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Global 7500 Flash Cards > Flash cards > Flashcards

Flash cards

1
Q

Are warning messages always visible at the top of the CAS message list?

A

Yes

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2
Q

How many chimes for a warning message?

A

Three (triple-chime)

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3
Q

Are some warning messages inhibited during takeoff?

A

Yes

Takeoff (8) - APU OVERTEMP, AV BAY OVHT, BRAKE OVERHEAT, CABIN ALT, CABIN DELTA P, FLT CTL DIRECT, GEAR, NORMAL BRAKE FAIL
Landing (3) - AV BAY OVHT, CABIN ALT, CABIN DELTA P

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4
Q

When are CAS messages no longer inhibited during takeoff?

A

Aircraft at or above 400’ baro above takeoff altitude or
25 seconds after weight-off-wheels or
airspeed less than 50 kts in the event of an RTO

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5
Q

When are CAS messages no longer inhibited during landing?

A

Airplane is weight-on-wheels for 25 seconds or
airspeed is less than 50 kts or
airplane climbs above 200’ AGL during a go-around

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6
Q

Are some caution messages not inhibited during takeoff or landing?

A

Yes (20)- AURAL CH 1-2 FAIL, AURAL CH 1-2 OFF, EMER DEPRESS ON, EMER LIGHTS OFF, EMERGENCY DESCENT, FD MODE CHANGE, FLT CTRL DIRECT ADS, FLIGHT CTRL DIRECT IRS, GEAR DISAGREE, HYD 1-2 LO PRESS, HYD 1-3 LO PRESS, HYD 2-3 LOW PRESS, ICE DET RANGE LIMIT, L ELEVATOR FAIL, L REVERSER LOCK FAIL, L SIDESTICK, R ELEVATOR FAIL, R REVERSER UNLOCK, R SIDESTICK,

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7
Q

When aural warnings are muted, can they still be heard in headphones?

A

Yes

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8
Q

What occurs if autopilot is engaged with no active FD modes?

A

ROLL and FPA modes will activate

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9
Q

Under which conditions does the autopilot automatically disconnect?

A

Flight control reversion to direct mode, if any AP fault is detected

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10
Q

When will EDM automatically activate?

A

Autopilot engaged, cabin altitude has exceeded 14,500’, aircraft altitude greater than 25,000’

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11
Q

What is the maximum operating altitude?

A

51,000’

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12
Q

What is the length of the Global 7500?

A

111’ 2” (33.88m)

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13
Q

What is the wingspan of the Global 7500?

A

104’ (31.71m)

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14
Q

What is the height of the Global 7500?

A

27’ (8.24m)

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15
Q

What is the maximum ramp weight?

A

115,100 lb (52,208kg)

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16
Q

What is the maximum takeoff weight?

A

114,850 lb (52,095kg)

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17
Q

What is the maximum landing weight?

A

87,600 lb (39,735kg)

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18
Q

What is the maximum zero fuel weight?

A

67,500 lb (30,617kg)

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19
Q

What is the maximum baggage load?

A

2,500 lb (1,134 kg)

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20
Q

What is the maximum fuel weight?

A

51,850 lb (23,500 kg)

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21
Q

What type of engine?

A

GE Passport 20-19BB1A

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22
Q

What is the thrust rating of the engine?

A

18,920 lb at sea level ISA+15

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23
Q

When is APU door position shown on the SERVICE synoptic?

A

When APU inlet door fails to fully open

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24
Q

From where is fuel normally supplied to the APU?

A

Right wing collector tank

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25
Q

What is APU bleed air used for?

A

ECS, engine starting, fuel tank inerting

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26
Q

What happens when the APU is selected OFF?

A

1 minute cool down period followed by shutdown

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27
Q

What conditions trigger an APU emergency shutdown in flight?

A

Failure of both speed sensors or an actual overspeed

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28
Q

How can frequencies be tuned?

A

CTP
CNS
Graphically
From charts

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29
Q

How can the cursor be controlled?

A

CCP and MKP arrows

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30
Q

What happens to the PFD on DU1 if the DU fails?

A

It moves to DU2

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31
Q

When will an open large service door trigger a caution CAS message?

A

With one engine running

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32
Q

When will an open small service door trigger a caution CAS message?

A

One engine running and parking brake released

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33
Q

What are the three ways to close the passenger door?

A

Internal switch forward of the passenger door, exterior switch aft of the passenger door, manual closing device if motor failed

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34
Q

Where is the manual passenger door closing pull handling located?

A

On the door motor forward of the passenger door

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35
Q

What are the different types of electronic checklist?

A

Normal, non-normal, user-defined

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36
Q

What type of electrical power does the aircraft use?

A

115 VAC and 28 VDC

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37
Q

When does the RAT deploy?

A

Loss of all AC power in flight or when the RAT deployment handle is lifted

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38
Q

What is the function of the BATT LOADS switch?

A

Disconnects most electrical loads from the batteries

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39
Q

Where is the external ground power panel located?

A

On the lower body fairing forward of the right engine

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40
Q

Can one generator (VFG or APU) supply the entire electrical system?

A

Yes

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41
Q

What is the function of the EXT AC PBA on the overhead electrical panel?

A

Connects and disconnects external AC power to the aircraft

42
Q

On the electrical overhead panel, what does a cyan AVAIL indication on the EXT AC PBA indicate?

A

External AC power is connected to the aircraft and is capable of supplying up to 60 kVA

43
Q

What is the electrical output of a VFG?

A

115 VAC at 60 kVA continuous, 67.5 kVA for 5 mins, 75 kVA for 2 mins, 90 kVA for 5 seconds

44
Q

What is the electrical output of the APU generator?

A

115 VAC at 60 kVA continuous, 67.5 kVA for 5 mins, 75 kVA for 2 mins, 90 kVA for 5 seconds

45
Q

What is the load limit on the APU generator?

A

60 kVA up to 45,000 feet, 40 kVA up to 51,000 feet.

46
Q

Above what altitude does the APU GCU allow only one AC hydraulic pump to operate?

A

43,000 feet

47
Q

What is the electrical rating of the TRUs?

A

28 VDC at 300 amps up to 40,000 feet, 250 amps up to 51,000 feet

48
Q

What is the purpose of the two PMGs?

A

Permanent Magnet Generators provide a secondary power source to the Fly By Wire Power Converters

49
Q

What DC buses are powered by the TRUs and batteries?

A

MAIN BATT BUS, APU BATT BUS
DC ESS BUSS 1, DC ESS BUS 2
DC BUS 1, DC BUS 2

50
Q

When are the MAIN BATT BUS and APU BATT BUS powered?

A

At all times regardless of the position of the battery switches (when batteries are connected)

51
Q

During bus isolation, when is power removed from the AC BUS 2?

A

When the R GEN PBA is selected OFF

52
Q

In the event of a total loss of AC power, what is the source of emergency AC power?

A

RAT

53
Q

When deployed and operating, at what speed does the RAT supply power to the AC ESS BUS via the ESS TRU?

A

147 knots

54
Q

What is shed during power of high-power demand?

A

Non-essential electrical equipment

55
Q

What does selecting the TRIP softkey on the CB page do?

A

Confirms the breaker tripped state, changes the state from TRIPPED to OUT and removes the CB TRIP message from the CAS if no other TRIP soft keys are active

56
Q

What position must the CB CONFIG rotary switch be in prior to flight?

A

NORM

57
Q

What is the thrust rating of the GE Passport 20 engine?

A

18,920 lbs at SL

58
Q

What is the dedicated power source for the FADEC?

A

The Permanent Magnetic Alternator (PMA) attached to engine

59
Q

How many channels does each FADEC have?

A

Two, each channel is supported by an EEC

60
Q

How are the thrust reversers powered?

A

Hydraulically

61
Q

What is the capacity of each engine oil tank?

A

11.6 qt

62
Q

What is the function of the fuel/oil heat exchangers?

A

To heat fuel

63
Q

When does the FADEC use both ignitors?

A

During airstarts, when the IGN PBA is selected to ON

64
Q

Which parameter is used when calculating flex takeoff thrust?

A

Assumed outside air temperature

65
Q

When the engines are in TO mode, if an engine fails, what mode does the remaining engine transition to?

A

Maximum Continuous Thrust (MCT)

66
Q

What happens when an uncommanded thrust reverser deployment occurs?

A

L(R) THURST REVERSED UNLOCKED red CAS message, LEFT REVERSER UNLOCKED aural warning, red REV icon in the N1 gauge, Master warning, engine thrust automatically reduced to idle

67
Q

In flight, what is the priority bleed source for airstarting?

A

The opposite engine

68
Q

What happens when the TRIM AIR PBA is selected?

A

Trim air valves modulate open, the Hot Air Shutoff Valves (HASOV) close

69
Q

Which control on the PRESSURISATION panel immediately closes the outflow valves?

A

OUTFLOW VALVE 1(2) PBAs

70
Q

Up to what maximum cabin altitude can the cabin be depressurized when the EMER DEPRESS PBA is pressed?

A

14,500 feet

71
Q

How can an O2 overpressure be detected?

A

Green blow out disc forward of the passenger door is missing

72
Q

Which switch setting on the cockpit O2 masks provides a mix of ambient air and oxygen adjusted for cabin altitude?

A

N (normal)

73
Q

When the PASSENGER OXYGEN rotary switch is set to NORMAL, at what altitude do the passenger oxygen masks automaticcally deploy?

A

14,500 feet

74
Q

What flight control surfaces are hydraulically positioned by Power Control Units (PCU)s?

A

Rudder, elevator, ailerons, spoilers

75
Q

Are most structural protections lost in FBW DIRECT mode?

A

Yes

76
Q

What indicates both sidesticks are being operating simultaneously?

A

DUAL INPUT aural warning, red DUAL message shown on both PFDs

77
Q

What occurs when the sidestick AP/PTY pushbutton is pressed and held?

A

Momentary sidestick priority indicated by a green PTY annunciation on the glareshield SIDESTICK PBA and a “PRIORITY LEFT” or “PRIORITY RIGHT” aural message repeated three times

78
Q

What do the three MFS pairs on each wing provide?

A

Roll assist, speed brake control, ground lift dumping

79
Q

How is the horizontal stabiliser actuated?

A

Electromechanically

80
Q

What bank angle requires continuous sidestick input?

A

Greater than 45 degrees

81
Q

What are the nose up and nose down pitch limits?

A

17.5 degrees nose up on the ground, 30 degrees noseup in flight, 20 degrees nosedown

82
Q

In FBW normal mode, what indications occur when airspeed is at or below VAOA SOFT?

A

Sticker shaker activates, pitch attitude automatically reduced to limit minimum speed

83
Q

What occurs when FBW overspeed protection mode is active?

A

When 4 knots above VMAX, OVSPD appears in FMA, airspeed tape turns red, continuous chirp aural alert sounds

84
Q

What compensation is automatically provided by the FBW during an engine failure?

A

Partial yaw compensation

85
Q

Which flight controls provide feedback to the FBW system but are not controlled by it?

A

Slats and flaps

86
Q

How are the flats and slats actuated?

A

Electrically

87
Q

At what altitude above terrain is radar altitude displayed?

A

2,500 feet

88
Q

What is the normal air data source for the left PFD?

A

ADS 1

89
Q

What is the normal air data source for the ISI?

A

ADS 3

90
Q

What is the backup air data source?

A

ADS 4

91
Q

In the event of a failure or miscompare, does the air data source switch to the backup automatically?

A

No

92
Q

What is required for the FBW to operate in normal mode?

A

An air data source, an inertial reference source, at least one PFCC

93
Q

What are the normal mode pitch protections?

A

Load factor, pitch attitude, high AoA, overspeed, tail strike, elevator surface command limiting

94
Q

What are the normal mode functions?

A

Pitch command and speed stability, pitch compensation in turns for bank angles up to 33 degrees, auto stab trim.

95
Q

Reversion to direct mode may occur at what speed when the RAT is supplying AC electrical power?

A

110 knots

96
Q

What are the characteristics of the FBW in ground mode?

A

Direct control of primary flight control surfaces, pitch trim controls the HSTAB, trim speed set to V2+10, pitch limit 17.5 degrees, stick shaker active above 60 knots and activates at 14.3 degrees AoA

97
Q

Is the autopilot available in any DIRECT FBW mode?

A

No

98
Q

What are the DIRECT FBW modes?

A

PFCC direct, REU direct, AFCU direct

99
Q

How is the PFCC direct mode annunciated?

A

Amber DIRECT message on PFD, amber FLT CTRL DIRECT ADS or FLT CTRL DIRECT IRS message on CAS, DIRECT MODE on flight control synoptic page

100
Q

How is the REU direct mode annuciated?

A

Amber DIRECT message on PFD, amber FLT CTRL DIRECT CAS message and 3 PFCC messages (FAIL or OFF), DIRECT MODE on flight control synoptic

101
Q

How is the AFCU DIRECT mode annuciated?

A

Red DIRECT message on PFD,

Global 7500 Flash Cards (1 decks)

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