A

induces a lot

226
Q

NSAIDs and what, via what? need to monitor

A

fluconazole; 2D9

227
Q

fluoxetine is what kind of inducer/inhibitor

A

potent 2D6 inhibitor

228
Q

sertraline induces 3A4 and inhibits everything but what

A

1A2

229
Q

SSRI with most norepinephrine reuptake inhibition?

A

Paxil

230
Q

worst SSRI in pregnancy

A

Paxil

231
Q

most common side effect of Wellbutrin

A

dry mouth

232
Q

mirtazapine what type of AD

A

noradrenergic and specific serotonergic

233
Q

medications FDA approved for PTSD

A

sertraline, paroxetine

234
Q

antidepressant not associated with weight gain

A

duloxetine

235
Q

ciprofloxacin inhibits or induces duloxetine metabolism

A

inhibits metabolism A12

236
Q

shortest half life BZD

A

triazolam

237
Q

high potency BZDs

A

triazolam, alprazolam, clonazepam

238
Q

BZDs act on what channel

A

GABA-A chloride

239
Q

what teratogenic effect of BZD

A

oral cleft

240
Q

Buspar mechanism

A

full agonist pre, partial agonist postsynaptic 5HT1A

241
Q

Buspar affected by what med?

A

ritinovir, 3A4

ABPN (1 decks)

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