Flash Card - Trusts

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1
Q

What are the elements to form a valid Trust?

A

1) Definitive beneficiary;
2) Settlor with capacity;
3) Intent to create a trust;
4) Trustee;
5) Valid trust purpose;
6) Trust property (the res); AND
7) Compliance with any State formalities.

*A trust will NOT fail solely because the appointed trustee dies, is removed, or refuses to act as trustee. The court will appoint a new trustee.

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2
Q

What are the majority and minority views for a Trust’s revocability?

A

Majority View & UTC: Trusts ARE revocable, unless stated otherwise.

Minority View: Trusts are irrevocable by default, unless expressly stated otherwise. (Trust cannot be modified or revoked after creation).

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3
Q

Testamentary Trust
vs.
Inter Vivos Trust

A

Testamentary: A Trust created through the provisions of a Settlor’s Will, which does not take effect until the Settlor’s death.

Inter Vivos: A trust created during the settlor’s lifetime

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4
Q

What is a Charitable Trust?

A

One created by a Settlor to confer a substantial benefit to society (charitable purpose).

(The rule against perpetuities DOES NOT apply here)

Even if a Charitable Trust fails to state a specific purpose or beneficiary, the trust will NOT fail. Instead, the court will select a purpose/beneficiary consistent with the Settlor’s intent.

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5
Q

What is a Discretionary Trust?

A

When a Trustee has absolute discretion and power to determine when and how much of the trust property is distributed to the beneficiaries.

The exercise of discretion must be in good faith.

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6
Q

What is a Resulting Trust?
When does it arise?

A

A trust implied by law based upon the presumed intent of the parties. It may arise when:
a) A private express trust has NO beneficiary or is missing a provision concerning the handling of trust property;
b) A charitable trust ends because of impossibility or impartibility;
c) A purchase money resulting trust; OR
d) A semi-secret trust.

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7
Q

What is the Cy Pres Doctrine, and when will courts apply it?

A

An equitable doctrine that applies to charitable bequests and charitable trusts.
Courts will apply it to modify a Charitable Trust to be consistent with and “as near as possible” with the settlor’s or testator’s
intent (if the purpose of the trust or bequest is frustrated).

*Only applies if the testator had a general charitable intent.

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8
Q

What is a Spendthrift Provision?
When is it valid?

A

A provision that prevents the transfer of a beneficiary’s interest, and it is valid ONLY IF it restrains both voluntary AND involuntary transfers.

*A spendthrift interest means that the interest CANNOT be sold or assigned by the income beneficiary, nor may any creditors reach it.

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9
Q

What are the 5 Exceptions allowing a creditor to reach a beneficiary’s income interest despite a Spendthrift Provision?

A

1) A judgment creditor who has provided services for the protection of a beneficiary’s interest;
2) A creditor who furnishes necessities;
3) An Order for child support or alimony;
4) Any claim by the state/federal government; OR
5) A self-settled trust where the settlor retains an interest.

*Spendthrift Trusts DO NOT provide protection for mandatory distributions of trust property.

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10
Q

When may a trust be modified by the Settlor?

A

It can be modified by the Settlor:
a) Who expressly reserved the power to modify the trust; OR
b) Who has power to revoke the trust (including power to amend).

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11
Q

When may an Irrevocable Trust be terminated?

A

a) The settlor and all of the beneficiaries agree to do so while the settlor is still alive;
b) All of the beneficiaries agree, and it will not frustrate the purpose of the trust; OR
c) By operation of law through merger (trustee is sole beneficiary) or passive trust (all trust property has been transferred to the beneficiary).

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12
Q

How may a Revocable Trust be revoked?

A

a) Compliance with any method of revocation provided in the trust instrument; OR
b) If the instrument doesn’t provide a method, then the trust can be revoked by a writing signed by the settlor and delivered to the trustee during the lifetime of the settlor.

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13
Q

What does the Duty of Care require of the Trustee?

A

To manage the trust as a reasonably prudent person would in his own dealings.

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14
Q

What does the Duty of Loyalty require of the Trustee?

A

1) To refrain from self-dealing;
2) Administer the trust in the best interest of the beneficiaries; AND
3) Give the same care and deference to each beneficiary.

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15
Q

How is a Trustee given powers?

A

Their powers can be expressly granted in the trust OR implied.

*A Trustee has a duty to distribute the trust income and assets in accordance with the directions in the trust instrument.

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16
Q

What does the Prudent Investor Rule require a Trustee to do?

A

To exercise the degree of care, skill, and prudence of a reasonable investor investing in his own property.
This includes diversifying assets, avoiding risky investments, and keeping trust assets productive.

17
Q

What factors does a court consider in assessing whether a Trustee abided by the Prudent Investor Rule?

A

1) The distribution requirements of the trust;
2) The general economic conditions;
3) The role the investment plays in the trust’s overall investment portfolio; and
4) The trust’s need for liquidity, regularity of income, and preservation of capital.

18
Q

When is a Co-Trustee liable for wrongful acts of another Co-Trustee?

A

If she:
a) Participates in, approves of, or conceals breach of trust by a co-trustee;
b) Negligently enables a co-trustee to commit a breach;
c) Fails to take reasonable steps to compel a co-trustee to redress a breach of trust; OR
d) Improperly delegates the administration of the trust to a co-trustee.

19
Q

What is the remedy against a Trustee that breaches her duties?

A

She may be removed AND held liable for:
1) Any loss/depreciation in the value of the trust;
2) Any profit made by her through the breach; AND
3) Any profit that would have accrued to the trust but for the breach.