Flash Flashcards

1
Q

Too where is a Clearence limit described by

A

Aerodrome, significant point or controlled airspace boundary

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2
Q

Contents of a Clearence limit:

A
  1. Aircraft ident (as per flp)
  2. Clearence limit
    3.route of flight
    4.level of flight
  3. Any other info:e.g. Ssr operation, approach or depart procedure, Clearence expiry time
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3
Q

Lateral separation (VOR)

A

15NM-atleast 1 aircraft reports at a distance of 15 NM
15 degrees divergence atleast
BOTH AIRCRAFT REPORT ESTABLISHED ON RADIALS
ATLEAST ONE OUTSIDE 15 NM

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4
Q

Lateral separation (NDB)

A

15NM-atleast one aircraft reports a distance to NDB of atleast 15 NM
Atleast 30*degrees-both aircrafts are established on Travto or from NDB which are diverging nu atleast 30 degrees

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5
Q

Longitudal separation (same track, same level)

A

Without navaids-atleast 15 min
With navaids-atleast 10 min
Preseeding aircraft 20knots faster-atleast 5minutes
Preseeding aircraft 40 knots faster-
Atleast 3 minutes
(For 3 and 5 min separation):
One of the three:
1: departed from the same aerodrome
2: reported over the same reporting point
3: over-flight reported over fix at departure point to ensure (3;5min) can be established when departing aircraft joins air route)

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6
Q

Readback/hearback, when?

A

*ATC route clearences
*clearence/instructions to land/take off/hold short/cross/taxi and backtrack on any runway
*runway in use/altimeter setting/ssr/new communication freq/levels/heading and speed
*transition level

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7
Q

TRL
TL
TA

A

Transition level
Transition layer
Transition altitude

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8
Q

Wake categories
Explain the weight for the different categories
L/M/H/J

A

L-7000 kg or less
M-7001-135999kg
L-136000 kg and over
J- A380

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9
Q

Departure wake turbulence between what wake types?

A

L/M/H behind a J
M/L behind a H
L behind a M

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10
Q

Departure wake separation (2min)

A

L behind M
L/M behind a H
H behind a J
(Same runway or parallel runways separated by less than 760 meters)

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11
Q

Departure wake separation(3 min)

A

L/M behind a J
Same RWY or
parallel runways separated by less than 760 meters)

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12
Q

Departure wake separation, (3 min intermediate departures)

A

L behind M
L,M behind H
Any intermediate part of the same RWY
Any intermediate part of a parallell runway separated by less than 760 m

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13
Q

Departure wake separation (4 min)

A

L/M behind J
Any intermediate part of the same RWY
any part of a parallel RWY separated by less than 760 m

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14
Q

Departure wake turbulence
(Say minutes!!!)crossing rwy/parallel by less than 1000 feet

A

CROSSING rwy flight path cross altitude/less than 1000 feet
PARALELL runway flight path cross altitude /less than 1000 feet
2 minutes!

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15
Q

How does time round up/down in ATD

A

Nearest minute

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16
Q

Wake turbulence separation, (surveillence system) in minutes

A

AFTER J
H-6 min
M-7 min
L- 8 min

After H
H-4 min
M-5 min
L- 6 min

After M
L- 5 min

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17
Q

S-VFR minima CONDITIONS:
By pilot and by controller

A

Day time only
Controller: may be authorized within a controlled zone, subject to an ATC clearence
Pilot:
surface in sight and clear of clouds
Flight visibility not less than 1500 m (800 for helicopters)
Fly less than 140kn IAS

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18
Q

When should and special VFR not be authorized?

A

*visability less than 1500 m (800m for helicopters)
*cloud ceiling less than 600 feet

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19
Q

What is transfer of control point?

A

Defined point ( boundary,significant point, specific time) along the flight path at which the responsibility for atc to the aircraft is transferred from one control unit to another

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20
Q

What is a transferring unit?

A

The ATC unit in the process of transferring the responsibility of air traffic control to an aircraft to the next ATC unit or air traffic controller along the route of flight

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21
Q
A
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22
Q

Important concepts-transfer of control, laterally and vertically
Se sidan 39 och 40 (bilder)i ATM review!!

A

Important concepts-transfer of control, laterally and vertically
Se sidan 39 och 40 (bilder)i ATM review!!

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23
Q

Emergency
Who does ATC contact and what are the faces?

A

ATC contacts RCC immediately at a state of emergency, these three accordingly
1. Incerta (uncertainty phase)
2. Alerfa (alert phase)
3. Distresfa (distress phase)

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24
Q

Explain and say the shortened version for “Uncertainty phase “

A

A situation where uncertainty exists as to the safety of an aircraft and its occupants
“Incerfa”

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25
Q

Explain and say the shortened version of “Alert phase”

A

A situation wherein apprehension exists as to the safety of an aircraft and its occupants
“Alerfa”

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26
Q

Explain and say the shortened version of “Distress phase”

A

A situation wherein there is reasonable certainty that an aircraft and its occupants are threatened by grave and imminent danger or require immediate assistance
“Distresfa”

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27
Q

Uncertainty phase (incerfa)
When is it relevant?

A

30 min of no report
30 min no arrival

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28
Q

Alert phase (Alerfa)
When is it relevant?

A

-Cleared to land-5 min no news
-U/S but no forced landing
-Unlawful interference
-At ATIS aerodromes when so prescribed

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29
Q

Distress phase (Detresfa)
When is it relevant?

A

-fuel?
-forced landing?
-crash?

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30
Q

What is unlawful interference?
Give a few points

A

-unlawful seizure of aircraft
-destruction of an aircraft in service
-Hostage taking
-Hazardous device
-use of an aircraft for the purpose of causing death serious injury or serious damage to property or the inveronment
-communicationof false information

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31
Q

Conflict warnings
Both airborne and ground based:

A

Airbourne: TCAS (Traffic alert and collision avoidance system

Ground based: STCA (Short Term Conflict System)
MTCD (Medium term conflict Detection)

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32
Q

Terrain proximity warnings
Both airbourne and ground based:

A

Airbourne: GPWS (Ground proximity warning system)

Ground based: MSAW (minimum safe altitude warning
APW (area proximity warning)
APM (approach path monitor)

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33
Q

CRUSING Levels for
IFR eastbound/Westbound
VFR eastbound/ westbound

A

IFR EASTbound 30/50/70/90…
IFR WESTbound 40/60/80/100…
VFR EASTbound 35/55/75/95..
VFR WESTbound 45/65/85/105…

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34
Q

Vertical separation minima

A

1000 feet up to and including FL410
2000 feet above FL 410

Westbound at FL 430 for ex.

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35
Q

Vertical separation standards (in practice)

A

Below FL290 (always 1000feet)
Between FL290-FL410 (1000feet except if aircraft is none RVSM, then 2000 feet separation)
Above FL410 (always 2000 feet)

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36
Q

What is RVSM?

A

Reduced Vertical Separation Minima

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37
Q

between what levels are RVSM valid?

A

FL290-FL410

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38
Q

Can an aircraft not approved in RVSM airspace fly in RVSM airspace?

A

-They can transition to an altitude over FL410 ex FL 430
-If you are an DOD
-If you are an medevac
-If you are NASA

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39
Q

Under what circumstances may RVSM requirements not apply?

A

Oceanic for example

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40
Q

Explain A Airspace (IFR)
1.Separation
2.Service
3.Speed
4.Radio equipment Req/continuous 2-way radio
5.ATC Clearence

A

1.IFR-IFR
2.ATC
3.NONE
4.YES and YES
5.YES

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41
Q

Explain B Airspace (IFR)
1.Separation
2.Service
3.Speed
4.Radio equipment Req/continuous 2-way radio
5.ATC Clearence

A
  1. IFR-IFR, IFR-VFR, VFR-IFR, VFR-VFR
  2. ATC
  3. None
  4. Yes and yes
    5.Yes
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42
Q

Explain C Airspace (IFR)
1.Separation
2.Service
3.Speed
4.Radio equipment Req/continuous 2-way radio
5.ATC Clearence

A

1.IFR-IFR, IFR-VFR, VFR-IFR
2. ATC for separation, traffic info for reg VFR, avoidance advice on req
3.None
4. YES and YES
5.YES

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43
Q

Explain D Airspace (IFR)
1.Separation
2.Service
3.Speed
4.Radio equipment Req/continuous 2-way radio
5.ATC Clearence

A
  1. IFR-IFR
  2. ATC for separation, traffic info for VFR/VFR, avoidance advice on request
  3. Under 250kn below FL100
  4. YES and YES
  5. YES
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44
Q

Explain E Airspace (IFR)
1.Separation
2.Service
3.Speed
4.Radio equipment Req/continuous 2-way radio
5.ATC Clearence

A

1.IFR-IFR
2. ATC and as far as practical traffic info
3. Under 250 on below FL 100
4. YES and YES
5. YES

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45
Q

Explain F Airspace (IFR)
1.Separation
2.Service
3.Speed
4.Radio equipment Req/continuous 2-way radio
5.ATC Clearence

A
  1. IFR-IFR (as far as practical)
  2. ADVS (FIS is requested)
  3. Under 250kn below FL 100
  4. Radio equipment-yes
    2-way radio- no
  5. no
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46
Q

Explain G Airspace (IFR)
1.Separation
2.Service
3.Speed
4.Radio equipment Req/continuous 2-way radio
5.ATC Clearence

A

1.NONE
2. FIS if requested
3. Under 250 on below FL100
4. Yes and No
5. no

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47
Q

Explain A Airspace (VFR)
1.Separation
2.Service
3.Speed
4.Radio equipment Req/continuous 2-way radio
5.ATC Clearence

A

VFR does NOT fly in A-airspace

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48
Q

Explain B Airspace (VFR)
1.Separation
2.Service
3.Speed
4.Radio equipment Req/continuous 2-way radio
5.ATC Clearence

A
  1. IFR-IFR, IFR-VFR, VFR-IFR, VFR-VFR
    2.ATC
  2. none
  3. Yes and yes
  4. Yes
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49
Q

Explain C Airspace (VFR)
1.Separation
2.Service
3.Speed
4.Radio equipment Req/continuous 2-way radio
5.ATC Clearence

A
  1. IFR-IFR, IFR-VFR, VFR-IFR.
  2. ATC for separation, Teaffic info for VFR/VFR avoidance advice on req
  3. Under 250 on below FL100
  4. Yes and yes
  5. yes
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50
Q

Explain D Airspace (VFR)
1.Separation
2.Service
3.Speed
4.Radio equipment Req/continuous 2-way radio
5.ATC Clearence

A
  1. None
  2. traffic info, avoidance advice on request
  3. Under 250 on below FL100
  4. Yes and yes
  5. Yes
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51
Q

Explain E Airspace (VFR)
1.Separation
2.Service
3.Speed
4.Radio equipment Req/continuous 2-way radio
5.ATC Clearence

A
  1. None
  2. Traffic info as far as practical
  3. Under 250kn below FL100
    4.no and no
  4. No
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52
Q

Explain F Airspace (VFR)
1.Separation
2.Service
3.Speed
4.Radio equipment Req/continuous 2-way radio
5.ATC Clearence

A
  1. None
  2. FIS if requested
  3. Under 250kn below FL100
  4. No and no
  5. No
53
Q

Explain G Airspace (VFR)
1.Separation
2.Service
3.Speed
4.Radio equipment Req/continuous 2-way radio
5.ATC Clearence

A
  1. None
  2. FIS if requested
  3. Under 250kn below FL100
  4. No and no
  5. No
54
Q

To whom should ATC be provided?

A

1.IFR in airspace A-E
2. VFR in airspace B-D
3. All Special-VFR
4. All aerodrome traffic at controlled aerodromes

55
Q

VMC-minima in all airspaces
Below and above FL100

A

Above: 1000 feet clear of clouds vertically (below and above)
1500 m clear of clouds horizontally
8 km visibility

Below:
Only difference is 5km visibility

56
Q

VMC minima in airspace F-G at or Below 3000 feet

A

Clear of clouds
Surface in sight
5km visibility

57
Q

What is IMC?

A

Instrumental meteorological conditions
IMC occurs when meteorological criteria is below VMC

58
Q

What is a special VFR?

A

An VFR flight cleared by ATC to operate within a control zone below VMC minima

Only during day

59
Q

Explain the minimum heights for VFR
BOTH congested areas/towns/settlements aswell as elsewhere

A

Towns/cities etc:
1000 feet above highest point and 600 meter horizontally from the highest point

Elsewhere: 500 feet above and 150 meter horizontally from the highest point

60
Q

Explain the Minimum heights for IFR
BOTH over high terrain or in mountainous areas aswell as elsewhere

A

High terrain/mou… area:
2000feet above highest point and 8 km horizontally from the highest point
Elsewhere:
1000 feet above highest point and 8 km horizontally from the highest point

61
Q

transition level
Transition layer
Transition altitude
Elevated aerodrome
What pressure are used

A

Level:standard 1013.25 (Flight level)
Layer:
Altitude: QNH (altitude) AMSL
Elevated aerodrome QFE (heights) elevation

62
Q

What are the divisions of airspace?

A

CTR/TMA/CTA
FIZ/TMZ/ATZ
TRA/TSA
P/R/D-area
Airway

63
Q

Different airspace classification
CTR-A-D
FIZ-G
TMA A-E
CTA-A-E

A

Uncontrolled airspace IS F-G
THE QUESTION IS THE ANSWER

64
Q

Can a pilot enter D-area?

A

Avoid
-enter at own risk

65
Q

Can a pilot enter R-area?

A

With the permission of ATC-unit-yes

66
Q

Can a pilot enter P area?

A

No, it is prohibited

67
Q

TRA-what does it stand for and can a pilot enter?

A

Temporary reserved area
Civil airspace but temporary used for military use
May be allowed under ATC-clearence

68
Q

TSA-what does it stand for and can a pilot enter?

A

Temporary segregated area
Never allowed to transit/enter

69
Q

What time is used in aviation?

A

UTC- coordinated universal time

70
Q

ANS
ATM AIS CNS MET
ATS ATFCM ASM
ATC FIS ALRT ADVS
ACC APP TWR

A

ANS
ATM AIS CNS MET
ATS ATFCM ASM
ATC FIS ALRT ADVS
ACC APP TWR

71
Q

ATS WHAT IS THEIR OBJECTIVES??

A

-Notify in need of search and resque (ALRT)
-provide advice and information for safe flight (ADVS) (FIS)
-prevent collisions, orderly flow of traffic (ATC)

72
Q

A service provided for the purpose of giving advice and information useful for the safe and efficient conduct of flights
What ANS service?

A

FIS- flight information service

73
Q

A service provided within advisory airspace to ensure separation, in so far as practical , between aircraft which are operating within IFR flight plans.
What ANS service?

A

ADVS- Advisory airspace

74
Q

Notify appropriate organisations regarding aircraft in need of search and resque aid, and assist such organisations as required
What ANS service?

A

ALRS-Alerting service

75
Q

Initial training consist of basic and rating
What are the 6 ratings?

A

ADC-aerodrome control rating
APP-approach control procedural rating
ACP-Area control procedural rating
APS-Approach control surveillance rating
ACS-Area control surveillance rating

76
Q

What are the possible rating endorsements?

A

ADC-SUR
APS-PAR & SRA
ACP-OCN
ACS-OCN

77
Q

Explain a unit endorsement

A

Authorization for the license holder to work in a specific sector/group of sectors or working positions
To get a unit endorsement, you need to to a unit endorsement course

78
Q

What are the 15 annexes?
1/2/3/11 on the test but do all from 1-19

A

1 student licensing
2 rules of the air
3 meteorological services
4 aeronautical charts
5 units of measurements
6 operation of aircraft
7 Aircraft nationality and registration marks
8 airworthiness of aircraft
9 facilitation
10 Aeronautical telecommunications
11 Air traffic services
12 search and rescue
13 Aircraft accidents and incident investigation
14 aerodromes
15 aeronautical information services
16 Environmental protection
17 security
18 the safe transport of DG in by air
19 safety management

79
Q

Item 7 on a flight plan:
aircraft identification
Name the three ways field 7 can be filled:

A

a:aircraft registrationidentification alone fe, (DAXCG, N127DK)
preceding icao telephony designator
Fe. (Small-Airline DAXCG)
b:operating agency and flight number
Fe. )SAS123, DLH779, AZA626)
c:Tactical callsign
F.e BRUNO12, RED4

80
Q

Item 8 (flight rules) in flight plan
What 4 different flight rules is there?

A

I-IFR
V-VFR
Y-IFR->VFR
Z VFR->IFR (require clearence upon switch

81
Q

DOF in update messages
How is it used in flight plan and if no DOF, what is written instead?

A

If DOF has been filed then a date writtenYYMMDD need to be filled
If no date has been filed, then a (-0) need to be filed

82
Q

Item 8 in flight plan-type of flight
What are those?

A

S for scheduled air service

N for non-scheduled air service

G for general aviation

M for military

X for other than the preceding categories

84
Q

Provide a few different flight plan modification messages

A

DLA-Delay
CHG-Change
CNL-Cancelled
DEP-departed
ARR-arrival

85
Q

What is the movement/manoeuvring and landing area?

A

Movement area is the manoeuvring area + apron(s)
Manoeuvring area is the landing area +taxiways
Landing area is the runways and helipads

86
Q

Operation in the vicinity of an aerodrome, traffic circuit
From the rwy end to rwy start-provide the stages

A

Upwind
Crosswind
Downwind
Base
Final

87
Q

What is complacency?

A

Overconfidence “we do not need to worry”
Experts are at risk due to overconfidence

88
Q

The performance levels-modes of cognitive functioning
What are they and who came up with it and when

A

Skill-based
Rule-based
Knowledge-based
Jens rasmussen 1983

89
Q

Distress phase (destresfa)
When is it relevant?

A

No news after check on alerfa

91
Q

What did J.Reason come up with and what does it mean?

A

The Swiss cheese model
Many Active failures and latent failures create hazards and increase the risk of accidents

92
Q

What is a human error in short?

A

Deviation from intention

93
Q

What are the error types and how are they recognizable?

A

Slips-attentional failures
pour tea instead of coffee
Lapses-memory failures
Forgetting a checklist item is a lapse

-

94
Q

3 phases of stress

A

Alarm stage
Resistance stage
Exhaustion stage

95
Q

What is the difference between stress and fatigue?

A

Stress is the nonspecific REACTION of the mind or body to a demand
It can be acute or chronic

Fatigue is and extreme form of TIREDNESS Often described as EXHAUSTION
It can also be acute or chronic

96
Q

What is meant be fatigue?

A

A physiological stage of REDUCED MENTAL or PHYSICAL PERFORMANCE CAPABILITY resulting from
Bad sleep, extended wakefulness, workload etc

97
Q

Fitness for duty is physically and mentally rested
How can you ensure that?

A

*medically fit
*rested for duty
*free from psychoactive substances such as alcohol or drugs

98
Q

Name the atmospheric layers
Top to bottom

A

Exosphere
Thermosphere
Mesosphere
Stratosphere
Troposphere

99
Q

Info no question of troposphere

A

Begins at the surface and ends at 7-18 km depending on latitude and season

Almost all water vapor and weather is found here

Fall of density and pressure with height(always)

Fall of temperature (usually) with height
Between troposphere and stratosphere is the tropopause

100
Q

Where can you see the boreolis?

A

Thermosphere

101
Q

Tropopauseno question

A

Air ceases to cool with height at the tropopause

Tropopause varies from 7-18 km depending on lat and season

102
Q

What is saturation and when can it occur?

A

The air can not contain any more water vapor

Saturation can occur by:
*Cooling if the air
*Adding water vapor to the air “by evaporation”

103
Q

What can hole more water vapor?
Warm or cold air?

104
Q

Showcase the 3 cloudforms and all clouds from low to high

A

Cirrus/stratos/cumulus-form

Low: Stratos, Nimostratus, stratocumulus
Medium:altostratus, altocumulus
High: cirrus, cirrustratus, cirrucumulus

105
Q

What are the vertical development clouds?

A

Cumulus, cumulonimbus, towering cumulus

106
Q

What are straticlouds known for?

A

*Continuous precipitation
*Drizzle, rain, snow
*Steady intensity-light->moderate
*Smaller sized particles

107
Q

What is known of convective clouds?

A

Precipitation with larger sized particles
Intermittent duration
Varying intensity-moderate->heavy
Showers rain/snow, hail

108
Q

What is Virga?

A

Precipitation evaporate before reaching the ground

109
Q

Explain cloud base and cloud cealing

A

Cloud base-the lowest height of the visual portion of the cloud

Cloud cealing-base of the lowest layer of clouds (under 20000’) with more than half of the sky being covered (5 octas or more)

110
Q

What are the measurements of clouds?

A

FEW 1-2 octas
SCT 3-4 octas
BKN 5-7 octas
OVC 8 octas

111
Q

What does VV
CAVOC
NSC
NCD mean?

A

Vertical visibility
ceiling and visibility ok
no significant clouds
No clouds detected

112
Q

What is the definition of a frontal system? LÄR DIG!!!

A

Front:boundary between two air masses with different characteristics

A frontline is where this boundary the two masses passes over ground (what you see on weather maps)

Basic principle: when cold and warm air meet, the denser colder air undercuts the warmer air

113
Q

What is a warm front? LÄR DIG!!!!

A

Advancing warm air mass will slide on top the denser colder air mass

The inclination from the frontal surface is very low, extending 300-500 NM from the surface to the tropopause

Gradually LOWERING CLOUD BASE

CONTINUES precipitation, risk of fog

After front passes->gradual break up

114
Q

Clouds of a warm front..

A

Stratus
Nimbostratus
Altostratus
Cirrostratus
Cirrus
Stratocumulus

115
Q

What is a cold front? LÄR DIG!!!

A

Cold air pushed under warm air

Steep frontal surface

Rapid lifting of warm air gives forced convection and showers

Fast ground movement, passes quicker, gives drops in temperature and change in wind direction

116
Q

Comparison-characteristics
(Cold- and warmfront)
1.Movement
2.Types of clouds
3.Cloud base
4.Precipitation
5.Visibility

A

Cold front:
1. Fast
2. Convective
3. High cloud base
4. showers, small area
5. Good visibility (not in precipitation

Warm front:
1. Slow
2. Layered
3. Low cloud base
4. Continuous
5. Reduced visibility

117
Q

When is windshear dangerous?

A

Close to the ground during departure and landing

118
Q

What is a thunderstorm (TS)?

A

Local storm produced byone or several cumulunbus (CB) clouds

Accompanied by thunder and lightning

Produce strong, gusty winds, heavy rain and sometimes hail

Can exist together with non-convective clouds (embedded)

119
Q

What is a Cumulunimbus (CB)?

A

Heavy masses of clouds with great vertical movement

Strong possibility for icing

Showers

ONLY cloud to THUNDER, LIGHTNING AND HAIL!

120
Q

What is the mature stage of a CB?

A

The cloud has reached its maximum vertical extent

Precipitation reaches the ground

Downbursts occur below the cloud base

Strong upward and downward motion in different parts of the cloud

Strong and gusty winds, lightning, heavy rain/hail and even funnel clouds can occur at this stage

121
Q

Explain the difference between fog and mist and what it is

A

clouds that touches the ground

The cooling producing fog usually arises from radiation, advection or mixing

Droplets forms when air is cooled to dew point and becomes saturated

Droplets of water are suspended into the air by upward motion

Visibility of 999 m and under=fog

Visibility of 1000-5000 meter=mist

122
Q

How is precipitation measured?

A

Intensity-
LIGHT (FBL), MODERATE (MOD) AND HEAVY (HVY)

123
Q

LÄS SIDAN 27 i MET review

A

Säkerställ att du kan allt!

124
Q

LÄS SIDAN 29 i MET REVIEW

A

Chart symbols/ SIGWX
Se till att kunna alla symboler!!

125
Q

Läs på om METAR/TAF/SIGMETS/NOTAMS/FLIGHT PLANS
Lär dig uttyda alla!!

A

Gör det nu

126
Q

Läs på om equipment review