Flash Cards Exam I

1
Q

Male infertility causes

A

Blockage, sperm motility, capacitation, low sperm count/testosterone

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2
Q

Female infertility causes

A

Blocakge, age (lack of viable oocytes)

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3
Q

Normal male sperm count

A

> 100 million/ml

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4
Q

Male sperm count for infertility

A

< 10 million/ml

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5
Q

Cause of a monosomy or trisomy

A

Nondisjunction of Meiosis I or Nondisjunction of Meiosis II during gametogenesis

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6
Q

Trisomy 21 Name of Condition?

A

Down’s Syndrome

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7
Q

Trisomy 21 Symptoms?

A

symptoms of condition: Craniofacial abnormalities, mental retardation, heart defects, epicanthal folds

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8
Q

Trisomy 18 Name of Condition?

A

Edward’s Syndrome

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9
Q

Trisomy 18 Symptoms?

A

symptoms of condition: Intellectual disability, heart defects, low ears, kidney probs, small lower jaw (micrognathia)

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10
Q

Trisomy 13 Name of Condition?

A

Patau Syndrome

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11
Q

Trisomy 13 Symptoms?

A

symptoms of condition: Holoprosencephaly, heart defects, cleft lip, deaf

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12
Q

X Monosomy Name of condition?

A

Turner’s Syndrome

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13
Q

Turner’s Syndrome Symptoms?

A

symptoms of condition: Female, web neck, infertile because gonadal dysgenesis aka gonadal “streak”

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14
Q

XXY Name of condition?

A

Klienfelter’s

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15
Q

Klienfelter’s Symptoms?

A

symptoms of condition: Male, infertile, gynecomastia, micropenis

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16
Q

When does spontaneous abortion occur most commonly?

A

First 3 weeks

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17
Q

What is the most common cause of spontaneous abortion?

A

Chromosomal abnormalities

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18
Q

What are the most optimal sites of implantation?

A

Posterior wall and fundus of uterus

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19
Q

What is the most common site of ectopic implantation?

A

Uterine tube

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20
Q

What is placenta previa?

A

Placenta partially or fully covers the internal os

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21
Q

What causes placenta previa?

A

Implantation lower in the uterus (close to cervix)

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22
Q

What is placenta accreta?

A

Synciotrophoblasts invade the myometrium

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23
Q

Why is placenta accreta life threaning for the mother?

A

Excessive bleeding because the uterus tears when the baby is born

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24
Q

What cells of placenta release hCG?

A

Synciotrophoblasts

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25
Q

What is mosacism?

A

Tissues of different genetic composition located throughout the body

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26
Q

What causes mosacism?

A

Nondisjunction AFTER fertilization during mitosis

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27
Q

What does LH do in males?

A

Stimulates Interstital cells of Leydig to produce testosterone

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28
Q

What does FSH do in males?

A

Stimulates stertoli cells to produce testicular fluid AND synthesis of androgen receptors

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29
Q

How is spermatogenesis endocrinologically stimulated in males?

A

LH stimulates Leydig cells to produce testosterone. FSH stimulates androgen receptors on Sertoli cells. Testosterone (produced by Leydig cells) binds to androgen receptors on Sertoli cells stimulating spermatogenesis.

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30
Q

What is the first sign of gastrulation?

A

Primitive streak formation

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31
Q

What are the 3 results of fertilization

A
  1. Restoration of diploid # of chromosomes 2. Genetic Sex determination 3. Initiation of cleavage
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32
Q

What is a Sacrococcygeal teratoma?

A

Tumor of all 3 germ layers off coccygeal area; Result of lack of degeneration of primitive streak

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33
Q

What is Sirenomelia?

A

Caudal dysgenesis; Caused by lack of mesoderm caudally

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34
Q

What is Situs Inversus?

A

Reverse or organs on the Rt and Lt sides; Caused by disruption of signalling in the Rt-Lt axis

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35
Q

Vasculogenesis occurs when and where first?

A

When: 3rd Week (Day 16); Where: Splanchnic extraembryonic mesoderm of yolk sac

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36
Q

What is the notochord remnant?

A

Nucleus pulposus

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37
Q

What is the annular fibrosis embrological origin?

A

Sclerotome (paraxial mesoderm)

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38
Q

What is the allantois?

A

Rudimentary “bladder”; Essentially nonfunctional in humans

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39
Q

What is the adult remnant of allantois?

A

Urachus; Median Umbilical Ligament

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40
Q

Safe place to take LP (Lumbar Puncture) in adult?

A

Below L3

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41
Q

Location of Spinal cord in 6 month fetus?

A

S1

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42
Q

Location of Spinal cord in newborn?

A

L2/ L3

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43
Q

Location of Spinal cord in adult?

A

L1/L2

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44
Q

What is Rathke’s pouch?

A

Ectoderm in oropharyngeal membrane (called Stomodeum) that invaginated cranially to become anterior pituitary gland

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45
Q

What is another name for anterior pituitary?

A

Adenohypophysis

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46
Q

What is another name for the posterior pituitary?

A

Neurohypophysis

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47
Q

What are the hormones produced by posterior pituitary?

A

ADH and Oxytocin

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48
Q

Where do the basal and floor plates end in brain development?

A

Diencephalon

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49
Q

What is the origin of the Posterior Pituitary?

A

Neurophypophyseal diverticulum drops down from the diencephalon and joins Rathke’s pouch to become pituitary gland

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50
Q

What is the infundibulum?

A

The connecting stalk that connects the hypothalamus to the posterior pituitary

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51
Q

What form the cerebellum?

A

The rhombic lips of metencephalon

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52
Q

What is the sulcus limitans?

A

The lateral sulcus in the central canal- separates alar (sensory) and basal (motor) plates

53
Q

What do the Alar plates become in the spinal cord?

A

Dorsal horn (grey matter) of spinal cord

54
Q

What do the Basal plates become in the spinal cord?

A

Ventral horn (grey matter) of spinal cord

55
Q

What are the 3 zones of the spinal cord neuroepithelium from deep to superficial?

A

Ventricular zone, Mantle (Intermediate) and Marginal Zones

56
Q

What does the corpus striatum give rise to?

A

C shaped portion of floor of cerebral hemispheres. Grows more slowly than the rest of the hemispheres creating the C-shaped hemispheres. It contains white matter called the internal capsule.

57
Q

The interventricular foramen of Monroe is where?

A

Channels between each lateral ventricle and the 3rd ventricle of the brain

58
Q

What are the 2 types of spina bifida cystica?

A

Meningocele (just meninges and CSF herniation) and Meningomyelocele (Spinal cord, meninges and CSF herniation)

59
Q

What is spina bifida occulta?

A

The failure of the (usually lumbar) vertebral lamina to close and the spinal cord is not protected by bone. Usually no symptoms except a tuft of hair in lumbosacral region

60
Q

What is Myeloschisis?

A

The most severe form of spina bifida. Spinal cord is on body surface because neural folds fail to fuse.

61
Q

What is Holoprosencephaly?

A

Lack of forebrain development

62
Q

What is meningoencephalocele?

A

Herniation of the brain and meninges

63
Q

What is meningohydroencephalocele?

A

Herniation of brain, ventricles and meninges

64
Q

What is exencephaly?

A

Brain is located outside the calvarium- failure of cranial neural tube closure

65
Q

What is hydrocephaly?

A

Excess CSF- usually due to an obstruction. May occur with spina bifida and/or arnold chiari malformation

66
Q

What is Arnold Chiari malformation?

A

Herniation of cerebellum through the foramen magnum. Often occurs concurrently with spina bifida and hydrocephaly.

67
Q

What is eventration of diaphragm?

A

Diaphragm fully forms with the lack or failure of myotomes from somites of C3-C5. A very weak/thin diaphragm forms. May or may not have phrenic nerve.

68
Q

What is congenital diphragmatic herniation?

A

Failure of pleuropteritoneal folds to close. Usually occurs on the left as the rt side closes first due to the liver. Growing gut tube migrates upward into the lt thoracic cavity and prevents lung formation and causes pulmonary hypoplasia.

69
Q

What are the 3 waves of cells created by the ventricular neuroepithelium?

A

1st: Neuroblasts (stay in Mantle later). 2nd: Gliablasts (migrate to Marginal layer) and 3rd: Ependymal cells

70
Q

What are the 4 types of CNS glial cells and their functions?

A
  1. Astrocytes: Blood brain barrier, 2. Oligodendrocytes: CNS myelin, 3. Microglia: Phagocytes and 4. Ependymal cells: From choroid plexus and produce CSF
71
Q

What origins of the 4 types of CNS glial cells?

A
  1. Astrocytes: Gliablasts, 2. Oligodendrocytes: Gliablasts, 3. Microglia:Vascular mesenchyme (monocytes) and 4. Ependymal cells:3rd wave of neurepithelial differentiation
72
Q

What is ectopia cordis?

A

Heart outside of body, failure of thoracic ventral body wall to close

73
Q

What is the function and origin of schwann cells?

A

PNS meylin, Neural crest

74
Q

What is gastroschisis?

A

Failure of closure on abdominal body wall, intestines herniate into amniotic cavity and are damaged by amniotic fluid

75
Q

What is bladder and cloacal exstrophy?

A

Failure of body wall closure in pelvic region; bladder outside body in bladder exstrophy while bladder AND rectum outside the body in cloacal exstrophy

76
Q

Craniosynostosis

A

Premature closure of one of one or more sutures

77
Q

What is omphalocele?

A

Failure of gut tube to return after normal physiological herniation through the umbilical cord

78
Q

Brachycephaly

A

Coronal and lamdoid suture craniosysnostosis

79
Q

Scaphocephaly

A

Sagittal suture craniosynostosis

80
Q

Phocomelia (definition)

A

Rudimentary hands and feet, but no long bones

81
Q

Phocomelia (cause)

A

Premature interruption of the apical ectodermal ridge

82
Q

Amelia (definition)

A

Complete absence of one or more extremites

83
Q

Syndactyly (definition)

A

fused fingers or toes

84
Q

Syndactyly (cause)

A

Problem with apoptotic cell death between digits

85
Q

Polydactyly

A

Extra fingers or toes

86
Q

(embryonic origin) Left Brachiocephalic vein

A

Anastomosis of right and left cranial cardinal veins

87
Q

(embryonic origin) Right brachiocephalic vein

A

Right cranial cardinal vein

88
Q

(embryonic orgin) SVC

A

Right common cardinal vein

89
Q

(Embryonic orgin) Azygous

A

Right caudal cardinal vein

90
Q

(embryonic orgin) Proximal IVC

A

Right Vitelline vein

91
Q

(embryonic origin)Common Iliac veins

A

Caudal aspect of both right and left caudal cardinal veins

92
Q

(embryonic orgin) Hepatic portal system

A

Right Vitelline vein

93
Q

(embryonic orgin) ductus venosus

A

Left Umbilical vein

94
Q

(embryonic orgin) right subclavian artery

A

right 4th aortic arch

95
Q

(embryonic orgin) sinus venarum

A

Sinus venosis (right sinus horn)

96
Q

(embryonic orgin) carotids

A

3rd aortic arch

97
Q

(embryonic orgin) stapedius artery

A

2nd aortic arch

98
Q

(embryonic orgin) Maxillary artery

A

1st aortic arch

99
Q

(embryonic orgin) ductus arteriousus

A

left 6th aortic arch

100
Q

Anastomosis of right and left cranial cardinal veins

A

(embryonic orgin) Left Brachiocephalic vein

101
Q

Right cranial cardinal vein

A

(embryonic orgin) Right brachiocephalic vein

102
Q

(embryonic orgin) Aortic arch

A

left 4th aortic arch

103
Q

Right common cardinal vein

A

(embryonic orgin) SVC

104
Q

Right caudal cardinal vein

A

(Embryonic orgin) Azygous

105
Q

Right Vitelline vein

A

(embryonic orgin) Proximal IVC

106
Q

Caudal aspect of both right and left caudal cardinal veins

A

(embryonic orgin) Common Iliac veins

107
Q

Right Vitelline vein

A

(embryonic orgin) Hepatic portal system

108
Q

Left Umbilical vein

A

(embryonic orgin) ductus venosus

109
Q

right 4th aortic arch

A

(embryonic orgin) right subclavian artery

110
Q

Sinus venosis (right sinus horn)

A

(embryonic orgin) sinus venarum

111
Q

3rd aortic arch

A

(embryonic orgin) carotids

112
Q

2nd aortic arch

A

(embryonic orgin) stapedius artery

113
Q

1st aortic arch

A

(embryonic orgin) Maxillary artery

114
Q

left 6th aortic arch

A

(embryonic orgin) ductus arteriousus

115
Q

left 4th aortic arch

A

(embryonic orgin) Aortic arch

116
Q

Tetralogy of fallot (name 4 symptoms)

A

VSD, Hypertrophy of right ventricle, stenosis of pulmonary trunk, and overriding aorta

117
Q

Persistent truncus arterios (causes what?)

A

a mixture of oxygenated and deoxygenated blood in both systems; accompanied by VSD in most cases

118
Q

Great vessel trasposition

A

Right ventricle ->Aorta ////left ventricle ->pulmonary trunk

119
Q

VSD, Hypertrophy of right ventricle, stenosis of pulmonary trunk, and overriding aorta

A

Tetralogy of fallot (name 4 symptoms)

120
Q

a mixture of oxygenated and deoxygenated blood in both systems; accompanied by VSD in most cases

A

Persistent truncus arterios (causes what?)

121
Q

Right ventricle ->Aorta ////left ventricle ->pulmonary trunk

A

Great vessel transposition

122
Q

Preductal Aortic coarctation (implications)

A

Increased use of ductus arteriosus, during fetal development, and loss of lower extremity circulation after birth

123
Q

Postductal Aortic coarctation (implications)

A

loss of lower extremity circulation in fetal development, thus remodeling of upper extremity vessels; fine at birth because of remodeling

124
Q

right 6th aortic arch

A

degenerates (therefore Rt. recurrent laryngeal hooks underneath Rt. Subclavian a.)

125
Q

Lt. common cardinal vein

A

Coronary Sinus & Oblique vein of Left Atrium

126
Q

Coronary Sinus & Oblique vein of Left Atrium (embryonic origin)

A

Lt. common cardinal vein

127
Q

What is meroencephaly?

A

(Can be caused by exencephaly.) Brain tissue exposed to amniotic fluid degenerates with the brainstem left in tact. (Anencephaly is similar, although may have even less brain tissue present than meroencephaly)

128
Q

Rt. Umbilical Vein

A

Degenerates

129
Q

Lt. Vitelline Vein

A

Degenrates