Fitzgerald Review FNP Flashcards

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1
Q

Assessment of optic disc - what cranial nerve?

A

CN II

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2
Q

Symptoms of low CO

A

Dyspnea w/ exertion

Chest pain

ORTHOPNEA

Syncope or near syncope

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3
Q

What murmur: Holosystolic, blowing quality, Grade II-III/VI w/ predictable pattern of radiation (axilla)

A

Mitral regurgitation

Blood regurgitates back to left atrium = Low CO

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4
Q

What is holosystolic murmur

A

Murmur is heard ALL of systole at same intensity

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5
Q

Describe incompetent valve

A

valve cannot CLOSE properly

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6
Q

Pattern of radiation - aortic regurgitation

A

Radiation to neck/carotid

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7
Q

Most common target organ damage in HTN

A

LVH, MR is common in LVH

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8
Q

Asthma flare - assess what first?

A

FEV1

Oxygen Sat drops LATE in an asthma flare

Asthma is a disease of AIR TRAPPING, difficulty getting air OUT

Oxygen Sat drops when difficult to get air in, which is LATE in asthma flare

At 90% O2 sat, 60 PaO2

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9
Q

Describe asthma pathophysiology

A

Disease of AIR TRAPPING

Disease of airway inflammation w/ superimposed bronchospasm

Inflammation begets bronchospasm

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10
Q

Where to auscultate renal arterires

A

MCL at level of elbow

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11
Q

Bruit what is occuring

A

Turbulent blood flow through at atherosclerotic vessel

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12
Q

Grade 1 and 2 hypertensive retinopathy

Visual changes

Findings

A

Common in poorly-controlled HTN No visual changes w/ low-grade findings

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13
Q

Renal bruit

A

Bruit occassionally noted with renal artery stenosis

Cause of secondary HTN

Usually w/ markedly elevated BP at presentation

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14
Q

Evidence Hierarchy

A

Systematic review (meta-analysis)

RCT

Cohort Study

Case-control

Case series

Case report

Editorial

Expert opinion

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15
Q

Primary prevention

A

Prevent health problem, most cost-effective

Immunizations

Counseling

Disease prevention

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16
Q

Secondary prevention

A

Detecting disease early, asymptomatic/pre-clinical

BP checks, mammography, colonoscopy

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17
Q

Tertiary prevention

A

Minimize negative disease-induced outcomes

Avoid target organ damage

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18
Q

Burn prevention - hot water

A

Set to no hotter than 120F

At 130F 3rd degree burn at 30 seconds exposure

At 140F 3rd degree burn at 6 seconds exposure

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19
Q

Diphtheria

A

Pseudomembrane

Upper airway obstruction (cause of death)

Stridor (sound of upper airway obstruction)

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20
Q

Herd immunity

A

95% need to be immunized for herd immunity

Measles - droplet - very contagious

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21
Q

Immunization principles

A

Remove artificial barriers - need only focused history prior to receiving vaccines

Re-immunize when in doubt; risk is minimal

Only defer in the presence of moderate to severe illness (with or without fever)

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22
Q

Which immunizations cannot be given?

Neomycin Allergy

A

IPV

MMR

Varicella

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23
Q

Which immunizations cannot be given?

Streptomycin, Polymyxin B allergy

A

IPV

Vaccinia (smallpox)

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24
Q

Which immunizations cannot be given?

Bakers Yeast Allergy

A

Hepatitis B

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25
Q

Which immunizations cannot be given?

Gelatin allergy

A

MMR

Varicella

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26
Q

Which immunizations cannot be given?

Egg Allergy

A

None

Egg allergy NOT a contraindication to flu vaccine

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27
Q

Anaphylaxis Treatment

Patent Airway

A
  1. Epinephrine (IM preferred d/t more dependable absorption)
    1. No contraindication to epinephrine use in anaphylaxis
    2. Repeat epinephrine every 5 minutes if symptoms persist or increase
  2. Antihistamine (only use WITH epinephrine)
    1. Benadryl
    2. Ranitidine
  3. Biphasic response: observe for 2 hours in an ER or urgent care
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28
Q

Tetanus

A

C. Tetani

Obligate anaerobe

Grow in the absence of ambient O2

Deep wounds

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29
Q

Hep B

Why age 19-59 recommendation for previously unvaccinated adults

A

Not as robust immune response to Hep B vaccine after age 59

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30
Q

HPV Type

Genital Warts

A

6, 11

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31
Q

LAIV Vaccine

A

Give age 2-49 years

Do not give in pregnant women, immunosupression, history of egg allergy, airway disease, people who have received flu antiviral in the last 48 hours

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32
Q

LTBI lifetime risk of developing active TB

A

5-10%

The majority within the first 5 years

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33
Q

Hep B Vaccine

A

Birth

1-2 months

6-18 months

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34
Q

RSV vaccine

frequency

Max age final dose

A

2, 4, 6 months

Max age for final dose 8 months

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35
Q

Dtap vaccine

Tdap vaccine

A

Dtap

2, 4, 6 months

15-18 months

4-6 years

(Tdap at 11-12 years)

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36
Q

Hib vaccine

A

ActHIB: 3 doses

2, 4, 6 months

PedvaxHIB: 2 doses

2, 4, months

Booster at 12-15 months

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37
Q

Pneumococcal Vaccine

A

Prevnar PCV 13

4 doses

2, 4, 6

and

12-15 months

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38
Q

IPV vaccine

A

2 months

4 months

6-18 months

4-6 years

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39
Q

MMR

Varicella

A

2 doses

12-15 months

4-6 years

doses minimum 4 weeks apart

May give 2nd dose of MMR before age 4 if 3 months since first dose

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40
Q

Hepatitis A

A

1st dose at 12-23 months

2nd dose 6-18 months later

-

6 months minimum time between doses

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41
Q

Zoster vaccine

A

Recommended starting age 60 years per ACIP

FDA licensed for adults 50 years and older

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42
Q

Adults

Pneumonia vaccine

A

Previously unimmunized 65 years and older - PCV13 then PPSV23 6-12 months later

If have received PPSV23 at age 65 or older, PCV13 1 year after PPSV23 dose

If PPSV23 received before age 65, give PCV13 1 year after most recent dose of PPSV23, then PPSV23 6-12 months later (and at least 5 years has passed since most recent dose of PPSV23)

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43
Q

Pack year history for tobacco

A

PPD x years smoked

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44
Q

Highest rate of suicide in which population

A

Males > 65 years

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45
Q

Precontemplation stage

A

Pt not interested in change

Unaware of problem

Minimizes impact

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46
Q

Contemplation stage

A

Considering change

Feels stuck

HCP to examine barriers

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47
Q

Preparation stage

A

Some change behaviors

Does not have tools to proceed

HCP to assist in finding tools, removing barriers

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48
Q

Action stage

A

Ready to go through w/ change

Inconsistent in carrying through

HCP to work w/ patient encourage healthy behavior, praise positive, acknowledge regression is common but not unsurmountable

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49
Q

Maintenance/relaps stage

A

Has adopted and embraced healthy habit

Relapse can occur

HCP to continue positive reinforcement

Backsliding is common but not insurmountable

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50
Q

USA leading cause of death

A

Heart Disease

Cancer a close second d/t rising gero population

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51
Q

Leading Cancer Cases and Deaths

A

Cases

Male: Prostate, Lung, Colon

Female: Breast, Lung, Colon

Deaths

Male: Lung, prostate, colon

Female: Lung, breast, colon

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52
Q

Next step: unexplained bleeding in postmenopausal woman

A

EMB

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53
Q

Breast Ca Screening

A

Mammography annually starting age 40

High risk (> 20% lifetime risk): MRI + mammography annually

Yearly MRI not recommended if lifetime risk < 15%

CBE every 3 years for women 20-40 years

CBE every year 40 years and older

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54
Q

Colon cancer screening

General population

A

FOBT/FIT annually starting at 50 years

Colonoscopy if FOBT/FIT positive

Preferred FOBT/FIT method: two samples from 3 consecutive specimens collected by pt at home

OR

Flexible sigmoidoscopy every 5 years starting at 50

Colonoscopy if positive

OR

Double-contrast barium enema every 5 years starting at 50

Colonoscopy if positive

OR

Colonoscopy every 10 years starting at age 50

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55
Q

Colon cancer screening

High risk

A

History of colon cancer, adenomatous polyps, Crohn disease, or Ulcerative Colitis, strong family history (colon cancer of first degree relative before age 60, or 2 or more first-degree relatives at any age).

Ulcerative Colitis: start colonoscopy 12 years after onset, then every thereafter

Crohns: start colonoscopy 8 years after onset, then every year thereafter

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56
Q

Prostate cancer screening

A

Start discussion at 50 years for men at average risk w/ 10 year life expectancy

Prostate cancer grows slowly, if < 10 year life expectancy, not likely to benefit

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57
Q

Endometrial cancer screening

A

Women at menopause

Report unexpected bleeding

Abnormal vaginal bleeding is presenting sign in 90% of women with endometrial carcinoma

For women with hereditary non-polyposis colon cancer (HNPCC), annual screening with EMB beginning at 35 years

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58
Q

Lung cancer screening

A

Age 55-74 years with 30 pack year smoking history, current smokers, or 15 years or less since quitting:

Annual low dose CT until age 74 years

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59
Q

Cervical cancer screening

A

PAP smear starting age 21 every 3 years

Cytology + HPV every 5 years starting 30 years of age

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60
Q

Erythropoietin source

A

90% renal, 10% hepatic

Diminished in advancing renal failure, usually beginning when GFR < 49 mL/min

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61
Q

First thing to respond after anemia correction (e.g. in iron deficiency)

A

Reticulocyte count responds in 1 week

Hgb in 1 month 1gm/dL per month

Ferritin in 4-6 months

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62
Q

Drugs then can cause B12/iron malabsorption causing anemia

A

Chronic PPI use
Long-term Metforming use

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63
Q

B12 stores

A

7+ years of B12 stored in liver

will take 7+ years to be depleted

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64
Q

Most common cause of spit-up and vomiting in young infant

A

GI immaturity allowing reflux

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65
Q

Peak risk for hypoglycemia for short-acting rapid insulin (insulin aspart)

A

1-3 hours after injection

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66
Q

Most important measure in Hep C prevention

A

Use of single-use injection drug paraphernalia

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67
Q

Exenatide contraindication

A

Gastroparesis

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68
Q

Belimumab

A

B-lymphocyte stimulater-specific inhibitor

first biologic agent approved for adults with SLE

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69
Q

Cluster Headache

A

AKA: Migrainous neuralgia, Suicide headaches

Only primary headache M > F

Most common in middle-aged men, likely underdiagnosed in women

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70
Q

Triptans in pregnancy

A

Contraindicated in pregnant women d/t potential vasoconstrictor effects

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71
Q

Raynaud disease epidemiology

A

Most often found in women

Condition usually appears between age 15 and 45

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72
Q

Addison’s

A

Primary adrenal insufficiency

Key risk factor: autoimmune conditions

E.g. chronic thyroiditis, dermatitis herpetiformis, Graves, hypoparathyroidism, myasthania gravis, Type I DM

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73
Q

Next step, microcytic anemia

A

Ferritin

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74
Q

Fatigue, spoon-shaped nails

A

Iron deficiency anemia

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75
Q

Most common for of IDA 4 years and older

A

Chronic low volume blood loss

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76
Q

Most common type of anemia in the elderly

A
  1. Chronic disease
  2. IDA
  3. Pernicious anemia (distant)
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77
Q

Haptoglobin is ordered when considering

A

Hemolytic anemia

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78
Q

Most important source of body’s iron supply

A

Recycled iron content from aged RBCs

85% typically comes from old RBCs

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79
Q

B12 Deficiency typical MCV

A

MCV > 125

(most macrocytic)

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80
Q

When does RDW normalize after tx

A

RDW starts to normalize as soon as tx started

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81
Q

Iron supplementation

How to take

enteric coating

A

On an empty stomach

GI upset common

Try w/o food, if GI upset, take w/ breakfast and dinner in divided doses

BID best frequency

Duodenum is where iron is absorbed, after a big dose of iron, intestines cannot absorb more for another 6 hours

Enteric coated iron = very little is absorbed as a lot of is released beyond the duodenum

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82
Q

Cooley Anemia

A

Beta thalassemia major

Life threatening w/o intervention

dx shortly after birth

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83
Q

Acute rhinosinusitis

A

Inflammation of paranasal sinuses/nasal mucosa lasting up to 4 weeks

Caused by allergens, environmental irritants, and/or infections

Infectious causes: virus (majority), bacteria, fungi

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84
Q

ABRS

How common

A

Secondary bacterial infection usually following a viral URI

Less than 2% of viral URIs are complicated by ABRS

Vast majority will clear w/o abx

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85
Q

Acute ABRS

Risk for DRSP Factors

A

Age < 2 or > 65

Prior abx in the past month

Prior hospitalization within past 5 days

Comorbidities

Immunocompromised

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86
Q

Transillumination for ABRS

A

Disproven as diagnostic for sinusitis

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87
Q

ABRS First line tx

A

First Line:

Amoxicillin-Clav 500/125 PO TID or 875/125 BID

Second Line: Doxy 100 mg BID - (note: DRSP tx failure risk)

In beta-lactam allergy:

Doxy 100 mg BID

Levo 500 mg daily

Moxi 400 mg daily

If DRSP risk: Respiratory fluroquinolone

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88
Q

CYP450 inhibitors

A

Erythromycin

Clarithromycin

Increases toxicity

e.g.

Clarithro + Statin = 15x statin dose = rhabdo

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89
Q

Manifestation of IgE mediated allergy

A

Hive-form/urticaria

Angioedema

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90
Q

CYP450 inducers

A

Pushes substrate OUT the exit pathway
= decreased substrate levels

E.g.

St. John’s Wort

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91
Q

Presbycusis changes

A

slowly progressive, symmetric, predominantly high frequency hearing loss

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92
Q

Conductive hearing loss

A

Reversible

Something in between sound and auditory apparatus

OME: can persist for up to 3 months; treatment is TIME

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93
Q

Presbycusis describe

A

Inability to discriminate human voice in a noisy environment

During exam, HCP to:

face-to-face

Eye-level

quiet environment

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94
Q

Allergic Rhinitis

A

allergen-induced

upper airway inflammation and hypersensitivity d/t genetic-environmental interactions

s/sx

nasal discharge, sneezing, nasal congestion, anosmia, and

nasal/pharyngeal/ocular itch

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95
Q

Allergic Rhinitis Tx

First Line

A

First line

Intranasal corticosteroids

e.g. Flonase 1 spray BID or 2 sprays daily

Onset of action within 12-24 hours

Optimal efficacy can take 1-2 weeks

Very low-dose

Low systemic absorption

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96
Q

First generation antihistamines

A

Diphenhydramine, Chlorpheniramine, Brompheniramine, Hydroxyzine

Blocks histamine-1 receptor sites

Significant SE: sedation, impairs performance, ANTICHOLINERGIC effects

Problematic in older adult

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97
Q

Ophthalmic antihistamines

A

Olopatadine (Patanol, Pataday)

For ocular allergy symptoms

Drop might sting for a few seconds

Will not sting once inflammation goes down

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98
Q

Oral decongestants

A

Alpha-adrenargic AGONIST

Relieves congestion via vasoconstriction

Caution w/ elderly, young children, HTN, bladder neck obstruction, glaucoma, and hyperthyroidism

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99
Q

Nasal decongestants

A

Afrin

Effective in ABRS

Rebound congestion/rhinitis may occur

LIMIT USE TO 5-7 days

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100
Q

Anticholinergic effects

A

Dry as a bone (dry mouth)

Red as a beet (flushing)

Mad as a hatter (confusion)

Hot as a hare (hyperthermia)

Can’t see (vision changes)

Can’t pee (urinary retention)

Can’t spit (dry mouth)

Can’t shit (constipation)

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101
Q

Lymph node concerning for malignancy

A

Painless

Firm

Immobile

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102
Q

Oral cancer

A

90% squamous cell

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103
Q

CN I

A

Olfactory

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104
Q

CN II

A

Optic

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105
Q

CN III

A

Oculomotor

Eyelid and eyeball movement

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106
Q

CN IV

A

Trochlear

Turns eye downward and laterally

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107
Q

CN V

A

Trigeminal

Chewing

Face, mouth sensation and pain

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108
Q

CN VI

A

Abducens

Turns eye laterally

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109
Q

CN VII

A

Facial

Facial expressions, secretion of tears, saliva, taste

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110
Q

CN VIII

A

Acoustic

Hearing, equilibrium, sensation

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111
Q

CN IX

A

Glossopharyngeal

Taste, senses carotid BP

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112
Q

CN X

A

Vagus

Senses aortic BP

Slows HR

Stimulates digestive organs, taste

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113
Q

CN XI

A

Spinal accessory

Controls trapezius and sternocleinomastoid

Controls swallowing movements

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114
Q

CN XII

A

Hypoglossal

Controls tongue movements

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115
Q

Describe ophthalmic emergency

A

Red Eye

Painful

Acute vision change

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116
Q

Macular degeneration

A

Most common cause of new onset vision loss in elderly

F > M

Female retina likes estrogen, post-menopause, eye ages rapidly

Central vision loss

Test: Amsler grid test

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117
Q

Open-angle glaucoma

Describe

A

Thief of the night d/t progressive and aymptomatic presentation

Enlarged optic disc cupping

Loss of visual fields

>90% of glaucoma cases

Gradual blockaage of aqueous flow despite apparently open system

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118
Q

Open-angle glaucoma

Risk Fx

A

African ancestry

DM

Family Hx

History of eye trauma/uveitis

Advacing age

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119
Q

Closed-angle Glaucoma

s/sx

A

Narrow angle glaucoma

< 10% of glaucoma

Most serious form

s/sx

Injected conjunctiva

Very painful

N&V

If drainage is only partially blocked: only warning signs may be blurry vision and colored halos around lights

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120
Q

Drugs that increase IOP

A

Anticholinergics

Steroids

Sympathomimetic pupil dilating drops

TCAs

MAOIs

Antihistamines

Antipsychotic meds

Sulfonamides

Antispasmolytic agents

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121
Q

Open-angle glaucoma Tx

A

First line: topical prostaglandins

Latonoprost (Xalatan) - 1 drop in affected eye daily in the evening

Bimatoprost (Lumigan) - 1 drop affected eye daily in the evening

-

Beta-blockers: Timolol 1 drop BID

Alpha-adrenergic agonists: Alphagan 1 drop TID

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122
Q

Angle-closure glaucoma Tx

A

Acute primary attack:

Prompt IOP lowering eye drops (Timolol, Iodipine, pilocarpine)

Oral or IV acetazolamide or oral glycerold isosorbide: Give two 250 mg Acetazolamide tablets in the office, recheck eye-pressure 30-60 minutes later

Systemic medication other than acetazolamide should be given under guidance of an ophthalmologist

Once attack is broken, treatment of choice: laser peripheral iridotomy

If laser peripheral iridotomy fails to remain patent or if cornea too cloudy, surgical peripheral iridectomy may be necessary

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123
Q

Ruptured TM otitis media tx

A

Ofloxacin otic 10 drops BID x 14 days

(Ofloxacin also used for otitis externa 10 drops daily x 7 days)

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124
Q

Fungal otitis externa tx

A

Clotrimazole 1% BID x 14 days
then re-assess

If fungal elements persist, clean meticulously then treat for another 10-14 days

Refer to ENT if persisting

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125
Q

Anosmia

A

Diminished sense of smell, age-related, accelerated by tobacco use

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126
Q

Senile cataracts

A

Lens clouding

Progressive vision dimming

Risk Fx: tobacco, poor nutrition, sun exposure, systemic steroids

Potentially correctable w/ surgery, lens implant

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127
Q

Presbyopia

A

Hardening of lens

Near all 45 years and older need reading glasses

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128
Q

Suppurative Conjunctivitis common pathogens (nongonococcal/chlamydial)

A

S. aureus

S. pneumo

H. influenzae

Outbreaks d/t atypical S. pneumo

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129
Q

Suppurative conjunctivitis (nongonococcal/chlamydial)

Tx

A

Primary tx:

Fluroquinolone ophthalmic solution

(preferred in contact lens wearers d/t pseudomonas coverage)

Alternative:

Polymyxin B w/ trimethoprim or azithromycin 1% opththalmic solution

DOSE:

0.5 inch of ointment inside lower lid

OR

1-2 drops

QID x 5-7 days

Ointment preferred in kids, those w/ poor compliance as ointment stays on lids

Drops preferred in adults who need to read/drive as ointment clouds vision for 20 minutes after admin.

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130
Q

Otitis media w/ puctured TM

A

Do NOT use neomycin containing ointment if ruptured TM

USE:

Ofloxacin otic drops

5 drops BID x 3-5 days

AND

Amox 500 mg TID x 5-7 days

If PCN allergy

  • Cefdinir 300 mg BID
  • Cefpodoxime 200 mg BID
  • Cefuroxime 500 mg BID
  • Ceftriaxone 2 g IM

If beta-lactam allergy:

  • Erythromycin combine with sulfisoxazole
  • Azithromycin
  • Clarithromycin

If tx failure:

Cefuroxime 250 mg BID x 10 days

Augmentin 875/125 BID x 5-7 days (10 days if severe)

Avoid acidic/antiseptic agents

TM should heal within days

Prevent water entry into ear canal while healing

Follow up in 4 weeks to reassess and for audiometry

ENT referral if persistent perforation or hearing loss > 4 weeks of injury

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131
Q

Exudative pharyngitis

Causes

A

Group A, C, G strep

Viral

HHV-6

M. Pneumo

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132
Q

Strep pharyngitis tx

A

First line: Penicillin V 500 mg 3-4x/day x 10 days

Alternative:

Erythromycin x 10 days

Second generation cephalosporin x 4-6 days

Azithromycin x 5 days

Clarithromycin x 10 days

Note: Up to 35% of S. pyogenes are resistant to macrolides

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133
Q

First generation cephalosporins

A

Cefazolin, cephalexine, cephapirin, cefadroxil, cephadrine, cephalotin

Active against most gram+ cocci except for enterococci, oxacillin-resistant staph, and PCN-resistant pneumococci

Active again most E-coli strains, proteus mirabillis, and klebsiella

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134
Q

Second generation cephalosporins

A

cefuroxime, cefoxitin, cefotetan, cefprozil, cefactor, cefonicid, cefamandole, cefmetazole

-

somewhat less active against gram positive cocci than first gen

more active against certain gram negative bacilli

Cefuroxime - active against Haemophilus influenzae

Cefoxitin and cefotetan - active against most E. coli, P. mirabillis, and Klebsiella, active against Bacteroides

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135
Q

Third generation cephalosporins

A

Ceftriaxone, Cefdinir, Cefixime, Cefotaxime, Ceftazidime, Cefpodoxime, Cefditoren, Cefoperazone, Ceftibuten

Marked by stability to the common beta-lactamases of gram-negative bacilli

Useful alternatives to aminoglycosides in treating gram-negative infections resistant to other beta-lactams, esp. in patients with renal dysfunction

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136
Q

Fourth generation cephalosporin

A

Cefepime

Only one

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137
Q

Fifth generation cephalosporin

A

Ceftaroline

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138
Q

Malignant otitis externa

(HIV, DM, chemo)

A

Oral cipro 750 mg BID for early disease suitable for outpatient

Inpatient IV tx in severe disease

  • Tx typically started IV then orally

Riskf or osteomyelitis of skull/TMJ

MRI or CT indicated to r/o osteomyelitis often indicated

ENT consult w/ surgical debridement should be considered

Obtain cultures of ear drainage or results of surgical debridement

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139
Q

Otitis externa tx

general population/immunocompetent

A

Fungi rare

Pseudomonas, Proteus, Enterobacteriaceae

Acute infection often S. aureus

Tx:

MILD: Acetic acid w/ propylene glycol and hydrocortisone (VoSol) drops

MODERATE-SEVERE: Otic drops with ciprofloxacin with hydrocortisone

DO NOT USE NEOMYCIN IF TM RUPTURE SUSPECTED

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140
Q

Otitis Externa Prevention

A

Systemic abx seldom needed

Ear canal cleansing: decrease risk of infection by use of eardrops 1:2 mixture of white vinegar and rubbing alcohol after swimming

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141
Q

Allergic Rhinitis and antihistamines

A

Will help with itchy/watery eyes, sneezing and rhinorrhea

Antihistamines will not help with nasal congestion

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142
Q

Derm assessment questions

A

Is the patient otherwise well? = localized skin infection (acne, rosacea, kp, seborrheic derm)

Is patient miserable but not systemically ill? = uncomfortable with itch, burning, pain (severe psoriasis, Norwegian scabies, herpes zoster)

Is patient systemically ill? = Systemic disease (varicella, transepidermal necrosis, SJS/erythema multiforme, Lyme disease)

Are there primary/secondary lesions? = Where is the oldest lesion and when did it occur? Where is the newest lesion and when did it occur?

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143
Q

Primary Lesions vs Secondary

A

PRIMARY

Result from disease process. No alteration from outside manipulation/tx/natural course of disease. Eg. vesicle

SECONDARY

Lesions altered by outside manipulation/tx/course of disease. Eg. crust

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144
Q

Auspitz sign

A

Psoriasis

Pinpoint bleeding when scale is scraped off.

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145
Q

Vitiligo

A

Autoimmune against melanocytes

Common w/ other autoimmune diseases (thyroid)

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146
Q

Palpable Purpura

A

NEVER BENIGN

“blueberry muffin” appearance

e.g. Meninigitis rash

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147
Q

Macule

A

flat, nonpalpable discoloration

e.g.

Freckle

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148
Q

Papule

A

Solid elevation

e.g.

raised nevus

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149
Q

Umbilicated

A

Papule with indented center

e.g.

Molluscum contagiosum

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150
Q

Pustule

A

Vesicle-like lesion with purulent content

e.g.

Impetigo

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151
Q

Patch

A

> 1 cm

flat, nonpalpable discoloration

e.g.

Vitiligo

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152
Q

Plaque

A

> 1 cm

Raised lesion, same or different color of surrounding skin, can result from coalescence of papules

e.g.

Psoriasis

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153
Q

Bulla

A

> 1 cm

Fluid filled (bigger than vesicle)

e.g.

Necrotizing fasciitis

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154
Q

Cyst

A

Any size

Raised, enxapsulated, fluid-filled lesion

Always benign

e.g.

Intradermal cyst

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155
Q

Wheal

A

Any sized

Circumscribed area of skin edema

e.g.

Hives

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156
Q

Purpura

A

Purpura > 1 cm

Petechiae

Flat red-purple discoloration caused by RBCs lodged in the skin

Do NOT blanch

(vascular lesion = blanches)

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157
Q

Excoriation

A

Linear, raised, often covered with crust.

e.g.

scratch marks over pruritic areas

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158
Q

Crust

A

Raised lesions produced by dried serum and blood remnants

e.g.

scab

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159
Q

Lichenification

A

Skin thickening usually found over pruritic or friction areas

e.g.

Callus

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160
Q

Scales

A

Raised superficial lesiosn that flake with ease

e.g.

Dandruff

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161
Q

Erosion

A

Loss of epidermis

e.g.

area under vesicle

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162
Q

Ulcer

A

Loss of epidermis AND dermis

e.g

arterial ulcer

Chancre

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163
Q

Fissure

A

Narrow linear crack into epidermis, exposing dermis

e.g.

athletes foot

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164
Q

Annular lesion

A

In a RING

e.g.

Erythema migrans (“bull’s eye”) in Lyme disease

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165
Q

Scattered lesion

A

Generalized over body w/o specific pattern or distribution

e.g.

maculopapular rash in rubella

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166
Q

Confluent/coalescent lesions

A

Multiple lesions bleding together

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167
Q

Clustered lesions

A

Occurring ina group with pattern

e.g.

Acne-form drug induced rash

seen with lithium, phenytoin, and iodine use = anticipated adverse effect

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168
Q

Linear lesions

A

In streaks

e.g.

Contact dermatitis poison ivy

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169
Q

Reticular lesions

A

Appearing in a net-like cluster

e.g.

Erythema infectiosum (Fifth Disease/slapped cheek)

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170
Q

Dermatomal or zosteriform lesion

A

Limited to boundaries of a single or multiple dermatomes

e.g.

Shingles

NOTE:

If suspected, start on high-dose acyclovir and come back in 24 hours to confirm dx

Pain occurs 1-2 days before lesions erupt

Suspect in acute shoulder/back pain, skin is “sore”

Skin could also itch severely

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171
Q

Varicella

A

Infants vulnerable - vaccine is given at year

2-3 mm vesicles that start on trunk, appear on limbs 2-3 days later

Nonclustered lesions at a variety of stages

Mild to moderately ill

Miserably itchy, risk for bacterial suprainfection of lesions

Tx:

Acyclovir within 24-48 hours of eruption

Prevention:

Varicella vaccine = 80% lifetime immunity first dose, 99% lifetime immunity second dose

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172
Q

Zoster (shingles)

A

Typically 50 years or older

Possible in anyone with history of varicella

Vesicles in a unilateral dermatomal pattern, slowly resolving with crusting

Usually not systemically ill but quite miserable with pain and itch. Complications include postherpetic neuralgia, ophthalmologic involvement, and superimposed bacterial infection.

Tx:

High-dose acyclovir within 72 hours of eruption helps minimize duration and severity of illness

Prevention:

Zoster vaccine

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173
Q

Actinic Keratoses (AK)

A

Predominantly on sun-exposed skin

Size ranges

On skin surface - red, brown, scaly, often tender but usually minimally symptomatic

Occassional flesh-colored - more easily felt than seen

Most common precancerous lesion though possibly represent early-stage SCC

1 in 100 will progress to SCC

Tx:

Topical 5-FU, 5% imiquimod cream, topical diclofenac gel or photodynamic therapy with topical delta-aminolevulinic acid

Cryosurgery w/ liquid nitrogen, laser resurfacing, chemical peel

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174
Q

Basal cell carcinoma

A

More common than SCC
Sun-exposed area

Arises de novo (of new)

Papule, nodule w/ or w/o central erosion

Pearly or waxy appearance, usually relatively distinct borders w/ or w/o telengiectasia

Metastatic risk low

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175
Q

Squamous cell carcinoma

A

Less common than BCC

Sun-exposed areas

Can arise from AK or de novo

Red, conical hard lesions w/ or w/o ulceration

Less distinct borders

Metastatic risk greater (3-7%)

Greatest metastatic risk = lesion on lip, oral cavity, genitalia

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176
Q

ABCDE

Malignant Melanoma

A

A - Asymmetric

B - Irregular borders

C - Color not uniform

D - Diameter usually 6mm or >

E - Evolving (new) lesion or change in a longstanding lesion, particularly in a nevus or other pigmented lesion

E - Elevated (not consistently present)

* Majority of melanoma are de novo

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177
Q

Psoriasis vulgaris tx

A

medium-potency topical corticosteroid

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178
Q

Rosacea tx

A

Topical metronidazole

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179
Q

Pityriasis rosea

A

Acute, self-limited, erythematous skin disease

Most likely viral

Herald patch

X-mas tree pattern

Prodrome might occur but typically asymptomatic aside from itching

Most cases do not require tx, may use medium-potency topical corticosteroid for itching

Acyclovir may be useful in severe disease in shortening length of disease

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180
Q

Acanthosis nigricans

A

cutaneous manifestation of hyperinsulinemia

puberty = worsenign insulin resistance

can regress w/ control of disease

e.g. after gastric bypass

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181
Q

Erysipelas

A

Infection of upper dermis, superficial lymphatics

Streptococcus pyogenes (aka GABHS)

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182
Q

Cellulitis

A

Infection of dermis and subcutaneous fat

Streptococcus pyogenes, less commonly MSSA beta-lactamase producing, MRSA (resistance via altered protein-binding sites)

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183
Q

Cutaneous abscess, furuncle

A

Skin infection involving hair follicle and surrounding tissue

Carbuncles = cluster of furuncles connected subcutaneously, causing deeper suppuration and scarring

Staph aureus (MSSA, MRSA)

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184
Q

Nonpurulent skin infection

A

Necrotizing infection/Cellulitis/Erysipelas

Moderate = inpatient for IV PCN or Ceftriaxone, Cefazolin, or Clindamycin

Mild = Oral Rx of PCN VK or Cephalosporin or Dicloxacillin or Clindamycin

Dicloxacillin = PCN stable in beta-lactamase

Clindamycin = most common abx assoc. w/ c-diff; take with probiotic

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185
Q

Purulent skin infection

A

Furuncle/Carbuncle/Abscess

Mild = I & D

Moderate = I & D and C & S

Empiric therapy with Bactrim, Doxy

Defined Rx

MRSA = Bactrim

MSSA = Dicloxacillin or Cephalexin

*Keflex = First gen $4

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186
Q

Brown Recluse Spider Bite

A

“Red, white, and blue”

Central blistering with surrounding gray to purple discoloration at bite site

Surrounded by ring of blanched skin surrounded by large area of redness

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187
Q

Most common cause of new onset ulcerating skin lesion across North America

A

MRSA

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188
Q

Nafcillin

A

Narrow spectrum

Beta-lactamase resistant PCN

Use of not risk factors for MRSA

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189
Q

Rocky mountain spotted fever

s/sx and dx

A

Tick-borne

Most cases occur in spring or early summer

Early in disease: fever, malaise, arthralgias, headache, nausea w/ or w/o vomiting; children might present w/ abd pain

Rash between day 3 and 5 of illness

Early disease = empiric tx based on clinical judgment and epidemiological likelihood

Later disease = dx via skin bx or serological testing

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190
Q

Rocky mountain spotted fever

Tx

A

Start within 5 days of symptom onset

Doxycycline 200 mg/day in two divided doses

Tx should continue until 3 days of patient being afebrile

Doxy: risk of dental staining in children

Doxy typically tolerated well except for N&V, give antiemetics/antimotility agents as needed

Doxy assoc. w/ photosensitivity = counsel about skin protection

Pregnancy: use chloramphenicol if available

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191
Q

Lyme disease

A

Erythema migrans (central erythema, ring remains flat, blanches, does not desquamate)

Tx:

Doxy 100 mg BID x 10-21 days

Amox 500 mg every 6-8 hours for 21 to 30 days

Cefuroxime 500 mg BID x 20 days

Use Amox/Ceftin for children

Prophylaxis:

Within 72 hours of tick removal: Doxy 200 mg x 1 dose

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192
Q

CA-MRSA tx

A

Bactrim DS = 2 tablets x 5-10 days

Rifampin can be added - use w/ caution CYP450 inducer

If can’t have sulfa (bactrim), use:

Doxy

Minocycline

To cover staph and strep use Bactrim with a beta-lactam (cephalosporin)

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193
Q

Babies

A

Avoid sun exposure

Lightweight long pants, long-sleeved shirts, brimmed hats

May apply sunscreen 15 spf or > minimal amt

If sunburned - apply cold compresses to affected area

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194
Q

Sun safety

Children > 6 months and adults

A

Hat w/ 3 inch brim or bill facing forward

Sunglasses that block 99 to 100% of UV, cotton clothing w/ tight weave

Stay in shade

limit sun exposure during peak intensity hours 10 and 4

Use SPF 15 or > on both sunny and cloudy days

Protect against UVB and UVA rays

Apply enough sunscreen 1 oz (30 mL) per sitting for older child and adult

Reapply every 2 hours or after swimming/sweating

Extra caution near water, sand, snow (reflects UV rays)

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195
Q

Hypothyroidism

s/sx

A

Skin = decreased cell turnover, decreased subum = thick and dry

Hung-up patellar reflex, slow arc out, slower arc back

Overall hyporeflexia

Mentation = slow thoughts

Weight change (5-10 lbs gain largely fluid)

Stool = constipation

Mentrual = menorrhagia

Heat/cold tolerance = easily chilled

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196
Q

Hypothyroidism etiology

A

Hashimoto thyroiditis (most common) = autoimmune

Post-radioactive iodine (RAI) = s/p Graves disease tx or thyroid ca tx

Select medication use = lithium, amiodarone, interferon

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197
Q

Hyperthyroidism

s/sx

A

Excessive cellular energy release

Skin = increased cell turnover = smooth, silky

Hyperreflexia

Mentation = mind racing

Weight change = loss 10 lbs on average

Stool pattern = frequent, low volum, loose

Mentrual = oligomenorrhea

Heat intolerance

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198
Q

Hyperthyroidism

Etiology

A

Graves disease (most common) = autoimmune, multisystem presentation (exophthalmos, tachycardia, proximal muscle weakness, goiter)

Toxic adenoma (benign metabolically active nodule)

Thyroiditis (viral or autoimmune, post-partum, drug-induced, often transient, usually accompanied by thyroid tenderness)

Select medication use (Amiodorane, interferon)

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199
Q

TSH

Normal values

A

0.4 to 4.0 mIU/mL

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200
Q

TSH test evaluates what

A

Reflects anterior pituitary lobe’s ability to detect amount of circulating free thyroxine (T4)

TSH receptors found in thyroid follicular cells

Receptor stimulation = increases T3 and T4 production/secretion

Single most reliable test to dx all common forms of hypo/hyperthyroidism in the ambulatory setting

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201
Q

Free T4

A

NL = 10-27 pmo/L

Unbound, metabolically active portion of thyroxine

About 0.025% of all T4

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202
Q

Total T4

A

Rarely indicated

Total of protein-bound and free thyroxine

Often altered in the absence of thyroid disease

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203
Q

Free T3

A

Rarely indicated

unbound, metabolically active portion of triidothyronine (T3)

T3 4x more active than T4

About 20% of circulating T3 is from thyroid, 80% is from conversion of T4 to T3

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204
Q

Total T3

A

Rarely indicated

Reflects total protein-bound and free triidothyronine (T3)

Often altered in the absence of thyroid disease

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205
Q

Antiperoxidase antibody

(antimicrosomal, antithyroid, thyroperoxidase)

A

Test to help detect autoimmune thyroid disease

Measures an antibody against peroxidase, an enzyme held within the thyroid

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206
Q

Levothyroxine replacement

A

Need increases when metabolic need needs increases

50% or > increased need in pregnancy

Increase dose by 33% as soon as pregnancy confirmed

Use ideal body weight in obesity, actual body weight in healthy weight/underweight

Check TSH after 6-8 weeks

Levothyroxine = long half-life, takes 3-5 half-lives to reach steady state + few more weeks for body to acclimate

T3 = short half life (Armour Thyroid T3/T4 preparation)

Levothyroxine:

Take with water on an empty stomach same time every day

Should not be taken within 2 hours of cation such as calcium, iron, aluminum, magnesium

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207
Q

Hyperthyroidism

Test results and Tx

A

Low TSH, high free T4

Tx:

Beta-adrenergic antagonist with B1, B2 blockade (propranolol, nadolol) if not contraindicated to counteract tachycardia, tremor

Antithyroid medication:

Propylthiouracil (PTU)

Methimazole (Tapazole)

*Consult with endo: black box warning for acute liver failure

Radioactive iodine (RAI) with end-result thyroid ablation and hypothyroidism

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208
Q

Subclinical hypothyroidism

A

Elevated TSH w/ normal free T4

AACE recommends tx of patients with TSH > 5 if patient has goiter or if thyroid antibodies are present

Presence of sx = tx

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209
Q

Goal TSH

A

0.5 to 2.0

Symptom resolution

Measure TSH at 6 months then annually or when symptomatic

If TSH > 4

Increase dose by 12.5 to 25 mcg/day

If TSH

Decrease dose by 12.5 to 25 mcg/day

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210
Q

Thyrotoxicosis arrhythmia

A

atrial fibrillation

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211
Q

Risk of malignancy thyroid nodule

A

5%

(similar to breast bx rates)

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212
Q

Malignant thyroid nodule characteristics

A

history of head or neck irradiation

Size > 4 cm

Firmness, nontender

Immobile

Persistent, nontender cervical

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213
Q

Thyroid nodule

A

If palpable nodule (clinically evident)

Order TSH and U/S

TSH suppressed = metabolically active nodule = thyroid scan

HOT nodule = always benign = tx with RAI

COLD nodule = fine-needle aspiration bx

TSH not suppressed = fine-needle aspiration bx

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214
Q

Headache Red Flags

A

SNOOP

S - systemic sx (fever, weight loss), secondary risk fx (HIV, ca, pregnancy, anticoagulation, HTN)

N - neurologic signs (confusion, impaired alertness, nuchal rigidity, HTN, papilledema, cranial nerve dysfunction, abnormal motor)

O - onset abrupt or w/ exertion, “thunderclap” h/a = subarachnoid hemorrhage; onset of h/a with exertion = increased ICP

O - onset age > 50 or

P - previous onset history = new onset; first h/a > 30 years

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215
Q

Tension h/a

A

Pressing, non-pulsatile pain

Lasts 30 minutes to 7 days

Mild to moderate intensity

Usually bialteral

F:M ration 5:4

More than one of the following suggests migraine and not tension:

Nausea, photophobia, phonophobia

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216
Q

Migraine w/o aura

A

Lasts 4-72 hours

Usually unilateral, occassionally bilateral

Pulsating

Moderate to severe

Aggravation by normal activity such as walking

During headache 1 or more of the following:

Nausea and/or vomiting, photophobia, phonophobia

F:M ration 3:1

Positive family hx in 70-90%

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217
Q

Migraine w/ aura

A

Migraine type h/a w/ or after aura

Focal dysfunction of cerebral cortex or brain stemp causes 1 or > aura sx developing over 4 minutes, or 2 or more sx occurs in succession

Sx can include: feeling of dread/anxiety, unusual fatigue, nervousness, excitement, GI upset, visual or olfactory alteration

No aura sx should last > 1 h - if this occurs, consider alternate dx

Positive family hx in 70-90%

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218
Q

Cluster h/a

A

H/a tends to occur daily in groups or clusters

Lasts several weeks to months then disappears for months to years

Usually occurs at characteristic times of year, at the same time of day

Common time: 1 hour into sleep, “alarm clock” headache

Pain awakens the person

h/a often located behind 1 eye with a steady, intense (“hot poke in the eye”) sensation

Severe pain in a crescendo pattern lasting 15 min to 3 hours

Suicide headache

Most often with ipsilateral autonomic signs such as lacrimation, conjunctival injection, ptosis, and nasal stuffiness

F:M ration 1:3 to 1:8

Family hx of cluster h/a 20%

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219
Q

Pressing non-pulsatile pain h/a

A

Tension

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220
Q

Usually bilateral h/a

A

Tension

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221
Q

Pulsating pain

A

Migraine

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222
Q

Hot poker feeling in one eye h/a

A

Cluster

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223
Q

Nausea and photophobia w/ h/a

A

Migraine

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224
Q

Usually unilateral h/a

A

Migraine (90% favor one side)

Cluster

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225
Q

Nasal stuffiness w/ conjunctival injection h/a

A

Cluster

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226
Q

Lifestyle modifications for primary h/a

A

Highly effective, infrequently used

Recognize and avoid triggers (chocolate, ETOH, certain cheeses, MSG, stress, perfume, too much or too little sleep, hunger, altered routine)

Encourage regular exercise

Attend to posture at workstation

Use tinted lens to minimize glare and bright lights

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227
Q

Analgesic use in primary h/a

A

NSAIDs, APAP, others

Limit use to 2 tx days/week to avoid analgesic rebound h/a

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228
Q

Triptans

Ergot derivatives

A

Selective serotonin receptor agnosists

Select ergot derivatives

Migrainef specific

Caution use in pregnancy, CVD, uncontrolled HTN d/t potential vascular effect

Helpful in tension-type h/a that does not respond to analgesic tx

Also used in tx of cluster h/a (as is high flow O2)

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229
Q

Primar h/a prophylactic (controller) medications

A

Beta-blockers (propranolol)

TCAs (nortriptyline, amitriptyline)

Antiepileptic (gabapentin, valproate, topiramate)

Lithium (specific to cluster h/a)

Nutritional supplements (butterbur, feverfew, coenzyme 10, Mg, riboflavin) = effective and recommended

CCBs = relatively ineffective

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230
Q

Indiations for primary h/a prophylaxis

A

Any or all of the following:

Use of any product > 3x/week

2 or > migraines per month that produce disabling sx for 3> days

Poor sx relief from various abortive tx

Presence of select concomitant medical condition including HTN, hemiplegic, or basilar migraine

Goal: reduce h/a frequency and severity, allow h/a medications to be more effective in controlling h/a sx

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231
Q

NP when to refer

A

Beyond scope

Likely has dx that need to be supported/clarified by specialist (e.g. RA, SLE)

Compex health condition for which input into ongoing care from a specialist is warranted (e.g. HF or angina pectoris to cardiologist)

Failure to respond to standard, evidence-based care (e.g. pt w/ low back pain who has failed to respond to standard therapies and pain mgmt)

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232
Q

CT w/o contrast of head

A

Reveals:

Acute hemorrhage

Chronic hemorrhage

Edema, shift

Atrophy

Ventricular size

Emergent image to r/o bleed: CT w/o contrast

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233
Q

CT w/ contrast of head

A

Reveals: tumor, abscess

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234
Q

MRI of head

A

Soft tissue imaging

typically needs abnormal CT before MRI is considered for head

Reveals:

Tumor, hemorrhage of days-weeks duration, carcinomatous meningitis, AV malformation, posterior fossa lesions

Sometimes done first to look for brain mets

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235
Q

Migraine and OCPs

A

Migraines w/ aura = HIGH risk of STROKE on OCPs w/ estrogen

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236
Q

Giant Cell Arteritis

A

Autoimmune vasculitis that affects medium-large vessels as well as temporal artery

Inflammation and swelling of arteries leads to decreased blood flow and assoc. sx

Disease most commonly occurs 50-85 years of age

F > M

Clinical sx:

Tender/nodular pulseless vessel (usually temporal artery) accompanied by severe unilateral h/a

50% will have visual impairment (transient visual blurring, diplopia, eye pain, sudden loss of vision)

CRP and ESR usually markedly elevated - order first

Definitive dx: temporal artery bx

Color duplex U/S can be used as an aleternative/complement bx

Tx:

High-dose systemic corticosteroids 1-2mg/kg/day until disese stabilized followed by careful reduction in dose and continued for 6 months to 2 years

ASA can be used to reduce risk of stroke

GI cytoprotection (PPI or misoprostol) should be provided to minimize adverse effects of long-term corticosteroid tx

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237
Q

Typical BP pain response

A

SBP elevated but DBP is at/close to baseline

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238
Q

Riboflavin and Magnesium for migraine prevention

A

Riboflavin 500 mg

Magnesium 250-350 mg

for 6-8 weeks

Mg - might loosen stools

Riboflavin - glow urine

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239
Q

GCA mgmt

A

NSADs & Steroids

risk for gastritis = PPI

minimize bone resorption = add low-dose biphosphonate

Use opioid analgesics as needed

Refer to neurosurgery for bx and neuro for mgmt

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240
Q

Pain on chewing

A

Jaw claudification in GCA

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241
Q

Potential dietary triggers primary h/a

A

sour cream, ripened cheeses, sausage, salami, pizza, MSG, Herring, any pickled/fermented, marinated food, yeast products

chocolate, nuts, nut butters

Broad beans, lima beans, fava beans, snow peas, onions

Citrus fruits, Bananas, caffeinated beverages, ETOH, aspartame/phenylalanine

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242
Q

Lifestyle triggers, primary h/a

A

Menses, ovulation, pregnancy

Illness of any kind

Intense/strenuous activity or exercise

Altered sleep

Altered eating patterns

Bright/flickering lights

Odors, fragrances, tobacco smoke

weather, seasonal allergies

Excessive/repetitive noises

High altitudes

Medications (SSRI, SNRI, other psych meds, analgesic overuse, hormonal contraception, hormonal tx post menopause)

Stress or stress letdown

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243
Q

GERD Dx

A

Typical sx of heartburn/regurg

H. pylori screening not recommended in typical GERD

Upper endoscopy not required in typical GERD sx

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244
Q

When to order upper endoscopy in GERD

A

Alarm findings:

dysphagia, odynophagia, unintended weight loss, hematemesis, black or blood stools, chest pain, choking

Repeat endoscopy not indicated in patients w/o Barrett’s esophagus in the absence of new sx

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245
Q

GERD mgmt

A

Empiric tx with PPI

Protracted PPI use assoc w/ B12, Ca, Mg, Fe malabsorption, possible increased fracture and C-diff associated diarrhea risk

If no response to PPI - refer for evaluatiion

Weight loss if overweight

Elevate head of bed 3-4” blocks 2-3 hours

Avoid meals within 2-3 hours of bedtime

Lowest effective dose if long-term including on-demand and intermittent tx

H2RAs can be used as maintenance in pts w/o erosive disease

8-week PPI course = tx of choice in healing erosive esophagitis

PPI tx should be once-a-day, before first meal of day (traditional release PPIs such as omeprazole = 30-60 minutes before meal)

May use twice-daily doising/adjust dose timeing if sx are nocturnal or variable schedule

No major differences between different PPIs

Maintenance PPI tx for pts w/ sx after PPI is dicontinued or in pts with complications such as erosive esophagitis and Barrett’s

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246
Q

H. pylori and which ulcers?

A

95% of all duodenal ulcers =

H. pylori

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247
Q

Neutrophilia

A

Elevated in Bacterial infection

NL :

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248
Q

Lymphocytosis

A

Elevated in Viral infection

NL:

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249
Q

Monocytosis

A

Elevated in Debris removal

Good sign during recovery after illness

NL :

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250
Q

Eosinophilia

A

Elevated in Allergens, parasites

(“worms, wheezes, and weird diseases”)

NL:

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251
Q

Basophilia

A

elevated in Anaphylaxis, not fully understood

NL:

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252
Q

Blumberg’s sign

A

LATE peritoneal sign

Deep palpate area of abd tenderness

Pain upon release = peritoneal inflammation

AKA: rebound tenderness

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253
Q

Markle’s Sign

A

Stand on tiptoes, then let bodyweight fall quickly onto heels

Positive = abd pain increases and localizes

Indicative of peritoneal inflammation

In kids: “show me how you hop”

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254
Q

Murphy’s sign

A

Painful arrest of inspiration triggered by palpating edge of inflamed gallbladder

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255
Q

45 y/o male

Drinks 8-10 beers/day

12 hour history of acute onset epigastric pain radiating to back w/ bloating, N&V

Epigastric tenderness, hypoactive bowel sounds, abdomen distended and hypertympanic

Elevated lipase, amylase

Dx?

A

Acute Pancreatitis

“Boring epigastric pain to the back”

ETOH use

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256
Q

64 y/o F

3-day hx of intermittent LLQ abd pain w/ feer, cramping, nausea, 4-5 loose stools/day

Soft abdomen, +BS, LLQ tenderness w/o rebound

Leukocytosis, neutrophillia

Dx?

A

Acute Diverticulitis

-

Cover for anaerobes and gram negative bacteria:

Cipro + Flagyl

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257
Q

34 y/o M

3 month hx of intermitten upper abdominal pain described as epigastric burning, gnawing pain 2-3 h PC, relief w/ foods, anatacids.

Awakens 1-2 AM w/ sx

Tender epigastrum, LUQ

Slightly hyperactive BS

Dx?

A

Duodenal ulcer

-

Check for H. Pylori

RELIEF w/ FOOD

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258
Q

52 y/o F

Recently laid off, 3-4 Ibuprofen/day for 2-3 months to help w/ headaches

1 month hx of intermittent nausea, burning, and pain, limited to upper abdomen, worse w/ eating

Tender epigastrum, LUEQ, hyperactive BS

Dx?

A

Erosive gastritis

-

D/C NSAIDs

May check H. Pylori

WORSE w/ FOOD

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259
Q

21 y/o F

2 month hx of intermittent crampy abd pain, diarrhea, weight loss, fatigue

3 day hx of increasing discomfort, fever, tenesmus (sensation of incomplete bowel emptying)

Pale conjunctiva, tachycardia, slightly hyperactive BS, diffus abd tenderness w/o rebound

Normocytic, normochromic anemia, leukocytosis w/ neutrophilia

A

Inflammatory Bowel Disease

-

TOXIC MEGACOLON - anemia, leukocytosis w/ neutrophilia

Need hospital admission

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260
Q

Pancreatic ca risk fx

A

Hx of chronic pancreatitis

Tobacco use

DM

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261
Q

Most efficient route of transmission for hep C

A

Blood transfusion

Vertical transmission (mom to nursing infant) = uncommon

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262
Q

Vertical transmission

A

Mom to nursing infant

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263
Q

Horizontal transmission

A

Person to person

e.g. sexual contact

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264
Q

Hep A transmission

A

Fecal-oral

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265
Q

HBsAg positive

A

Hep B surface antigen +

=

HBV is present

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266
Q

Anti-HBc positive

A

Anti-Hep B core

=

ongoing Hep B infection

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267
Q

Infectious hepatitis liver enzymes

A

ALT > AST

Acute hep B infection = markedly elevated LFTs

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268
Q

Hep A transmission

A

ingestion of fecal matter via

close person to person contact w/ infected person

Sexual contact w/ infected person

Ingestion of contaminated food/drinks

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269
Q

Hep A risk fx

A

travelers to regions w/ intermediate/high rates of hep A

Sex contacts of infected persons

household members or caregivers of infected persons

Household members or caregivers of infected persons

Men who have sex w/ men

user of certain illegal drugs

persons w/ clotting factor disorders

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270
Q

Hep A incubation period

A

15 to 50 days

Avg: 28 days

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271
Q

Viral hepatitis clinical sx

A

fever, fatigue, loss of appetite, N&V, abdominal pain, gray-colored BMs, Joint pain, jaundice

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272
Q

Hep A risk for chronic infection

A

None

Most recover w/ no lasting liver damage

Rarely fatal

No chronic disease

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273
Q

Hep A test for acute infection

A

IgM anti-HAV

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274
Q

Hep B transmission

A

Contact w/ infectious blood, semen, body fluids

birth to infected mother

sexual contact w/ infected person

sharing of contaminated needles, syringes or other injection drug equipment

Needlesticks or other sharp instrument injuries

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275
Q

Hep B risk fx

A

infants born to infected mothers

sex partners of infected persons

multiple sex partners

STDs

Men who have sex w/ men

Injection drug users

household contacts of infected persons

Health care and public safety workers exposed to blood

hemodialysis patients

Residents and staff of facilities for developmentally disabled persons

Travelers to regions with intermediate or high rates of Hep B

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276
Q

Hep B incubation period

A

45 to 160 days

avg: 120 days

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277
Q

Hep B risk for chronic infection

A

> 90% of infants

25-50% of children 1-5 years

6-10% older children and adults

Most persons recover from actue disease w/ no lasting liver damage

Acute illness rarely fatal

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278
Q

Hep B test for acute infection

A

HBsAg in acute AND chronic +

IgM anti-HBc + in acute infection only

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279
Q

Hep C transmission

A

Contact w/ infectious blood

sharing of contaminated needles, equipment

LESS commonly through:

sexual contact

birth to an infected mother

needlestick or other sharp instrument injuries

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280
Q

Hep C risk fx

A

curren or former injection drug user

recipient of clotting factor concentrates before 1987

recipients of blood transfusions before July 1992

Long-term hemodialysis

Persons w/ known exposures to HCV

HIV infected

Infants born to infected mothers

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281
Q

Hep C incubation period

A

14 to 180 days

avg: 45 days

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282
Q

Hep C risk for chronic infection

A

75-85% of newly infected persons will develop chronic infection

15-25% will clear virus

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283
Q

Hep C acute illness

A

Uncommon

Those who do develop acute illness recover w/ no lasting liver damage

No serologic marker for acute infection

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284
Q

Hep C and chronic liver disease

A

60-70% of chronically infected patients will develop chronic liver disease

5-20% develop cirrhosis over a period of 20-30 years

1-5% will die from cirrhosis of liver ca

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285
Q

Hep B test for chronic infection

A

HBsAg

also positive in acute infection

and additional markers as needed

IgM + in acute infection ONLY

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286
Q

Hep C test for chronic infection

A

Screening assay (EIA or CIA) for anti-HCV

Verify by more specific assay (NAT for HCV RNA)

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287
Q

Hep B screening

A

All pregnant women

Unvaccinated

Born to endemic regions

Infants born to HBsAg positive mothers

Injection drug users

Men who have sex w/ men

Patients with elevated LFTs

Hemodialysis patients

HIV infected patients

Donors of blood, plasma, organs, tissues or semen

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288
Q

Hep C screening

A

Persons born from 1945-1965

Person who currently inject drugs or in the past

Recipients of clotting factor concentrates before 1987

Recipients of blood or donated organs before July 1992

Long-term hemodialysis

Known exposure

HIV

Born to infected mothers - do not test before age 18 months

Patient w/ s/s of liver disease (LFTs)

Donors of blood, plasma, organs, tissues, or semen

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289
Q

Hep A vaccine

A

2 doses 6 months apart

Recommended for all children at age 1 year

Travelers

Men who have sex w/ men

Clotting factor disorders

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290
Q

Hep B vaccine

A

Infants and children: 3-4 doses over 6-18 month schedule

Adult: 3 doses over a 6 month period

Recommended for all infants at birth

At risk populations

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291
Q

Hep A Tx

A

No medication available

Supportive

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292
Q

Hep B Tx

A

Acute: no medication available, supportive

Chronic: Regular monitoring for signs of liver disease progression, some patients treated w/ antivirals

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293
Q

Hep C tx

A

Acute: Antivirals and supportive tx

Chronic: Regular monitoring for s/s of liver disease progression, some patients treated w/ antivirals

Interferon alfa or peginterferon can be considered if HCV RNA has not cleared from serum in 3-4 months

If HCV RNA has not cleared after 3 months of tx, ribavirin can be added - some authorities starting ribavirin w/ peginterferon from start

Most patients recover in 3-6 months

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294
Q

IBS dx

A

Clinical

Abdominal discomfort or pain that has 2 of the following:

Relieved with defecation

Onset associated w/ change in frequency of stool

Onset associated w/ change in appearance of stool

Other sx: abnormal stool frequency, abnormal stool form, abnormal stool passage, passage of mucus, bloating or abdominal distention, other somatic or psychological complaints common

2/3 are women

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295
Q

IBS tx

A

Antispasmodics (anticholinergic) agents:

Dicyclomine 10-20 mg 3-4x/day

Hyoscamine 0.125 mg 4x/day

Antidiarrheals:

Loperamide 2 mg 3-4x/day

Cholestyramine 2-4 g orally with meals

-

Fiber supplementation - may cause increased bloating

Osmotic laxatives

TCAs - Notriptyline 10 mg orally at bedtime, increase to 25-50 mg at bedtime as tolerated

Alternative - Trazodone 50 mg at bedtime

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296
Q

Ulcerative Colitis Dx

A

IBD

Affects colon only - idiopathic inflammatory condition mucosal surface of colon

More common in non-smokers and former smokers - severity may worsen in patients who stop smoking

Essentials for dx:

Bloody diarrhea

Lower abd cramps and fecal urgency

Negative stool cultures

Anemia - low serum albumin

Sigmoidoscopy key to dx

Clinical findings:

Bright red blood on DRE

Tenesmus

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297
Q

Toxic megacolon

A

Colonic dilation of > 6 cm on radiographs w/ signs of toxicity

Occurring in

Heightens risk of perforation

(Ulcerative Colitis)

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298
Q

Ulcerative colitis testing

A

Sigmoidoscopy establishes diagnosis

Colonoscopy should not be done in fulminant disease d/t risk of perforation; perform after improvement to determine extend of disease

Stool cultures (-)

HCT, ESR, serum albumin

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299
Q

Ulcerative Colitis Tx - Mild

A

Mild to moderate

Oral 5-ASA (mesalamine, balsalazide, sulfasalazine) - best for tx of diseases extending past sigmoid colon. Sx improvement in 50-75% of patients

Mesalamine 2.4-4.8 g/day; improvement in 3-6 weeks, some require 2-3 months

Sulfasalazine - low cost but higher side effects - start at 500 mg BID gradually increase over 1-2 weeks to 2 g BID

Folic acid 1 mg once daily should be given to all patients taking sulfasalazine

Corticosteroids to patients who do not improve within 4 weeks of 5-ASA tx

Do not use antidiarrheals during acute phase of illness, useful at night time when taken prophylactically in pts w/o access to toilet

-

May use mesalamine rectal suppositories 1000 mg once daily for proctitis, 4 g per rectum at bedtime for proctosigmoiditis for 3-12 weeks = 75% will improve

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300
Q

UC and colon ca

A

colon ca occurs in 0.5-1% of patients per year of patients who have had colitis for > 10 years

folic acid 1 mg daily decreases risk of colon cancer

colonoscopuyevery 1-2 years in patients w/ extensive colitis, beginning 8-10 years after dx

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301
Q

Ulcerative Colitis - Severe Tx

A

Moderate to severe:

Corticosteroid improves 50-75%

Prednisone 40-60 mg daily for 1-2 weeks, taper by 5-10 mg per week

Severe:

48-64 mg IV or hydrocortisone 300 mg IV in four divided doses or by continuous infusion

Infliximab 5 mg/kg IV

Discontinue all PO intake

Avoid opioid and anticholinergics

Restore circulating volume w/ fluids/blood

Correct electrolytes

Fulminant colitis and toxic megacolon:

NG suction, roll patients from side to side on the abdomen

Serial abd radiographs to look for worsening dilation

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302
Q

Crohn Disease dx

A

Essentials for dx:

Insidiuous onset

Intermittent bouts of low-grade fever, diarrhea, RLQ pain

RLQ mass and tenderness

Perianal disease w/ abscess/fistulas

Radiographic or endoscopic evidence ofulceration, stricturing, or fistuals in the small intestine or colon

1/3 of patients will have perianal disease

Smokers are at increased risk

Transmural disease might involve any of the GI tract

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303
Q

Crohn disease labs/tests

A

CBC, ESR, CRP

Anemia may be d/t chronic inflammation, blood loss, iron deficiency, or B12 malabsorption

Leukocytosis occurs in abscesses

Obtain stool cultures

barium upper GI series w/ small bowel follow through

capsuled video imagin of small intestines

CT eneterography

colonoscopy

Biopsy of intestine reveals granulomas in 25%

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304
Q

Intestinal obstruction s/sx

A

postprandial bloating, cramping pains, loud borborygmi

Narrowing small bowel may occur as a result of inflammation, spasm, or fibrotic stenosis

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305
Q

Crohn’s tx

A

Antidiarrheal agents

Loperamide 2-4 mg 4x daily PRN, do not use in active severe colitis

Broad spectrum abx if bacterial overgrowth

Cholestyramine 2-4 g 1-2x/day before meals to bind the malabsorbed bile salts

Similar tx to UC (mesalamine, prednisone, cipro+flagyl)

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306
Q

H. pylori tx

A

If H pylori:

Omeprazole 20 mg bid
Clarithromycin 500 mg bid
Amoxicillin 1 gm bid x 14 days.

If resistance:

Omeprazole 20 mg bid
Bismuth salicylate 2 tabs qid
Tetracycline hcl 500 mg qid
Flagyl 500 mg qid x 14 days.

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307
Q

Diverticulitis dx

A

Acute abd pain and fever

LLQ tenderness and mass

Leukocytosis

s/s

mild to moderate abd pain, aching usually LLQ

Constipation or loose stools

low-grade fever

N&V

Palpable LLQ mass

Peritoneal signs in pts w/ free perforation

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308
Q

Peptic Ulcer Disease dx

A

Upper endoscopy w/ gastric biopsy for H. pylori is diagnostic

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309
Q

Diverticulitis tx - MILD

A

Clear liquid diet

Broad spectrum oral abx with anaerobic activity

Augmentin 875/125 BID

or

Flagyl 500 mg TID + Cipro 500 mg BID OR Bactrim DS BID

x 7-10 days

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310
Q

Diverticulitis tx - SEVERE

A

NPO

IV fluids

NG suction if ileus

IV abx

monotx with 2nd generation ceph (cefoxitin), piperacillin-tazobactam, or ticarcillin clavulanate

OR

combo tx with flagyl/clinda + aminoglyside/3rd generation ceph

x 7-10 days

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311
Q

Diverticulitis prevention

A

High fiber diet

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312
Q

Diverticulitis when to admit

A

severe pain or inability to tolerate oral intake

s/s of sepsis/peritonitis

CT scan showing signs of complicated disease (abscess, perforation)

Failure to improve with outpatient mgmt

Immunocompromised or frail, elderly patient

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313
Q

Non-invasive testing for H. Pylori

A

Fecal antigen or urea breath tests

PPIs may cause false negative urea breath/fecal antigen tests and should be held for at least 7 days before

serology testing not recommended for patients w/ low pre-test probability, cannot differentiate between current/past infections

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314
Q

H. pylori and gastic cancer

A

2-6x higher risk for gastric cancer in presence of H. pylori

90% of gastric adenocarcinoma of stomach have positive H. pylori

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315
Q

Mitral regurgitation

Describe

A

Best auscultated w/ diaphragm

Lower border of the right scapula

Systolic murmur

High pitched murmur

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316
Q

Levothyroxine dosing

A

Ideal body weight used even in presence of obesity

75-125 mcg of levothyroxine or about 1.6 mcg/kg daily

Elderly: 75% of adult needs

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317
Q

Spleen normal weight, size, and location

A

“Rule of odds”

7 oz

1 x 3 x 5 inches

located between ribs 9 and 11

-

> 50% of patients with IM will develop splenomegaly

Risk of splenic rupture greates in the 2nd and 3rd weeks of illness

Risk continues for at least 1 month after symptoms resolve

Prudent to get U/S to ensure resolution of splenomegaly

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318
Q

High purine foods

(Avoid in gout)

A

scallops, mussels

organ meats and game meats

beans

spinach

asparagus

oatmeal

baker’s and brewer’s yeasts

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319
Q

Infectious endocarditis abx prophylaxis

A

Hx of infectious endocarditis = increased risk of infectious endocarditis assoc. w/ dental procedure

Prophylaxis:

Clindamycin 600 mg

Cephalexin 2g

Azithromycin 500 mg

Clarithromycin 500 mg

all 30-60 minutes before procedure

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320
Q

GERD alarm sx

A

Dysphagia

Odynophagia (painful swallowing)

GI bleed

Unexplained weight loss

Persistent chest pain

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321
Q

Expected findings in bacterial meningitis

A

Pleocytosis (WBC > 5 cells/mm in CSF) - found in infectious meningitis (viral, bacterial, fungal or protozoan)

Bacterial meningitis:

CSF glucose decreased (normal level 40% of plasma)

CSF protein elevated

Elevated CSF opening pressure

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322
Q

Expected findings in viral or aseptic meningitis

A

Normal CSF glucose level

Modest elevation in CSF protein

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323
Q

3rd degree burns

describe

A

pain may be minimal, but usually surrounded by areas of painful first and second degree burns

white and leathery

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324
Q

2nd degree burns

describe

A

Raw and moist

Painful

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325
Q

Most potent risk factor for arterial occlusive disease caused by extensive atherosclerosis

A

Tobacco use

Other risk fx:
DM, HTN, HL

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326
Q

Heatstroke tx

A

Aggressive rehydration w/ careful monitoring d/t risk of pulmonary edema from reduced CO

Hyperkalemia is common d/t release of CK w/ tissue damage

Rapid body cooling is discouraged as this can stimulate cutaneous vasoconstriction inhibiting heat loss

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327
Q

STEMI mgmt

A

Adequate pain control with IV morphine if nitroglycerin not immediately effective or if pulmonary congestion or severe agitation are present

ASA (160-325 mg) chewable, nonenteric should be given as soon as possible and continued indefinitely in patients who can tolerate it

Supplemental O2 in patients in respiratory distress or cyanosis

Beta-blocker should be given if no contraindications exist, with first dose IV

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328
Q

Dihydropyridine CCBs

A

Potent vasodilators

Little to no negative effect on cardiac contractility/conduction

Short acting - Nifedipine

Long-acting w/ no cardiac depressant activity - Amlodipine

Side effects:

Headaches, dizziness, lightheadedness, flushing, and peripheral edema d/t vasodilation

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329
Q

Non-dihydropyridine CCBs

A

Verapamil, Diltiazem

Less potent vasodilators but have greater depressive effect on cardiac conduction and contractility compared to dihydropyridines

Contraindicated in patients who are taking beta-blockers, severe HF, sick sinus syndrome, and 2nd or 3rd degree AV block

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330
Q

Troponin I

A

More specific and sensitive than EKG in diagnosing non-Q-wave MI

More specific and sensitive than CK-MB in diagnosing unstable angina and non Q-wave MI

Available quickly through rapid assay

Increases rapidly within the first 12 hours after MI and remains elevated for about 192 hours

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331
Q

CK-MB

A

not as sensitive/specific as Troponin I in diagnosing unstable angina

Increased within 6-12 hours of MI and begins to decrease in 24 to 48 hours, returns to normal in 60 hours

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332
Q

Lateral epicondylitis

A

Tennis elbow

Painful outer aspect of lower humerus

Results from injury of extensor tendon at the lateral epicondyle

Hand grip is often weak on affected side by elbow ROM is usually normal

Counterforce brace worn to the back of the forearm can help relief symptoms

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333
Q

CAP likely organisms

A

Strep pneumo (gram+)

M. Pneumo (Atypical)

C. Pneumo (Atypical)

Respiratory viruses (Influenza A/B, RSV, adenovirus, parainfluenza)

Inpatient Tx:

All of the above

Legionella sp. (Atypical)

H. Influenze (gram -)

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334
Q

Most common cause of fatal CAP

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae

Gram + diplococci

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335
Q

Strep pneumo tx

CAP

A

Non-resistant:

macrolides

standard dose amox (1.5-2.5g/day)

select cephs

tetracyclines including doxy

DRSP

High dose amox (3-4g/day)

Respiratory fluroquinolones

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336
Q

Greatest impact on HIV transmission

A

Viral load at time of infection is greatest risk factor in contracting HIV

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337
Q

Typical SSRI symptoms

A

mild h/a, nausea, insomnia, restlessness, agitation

Typically dose related and will resolve within 2 weeks

Eat small bites when nauseous

APAP for h/a

Change drug classes if sx too distracting/bothersome

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338
Q

shingles vaccine

A

Approved starting age 50

Recommended officially at age 60

Contains significantly more virus than the chickenpox vaccine

Contains 14x the number of plaque-forming units of virus than the varicella vaccine

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339
Q

ACOG recommendation on TSH in pregnant women

A

Routine screening for hypothyroidism is not performed during pregnancy

ACOD recommendes screening if women has personal hx of hypothyroidism, famil hx, or is symptomatic

ACOG also recommends screening if another disease is present assoc. w/ thyroid dysfunction (e.g. gestational DM)

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340
Q

Quinolone abx CV risk

A

All quinolones have potential to produce QT prolongation

Prescribe w/ caution in older adults

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341
Q

Hesselbach’s triangle

A

Hesselbach’s triangle forms the landmark for direct inguinal hernia

The inguinal ligament, rectus muscle, and epigastric vessels form the triangle

Most common groin hernias in men and women

Inguinal surgical repair is themost common procedure performed in the US

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342
Q

Common complaint in older pts w/ cataracts

A

sunlight sensitivity

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343
Q

Most common site for indirect inguinal hernia

A

Internal inguinal ring

Can occur in men and women

Most are probably congenital, sx may not be obvious until later in life

Indirect hernias are more common on the right side

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344
Q

acute, painless groin swelling

high yield test?

A

Ultrasound of scrotum

Ddx: inguinal hernia, hydrocele, varicocele

U/S will yield quick, relaible information w/ dx accuracy of 93% for groin problems

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345
Q

Carotid bruit significance

A

Pts w/ audible carotid bruit are more likely to die from cardiovascular disease than cerebrovascular disease

Poor predictor of carotid artery stenosis or stroke risk

In pts w/ significant carotid artery stenosis, only 50% have an audible carotid bruit

Value is that it is a good marker of generalized atherosclerosis

Other vessels should be evaluated

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346
Q

Best tx for isolated systolic HTN

A

Amlodipine - long acting CCB

Dihydropyridines

Thiazides are not potent enough and effect is not additive when combined with CCBs

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347
Q

ACE inhibitors in HF

Monitor what?

A

Potassium level in 1 week

ACEIs work in the kidney - can impair renal excretion of potassium esp in kidney impairment

Common practice - monitor K, BUN, Cr 1 week after initiation of ACEI and w/ increase of dosage in a patient w/ HF and who receives an ACEI

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348
Q

Goal postprandial glucose in older adults

A
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349
Q

MRI in back pain

A

MRI w/o contrast - provides info about soft tissues, like the lumbar discs

Use contrast if patient has had hx of previous back surgery - contrast would be helpful to distinguish scar tissue from discs

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350
Q

H. Influenzae tx

A

Gram-negative bacillus

30% produce beta-lacatamase

Effective abx:

Cephalosporins

Augmentin

Macrolides

Resp. fluoroquinolones

tetracyclines including doxy

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351
Q

Common respiratory pathogen in smokers

A

H. Influenzae (gram -)

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352
Q

M. pneumo and C. pneumo tx

(atypicals)

A

atypical = not revelaed by gram stain

Effective abx:

Macrolides

Respiratory fluoroquinolone

Tetracycline inluding doxy

Ineffective: beta-lactams (PCNs, cephs)

beta-lactams are not effective as they work by destroying cell-wall - does not work w/ atypicals

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353
Q

Atypical CAP

transmission

A

M. Pneumo and C. Pneumo

Largely cough transmitted

Often seen in people who have recently spent extended time in close proximity

long incubation period (3 weeks)

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354
Q

Legionella sp.

Transmission

Tx

A

Not revealed by gram stain

Transmission by inhaling mist or aspirating liquid that comes from infected water source

No evidence of person-to-person spread of disease

Effective abx:

Macrolide

Resp. fluoroquinolone

Tetracyclines including doxy

Ineffective: beta-lactams

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355
Q

Petit mal seizures

Describe

A

Absence seizure

Blank stare 3-50 seconds w/ impaired level of consciousness

Usual age of onset 3-15 years

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356
Q

Myoclonic seizures

describe

A

awake or momentary loss of cosciousness with abnormal motor behavior lasting seconds to minutes

one or more muscle groups causes brief jerking contractions of the limbs and trunk, occiassional flinging the patient

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357
Q

Focal or simple seizures

describe

A

aka jacksonian seizures

awake state w/ abnormal motor, sensory, autonomic, or psychic behavior

movement can affect any part of body, localized or generalized

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358
Q

Complex partial seizures

describe

A

accompanied by an aura (unusual sense of smell, taste, visual or auditory hallucinations, or stomach upset) followed by a vague stare and facial movements, muscle contractions/relaxation, autonomic signs

Can progress to loss of consciousness

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359
Q

Bursae

Function

A

Act as cushions between tendons and bones

body contains more than 150 bursa

fluid-filled sacs

lined by synovial tissue, which produces fluid that lubricates and reduces friction between tendons and bones

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360
Q

Levodopa and Parkinson disease mgmt

A

Minimizes sx of Parkinson disease

Tends to be less effective w/ more adverse effects as disease progresses

Most patients who take Levodopa for more than 5-10 years develop dyskinesia

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361
Q

Medications that may precipitate gout by causing hyperuricemia

A

Thiazide diuretics

Niacin

ASA

Cyclosporine

ETOH

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362
Q

Causes of secondary gout conditions

A

Conditions w/ increased catabolism and turnover

e.g.

psoriasis

chronic hemolytic anemia

Conditions w/ decreased renal uric acid clearance:

e.g. intrinsic kidney disease and renal failure

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363
Q

Smallpox

Describe

A

Last US case 1949

Last worldwide case 1970s

Caused by variola virus

Most contagious w/ onset of rash

Infected person remains contagious until last small pox scab falls off

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364
Q

resting state normal stomach pH

A

pH: 2

Production:

1-2 mEq/hour in resting

increases to 30-50 mEq/hour after a meal

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365
Q

Minimum diagnostic for CAP

A

CBC w/ diff

CXR

Additional testing based on patient presentation and comorbidity

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366
Q

Likely causative pathogen CAP

Previously healthy

No recent systemic abx (within 3 months)

A

Strep pneumo low DSRP risk

Low risk of H. influenzae

Atypical pathogens (M. pneumo, C. pneumo)

Resp viruses (influenza A/B, adenovirus, RSV, parainfluenza)

Tx:

Macrolide or Doxy

will cover non-DSRP and atypicals

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367
Q

Likely causative organisms CAP

Comorbidities (COPD, DM, renal, HF, asplenia, alcoholism, immunosuppressing conditions/medications, malignancy)

Systemic abx in past 3 months

A

Strep pneumo w/ DRSP risk

H. influenzae (gram -)

Atypicals (M. pneumo, C. pneumo, Legionella)

Resp viruses

Tx:

Respiratory fluroquinolone

(moxi, gemi, levo)

OR

Advanced macrolide or Doxy

+

beta lactam such as high dose amox (3-4g/day), HD amox-clav, Ceftriaxone, cefpodoxime (vantin), cefuroxime (ceftin)

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368
Q

CYP34A inhibitors

abx

A

Erythromycin

Clarithromycin

-

Erythro - limited gram neg coverage, poor tolerance d/t GI adverse effects

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369
Q

pulse pressure significance

A

wide = Good circulating fluid volume

narrow = dehydration

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370
Q

Physical Findings PNA

A

In gero - tachypnea

Strep pneumo and Legionella = most likely to result in pleuritic chest pain

Consolidation - dullness to percussion, increased tactile fremitus (increased w/ increased tissue density)

Bronchial or tubular breath sounds often w/ late inspiratory crackles that do not clear w/ cough

Expect 4-6 weeks minimum of continued abnormal breath/lung findings even w/ successful tx

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371
Q

Pleural inflammation (pleurisy)

A

Associated w/ pneumonia, less commonly w/ PE (would be a late finding in PE)

Sharp, localized pain (pt can pinpoint), worse w/ deep breath, movement, cough

Audible pleural friction rub, from movement of inflamed pelura layers - sound similar to stepping into fresh snow - may be both during inspiration and expiration

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372
Q

Acute bronchitis likely pathogen

A

Respiratory tract viruses 90%

Bacteria - M. Pneumo, C. Pneumo, B. pertussis 10%

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373
Q

Acute bronchitis tx

A

Anticholinergic bronchodilatero (Atrovent)

Inhaled beta-agonist (Albuterol)

short course of oral corticosteroids - Prednisone 40 mg orally daily x 3-5 days - addresses lower airway inflammation, cheapest, and most effective

Consider use of macrolide of tetracycline when abx indicated

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374
Q

Define Asthma

A

Common chronic disorder of the aiways

Variable and recurring symptoms, airflow obstruction, bronchial hyperresponsiveness, and underlying inflammation

Inflamamtion causes the bronchospasm

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375
Q

Asthma s/sx, dx

A

Recurrent cough, wheeze, SOB, and/or chest tightness

s/sx occur or worsen at night, or with exercise, viral respiratory infections, aeroallergens, and/or pulmonary irritants (e.g. second hand smoke)

Spirometry needed to make dx of asthma

Peak flow meter is used for monitoring

Airflow obstruction that is at least partially reversible: Increase in FEV1 12% or > from baseline post SABA use

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376
Q

Asthma visit frequency

A

well-controlled: 3-6 months

not well-controlled: 2-6 weeks

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377
Q

ICS in Asthma

A

Mometasone, Fluticasone (Flovent), Budesonide (Pulmicort), Beclomethasone (QVAR), Ciclesonide

Preferred controlled tx for persistent asthma

Requires consistent daily use for optimal effect

Prevents inflammation

Helps stop at least 8 inflammatory mediators

-

Most PCPs are NOT well-versed in the relative potency of ICS and prescribe an appropriate dose for the patient’s clinical presentation

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378
Q

ICS/LABA in asthma

A

Symbicort, Advair, Dulera

Preferred tx for moderate and severe persistent asthma

Increased death in asthma pts using LABA
ICS w/ LABA should NOT be used in pts whose asthma is well-controlled with an ICS alone

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379
Q

Leukotriene receptor antagonists

Leukotriene modifiers

A

Montelukast (Singulair)

Zafirlukast (Accolate)

Additional benefit w/ allergic rhinitis, most often used in conjunction with ICS

not useful as solo therapy

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380
Q

How much is systemically absorbed ICS

A

20% of a relatively small dose in ICS

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381
Q

LTRAs vs ICS in antiinflammatory effect

A

ICS at least 2-3x more potent than LTRAs

LTRAs only prevents Leukotriene whereas ICS prevents at least 8 inflammatory mediators

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382
Q

SABA in Asthma

A

acute reliever for acute bronchospasm

muscle relaxer = zero antiinflammatory effect

Albuterol (proventil), salbutamol, pirbuterol, levalbuterol (Xopenex)

Up to 3 tx at 20 minute intervals as needed

All asthma pts should have ready access

Drug of choice for preventing exercise-induced bronchospasm (EIB) - 2 puffs 30 minutes before exercise

Use of > 2 days/week (except for exercise) = poor inflammatory control

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383
Q

SABA how to use

A
  1. Make sure canister fits firmly in actuator
  2. Shake inhaler well
  3. take cap off mouthpiece, look inside for foreign objects, take out if any
  4. Hold inhaler w/ mouthpiece down
  5. Breath out
  6. Put mouthpiece around mouth and close lips around it
  7. Push canister all the way down while breathing deeply and slowly through mouth
  8. Hold breath for about 10 seconds
  9. Breath out as lowsly as long as you can
  10. If more sprays are prescribed, wait 1 minute, shake inhaler again
  11. Put cap back on mouthpiece, snap firmly into place

Clean inhaler at least once a week

Store w/ mouthpiece pointing down

Prime inhaler - shake and point away from face x 4

Prime if first time, not used for 14 days, or if it is dropped

How to clean

  1. Take canister out of actuator, take cap off
  2. Hold actuator under faucet and run warm water through it x 30 seconds
  3. Turn the actuator upside down and run water through mouthpiece x 30 seconds
  4. Shake off as much water from the actuator
  5. Let actuator air-dry overnight
  6. when dry, shake well again and spray once before using
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384
Q

Systemic corticosteroids in Asthma

A

Aggressive tx of inflammaiton during asthma flare

e.g.

Prednisone 40-60 mg/day x 3-10 days

Taper usually not needed w/ the dose and duration

During asthma flare, increase use of rescue drug

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385
Q

Most common reason for asthma flare

A

Viral respiratory infection

Typically 5-7 days viral infection would clear

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386
Q

Anticholinergics in asthma

A

Bronchodilator via blockage of cholinergic receptors

aka Muscarinic Antagonist

Emerging role in asthma tx

Well-established in COPD

Used primarily for prevention, not tx, of bronchospasm

Atrovent - ipratropium bromide - SAMA

Spiriva - Tiotropium bromide - LAMA

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387
Q

Theophylline in asthma

A

mild to moderate bronchodilator

cheap but requires blood draws for monitoring

multiple drug-drug interaction potential

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388
Q

Intermittent Asthma

A

sx 2d/week or less

nighttime awakening 2x/month or less

SABA use 2d/week or less

No interference w/ normal activity

Normal FEV1 between exacerbations

FEV1 > 80% predicted

FEV1/FVC normal

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389
Q

Mild persistent asthma

A

sx > 2 days/week but not daily

Nighttime awakening 3-4x/month

SABA > 2days/week but not daily

Minor activity limitation

FEV1 > 80% predicted

FEV1/FVC normal

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390
Q

Moderate persistent asthma

A

Daily sx

Nighttime awakening > 1x/week but not nightly

SABA daily

Some limitation w/ activity

FEV1 > 60 but

FEV1/FVC reduced by 5%

Step 3 tx, consider short course of oral corticosteroids

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391
Q

Severe persistent asthma

A

sx throughout day

nighttime awakenings often 7x/week

SABA several times/day

Extreme activity limitation

FEV1

FEV1/FVC reduced > 5%

Step 4 tx + consider oral corticosteroids

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392
Q

Step 1 asthma

A

Intermittent asthma

SABA PRN

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393
Q

Step 2 asthma

A

Mild persistent

Low dose ICS

+ SABA PRN

alternatives: Cromolyn, LTRA, nedocromil, thophylline

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394
Q

Step 3 asthma

A

Moderate persistent

Low-dose ICS + LABA

or

Medium dose ICS

Alternative: low-dose ICS+LTRA/theophylline/Zileuton

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395
Q

Step 4 asthma

A

Severe persistent

Medium dose ICS + LABA

Alternative: Medium-dose ICS + LTRA/theophylline/Zileuton

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396
Q

Step 5 asthma

A

High dose ICS + LABA

AND

Omalizumab for patients who have allergies

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397
Q

Step 6 asthma

A

High dose ICS + LABA + oral corticosteroids

AND

consider Omalizumab for patient who have allergies

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398
Q

When to step up/down in asthma

A

Step Up if needed - first, check adherence, environmental control, and comorbid conditions

Step Down - if possible and asthma is well controlled at least 3 months

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399
Q

Findings in diseases of air-trapping

A

e.g. asthma, COPD

Hyperresonance

Decreased tactile fremitus = decreased tissue density

Wheeze (expiratory first, inspiratory later)

Low diaphragm

Increased AP diameter (“barrel chest”)

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400
Q

COPD describe

A

Preventable, treatable disease w/ significant extrapulmonary effects

Pulmonary component is characterized by airflow limitation that is not fully reversible

Usually progressive and associated w/ abnormal inflammatory response of lung to noxious particles or gasses

Dx should be considered in any pt w/ progressive dyspnea, chronic cough, sputum production, and/or hx of exposure to risk fx (tobacco, pollution, occupational)

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401
Q

COPD dx

A

Spirometry is required for dx

Use age-related variables to avoid over-dx

FEV1:FVC

Classification of severity determined by FEV1

-

Alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency screening - perform when COPD develops in pts of Caucasian descent under 45 or w/ strong family hx of COPD

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402
Q

COPD and common arrhythmia

A

long-standing COPD = high pulmonary artery pressures = right atrial and ventricular hypertrophy = atrial fib

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403
Q

Mild COPD

Describe

A

GOLD 1

FEV1 > 80% predicated

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404
Q

Moderate COPD

Describe

A

GOLD 2

FEV1 50-80%

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405
Q

Severe COPD

Describe

A

Symptomatic

FEV1 30-50% predicted

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406
Q

Very severe COPD

Describe

A

GOLD 4

Symptomatic

FEV1

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407
Q

Medications in COPD

A

SABA prn for relief of bronchospasm

LABA - protracted duration of bronchodilation, used on a daily set schedule

LAMA - protracted duration of bronchodilation, minimized risk of COPD exac, used on a daily set schedule

ICS - antiinflammatory, minimized risk of COPD exac, used on a daily set schedule

Theophylline - bronchodilator, used on a daily set schedule

PDE-4 inhibitor (roflumilast) - minimized risk of COPD exac, used on a daily set schedule

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408
Q

GOLD 1-2 COPD tx

low risk

less sx

1 or

A

First choice: SAMA or SABA prn

SAMA: Atrovent

SABA: Proventil

Second choice: LAMA, LABA or combined SAMA+SABA

Alternative: Theophylline

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409
Q

GOLD 1-2 COPD tx

Low risk

More sx

1 or fewer exac/year

A

LAMA

or

LABA

2nd choice: LAMA + LABA

Alternative: PDE-4 inhibitor, SABA and/or SAMA, Theophylline (do not use w/ roflumilast)

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410
Q

GOLD 3-4 COPD tx

High risk

Less sx

2 or more exac/year

A

ICS + LABA

or

LAMA

2nd choice: ICS+LAMA, ICS+LABA+LAMA, ICS+LABA+PDE4 inhibitor etc.

Alternative: Carbocysteine (mucolytic) SABA and/or SAMA, theophylline

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411
Q

Theophylline in COPD

A

Do not use with PDE4 inhibitor roflumilast

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412
Q

Oxygen in COPD

When

A

O2 delivery to organs, baseline PaO2 at rest to 60 mmHg at sea level or higher

and/or SaO2 90% or higher

Indications for O2 therapy in COPD

PaO2

PaO2 55-59 mmHg or SaO2 = 89% in the presence of cor pulmonale, right heart failure, or polycythemia (HCT > 56%)

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413
Q

COPD exacerbation

Define

A

Event in the natural course of disease

Change in the patient’s baseline dyspnea, cough, and/or sputum beyond day to day variability sufficient to warrant change in mgmt

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414
Q

COPD exacerbation TX

A

SABA and/or SAMA prn

Consider adding LABA or LAMA if patient currently not using one

If baseline FEV1

Add systemic corticosteroid - Prednisone 40 mg/day x 5-10 days

studies show shorter steroid courses equally effective as longer courses

Consider adding ICS if not currently using

Encourage smoking cessation = associated w/ reduction of COPD exac, and reduction in rate of lung function loss

Antibiotic therapy

LIkely indicated if 3 cardinal sx:

Increased dyspnea, increased sputum volume, and increased sputum purulence

CXR - only w/ fever and/or low SaO2 to r/o concomitant PNA

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415
Q

Abx potentially associated w/ QT prolongation and increased risk of CV death

A

Macrolides

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416
Q

Abx w/ potential for tendon rupture, particularly when taken w/ systemic corticosteroid

A

Respiratory fluoroquinolones

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417
Q

Abx for COPD Flare

A

Causative pathogens in 30-50% include H. influenzae, H. parainfluenzae, S. pneumoniae, M. catarrhalis

Less common: atypical, other gram+ and gram- organisms

Mild to moderate

Abx usually not indicated, if prescribed, consider:

Amox - vulnerable to H. Flu and M. cat

Doxy - first choice

TMP-SMX - not as great H. flu coverage

Severe COPD exac

Consider:

Amox-clav

Cephalosporin (cefdinir, cefpodoxime, others)

Azithromycin - risk for QT prolongation

Clarithromycin - CYP450 inhibitor

Fluoroquinolone w/ DRSP actibity (Moxi, Levo) - risk for tendon rupture

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418
Q

Inhaled anthrax

A

s/sx

Low grade fever, nonproductive cough, nonspecific presentation

Widened mediastinum d/t hemorrhage visile on CXR or thoracic CT
Tx:

Fluroquinolone

Expert consult

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419
Q

Cutaneous anthrax

A

Most common form

pustular skin lesion that eventually forms ulcer w/ eschar

tx:

Fluoroquinolone

expert consult

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420
Q

Post-infectious cough tx

A

Atrovent

If no relief add ICS

if inadequate response, PO prednisone

last line: codeine+dextromethorphan

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421
Q

Botulism

A

Muscle paralyzing

Food-borne

Sx: double vision, blurred, drooping eyelids, slurred speech, difficulty swallowing, dry mouth, muscle weakness, moves DOWN body, shoulders affected first

Most recover - weeks to months

Tx supportive care, antitoxin (CDC, California department of health)

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422
Q

Type 1 DM

A

Autoimmune process involving beta-cell destruction = insulin deficiency

short history of significant sx:

unexplained weight loss, ketonuria, polydipsia, polyphagia, polyuria

usually dx in acute ill child or young adult

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423
Q

Type 2 DM

A

Insulin resistance w/ eventual insulin deficiency

Few if any sx

Usually dx during routine screening

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424
Q

DM screening criteria

A

All adults who are overweight BMI 25 or > and have additional risk fx:

physical inactivity

First-degree relative with DM2

High-risk ethnicity

Women w/ hx of giving birth to baby > 9 lb or GDM

Hx of GDM - screen women at 6-12 weeks postpartum

HTN

HDL 250

PCOS

IFG or IGT on previous testing

Clinical conditions assoc w/ insulin resistance (severe obesity, acanthosis nigricans)

Hx of CVD

In the absence of above criteria, begin screening at 45 years

If normal, repeat every 3 years, more frequent depending on risk status

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425
Q

DM dx

A

Fasting glucose 126 or >

Random glucose 200 or > w/ sx

2h plasma glucose of 200 or > after 75 g glucose load (most expensive)

A1c 6.5 or >

Repeat A1C if asymptomatic adult with glucose 200 or

Repeat not needed if sx or if glucose > 200

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426
Q

Pre-DM

A

IFG = 100 to 125 mg/dL

IGT= 140 to 199 mg/dL on 75g OGTT

A1C = 5.7 to 6.4

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427
Q

DM Goals

A

A1C

Fasting 70-130 mg/dL

Peak postprandial (1-2h after meal)

Bedtime 90-150 mg/dL

-

A1C

A1C

-

Obtain A1C at least twice a year in patients who are meeting tx goals and who have stable glycemic control

A1C quarterly in pts whose therapy has changed or who are not meeting glycemic goals

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428
Q

A1C and Estimated Average Glucose

A

6% = 126

7% = 154

8% = 183

12% = 298

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429
Q

Biguanide

A

Metformin

Brand: Glucophage

Insulin sensitizer

No inherent hypoglycemia risk = minimal action on fasting and postprandial glucose

90% renally eliminated

D/C at GFR

risk of lactic acidosis in impaired renal function/comorbidities/frailty

add MVI - long-term use B12 malabsorption

Anticipated A1C reduction 1-2%

-

Radiocontrast use, surgery, or any potential to alter hydration status: omit Metformin for the day of and for at least 48 hours post study/procedure. Reinitiate when baseline hydration/renal function are re-established

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430
Q

Thiazolidinedione (TZD, glitazones)

A

Pioglitazones (Actos), Rosiglitazone (Avandia)

Anticipated A1c reduction 1-2%

Insulin sensitizer

No inherent hypoglycemic risk = minimal action on fasting/postprandial glucose

Monitor ALT periodically, rare risk hepatic toxicity

Edema risk, especially when used w/ insulin or SU

Can exacerbate HF

Use w/ insulin or nitrates not recommended

Pioglitazone use (Actos) use > 1 year possibly assoc. w/ bladder ca

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431
Q

Sulfonylrea (SU)

A

Glipizide (Glucotrol), Glyburide (DiaBeta), Glimepiride (Amaryl)

$4 list

Anticipated A1C reduction 1-2%

Increases insulin release

Hypoglycemia risk esp. in elders, impaired renal function, nocturnal, fasting and 4-6h after meals

Typically less effective after 5 years d/t failing beta cells

May also be less effective in older adults, presence of severe hyperglycemia

Glipizide preferred in elderly over Glyburide

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432
Q

Meglitinides

A

Repaglinide (Prandin), Nateglinide (Starlix)

Anticipated A1C redution 1-1.5%

Increases insulin release

Hypoglycemia risk 2-3 h after medication, action on postprandial glucose only

Take 1-30 minutes before meal

Results in quick insulin burst w/ onset of action 20 minutes after dose taken

No additional benefit if used with SU

Can e used in presence of severe sulfa allergy (no sulfa molecule)

Use w/ caution in hepatic/renal impairment

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433
Q

Dipeptidyl peptidase-4 inhibitor (DPP-4)

A

Sitagliptin (Januvia), Saxagliptin (Onglyza), Linagliptin (Tradjenta), alogliptin (Nesina)

Anticipated A1C reduction 0.6-1.4%

Increases insulin release

Minimal to no hypoglycemia risk = action largely on postprandial glucose

Adjust dose in renal impairment

Well tolerated

Weight neutral

Indicated to improve glycemic control in combination w/ insulin sensitizers or other insulin releasers

Monitor for pancreatitis after intitiation and dose increases

Has not been studied in patients w/ hx of pancreatitis

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434
Q

GLP-1 agonist

A

Incretin mimetics

Exenatide (Bydureon, Byetta), Ligralutide (Victoza)

Anticipated A1C reduction 1-2%

Increases insulin release

Little inherent hypoglycemia risk

Slows gastric emptying, often leading to appetite suppression and weight loss

Stimulates insulin release in response to increased plasma glucose

Major side effect: N/V better w/ dose adjustment, continued use

Contraindicated in gastroparesis

Adjunct use in DM2 when not adequately controlled with biguanide, SU

Exenatide - not FDA approved as add-on tx w/ insulin glargine

D/C if acute pancreatitis sx develop (persistent abd pain w/ vomiting)

Exenatide - do not use if hx of prancreatitis

Do not prescribe if CrCl

Caution in CrCl 30-50 mL/min when increasing dose from 5-10 mcg

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435
Q

Alpha-glucosidase inhibitors

A

Acarbose (Precose), Miglitol (Glyset)

Anticipated A1C reduction 0.3-0.9%

Delays intestinal carbohydrate absorption by reducing postprandial digestion of starches and disaccharides via enzyme action inhibition

Little inhered hypoglycemia risk

Taken with first bite of meal

Helpful in mgmt of postprandial hyperglycemia

Does not enhance insulin secretion or sensitivity

GI adverse effect - avoid use in IBS, impaired renal function

Increased gas! - Carbs are broken down more slowly

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436
Q

Sodium glucose contransporter-2 (SGLT2)

A

Canagliflozin (Invokana), Dapagliflozin (Jardiance)

Anticipated A1C reduction 0.7 - 1%

Lowers plasma glucose levels by increasing the amount of glucose excreted in urine

Hypoglycemic risk r/t glucose offload; increased when used w/ insulin and insulin secretagogues

Adverse effects = genital mycotic infection (10% in F, 5% in M), UTI, increased urination

Modest weight loss of 4-7 lbs

Dose adjustment or discontinuation required in renal impairment d/t risk of adverse effects, electrolye imbalances, and less therapeutic effect

Can be used as add-on tx w/ metformin, SU, and others

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437
Q

When to start insulin

A

Type I - all pts at dx

Type II

At time of dx to help achieve initial glycemic control

When 2 or more agents at optimized doses are inadequate to maintain glycemic control

when acutely ill

In critically ill pts type I or II - BG levels should be kept at 140-180 mg/dL

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438
Q

Basal insulin percentage

A

50%

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439
Q

Humalog

Lispro insulin

A

Short acting

Onset 15-30 minutes

Peak 30 minutes - 2.5 hr

Duration 3-6.5 hr

Give within 15 min or right after meals

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440
Q

Insulin Aspart

Novolog

A

Short acting

Onset 10-20 minutes

Give 5-10 minutes before meals

Peak 1-3 hr

Duration 3-5 hr

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441
Q

Insulin glulisine

Apidra

A

Short acting

Onset 10-15 min

give within 15 minutes or right after meals

Peak 1-1.5 hr

Duration 3-5 hr

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442
Q

Regular insulin

Humulin R

Novolin R

A

Short acting

Onset 30 min-1 hr

Peak 2-3 hr

Duration 4-6 hr

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443
Q

NPH

Novolin N

Humulin N

A

Intermediate acting

Onset 1-2 hr

Peak 6-14 hr

Duration 16-24 hr

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444
Q

Insulin glargine

Lantus

A

Long-acting

Clinical effect 1 hr

No peak

Duration 24 hours

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445
Q

Insulin detemir

Levemir

A

Long-acting

Onset 1-2 hr

Peak 6-8 hr (minimal)

Dose dependent duration

12 hr at 0.2 units/kg

20 hr at 0.4 units/kg

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446
Q

Metabolic syndrome components

A

Large waistline

Hypercholesterolemia

Low HDL

High BP

High glucose

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447
Q

Meningomyocele

A

Protrusion of the membranes that cover the spine and spinal cord itself
through a defect in the bony encasement of the vertebral column

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448
Q

Myelocele

A

Protrusion of the spinal cord through a defect in the vertebral arch

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449
Q

Omphalocele

A

abdominal wall defect

intestines, liver, and occassionally other organs remain outside of the abdomen in a sac

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450
Q

What shoulder movement to test supraspinatus, anterior and lateral deltoid, and pectoralis major?

A

Shoulder abduction

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451
Q

DM quality indicators/additional care considerations

A

Daily ASA: 1-2 baby aspirins; Plavix 75 mg daily if ASA allergy in men > 50 and women > 60 w/ DM and 1 or more CVD risk fx (HTN, family hx, etc.)

BP control to include ACEI or ARB

Statin usually indicated; esp. for age > 40 or w/ hx of ACS

Check fasting lipid profile annnually

Check serum creatinine, calculated GFR, urine microalbumin annually

Limit trans and saturated fats

150 min/week of moderate activity, 30 min 5x/week, resistance exercise 3x/week

Vigorous exercise potentially contraindicate in the presence of proliferative or severe nonproliferative retinopathy d/t risk of vitreous hemorrhage or retinal detachment

Annual dilated eye exam minimum

Visual foot exam every visit

Comprehensive lower extremity sensory exam annually - 10g monofilament w/ 1 or more of the following: vibration using 128 Hz tunning fork, pinprick sensation, ankle reflexes, or vibration threshold

Review goals periodically

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452
Q

Metabolic Syndrome

A

Defined as ANY 3 of the following:

Waist circumference

Men > 102 cm (>40in)
Women > 88 cm (>35 in)

Triglycerides ≥ 150 mg/dL

HDL

Men Women

Blood Pressure ≥ 130/80 mmHg

Fasting glucose ≥ 110 mg/dL

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453
Q

Creatinine increase

A

Only increases when about 50% of renal function has been destroyed

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454
Q

Nonproliferative diabetic retinopathy

A

microaneurysms, macular edema

visual loss d/t macular edema

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455
Q

Proliferative diabetic retinopathy

A

new fragile vessels form

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456
Q

DM retinopathy w/ fluid leak/bleed/macular edema vision changes and tx

A

New onset blurry vision

“floaters” “holes” “swiss cheese” vision

Tx

tight BG control

photocoagulation

Vitrectomy if disease progresses after photocoagulation

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457
Q

HTN target organ damage examples

A

Stroke, vascular (multi-infarct) dementia (20% of all dementias)

Atherosclerosis, MI, LVH, HF

HTN nephorpathy, renal failure

HTN retinopathy w/ risk of blindness

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458
Q

Grade 1 HTN retinopathy

A

Narrowing of terminal branches

No vision change or permanent fidings

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459
Q

Grade 2 HTN retinopathy

A

Narrowing of vessels w/ severe local constriction

No vision change or permanent findings

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460
Q

Grade 3 HTN retinopathy

A

Preceding signs w/ striate hemorrhages and soft exudates

Potential for visual change and permanent findings

Black spots in visual field

pending HTN crisis - 911

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461
Q

Grade 4 HTN retinopathy

A

Papilledema w/ preceding signs w/ striate hemorrhages and soft exudates

Potential for visual change and permanent findings

pending HTN crisis - 911

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462
Q

Weight reduction in HTN and HL

A

Maintain normal body weight

SBP reduction 5-20 mmHg per 10 kg weight loss

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463
Q

DASH eating plan for HTN and HL

A

Rich in fruits and vegetables, low-fat dairy, reduced saturated and total fat

SBP reduction 8-14 mmHg

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464
Q

Dietary sodium restriction in HTN and HL

A

SBP 2-8 mmHg reduction

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465
Q

Aerobic physical activity for HTN and HL

A

Decreases insulin resistance/increases insulin sensitivity

Increases HDL and lowers TG

Moderate to vigorous physical activity 40 min/day 3-4x/week

No more than 48 hours w/o exercise (CVD benefit wears off)

SBP reduction 4-9 mmHg

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466
Q

Moderate ETOH consumption in HTN and HL

A

M

F

SBP reduction 2-4 mmHg

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467
Q

BP goal

DM/CKD tx

Black vs Nonblack tx

A

60 y and older

**If DM goal

Black: Initiate thiazide and/or CCB

Nonblack: Initiate thiazide, ACEI/ARB, or CCB

CKD: Initiate ACEI/ARB all races - may combine w/ other drug classes**

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468
Q

BP titration

A

After initiation, wait 1 month, if not at goal:

Reinforce medication and lifestyle changes

Maximize medications

wait 1 month, if still not at goal, titrate meds (maximize dose of first drug, add second drug, maximize second drug etc.)

Reinforce medication and lifestyle changes

wait 1 month, if still not at goal

Reinforce medication and lifestyle changes

Add addition medication class (beta-blocker, aldosterone antagonist) and/or refer to HCP w/ expertise in HTN mgmt

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469
Q

Thiazide diuretics

A

HCTZ, chlorthalidone

MOA: low-volume sodium depletion = PVR reduction

w/ high dose (e.g. HCTZ 25 mg/day) potential negative impact on HL, glucose control

Monitor for Na, K, Mg depletion

Calcium sparing - monitor for hypercalcemia

Lower observed rate of fractures in women who are long-term thiazide users

Less effective w/ advancing renal impairment, esp if GFR

Loop diuretics remain effective w/ lower GFR

Only use loop diuretics to off-load fluid, not for BP control

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470
Q

ACEIs and ARBs

A

ACEIs: Lisinopril, Enela_pril_ (Vasotec)

ARBs: Losartan (Cozaar), telmisartan (Micardis)

Attenuates angiotensin II (potent vasoconstrictor that also stimulates catecholamine release)

ACEIs minimize production

ARBs block its action

-

Adjust dose in renal insufficiency

Do not use in bilateral renal artery stenosis

Modest hyperkalemia risk, esp. w/ inadequate fluid intake, when used w/ aldosterone antagonist

ACEI induced cough: can use ARB as an alternative

Angiodema risk w/ ACEI use, less w/ ARB

Do not use in pregnancy (Category D)

Renally eliminated

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471
Q

Calcium channel blockers CCBs

A

MOA: causes vasodilation

Dihydropyridine (DHP): Amlodipine (Norvasc), felodipine (Plendil)

Nondihydropyridine (non-DHP): Diltiazem, verapamil

Ankle edema particularly with DHPs

NonDHP: caution w/ BB and untreated heart block

NonDHP: CYP450 3A4 inhibitor

Avoid use/use w/ caution in HF, renal, hepatic impairment

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472
Q

Betablockers

A

Atenolol, metropolol, propranolol

MOA: Block adrenergic beta1 receptor sites, blunt catecholamine response

Non-cardioselective BBs (propranolol, nadolol) also block beta2 receptor sites

Use w/ caution in untreated heart block

Lower dose cardioselective beta-blocker tx usually acceptable in COPD, asthma - monitor for worsening airway obstruction

when discontinuing, taper dose over a 10-14 day period to allow previously blocked receptors to acclimate

Ok to use BB if pt has pacer

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473
Q

Aldosterone antagonist

A

Spironolactone (Aldactone), eplerenone (Inspra)

MOA: Block effects of aldosterone, therefore better regulating of Na+ and water homeostasis and maintenance of intravascular volume

Aldosterone = increases sodium reabsorption

Hyperkalemia risk, particularly w/ ACEI/ARB, volume depletion, including excessive diuresis

Gynecomastia risk w/ prolonged use (androgen blocker)

Caution in renal impairment

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474
Q

Centrally-acting BP agents

A

Clonidine (catapres)

Methyldopa (aldomet) - use in pregnancy w/ primary HTN category B/C

MOA: works at brain BP control center

Sedation risk

Abrupt clonidine withdrawal = rebound HTN risk

Not mentioned in JNC-8

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475
Q

Cumin and coriander

A

No documented drug interactions

Lowers BP in large doses

Ok to use

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476
Q

Lipid affected by non-fasting state

A

Triglycerides

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477
Q

Saturated fats

A

Solid at room temp

Avoid tropical oils such as palm and coconut oil

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478
Q

Dietary options to decrease LDL

A

Increase intake of plant sterols and stanols to 2g/day (Take Control and Benecol margarine)

Viscous or soluble fiber to 10-25 g/day (oatmel, oat bran)

OAT = best grain for fat and constipation

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479
Q

HL fat intake

A

Reduce saturated fat to

Avoid trans fats

Reduce total cholesterol intake to

Dietary fat to 25-25% of total daily caloric intake

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480
Q

Omega-3 in HL

A

Increase intake of omega-3 fatty acids (EPA and DHA)

w/o CHD: oily fish 2x/week

Include oils and food risk in a-linolenic acid (flaxseed, canola, soybean oils, walnuts)

w/ CHD: 1 g of EPA+DHA/day preferably from oily fish (4 oz of salmon)

EPA+DHA in consultation w/ HCP

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481
Q

High dose statin

A

21-75 y/o

and

clinical ASCVD or LDL 190 and higher

If 40-75 y/o DM and 7.5% 10 year ASCVD risk = high dose statin tx

If 7.5% or higher ASCVD risk, and 40-75y/o no DM = use moderate-to-high statin tx

High dose statin lowers LDL-C by approx. 50%

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482
Q

Moderate dose statin

A

indicated if > 75 y/o with clinical ASCVD

or

DM 40-75 y/o LDL

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483
Q

Statin Tx LDL reduction

A

High dose LDL reduction 50%

Atorvastatin (Zocor) 40-80 mg daily

Rosuvastatin (Crestor) 20-40 mg daily

Moderate dose LDL reduction 1/3 (30-49%)

Atorvastatin 10-20 mg daily

Rosuvastatin 5-10 mg daily

Simvastatin 20-40 mg daily

Pravastatin 40-80 mg daily

Lovastatin 40 mg daily ($4)

Low dose LDL reduction 1/4 (

Pravastatin 10-20 mg daily

Lovastatin 20 mg daily

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484
Q

Statin Tx considerations

HMG CoA reductase inhibitor

A

LDL reduction 18-55%

HDL increase 5-15%

TG decrease 7-30%

Check baseline hepatic function

DM2 risk slightly increased w/ statin use, esp at high dose, CVD benefit outweighs small risk

Cognitive impairment rarely reported, if it occurs, lower dose or try another statin

Caution w/ concomitant use of grapefruit juice (intestinal CYP450 34A inhibitor) w/ use of these 3 statins (simvastatin, atorvastatin, lovastatin)

Adverse effects: rhabdo, myositis - rare, most often noted w/ higher statin dose, or in combination w/ fibrate, renal impairment, multiple comorbidities, low body weight, advanced age

Do not use simvastatin at 80 mg dose d/t rhabdo risk

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485
Q

Grapefruit juice

A

intestinal CYP450 34A inhibitor

caution w/ use of these 3 statins (simvastatin, atorvastatin, lovastatin)

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486
Q

Bile acid resins (sequestrants)

A

E.g. Cholestyramine (Questran), colestipol (Colestid), colesevelam (WelChol)

LDL reduction 15-30%

HDL increase 3-5%

TG increase if 400 or >

Thickens stool!

Nonsystemic w/ no hepatic monitoring required

minimal effect on TG untill 400 and >

Adverse effects: GI distress, constipation, decreased absorption of other drugs if resin taken within 2 hours of many medications

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487
Q

Selective cholesterol absorption inhibitor

A

E.g. Ezetimibe (Zetia)

LDL decreases 15-20%

HDL increases 3-5%

Minimal effect on TG
Most often prescribed w/ another agent such as a statin

Adverse effects: few d/t limited systemic absorption

No dose adjustment in renal/hepatic absorption

(Vytorin) - ezetimibe combined w/ simvastatin

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488
Q

Niacin

A

E.g. Niaspan, generic niacin

HDL increases 15-35%

TG decreases 20-50%

LDL decreases 5-25%

Particularly effective against highly atherogenic LDL lipoprotein (a)

Adverse effects: Flushing (take ASA 325 1 hour before dose), hyperglycemia, hyperuricemia, upper GI distress, hepatotoxicity (rare)

Contraindication: active liver disease, severe gout, peptic ulcer

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489
Q

Fibric acid derivatives (Fibrates)

A

E.g. Gemfibrozil (Lopid), fenofibrate (TriCor), fenofibric acid (Trilipix)

HDL increases 10-20%

TG decreases 20-50%

LDL decreases 5-20%

Adverse effects: dyspepsia, gallstones, myopathy, including rhabdomyolysis if taken w/ statin

Fenofibric acid the only fibrate FDA labeled for use w/ statin but still carries the myositis warning

Contraindicated in severe renal or hepatic disease

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490
Q

Fish Oil (omega-3 fatty acid)

A

At 4g/dose:

TG decreases 20-30%

Increases HDL 1-5%

4g = 1 lb of salmon/day

Adverse effects: Increased risk of bleeding d/t modest antiplatelet effect, GI upset, fishy taste (can be minimized by freezing capsules, taking w/ food, avoiding hot beverages immediately post ingestion)

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491
Q

Heart Failure Classes

A

Class I = no sx

Class II = sx w/ moderate activity

Class IIIa = sx w/ ordinary activity

Class IIIb = sx w/ minimal activity

Class IV = sx at rest w/ no activity

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492
Q

HF Class I

A

No sx

Tx: primary prevention, treat risk factors

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493
Q

HF Class II

A

Sx w/ moderate activity

Tx: Add ACE/ARB and BB if not already taking

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494
Q

HF Class III

A

Class IIIa = Sx w/ ordinary activity

Class IIIb = sx w/ minimal activity

Tx: Add diuretics, Digoxin, Nitrates, Hydralazine

Consider biventricular pacing and implantable defibrillator

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495
Q

HF Class IV

A

Sx at rest, w/ no activity

Tx: Hospice, heart transplant, chronic inotropes (Dobutamine clinic), permanent pump (LVAD)

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496
Q

Stage A HF

A

At high risk for HF but w/o structural heart disease or sx of HF

e.g. HTN, atherosclerotic heart disease, DM, obesity, metabolic syndrome or pts using cardiotoxins, family hx of cardiomyopathy

Tx:

ACEI or ARB for vascular disease or DM

Statins as appropriate

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497
Q

Stage B HF

A

Structural heart disease but w/o s/sx of HF

e.g. pts w/ previous MI, LV remodeling including LVH and low EF, asymptomatic valvular disease

Tx:

ACEI/ARB, BB as appropriate

In selected pts: ICD, revascularization or valvular surgery as appropriate

High risk of sudden cardiac death

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498
Q

Stage C HF

A

Structural heart disease w/ sx

e.g. known structural heart disease and HF s/sx

Cardiology input/consult

Preserved EF Tx: Diuresis to relieve sx of congestion, tx comorbidities

Reduced EF Tx:

Routine use: diuretics for fluid retention, ACEI/ARB, BB, aldosteronen antagonists

In selected pts: Hydralazine/isosorbide dinitrate, ACEI and ARB, Digitalis, CRT, ICD, revascularization or valvular surgery

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499
Q

Stage D HF

A

Refractory HF

pts w/ marked HF sx at rest

recurrent hospitalizations despite GDMT

Tx:

Advanced care measures, heart transplant, chronic inotropes, temporary of permanent MCS, experimental surgery or drugs, palliative care and hospice, ICD deactivation

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500
Q

Physiologic murmur describe

A

Grade 1-3/6

Early to midsystolic

heard best at LSB but usually audible over precordium

No radiation beyong precordium

Softens or disappears w/ standing

Increases in intensity w/ activity, fever, anemia, S1 and S2 intact, normal PMI

Heard in 80% of thin, healthy adults if examined in soundproof room

Asymptomatic w/ no report of chest pain, HF sx, palpitations, syncope, activity intolerance

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501
Q

Aortic stenosis murmur describe

A

Gr 1-4/6

Harsh systolic murmur

Usually crescendo-decrescendo

heard best at 2nd RICS apex

Softens w/ standing

Radiates to carotids

May have diminished S2

slow-filling carotid pulse

Narrow pulse pressure

Loud S4

Heaving PMI

Greater the degree of stenosis, later the peak of murmur

Dx: transthoracic echocardiogram, order when systolic murmur

In younger adults - usually congenital bicuspid valve

In older adults - usually calcific, rheumatic

Dizziness, syncope ominous signs, pointing to severely decreased CO

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502
Q

MRPASS wins MVP

A

Mitral

Regurgitation

Physiologic

Aortic

Stenosis

Systolic

Mitral

Valve

Prolapse

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503
Q

MSARD

A

Mitral

Stenosis

Aortic

Regurgitation

Diastolic

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504
Q

Aortic Sclerosis describe

A

Gr 2-3/6 systolic ejection murmur

heard best at 2nd RICS

Full carotid upstroke, not delayed

No S4

No sx

Benign thickening and/or calcification of aortic valve leaflets, no change in valve pressure gradient

AKA: “50 over 50” murmur

Found in 50% of those older than 50

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505
Q

Aortic regurgitation murmur

A

Gr 1-3/4 high-pitched blowing diastolic murmur

Heard best at 3rd LICS

May be enhanced by forced expiration, leaning forward

Usually w/ S3

wide pulse pressure

sustained thrusting apical impulse

more common in men

usually from rheumatic heart disease but occassional d/t tertiary syphilis

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506
Q

Mitral stenosis

A

Gr 1-3/4 diastolic murmur

low-pitched late diastolic

heard best at apex and localized

Short crescendo decrescendo rumble, like bowling ball rolling down alley or distant thunder

Often w/ opening snap, accentuated S1 in mitral area

Enhanced by left lateral decubitus, squat, cough, immediately post-Valsalva

Nearly all rheumatic in origin

Protracted latency period, then gradual decrease in exercise tolerance leading to rapid downhill course d/t low cardiac output

AF common

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507
Q

Infective endocarditis prophylactic abx indication

A

Maintenance of optimal oral health and hygiene more important than prophylactic abx to reduce risk of IE

Conditions where prophylactic abx w/ dental procedures is reasonable:

Prosthetic cardiac valve of prosthetic material use for cardiac valve repair

Previous IE

Congenital heart disease

Unrepaired cyanotic CHD, including palliative shunts and conduits

Completely repaired CHD w/ prosthetic material or device during the first 6 months of procedure

Repaired CHD w/ residual defects at site or adjacent to site of prosthetic patch/device

Cardiac transplantation in recipients who develop cardiac valvulopathy

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508
Q

IE prophylactic tx before dental/oral/respiratory tract/esophageal procedures

A

Give 30-60 minutes before procedure

Adults

Amox 2 g PO

Ampicillin 2 g IM or IV

Cefazolin or ceftriaxone 1 g IM or IV

Clindamycin 600 mg

Cephalexin 2 g

Azithromycin or clarithromycin 500 mg

Children

Amox 50 mg/kg PO

Ampicillin 50 mg/kg PO

Cefazolin or ceftriaxone 50 mg/kg IM or IV

Clindamycin 20 mg/kg

Cephalexin 50 mg/kg

Azithro/clarithro 15 mg/kg

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509
Q

Atrial septal defect

A

Gr 1-3/6 systolic ejection murmur at pulmonic area

Widely split S2, right ventricular heave

Typically w/o sx until middle age, then present w/ HF

Persistent ostium secundum in mid-septum

Will resolve w/ ASD correction

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510
Q

Pulmonary HTN

A

Narrow splitting S2, murmur of tricuspid regurgitation

SOB nearly universal

Seen with RVH, RAH, as identified by ECG, echo

Secondary PH may be a consequence of Redux (fen-phen) use

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511
Q

Mitral regurgitation

A

Gr 1-4/6 high-pitched blowing systolic murmur, often extending beyond S2

Sounds like long “haaaa”, “hoooo.”

Heard best RLSB

Radiates to axilla

Often laterally displaced PMI

Decreased w/ standing, valsalva

increased by squat, hand grip

Found in ischemic heart disease, endocarditis, RHD

W/ RHD, often w/ other valve abnormalities (AS, MS, AR)

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512
Q

Mitral Valve Prolapse

A

Gr 1-3/6 late systolic crescendo murmur

w/ honking quality heard best at apex

Murmur follows midsystolic click

Click moves forward to earlier systole w/ valsalve or standing, resulting in longer sounding murmur

W/ hand grasp or squat, click moves back further into systole, resulting in shorter murmur

Often seen w/ minor thoraci deformities such as pectus excavatum, straight back, and shallow AP diameter

Chest pain sometimes present

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513
Q

Normal vaginal pH

A

3.8-4.2
in reproductive age

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514
Q

Candida vulvovaginitis

A

pH

White curd-like discharge

usually no odor

Micro: mycelia, budding yeast, pseudohyphae w/ KOH prep

Itching/burning, discharge

Tx

Fluconazole 150 mg orally x 1

If complicated: Fluconazole 150 mg orally every 72 hours x 3 doses

If recurrent: 150 mg once daily for 10-14 days

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515
Q

Bacterial Vaginosis

A

pH > 4.5

Thin, homogenous, white, gray, adherent often increased discharge

Fishy amine odor (+KOH whiff test)

> 20 clue cells/HPF

Few or no WBCs

Foul odor, itching occassionally present

Tx: - need strong anaerobe coverage

Metronidazole 500 mg BID x 7 days

No ETOH during tx

Metrogel (topical metronidazole)

Clindamycin vaginal cream or ovules (Cleocin)

Oral tinidazole (Tindamax)

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516
Q

Height and age for adult seat belts

A

57 inches

8-12 years

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517
Q

Fluconazole is a cytochrome what?

A

P4502CP inhibitor

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518
Q

S. pneumo resistance mechanism

A

altered protein binding sites

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519
Q

Loss of posterior tibial reflex indicates a lesion in what?

A

L5

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520
Q

Tx of tremor and tachy in ETOH witdrawal

A

Clonidine

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521
Q

What is apraxia

A

impairment of motor activities despite intact motor function

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522
Q

bladder cancers superficial w/o mets

A

despite successful initial tx, local reccurrence is common

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523
Q

Glucosamine and chondroitin

A

cannnot recommend in OA per evidence

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524
Q

Evista and osteoporosis

A

risk of osteoporosis is reduced

selective estrogen receptor modulator

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525
Q

Which SSRI might interact w/ Warfarin?

A

Fluoxetine

Prozac

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526
Q

Risk of which thyroid disorder in Down Syndrome

A

Hypothyroidism

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527
Q

SNRI example and mechanism

A

Effexor

SNRIs increase the levels of norepinephrine and dopamine in the brain

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528
Q

How many systems are reviewed in an ROS

A

10

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529
Q

Clean catch urine instructions

A

clean genital/urinary area w/ cleansing wipe

void some urine before beginning collection

collect from middle of stream

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530
Q

5HT3 antagonist

A

Alosetron

In IBS - blockage of 5-HT3 receptors (ligand-gated ion channels) may reduce pain, abdominal discomfort, urgency, and diarrhea

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531
Q

Describe bronchial breath sounds

A

high, loud, hollow-sounding

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532
Q

Clinically significant stenosis - obstruction of at least what percentage of a major coronary artery or one of its major branches?

A

70%

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533
Q

Obturator sign

A

evaluation for acute appendicitis

Rotating right hip through full ROM, positive if pain w/ movement/flexion of hip

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534
Q

Gabapentin side effects

A

drowsiness, blurred vision, tremors, tiredness
usually not cause for concern

Stomach upset and vomiting not typically associated w/ gabapentin

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535
Q

CHF follow up schedule

A

every 1-2 weeks until symptom free, then every 3-6 months

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536
Q

Faun tail nevus

A

Tufts of hair on a child overlying spinal column

may be sign of spina bifida occulta

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537
Q

Presumptive sign of pregnancy

A

Amenorrhea

Fatigue, nausea, breast changes, urinary frequency, slight increase in body temp

Probable signs of pregnancy: goodell’s sign, hegar’s sign

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538
Q

Uterus growth in pregnancy

A

1 cm per week after 4 weeks of gestation

6-8 weeks: pear

8-10 weeks: orange

10-12 weeks: grapefruit

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539
Q

Goodell’s Sign

A

Softening of cervix d/t increased vascularization

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540
Q

Hegar’s sign

A

Nonsensitive sign of pregnancy

softening and compressibility of lower segment of uterus via bimanual exam in early pregnancy

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541
Q

Chadwick’s sign

A

Bluish discoloration of cervix

early sign of pregnancy

6-8 weeks after conception

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542
Q

35 y/o abd pain, upper right side, back pain, unexpected weight loss

Most likely dx

A

Gallstones

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543
Q

Ulcerative colitis lifestyles changes

A

Vitamin supplements and iron

Avoid dairy

Eat nutritious diet - low-residue, low-fat, high-protein, high-calories foods

Avoid smoking, caffeine, pepper, ETOH

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544
Q

BUN:Cr ration of >20:1

Most likely dx

A

Acute glomerulephritis

Also - UA will show renal casts and RBCs

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545
Q

Nitrites in UA significance

A

a surrofate marker for bacteriuria

Indicates bacterial reduction of dietary nitrates to nitrites by select gram-negative uropathogens including E. coli and Proteus spp.

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546
Q

SSRI commonly associated side effects

A

decreased libido and weight gain

TCAs have more weight gain

Jitteriness and restlessness are commonly associated w/ SSRI use

547
Q

Anemia Hgb threshold M and F

A

Hgb

Hgb

548
Q

TIA describe

A

All s/s of TIA including numbness, weakness, and flaccidity, visual changes, ataxia, or dysarthria resolve usually within minutes but certainly by 24 hours after onset

consider stroke if > 24 hours

549
Q

HTN f/u

A

Once BP is stabilized f/u should be every 3-6 months

Normotensive pts: every 1-2 years

550
Q

Misoprostol

A

Prostaglandin analogue

Specifically designed for gastric protection with NSAID use

551
Q

Herpes keratitis

A

Damage to corneal epithelium d/t herpes virus (shingles)

Acute onset eye pain, photophobia, blurred vision in affected eye w/ rash

552
Q

Xanthelasma

A

Raised and yellow soft plaques located under the eyebrow

they can be on the upper or lower lids of the eyes and are located on the nasal side

553
Q

Patient w/ IBS taking both hysocyamine and antacid how to take

A

take antacid AFTER hysocyamine and after a meal

554
Q

Most common cause of new onset fecal incontinence in elderly

A

constipation

risk fx: > 80 years, impaired mobility, neurologic disorders including dementia

555
Q

Sulfa allergy and HCTZ

A

HCTZ is contraindicated

HCTZ has a sulfonamide ring in its chemical structure

556
Q

When to order PET scan

A

Positron emission tomography

Shows brain function and highlights abnormal tissue

Often done after abnormal CT

Evaluates for brain tumor

557
Q

Toxic shock syndrome

A

Women w/ dx of TSS should not use tampons or diaphragms in the future

s/sx of TSS:

high fever, myalgia, N&V, diarrhea, diffuse sunburn-like rash, hypotension, agitation, and confusion

558
Q

PEF determination factors

A

Based on HAG

Height

Age

Gender

559
Q

Basal cell ca

A

Low metastatic risk

Early recognitition and intervention is recommended

Untreated BCC can lead to significant deformities and altered function

560
Q

Prostatodynia

A

No fever

Dyuria, decreased urinary flow, post-void dribbling, hesitancy

may be associated w/ back pain or pain in testicles

561
Q

Acute gastroenteritis

BRATY diet

A

Bananas

Rice

Applesauce

Toast

Yogurt

562
Q

MMR vaccine

A

Safe during lactation

contraindicated in pregnancy

risk exists in theory

563
Q

Max dose Lisinopril

A

40 mg/day

564
Q

Obesity waist circumference M and F

A

M > 40 in

F > 35 in

565
Q

Moro reflex

A

startle reflex

Disappears at 4-6 months

566
Q

S4 heart sound

A

Low-frequency

Heard late in diastole

rare in infants and children

always pathological

Seen in condition w/ decreased ventricular compliance

567
Q

Folliculitis tx

A

Mupirocin 2% BID x 10 days and cover with DSD

Gentamicin - apply BID to TID

Isoretinoin 0.5-1mg/kg/day PO in divided doses

Anhydrous ethyl elcohol w/ 6.35 aluminum chloride, apply TID before abx ointment

568
Q

Senile purpura

A

Aka vascular purpura

common and benign condition in the elderly

normal labs

569
Q

Total cholesterol values

A

Normal

Borderline 200-239

High > 240

570
Q

Acute lymphocytic leukemia points of teaching

A

ALL accounts for about 80% of childhood leukemia

Noted for presence of lymphoblasts which replace normal cells in bone marrow

T lymphocyte type of ALL has poorest prognosis

B cell = Better prognosis

571
Q

Most cost-effective, sensitive, specific test for H. Pylori

A

organism-specific stool antigen testing

H. pylori transmitted via oral-fecal and oral-oral route

spiral shaped organism

572
Q

Beclomethasone dose HFA

A

Low: 80-240 mcg

Medium: >240-480 mcg

High: > 480 mcg

573
Q

Secondary HTN evaluation

A

Test = Dx

CT angiography = coarctation of the aorta

24-hour urine mentenephrine and normetanephrine = Pheochromocytoma

Doppler flow study, magnetic resonance angiography = Renovascular HTN

Estimated GFR = CKD

574
Q

Tennis ball uterus size how many weeks

A

8 weeks

Uterus, nonpregnant, size of lemon and is mobile, firm, and notender

8 weeks = size of tennis ball or orange

12 weeks = size of softball or grapefruit

20 weeks = fundus at umbilicus

575
Q

Still’s murmur

A

Usually detected at 3-6 years of age

Best heard at middle left sternal border or between the left lower sternal border and apex when patient is supine

576
Q

Time frame for suture removal

A

Arms, hands = 5-10 days

Over a joint = 7-14 days

577
Q

Atrophic Vaginitis

A

Etiology: Estrogen deficiency

pH > 5

Scant, white-clear discharge

Absent KOH amine odor

Few or absent lactobacilli

Lactobacilli decreases w/ estrogen decrease

common complaints: itching/burning, discahrge, but often w/o sx

Tx:

Topical and/or vaginal estrogen if symptomatic and/or recurrent UTI

Oral estrogen as solo intervention likely inadequate

578
Q

Risk fx of lumbar radiculopathy

A

> 50

Male

Overweight

Cigarette smoking

579
Q

what are clue cells

A

vaginal epithelial cells w/ adherent bacteria

580
Q

Achilles tendon reflex loss

what nerve root is affected

A

L5 and S1

581
Q

Most common site of cervical radiculopathy

A

C6 and C7

582
Q

Most common site of lumbar disc herniation

A

L4 to L5

and

L5 to S1

583
Q

Genital herpes

A

HHV2, less commonly HH1

Common to be asymptomatic or have atypical sx

Asymptomatic transmission common

Classic presentation:

painful, ulcerated lesions

marked lymphadenopathy w/ initial lesions

In women: thin vaginal discharge if lesions at vagina or introitus

Tx:

Acyclovir

initial episode: 200 mg 5x/day x 10 days or 400 mg 2x/day x 7-10 days

Recurrence: 200 mg 5x/day x 5 days - being at earliest signs of disease - or 400 mg TID x 5 days or 800 mg BID x 5 days or 800 mg TID x 2 days

Famciclovir

Valtrex

Initial episode: 1 g BID x 10 days

Recurrence: 500 mg BID x 3 days

Reduction of transmission: 500 mg daily

584
Q

Nongonococcal urethritis and cervicitis

A

Chlamydia, ureaplasma, mycoplasma genitalium

Friable cervix

Irritative voiding sx

Mucopurulent discahrge

Often w/o sx

Micro: large number of WBCs in discharge

Tx

Azithromycin 1 g x 1 dose

Alternative:

Doxy

Erythro

Ofloxacin

Levofloxacin

585
Q

Gonococcal urethritis and vaginitis

A

Gram neg w/ propensity to produce beta-lactamase

Irritative voiding sx

Occassional purulent discharge

often w/o sx

Micro: large number of WBCs in discharge

Tx
Ceftriaxone 250 mg IM x 1 dose

+

Azithromycin x 1 dose or Doxy x 7 days

Severe beta-lactam allergy: Azithro 2 g x 1 dose

586
Q

Trichomoniasis

A

Parasite

Men almost never have itch

Women seldom have itch

classic sx: dysuria, itching, vulvovaginal irritation, dyspareunia, yellow-green vaginal discharge, occassionally frothy (30%), cervical petechial hemorrhages (“strawberry spots”)

Often w/o sx

Micro: motile organisms and large number of WBCs

Alkaline pH

Tx:

Oral metronidazole or tinidazole as 1 x dose

Avoid consuming ETOH for 24 hours after metronidazole or 72 hours after tinidazole

Dose: Flagyl 2 g x 1 dose

587
Q

Syphilis organism

A

Treponema pallidum

588
Q

Syphilis primary stage

A

Chancre, firm, round, PAINLESS genital and/or anal ulcers w/ clean base and indurated margins

localized lymphadenopathy

3 weeks duration

resolve w/o tx

589
Q

Syphilis Secondary Stage

A

Nonpruritic skin rash, often involving palms and soles as well as mucous membrane lesions

Fever, lymphadenopathy, sore throat, patchy hair loss, headaches, weight loss, muscle aches, fatigue

Resolution w/o tx possible

590
Q

Syphilis Latent stage

A

Variable presentation

Gumma - rare

Occurs when primary and secondary sx have resolved

591
Q

Syphilis Tx

A

Benzathine penicillin G 2.4 million units IM as 1 x dose

(x 3 weeks if Latent syphilis)

Alternative tx if allergic to PCN:

Doxy 100 mg BID x 2 weeks

Tetracycline 500 mg QID x 2 weeks

(x 4 weeks if latent)

Ceftriaxone 1 g IM or IV every 24 hours x 8-10 days

592
Q

Genital warts

A

Condyloma acuminata

HPV commonly HPV-6, -11 causing genital warts

Infection w/ multiple HPV types common

verruca-form lesions can be subclinical

Tx

Podofilox, liquid nitro, croprobe, trichloroacetic acid, podophyllin resin, surgical removal or imiquimod (Aldara)

Imiquimod for external warts only

Imiquimod 5% cream apply at bedtime 3x/week for up to 16 weeks. Wash are w/ soap and water 6-10 hours after application

If pregnant: Trichloroacetic acid and cryoprobe

593
Q

Nongenital warts HPV types

A

HPV types 1, 2, 4

594
Q

HPV types associated w/ GU malignancies

A

HPV types 16, 18, 31, 33

595
Q

Pelvic inflammatory disease define

A

Infection of upper female reproductive tract, including uterus, fallopian tubes, adjacent pelvic structures

Causative organisms: N. gonorrhoeae, C. trachomatis, bacteroides, Enterobacteriaceae, streptococci

596
Q

PID clinical findings

A

Irritative voiding sx

fever, abd pain, CMT, vaginal discharge

possible sequelae include tubal scarring w/ subsequent increased risk for ectopic pregnancy and/or infertility

597
Q

PID tx

A

Ceftriaxone 250 mg IM x 1 dose +

Doxycycline 100 mg BID x 14 days w/ or w/o

Metronidazole 500 mg BID x 14 days

Metronidazole for anaerobes - studies show better outcomes when Metronidazole is added

598
Q

Balanitis

A

Inflammation of the glans

common in candida to also have scrotal involvement

vs jock itch (tinea cruris) typically no scrotal involvement

599
Q

UTI uncomplicated acute usual pathogens

A

E. coli (gram neg, most common)

S. saprophyticus (gram pos.)

Enterococci (gram-pos)

600
Q

Acute uncomplicated UTI tx

A

1.) Bactrim DS BID x 3 days

if resistance > 20% or sulfa allergy

2.) Macrobid 100 mg BID x 5 days or Fosfomycin 3g x 1 dose

+

Pyridium

OTC 2 tabs total 190 mg TID w/ or after meals x 2 days

Rx 200 mg TID x 2 days w/ abx

Alternative

Ciprofloxacin 250 mg BID x 3 days

Ciprofloxacin ER 500 mg daily x 3 days

Levofloxacin 250 mg daily x 3 days

Moxifloxacin 400 mg daily x 3 days

+ Pyridium (turns urine orange!)

601
Q

Acute uncomplicatated pyelonephritis

A

Usual pathogens: E. coli, enterococci

Obtain urine and blood cultures prior to initiating abx

Moderately ill: suitable outpatient

Usually F, 18-40 y, fever 102 or higher, CVA tenderness

Tx

Ciprofloxacin 500 mg BID x 7 days

Ciprofloxacin ER 1000 mg daily x 7 days

Ofloxacin 400 mg BID x 7 days

Levofloxacin 250 mg daily x 5 days

One IV dose often given d/t GI upset

Alternative:

Amox-Clav x 14 d

Cephalosporin x 14 d

TMP/SMX DS x 14 d

602
Q

Epididymoorchitis

35 y/o and younger

A

Usual pathogen: Gono/chlamy

Irritative voiding sx

Fever, painful swelling of epididymis and scrotum (typically asymmetrical)

Infertility potential post-infection

Prehn sign = relief w/ discomfort w/ scrotal elevation +

Tx:

Ceftriaxone 250 mg IM x 1 dose

+

Doxy 100 mg BID x 10 days

Advise scrotal elevation to help w/ sx

603
Q

Epididymoorchitis > 35 y

OR

insertive partner in anal intercourse

A

Causative organism: Enterobacteriaceae (coliforms)

(Gram negative)

Irritative voiding sx

Fever, painful swelling of epididymis and scrotum

Intertility potential post infection

Primary tx:

Ciprofloxacin 500 mg daily x 10-14 days

Levofloxacin 750 mg daily x 10-14 days

Alternative

IV ampicillin w/ sulbactam (the IV augmentin)

3rd gen cephalosporin

other parenteral agents as indicated by severity of illness

604
Q

Acute bacterial prostatitis 35 years and younger

A

Gono/chlamy

Irritative voiding sx, suprapubic pain, perineal pain, fever

tender, boggy prostate

leukocytosis

“sitting on a rock”

Tx
Ceftriaxone 250 mg x 1 dose

+

Doxy 100mg BID x 10 days

605
Q

Acute bacterial prostatitis

> 35

low risk for STI

A

Enterobacteriaceae (coliforms)

Irritative voiding sx, suprapubic/perineal pain, fever

tender, boggy prostate

leukocytosis

Tx:

Ciprofloxacin 500 mg BID x 14 days

or

Ofloxacin 200 mg daily x 14 days

606
Q

Normal prostate

A

firm, smooth

size of walnut

about as firm as tip of nose

607
Q

Acute prostatitis

A

Tender, boggy, indurated

About as firm as cheekbone

608
Q

Prostate cancer

A

nodular, firm

Usually malignant lesions are not palpable until disease is advanced

Order testicular U/S then refer to urology

609
Q

Bladder cancer risk fx

A

Textile worker (dyes)

Smoking

Intermittent painless gross hematuria (90%)

10% microscopic hematuria

610
Q

Treatable causes of urinary incontinence

A

Delirium

Infection (urinary)

Atrophic urethritis and vaginitis

Pharm (diuretics)

Psychological disorders (depression)

Excessive urine output (HF, DM)

Restricted mobility

Stool impaction

611
Q

Urge incontinence

A

Most common in elders

Strong senstation to empty the bladder that cannot be suppressed

Coupled w/ involuntary loss of urine

Tx:

Anticholinergics (antimuscarinics)

Detrol (tolterodine)

Ditropan (oxybutynin)

Vesicare (solifenacin succinate)

Enablex (darifenacin)

Toviaz (fesoterodine fumarate)

Alternative:

B3 agonist (receptors found in gallbladder, urinary bladder, brown adipose tissue)

Mirabegron (Myrbetriq)

Botulinum toxin injections

612
Q

Stress incontinence

A

Most common form in women

Rare in men, occassionally noted post prostate/bladder sx

Loss of urine w/ incrase in intaabdominal pressure such as coughing, sneezing, exercise

Tx:

Support to area w/ vaginal tampon, urethral stents, periurethral bulking agent injections, and pessary use

Kegel most helpful in younger pts

Pelvic floor rehab w/ biofeedback, electerical stim, bladder training

Surgery = for well-chosen candidates

613
Q

Functional incontinence

A

Assoc. w/ inability to get to toilet or lack of awareness of need to void

pts w/ mobility issues/altered cognition

worsened by unavailability of a helper to assist in toileting activities

Tx:

Ameliorated by having assistant aware of voiding cues to help w/ voiding activities

614
Q

Transient incontinence

A

Assoc. w/ acute event such as delirium, UTI, medication use, restricted activity

Tx of underlying process (e.g. d/c med)

615
Q

ASCUS w/ HPV +

no hx of abn cytology

Last screening 2 yrs ago

next step?

A

Colposcopy

616
Q

Paraphimosis

A

Retracted foreskin that cannot be brought forward to cover the glans

Emergency!

617
Q

Varicocele

A

Palpable “nest of worms” scrotal mass

Only evident in standing position

618
Q

Hydrocele

A

Collection of serous fluid causes painless scrotal swelling

easily recognized by transillumination

619
Q

Phimosis

A

Foreskin cannot be pulled back to expose the glans

620
Q

Scrotal pain and loss of cremasteric reflex

A

Testicular torsion

Emergency!

621
Q

Cryptorchidism

A

Testicle located in inguinal canal or abdomen

Standard: wait until 1 year of age for intervention

622
Q

ART initiation in tx-naive pts to reduce risk of disease progression

A

Recommended for all HIV infected individuals to reduce risk fo disease progression

Start ART CD4

ART at CD4 > 500 (moderate recommendation)

All pregnant women regardless of CD4 (strong recommendation)

623
Q

ART initiation in tx-naive pts to prevent transmission

A

Strong recommendation for ART to be used in individuals to prevent transmission (e.g. perinatal transmission, heterosexual transmission, transmission risk groups such as sex workers etc.)

PMCT - prevention of mother to child transmission

PrEP - pre-exposure prophylaxis (HIV-negative pts at high risk for exposure) - ART reduces transmission by up to 92%

PEP - post exposure prophylaxis

624
Q

Acute bronchitis pathogens

A

M. pneumo

C. pneumo

B. pertussis

Not Strep pneumo!

625
Q

intranasal corticosteroid for AR onset of sx relief

A

few days to a week after starting

626
Q

RSV in AOM

A

RSV is implicated in causing AOM

627
Q

HIV/AIDs and copper IUD

A

HIV

2 for initiation and 2 for continuation

AIDS

3 for initiation and 2 continuation

628
Q

Sarcoidosis primary tx

A

Systemic corticosteroids

629
Q

ARF precipitating factors

A

Anaphylaxis

Infection

MI

NOT DM1

630
Q

Poikilocytosis define

A

Alteration in shape of RBCs

631
Q

Most common serious complication of cholecystitis

A

pancreatitis

632
Q

Fragile X syndrome in males characteristic

A

Large forehead

elongated face

large or protruding ears

flat feet

larger testes

low muscle tone

intellectual disability

most common cause of autism in either gender

Girls 50% have normal cognitive function

Girls w/ milder features

633
Q

Routine HBV vaccination started in what year

A

1996

634
Q

HIV screening

A

Recommended 15-65 y

Men who have sex w/ men

Active injection drug users

Behavioral risk fx (unprotected sex, infected sexual partners, bisexual orientation, sex worker)

Dx:

Repeated reactive immunoassay followed by confirmatory western blot or immunofluorescent assay

635
Q

Mood disorder tx goal

A

Remission of sx for 4-5 months or more

Aimed at virtual elimination of a person’s sx of depression/anxiety

restoration of psychosocial and occupational function

Consider long-term tx if 2nd or later episode

636
Q

Electroconvulsant therapy (ECT) indication

A

urgent need for response

pts who are suicidal or refusing food and nutritionally compromised

psychotic sx or catatonia

637
Q

SSRIs

A

From most to least energizing:

Fluoxetine (Prozac)

Sertraline (Zoloft)

Citalopram (Celexa)

Escitalopram (Lexapro)

Paroxetine (Paxil)

Serotonin = smooths mood

638
Q

SSNRIs

A

SSNRI

Venlafaxine (Effexor)

Duloxetine (Cymbalta)

desvenlafaxine (Pristiq)

Norepinephrine = Focus

Occassional reports of being energizing, helpful in anxious and/or resistant depression

SNRI - Strattera (ADHD)

639
Q

SDRI

A

Selective Dopamine Reuptake Inhibitor

Bupropion (Wellbutrin)

Potentially activating, usually used as add-on tx w/ SSRI

640
Q

Antidepressants and suicidality

A

use of antidepressants increased risk of suicidality in children, adolescents and young adults 24 y/o and younger

Short term studies have shown no increase in pts > 24 y/o

reduction in risk in pts > 65 compared to placebo

641
Q

Anxiolytics

A

Benzodiazepines

buspirone (Buspar) - effective when given w/ high enough dose and long-enough (at least 6 weeks)

Potentially helpful in alleviating hypervigilance associated w/ anxiety but use does not decrease worry

642
Q

Antidepressant sexual adverse effects

A

SSRI and SNRI = 40%

SDRI = 20%

Anorgasmia, ED, impaired libido

643
Q

SSRI w/ most anticholinergic effect

Avoid in gero

A

Paroxetine (Paxil)

Increase in constipation, dry mouth, confusion in gero

644
Q

SSRI w/ most drug-drug

Long half-life

Avoid in gero

A

Fluoxetine (Prozac)

Half life 82 hours, metabolite = 7-15 days

CYP450 Isoenzyme inhibition

One of the oldest in the market

645
Q

SSRI assoc. w/ QT prolongation

Max dose in gero 20 mg/day

A

Citalopram (Celexa)

QT prolongation risk increased w/ increased dose

646
Q

SSRIs ordered from least drug-drug to most

(CYP450 isonenzyme inhibition)

Preferred in polypharm = first in list

A

Escitaloporam (Lexapro)

Citalopram (Celexa)

Sertraline (Zoloft)

-

Paroxetine (Paxil)

Fluoxetine (Prozac)

647
Q

TCA associated w/ what adverse effect

A

TCAs = cardiac and neurotoxic

May cause cardiac dysrhythmias and seizures

648
Q

SSRI common issues

A

Lag of a number of weeks in onset of SSRI therapeutic effect is expected

Frontal headache is a common short-term problem w/ early SSRI use

649
Q

Trust vs mistrust

A

Erikson

Infant 0-1 year

Task: reliable caregiver

Pathologic outcomes: depression, substance abuse, psychosis

650
Q

Autonomy vs shame and doubt

A

Erikson

Toddler

1-3 years

Task: need to learn to explore world. Parent should not be too smothering or too neglectful

Pathologic outcome: paranoia, obsessions, compulsions, impulsivity

651
Q

Initiative vs guilt

A

Erikson

Preschool 3-6 years

Task: ability to do things on his/her own

Pathologic outcomes: Conversion disorder, phobia, psychosomatic disorder

652
Q

Industry vs inferiority

A

Erikson

School age

6-11 years

Task: self-worth, compared to others

Pathologic outcomes: creative inhibition, inertia

653
Q

Identity vs role confusion

A

Adolescent

12-20 years

Task: who am I

Pathologic outcome: delinquent behavior, gender identity issues, borderline personality disorder, psychotic episodes

654
Q

Intimacy vs Isolation

A

Young adult hood

21-40 years

Task: forming loving relationships

Pathologic outcomes: schizoid personality disorder

655
Q

Generative lifestyle vs stagnation/self absorption

A

40-60 years

Task: accept self, establish and guide next generation

Pathologic outcome: mid-life crisis

656
Q

Ego integrity vs despair

A

65 years and older

Task: sense of accomplishment/integrity

Pathologic outcome: extreme alienation, despair

657
Q

Delirium

A

sudden state of rapid changes in brain function

confusion, changes in cognition, activity, LOC

Precipitated by acute underlying cause

Abrupt onset over hours to days

Impaired but variable recall

Usually reversible to baseline

Often worse as the day progresses (sundowning)

Usually change in psychomotor activity

Perceptual disurbances including hallucinations

Speech content incoherent, confused, w/ wide variety of inappropriately used words

658
Q

Dementia

A

Slowly developing impairemnt of intellectual or cognitive function

progressive and impairs w/ normal functioning

Variety of causes

Insidious onset

Cannot be related to precise date

Gradual change in mental status

reports of good and bad days

Memory loss esp. w/ recent events

Duration of months to years

Chronically progressive and irreversible

Disturbed sleep-wake cycle

lacks hour-to-hour variability

Often day-night reversal

no psychomotor involvement until later in disease

No perceptual disturbance until later in disease

Earlier stages - word searching, progressing to sparse speech content

Mute in later disease

659
Q

Delirium etiology

A

D - drugs

E - Emotional (mood disorders)

L - Low PO2 (hypocemia from CAP, COPD etc)

I - Infection (UTI most common, then CAP)

R - Retention of urine/feces

R = Reduced sensory input (blindness, deafness)

I - Ictal or postictal state (ETOH withdrawal)

U - Undernutrition

M - Metabolic (poorly controlled DM, hypo/hyperthyroid

M - Myocardial patients

S - Subdural hematoma (can be result of minor head trauma d/t brain atrophy and fragile blood vessels)

660
Q

Delirium tx

A

Treat underlying cause

Infection, medication, and fractures are most common

661
Q

Dementia etiology

A

Alzheimer 50-80%

Vascular (multi-infarct) 20%

Parkinson’s 5%

Miscellaneous: HIV, dialysis encephalopathy, neurosyphilis, NPH, Pick’s disease, Lewy body, frontotemporal dementia, others

*30% of Alzheimers also have vascular dementia - consider if quick deterioration

662
Q

Evaluation of new onset mental status change

A

Bun, Cr

Glucose

Calcium, Sodium

Hepatic enzymes

B12, Folate

TSH

RPR/VDRL

CBC w/ diff

UA, C&S - highest yield

ECG

As directed by patient risk fx and presentation:

CT, MRI (fall, etc)

PET scan (tumor)

Toxic screen

CXR - resp

ESR - inflamm

HIV

other

663
Q

Alzheimer tx - slow decline

A

Vitamin E 1000 IU BID

OR

Selegiline 5 mg BID

No benefit to using BOTH at the same time

664
Q

Gold standard imaging for PVD

A

MRA

665
Q

Most potent risk for PVD

A

Tobacco use

666
Q

Mild to moderate Alzheimers tx

A

Cholinesterase inhibitors

donepezil (Aricept)

rivastigmine (Exelon)

galantamine (Razadyne)

Clear though minor time-limited benefits by increasing availability of acetylcholine

Allows pts to stay longer in their home

667
Q

Moderate to severe Alzheimers tx

A

N-methyl-D-aspartate receptor antagonist memantine

Namenda

Through effect on glutamate, helps create an environment that allows for storage and retriebal of information

Used in earlier disease w/ cholinesterase inhibitor

*Aricept (donepezil) also approved for use in advanced AD

668
Q

Dementia and depression

A

40% of pts w/ dementia also have depression

standard antidepressant tx is indicated

keep in mind drug-drug

669
Q

Alzheimer’s and antipsychotic

A

If environmental manipulation fails to eliminate agitation or psychosis, consider tx w/ antipsychotic

Second-generation antipsychotic best studied for this indication (aka atypical antipsych)

Increased risk for stroke and cardiovascular events in older adults w/ dementia

Worsens insulin resistance = increased clot risk

670
Q

Zolpidem (Ambien) in gero

A

Increase fall and fracture risk

671
Q

Nitrofurantoin (Macrobid) in gero

A

Potential lack of efficacy in impaired renal function of Cr Cl

672
Q

Amitriptyline in gero

A

TCA

Significant risk of orthostatic hypotension

673
Q

Diclofenac (Voltaren) in gero

A

(NSAID)

Potential to promote fluid retention

674
Q

Sertraline (Zoloft) in gero

A

Increased risk for hyponatremia

Check electrolytes in 1 month after starting

675
Q

Syncope etiology

A

Transient loss of consciousness

Vasovagal, cardiac outflow obstruction (hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, valvular, especially high-grade aortic stenosis, aortic dissection, dysrhythmia)

Orthostatic hypotension

676
Q

Typical head growth infant

A

In the first year of life is 12 cm

6 cm in the first 3 months

3 cm in the 4th to 6th months and 3 cm in the 6th to 12th months

Subsequent head growth is about 0.5 cm/year for 2-7 year olds

677
Q

CAP hospitalization criteria

A

No resources for self-care at home

Age 60 and older

PO2 of

RR > 30 breaths

678
Q

Pts with CHF refer to cardio

A

Pediatric pts

Pregnant women

Lactating women

679
Q

Myoclonic seizure

A

awake state or momentary loss of consciousness w/ abnormal motor behavior lasting seconds to minutes

680
Q

Waddell sign

A

a group of physical signs that may indicate non-organic or psychological component to chronic low back pain

681
Q

Myocardial ischemia ECG

A

inverted T wave and T wave depression

682
Q

Myocardial injury ECG

A

ST elevation w/ tall peaked T wave

683
Q

Myocardial infarction ECG

A

pathologic Q wave

684
Q

Carbamazepine and OCPs

A

Carbamazepine induces estrogen metabolism = OCP failure

685
Q

Pump and dump

A

less than helpful way to reduce drug levels in mother’s milk

creates area of lower drug concentration in empty breast which enables drug to diffuse from area of high concentration to area of low concentration (breast milk)

686
Q

Mitral regurgitation

A

HIGH-pitched, pansystolic murmur heard best at apex

radiates to axilla

Loid-blowing

Use diaphragm of stethoscope

687
Q

Course of bacterial conjunctivitis

A

with treatment 2-5 days

without treatment 5-7 days

688
Q

Complete resolution of sx in Osgood-Schlatter disease

A

through physiologic healing

takes 12-24 months

689
Q

Typical physiologic changes during pregnancy

A

Cardiac output increases by 1/3 the last two trimesters

Heart is displaced upward to the left in the late second to third trimester

Thyroid can enlarge by as much as 15%

690
Q

Oral iron therapy drug interactions

A

Levodopa = decreased effect of both iron and levodopa, separate medications by as much time as possible, increase Levodopa dose if needed

Tetracyclines: decreased tetracycline and iron effect

Antacids: decreased iron absorption

Caffeine: decreased iron absorption

691
Q

SSRI dosages

A

Prozac 20-80 mg daily

Zoloft 50-200 mg daily

Celexa 40-60 mg daily

Lexapro: 10-20 mg daily

692
Q

Systolic CHF - which drug

A

ACEIs decrease mortality and prolong survival in clients w/ CHF

Prescribe for all pts with systolic dysfunction unless contraindicated

693
Q

Primary tx for dysmenorrhea

A

NSAIDs

Oral contraceptives

Generally, use one agent then add the other if one does not work alone

694
Q

Normal WBC count in urine

A
695
Q

Stage I Lyme

A

Early Localized disease

fever, chills, myalgia, headache

erythema migrans 1 week after tick bite (7-10 days)

Common in areas of tight clothing (groin, thigh, axilla)

696
Q

Stage II Lyme

A

Early disseminated infection

weeks to months later

Bacteremia (50-60% of pts w/ erythema migrans)

Secondary skin lesions within days to weeks of original infection in 50% of pts

malaise, fatigue, fever, h/a, neck pain, generealized achiness common w/ skin lesions

Myopericarditis w/ atrial of ventricular arrhythmias 4-10%

Neurologic 10-15%

Aseptic meningitis w/ mild h/a and neck stiffness

sensory or motor radiculopathy and mononeuritis multiplex occur less frequency

Panophthalmitis (rare)

697
Q

Stage III Lyme

A

Late persistent infection

Months to years later

Musculoskeletal manifestations in 60%

Monoarticular or oligoarticular arthritis of knee or other weight-bearing joints

Chronic arthritis develops in about 10% of pts

Neurologic manifestations (rare)

Subactue encephalopathy

Intermittent paresthesias often in stocking glove distribution

radicular pain

Severe encephalomyelitis

Cutaneous manifestation

Usually bluish-red discoloration of distal extremity w/ associated swelling

Lesions atrophic and sclerotic

698
Q

PAD

A

Leg pain/numbness during activities (intermittent claudication)

Persistent infections or sores on leg/feet

Pale/bluish color to skin

May be asymptomatic

Etiology: plaque in arteries limiting blood flow

Main risk fx: SMOKING

Other risk fx: HTN, age, HL, elevated BG

Dx: ABI , doppler U/S or MRI to assess bloodflow

Treadmill test to evaluate severity of sx

Arteriogram to identify blocked arteries

Tx:

Smoking cessation, physical activity, weight loss, contol BP, HL, BG

Antiplatelets (ASA) to prevent blood clots

Cilostazol and Pentoxifylline to reduce PAD sx, surgery to improve blood flow

699
Q

Venous insufficiency

A

Common sx: burning, swelling, throbbing, cramping, aching, and heaviness in the legs, restless legs and leg fatigue, telengiectasias (spider veins)

Etiology: congenital absence of/or damage to venous valves resulting in reflux through superficial veins, thrombus formation can also cause valve failure

Exam: Duplex U/S can be used to assess blood flow in veins and eliminate other causes

Tx:

Physical activity, weight loss

Use of compression stockings to decrease swelling

Various techniques to remove the refluxing superficial vessels (e.g. sclerotherapy or ablation)

700
Q

Peripheral neuropathy

A

Gradual onset of numbness and tingling in hands/feet

Burning pain, sharp/electric-like pain, muscles weakness, extreme sensitivity to touch

Etiology: damage to nerves extending to peripheral system, DM most common cause. Others: traumatic injuries, infections, toxins

Dx: EMG or nerve biopsy

Tx:

NSAIDs mild pain

antiseizures and antidepressants

Lidocaine patch

Opioids (when other tx fail)

TENS can help relieve sx

701
Q

Vertical diplopia results from damage to which cranial nerves?

A

CN III or IV

702
Q

Horizontal diplopia is suggestive of damage to which cranial nerves?

A

CN III or VI

703
Q

Myrdriasis

A

Dilation of the pupils

704
Q

Miosis

A

Constriction of the pupils

705
Q

When do ovaries become nonpalpable

A

3-5 years after menopause

706
Q

Acholic stools

A

Clay or putty colored

Occur briefly in viral hepatitis but are more common w/ obstructive jaundice

707
Q

How long after Syphilis exposure do sx appear?

A

10 days to 3 months after pathogen exposure primary sx appear

708
Q

Rectal exam: tender, purulent, reddened mass

A

anal abscess

esp. w/ fever and chills

709
Q

CN involved in closing mouth

A

CN V

Trigeminal nerve - innervates the masseter, temporalis, and the internal pterygoids

710
Q

thick curved extension of the superior border of the scapula

A

coracoid process

711
Q

Axiohumeral group of muscles produce what movement

A

internal rotation of shoulders

712
Q

Posterior and medial surface of the knee swelling is suggestive of

A

Semimembranous bursitis

713
Q

Swelling 1-2 inches below the knee joint on the medial surface is suggestive of

A

anserine bursitis

714
Q

swelling over the tibial tubercle is suggestive of

A

infrapatellar bursitis

715
Q

swelling over the patella suggests

A

prepatellar bursitis

716
Q

Housemaid’s knee from excessive kneeling

A

prepatellar bursitis

717
Q

Ankle reflexes level nerve root

A

S1

718
Q

Patellar reflex nerve root

A

L 2, 3, 4

719
Q

Supinator and biceps reflex nerve root

A

C5 and C6

720
Q

Triceps reflex nerve root

A

C6 and C7

721
Q

Average incubation period for meningococcal infection

A

3-4 days

(range 1-10 days)

also the period of communicability

Bacteria can be found for 2-4 days in the nose and pharynx and for up to 24 hours after starting abx

722
Q

Thrombosed external hemorrhoid tx

A

Will resolve in 1-2 weeks w/o surgical intervention

Surgical excision of overlying skin can provide rapid symptomatic relief

Cool compresses, sitz baths, stool softener, analgesics can be used if surgical intervention is not available

723
Q

Most common presenting sign of bladder cancer

A

Gross painless hematuria

Mircroscopic hematuria in about 20%

Irritative voiding sx occassionally

Abnormal abd mass only w/ advanced disease

724
Q

Post renal azotemia

A

cause by compromised renal function and hydronephrosis

5% of all renal failure

Urea nitrogen and creatinine elevation

urinary retention and outflow obstruction

Intervention: relieve urinary outflow obstruction

Renal function returns to baseline if promptly detected

725
Q

Low back pain

Cauda equina syndrome s/sx

A

Bladder dysfunction, perineal sensory loss, anal laxity

Neurological deficit in lower extremities

Lower extremity motor weakness

726
Q

Grand mal seizures

A

aka tonic-clonic seizures

rigid extension of arms and legs followed by sudden jerking movements w/ loss of consciousness

bowel/bladder incontinence is common w/ postictal confusion

727
Q

Lung cancer screening

A

Annual screening w/ low-dose computed tomography

Age 55-74 w/ smoking hx of at least 30 packs/year

Current smokers or who have quit in the past 15 years

728
Q

Chancroid organism

A

Haemophilus ducreyi

729
Q

Mild cognitive impairment

A

Decline in condition more than expected for age

No change in ADLs

3-19% in those > 65

First sx: memory loss

Risk Fx: Age, low education level, h/o depression, lack of exercise, African ancestry, HTN, HL, ApoE allele

Multiple etiologies

Tx:

Acetylcholinesterase inhibitors may delay but not prevent

Good health habits

Volunteer or stay cognitively active

> 50% will progess to dementia within 5 years

Depression doubles risk

730
Q

Alzheimer’s dementia

A

50-70% of all dementia

at age 85 11% of M and 14% of F

First sx: memory loss

Risk fx: Age, female, AA and Hispanics > Caucasian, Down Syndrome, being a mother of a child w/ Down, genetic vulnerability

Acquired risk fx: HTN, lipoproteins, cerebrovascular disease, altered glucose metabolism and brain trauma

Biological: neuritic plaques, neurofibrillary tangles, synaptic loss throughout cerebral cortex and limbic system

Tx:

Mild to Moderate AD: Acetylcholinesterase inhibitors

Moderate to severe AD: NMDA receptor antagonists

SGAs w/ caution

Reminiscence therapy, personalized music, social interactions, redirection, reassurance, family support

Average lifespan after dx is 6-9 years

731
Q

Vascular dementia

A

Often co-occurs w/ AD = mixed dementia, likely the second most common dementia

As solo cause: third most common dementia at 8-15%

First sx: often, but not sudden, variable, apathy, falls, focal weakenss, disorientation, anxiety/depression

Risk fx: increasing age, male, HTN, HL, smoking, DM

Bio: cortical and subcortical infarcts

Tx:

Cholinesterase inhibitors may help

Treat vascular risks

Physical activities

Intellectually stimulating social activity

Shortens lifespan by 3 years

732
Q

Lewy Body dementia (DLB)

A

15-20% of late-onset dementia

Fluctuating presentation, visual hallucinations, may present as a psych disorder, REM, sleep disorder, delirium, parkinsonism, repeated and unexplained falls

Risk fx: more common in men, ApoE allele found more often in pts w/ DLB

Bio: Lewy bodies are dense intracellular neuronal inclusions found in the cortical, subcortical area of the brain

EEG can help distinguish DLB and AD, but not betweent VaD and AD or diffuse DLB

Tx:

First-generation antipsychotic use can result in neuromuscular sensitivity

SGAs helpful w/ psychosis w/o adverse effects

Treat depression

Anticholinesterase use can benefit memory

Variable course, generally more rapid than AD

Time from dx to death 6 years

Mean age of dx 68, death by 75

733
Q

Frontotemporal dementias (FTDs)

A

Group of related disorders that cause degeneration of the frontal and temporal lobes

(e.g. Pick’s dementia)

Insidious onset and gradual progression

Personality changes cause more problems than cognitive

Apathy, poor judgment/insight, speech/language, hyperorality

Familial risk possible

Bio: Pick’s disease has marked frontal and temporal atrophy

Tx

Symptomatic psych tx (SSRI for depression, psychostimulant for apathy, risperidone for problem behaviors)

Protect pts from his or her indiscretions

Generally slow progression

734
Q

Gout etiology and uric acid

A

10% uric acid overproduction

90% urate under-excretion - made worse by renal insufficiency, ETOH, use of loop or thiazide, ASA, other medications, and purine-rich foods including organ meats, forms of seafood including sardines and achovies, spinach, oatmeal

735
Q

McMurray Test

A

Tests for meniscal tear

736
Q

Talar Tilt

A

Tests for ankle instability

737
Q

Tinel’s sign

A

tests for carpal tunnel

738
Q

Phalen’s sign

A

tests for carpal tunnel

739
Q

Lachman Test

A

ACL tear

The Lachman test is performed by placing the knee in 30 degrees of flexion and then stabilizing the distal femur with one hand while pulling the proximal tibia anteriorly with the other hand, thereby attempting to produce anterior translation of the tibia. An intact ACL limits anterior translation and provides a distinct endpoint. Lack of a distinct endpoint suggests ACL injury.

740
Q

Straight leg raise

A

Tests for lumbar nerve root compression

741
Q

Spurling’s Test

A

Test for cervical nerve root compression

The Spurling maneuver is used to detect cervical radiculopathy. Several positions of the head may be tested to provoke nerve irritation. First, the maneuver is performed with the head held in a neutral position. The examiner taps or presses down on the top of the head. If this fails to reproduce the patient’s pain, the procedure is repeated with the head rotated to the affected side and hyperextended.

742
Q

Drop-arm test

A

Rotator cuff evaluation

The integrity of the supraspinatus tendon can be assessed with the active painful arc test and the “drop arm” test.

The active painful arc test (not to be confused with the Neer test, an impingement test performed passively and described separately) simply involves having the patient actively abduct their arm in the scapular plane from a neutral position. Pain with active abduction beyond 90 degrees marks a positive test.

The drop arm test assesses the ability of the patient to lower his or her arms from a fully abducted position. A positive test occurs when the patient is unable to lower the affected arm with the same smooth coordinated motion as the unaffected arm

743
Q

Empty can test or Jobes test

A

Jobe’s test (or the “empty can” test) assesses supraspinatus function.

The patient places a straight arm in about 90 degrees of abduction and 30 degrees of forward flexion, and then internally rotates the shoulder completely.

The clinician then attempts to adduct the arm while the patient resists.

Pain without weakness suggests tendinopathy; pain with weakness is consistent with tendon tear.

744
Q

Finkelstein test

A

DeQuervain’s tenosynovitis

745
Q

Polymyalgia Rheumatica and GCA

A

Pain and stiffness in shoulders and hips

frequently coexists w/ giant cell arteritis

Responds to low dose prednisone tx of 10-20 mg/day whereas GCA can cause blindness and requires high-dose prednisone tx (40-60mg/day)

Affects pts > 50

Polymyalgia = fever, malaise, weight loss, anemia and markedly elevated ESR, muscle pain much greater than muscle weakness

GCA = h/a, scalp tenderness, visual sx, jaw claudication, throat pain, temporal artery may be nodular, enalrged, or pulseless

Fever can be as high as 40C and accopanied w/ rigors and sweats

746
Q

Polymayalgia Rheumatica Tx

A

Inflammation of unknown origin affects muscles and joints

> 50 years

Sx: aches in shoulder, neck, upper arms, lower back, hips, and thighs

Sx tend to come quickly and are worse in the morning w/ improvement during the day

No specific dx test, CRP and ESR are typically elevated

MRI or U/S of shoulder an dhip can detect inflammation

Tx:

Low-dose corticosteroid 10-15 mg/day until sx are relieved (typically within 2-3 weeks), followed by tapering to find lowest dose necessary to suppress sx

Tx can continue up to 2-3 years

747
Q

Spinal Stenosis

A

50 y and >

Standing discomfort w/ improvement in sx with bending forward

Pseudoclaudication (leg pain that worsens w/ activity and improves w/ rest)

Bilateral LE numbness/weakness in the majority

For sx persisting > 1 month = consider MRI, EMG, nerve conduction velocity (NCV)

Tx:

PT

NSAIDs

epidural corticosteroid injection

Surgery

748
Q

Reactive arthritis

A

aka Reiter’s syndrome

Can’t see

Can’t pee

Can’t climb a tree

Most commonly in young men

Arhtitis most commonly asymmetric and frequently involves large weight bearing joints (knee and ankle)

Systemic sx: fever and weight loss common at onset

Urethritis, conjunctivitis, uveitis, mucocutaneous lesions

Tx:

NSAIDs maintstay of tx

Pts who do not respond to NSAIDs, try sulfasalazine 1000 mg BID or methotrexate 7.5 to 20 mg per week

Anti TNF agents may be effective in refractory cases

For chronic reactive arthritis assoc. w/ chlamydial infection, combination abx taken for 6 months is more effective than placebo

Most signs of disease disappear within days or weeks

Arthritis may persist for several months or become chronic

Refer to rheumatology for progressive sx despite therapy

749
Q

Osgood-Schlatter

A

Irritation of the patellar tendon on the tibial tuberosity during a growth spurt

Patellar swelling and pain in adolescents who participate in sports involving running and jumping

Repeated stress causes inflammation below patellar tendon where it attaches to tibia

Sx: pain, swelling, and tenderness in one or both knees

Can be mild to debilitating

Can be constant or only when performing certain activities

X-ray can be used to evaluate patellar tendon

Tx:

NSAIDs and PT

Strengthening exercises for quads can help stabilize knee joint

Sx typically resolve at completion of growth spurt

750
Q

Prepatellar bursitis

A

Thickening of synovial tissue w/ excessive fluid within the bursa resulting in knee pain and swelling

Caused by joint overuse, trauma, infection, or arthritis

Focal tenderness and swelling

Abrupt onset

ROM full but limited by pain

First line tx: bursal aspiration

Alternative tx:

Minimizing offending activity

ICE to area for 15 minutes 4x/day

NSAIDs

If no improvement in 4-8 weeks, intrabursal corticosteroid injection should be performed

751
Q

Meniscal tear

A

Disruption of meniscus - C-shaped fibrocartilage pad located between the femoral condyles and tibial plateaus

Often found in athletes d/t twist type knee injury

Effusion w/ knee tightness and stiffness

ROM limited by discomfort

Larger tears often report knee locks, makes popping sound, or “gives out”

Dx: MRI can be used to identify type and extent of tear

McMurray test and Apley grinding test are highly specific but not sensitive

Tx:

Rest, elevation, ice, analgesia

Aspiration can be considered if no improvement after 2-4 weeks

Arthroscopy for debridement and repair should beb considered at 4-6 weeks w/ no improvement or earlier if joint locking and effusion are problematic

752
Q

lumbar-sacral strain

A

Spasm, irritation of LS spine supporting muscles

Most common reason for low back pain

Spasm, ache, stiffness, position, activity, rest typically impacts pain

Paraspinal muscle tenderness and spasm

LS curve straightening

Decreased LS flexion

Neurological exam WNL

Tx:

NSAID/APAP

Physical conditioning/therapy

Limiting potentially harmful activities

Heat or ice as indicated by pain response

Muscle relaxers can be helpful but all sedting, some w/ abuse potential

753
Q

Lumbar radiculopathy

A

Irritation or damage of neural structures such as disks

L4-L5, L5-S1 most common sites of disk bulge

Sharp, burn, electric-shock sensation

Worse when increased spinal fluid pressure

Sneeze, cough, straining evokes sharp pain

Dx:

Signs of LS strain + altered neuro exam

Abnromal straight leg raise

Sensory loss

altered DTRs

Tx:

NSAID, APAP

Physical conditioning/therapy

Specialty eval if rapidly evolving defect, persistent neurological defect w/o resolution after 4-6 weeks of coservative tx

754
Q

What nerve root

Foot dorsiflexion

Knee jerk reflex

medial calf sensation

A

L4

755
Q

What nerve root

Great toe dorsiflexion

Medial foot sensation

A

L5

756
Q

What nerve root

Foot eversion

Ankle jerk reflex

Lateral foot sensation

A

S1

757
Q

Osteoporosis

A

BMD -2.5 SD or below

If fractures, deemed severe or “established” osteoporosis

758
Q

Osteopenia

A

BMD -1.0 to -2.5

759
Q

BMD testing

A

F 65 and >

M 70 and >

Postmenopausal, menopausal transition

M 50-69 w/ risk fx

Adults w/ condition (e.g. RA) or taking a medication (long-term glucocorticoid) assoc. w/ low bone mass or bone loss

Risk Fx:

Lifestyle (low calcium intake, ETOH abuse, sedentary)

Genetic (CF, Gaucher’s disease)

Hypogonadal states (androgen insensitivity, hyperprolactinemia)

Endocrine disorders (DM, adrenal insuff.)

GI disordres (celiac, IBD)

Hematologic (multiple myeloma, leukemia)

Rheumatoid and autoimmune disorders (lupus, RA)

CNS disorders (MS, epilepsy)

Misc. other conditions and diseases (AIDS/HIV, CHF)

Drugs (long-term corticosteroids, some anticonvulsants, thyroid hormones)

760
Q

Osteoporosis Tx

A

Tx Who:

Tx if BMD

Postmenopausal women and men 50 and > w/ low bone mass and 10-year hip fracture probabilty of 3% or more or all major osteoprosis-related fracture of 20% or more

Hx of hip or vertebral fx

Tx Options:

Biphosphonates (Alendronate, ibandronate, risedronate, zoledronic acid)

Calcitonin (Miacalcin)

Estrogens or hormone tx (Evista)

Parathyroid hormone

All should be given w/ Vit D and Ca

Vit D 800-1000 IU/d

Ca 1000 mg/d

F > 50y and M > 80y should have Ca 1200 mg/d

761
Q

Calcium sources

A

Dairy and nondairy

Spinach

sardines

tofu

almonds

762
Q

OA dx

A

X-ray is used to distinguish OA from other types of arthritis

Imaging will show narrowing of joint space, change in bone, and presence of bone spurs (osteophytes)

Sx: pain, tenderness, stiffness (more prominent in the morning), reduced ROM and crepitus frequently present

Erythema and warmth usually absent

763
Q

Early-term

A

37-38 weeks plus 6 days

sleepy baby

wake to feed every 2 hours

764
Q

Full-term baby

A

39 weeks to 40 weeks plus 6 days

765
Q

Late term baby

A

41 weeks to 41 weeks and 6 days

Wide awake baby

766
Q

Post-term baby

A

42 weeks and beyond

Induction considered at 41 to 42 weeks

767
Q

Newborn feeding

A

Formula: 1.5-3 oz every 2-3 hours

Breastfeeding: every 1.5-3 hours, no more than 4 hours w/o feeding, minimum 8-12 feedings/day

768
Q

Infant feeding 2 months

A

Formula: 4-5 oz every 2-4 hours

Breastfeeding: 7-9x/day, dictated by infant

769
Q

Infant feeding 4 months

A

Formula: 4-6 oz every 3-4 hrs

Breastfeeding: 6-8x/day, dictated by infant and if supplemental feedings

770
Q

Infant feeding 6 months

A

Formula: 6-8 oz every 4-5 hours

Breastfeeding: 4-6x/day, dictated by infant, supplemental feedings

771
Q

Solids and infant feeding

A

May start 4-6 months

Solids not really needed until 1 year of age

772
Q

Newborn teaching

A

Baby should make at least 6 wet diapers a day

Newborns often lose up to 10% of birthweight in the first week of life

Should be back up to birth weight by 2 weeks

Breastfed baby usually ahs 4 or more bowel movements/day

Frequent soft stools are normal

Best vision range 8-12” - distance from breast & mom’s face

Bluish scleral tint normal until few months old

Newborn’s eyes are quite light and glare sensitive

If object moves toward newborn’s eye, baby will likely react w/ defensive blink reflex (present at birth)

Well-developed sense of smell

Hear high-pitched voices best

Will react to cry of other neonates

Visual preference for human face

Place baby in a face-up position for sleep

773
Q

2 months

A

Can lift self up on 2 arms from tummy

Responds 2 sounds

Smiles when smiled 2

774
Q

4 months

A

Reaches 4 a toy or other object

Smiles 4 fun

Rolls from tummy to back

775
Q

6 months

A

Looks like number 6 when sitting up

Rolls from back to tummy and back

776
Q

8 months

A

Once able to sit up, child can transfer objects from hand to hand with ease

777
Q

12 months

A

Stands tall like the number 1 and walks on 2 legs

778
Q

18 months

A

Can name single word objects

Says “no” a lot, like an 18 y/o

Acts like an 18 y/o by copying work that adults do

779
Q

2 years

A

Builds a 2 block tower with ease

Can walk up to 2nd floor with help (stairs)

Speaks in 2 word sentences

Follows 2 step commands

780
Q

3 years

A

Rides a TRIcycle

Build a 3 block tower w/ ease

Can draw a circle

Speaks in 3 word sentences

781
Q

4 years

A

Speaks in 4 word sentences

Can build a 4 block tower w/ ease

Can draw a cross

782
Q

5 years

A

Speaks in 5 word sentences

Can draw a square

783
Q

6 years

A

Can draw a triangle

Speak in 6 word sentences

784
Q

Tooth eruption

A

Lower central incisors first at 6-10 months

Upper central incisors 8-12 months

Lateral incisors 9-13 months

First Molar 13-19 months

Second Molars 23-31 months

785
Q

Physiologic galactorrhea

A

Onset day 3-4 of life

Maternal hormonal influences are likely cause

Breast engorgement will resolve w/o intervention within the first two months of life

786
Q

Foreskin retraction in children

A

In most instances, foreskin is not easily retractable until the child is about 3 years old

Ok as long as urine comes out as a steady stream

787
Q

Communicating hydrocele

A

Incomplete sealing of peritoneal cavity at inguinal area during gestation, leaving communication between abdominal cavity and scrotum

Fluid-filled scrotal sac; transilluminates, nontender, testes normal

Size varies w/ position (larger in dependent upright position, and smaller after laying flat such as awakening)

Due to communication, infant at risk for herniation of abdominal contents

Referral to pediatric urologist or surgeon

788
Q

Hernia incarceration/strangulation s/sx

A

Risk fx: femoral hernia, advanced age, recurrent hernia

s/sx:

Painful to palpation

Fever

Erythema of groin skin

s/sx of bowel obstruction (N&V, abd pain and bloating)

Systemic sx if strangulation and bowel necrosis has occurred

Peritonitis typically does not occur because ischemic/necrotic tissues is trapped within hernia sac, however, if spontaneously or unwittingly reduced, peritoneal signs may be present

789
Q

Non-communicating hydrocele

A

Sealing of abdominal cavity during gestation w/ residual trapped peritoneal fluid in scrotal sac

s/sx

fluid-filled scrotal sac, transilluminates, no change in scrotal size w/ position change, same at bedtime and on awakening

Tx

Reassurance, no risk of herniation, no special skin care needed

Usually resolves by age 2 years w/o intervention

Referral only if size interferes w/ activity/comfort

790
Q

Correct latch-on

A

Mouth covers areola

Lips are flanged out

no dimpling of the baby’s cheeks

No clicking sound w/ sucking

791
Q

newborn jaundice

A

usually seen first in the face then progress caudally to trunk and extremities

encourage at least 8-12 feedings at the breast per day while avoiding dextrose and water feedings - this will help minimize newborn’s risk of hyperbilirubinemia

Onset of jaundice within the first 24 hours of life is pathologic until proven otherwise

792
Q

Pyloric stenosis

A

thickening of the pylorus muscle preventing food from moving from the stomach to small intestines

Nonbilious vomiting (often projectile) or regurgitation

Dehydration and malnutrition

Jaundice

Approx. 4:1 M:F ratio

Baby eager to eat again immediately post emesis

Condition usually present 3 weeks of life

Dx: U/S to detect thickened pyloric muscle

An enlarged pylorus (“olive”) can often be palpated in the RUQ of abdomen

Tx: surgery stadard of care

793
Q

Intussusception

A

Caused when a section of intestines invaginates into adjoining intestinal lumen, causing bowel obstruction

If left untreated, is uniformly fatal in 2-5 days

S/Sx

Vomiting, abdominal pain, passage of blood and mucus

Lethargy

Palpable sausage-shaped abdominal mass

Sx often preceded by URI

Usually in the first year of life

Currant jelly loose stools

Sudden onset colicky, severe, and intermitted abd pain

Dx: U/S to identify target and pseudokidney signs

Contast enema is the traditional and most reliable dx approach

Plain x-ray only identifies about 60% of cases

Tx:

Non-operative include hydrastatic or pneumatic enemas, surgical reduction needed if unsuccessful or if obvious perforation is present

794
Q

Time Out

A

Short-term isolation to decrease undesirable behavior

Child sits in special place, easily observed by parent/caregiver, uninteresting, and only used for time out.

Avoid use of bed, bedroom, or any place where child could be frightened

Start at 18-24 months

1 minute/year of life

Set timer

795
Q

Percentage of speech intelligible by people not in daily contact with 3.5 y/o child

A

nearly 100%

796
Q

What age?

Able to verbalize what to do when cold, hungry, tired

Can draw person w/ no torso

Knows first and last name

A

4.5 year old

Simple abstract problem solving

797
Q

What vaccine, most likely mild fever of 1-2 days in a 6 month old

A

Pneumococcal conjucate 13-valent (PCV13)

798
Q

When to screen for autism per AAP

A

18 months and 24 months

(formal screening)

799
Q

Infant born to HBs-Ag positive mother

A

Give hep B immunization and hep B immuneglobulin to newborn

800
Q

Developmental Red Flags

A

No big smiles or other warm/joyful expression by 6 months

No back-and-forth sharing of sounds/smiles/other facial expressions by 9 months

Lack of response to name, no babbling or baby talk and/or no back and forth gestures such as pointing, waving, reaching by 12 months

No spoken words by 16 months

No meaningful two-word phrases that don’t involve imitating or repeating by 24 months

801
Q

Most important time to screen for hearing defects

A

First days of life

802
Q

Down Syndrome features

A

Flat facial profile

Poor Moro reflex

Hypotonia

Hyperflexible joints

Excessive skin on neck

Slanted palpebral fissures

Pelvic dysplasia

Anomalous auricles

Dysplastic middle phalanx of the fifth finger

Single palmar crease

Likelihood of DS when 6 features = 90%

803
Q

Car seat rear-facing

A

Infants to 2 years

Rear-facing car seat until 2 years of age or until child reaches the highest weight or height allowed by the car safety seat’s manufacturer

804
Q

Car-seat for toddlers/preschooler

A

Convertible seats and forward-facing seats w/ harnesses

All children 2 years or older, or those younger than 2 years who have outgrowing rear-facing weight/height limit should use forward-facing safety seat w/ harness for as long as possible

805
Q

School-aged children car seat

A

Booster

Belt-positioning booster seat until vehicle seat belt fits properly (typically when they reached 4’ 9” in height and are between 8-12 years old in age)

806
Q

Older children and seat belts

A

Always use lap and shoulder seat belts in the rear seats for optimal protection

807
Q

Tanner Stages summary

A

Tanner 1 - pre-pubescent

Tanner 2 - earliest stages

Tanner 3 - growth spurt

Tanner 4 - peak of growth spurt

Tanner 5 - Adult

808
Q

Tanner 2 to Menarche

A

2 years

Tanner 4 - menarche

809
Q

Tanner 1

A

pre- puberty

810
Q

Tanner 2

A

Testes enlarge

scrotal skin reddening w/ change in texture

sparse growth of long, slightly pigmented pubic hair at bease of penis

-

Breast buds and papilla elevated

Downy pigmented pubic hair along labia majora

811
Q

Tanner 3

A

Increase in penile length but minimal change in width

“pencil penis”

further scrotal enlargement

pubic hari darker, coarse, covers greater area

Onset of growth spurt

-

Breast mound enlargement

darker, coarser pubic hair on mons, labia majora

onset of growth spurt

812
Q

Tanner 4

A

Increase in penile length and width w/ development of glans

further darkening of scrotal skin

adult-type pubic hair w/ no spread to medial surface of thighs

-

Areola and papilla elevated to form a second mound above level of rest of breast

adult-type of pubic hair w/ no spread to medial surface of thighs

menarche

813
Q

Tanner 5

A

Full adult genitalia

adult type hair w/ spread to medial surface of thighs, possible abdomen

-

Recession of areola to mound of breast

Extension of pubic hair to medial thigh

814
Q

1st menses to full adult height in females

A

1 year

815
Q

Breast budding to full adult height in females

A

3 years

816
Q

Tanner 2 to full adult height in males

A

4 years

817
Q

Puberty

A

Physical changes leading to sexual maturation and reproductive capability

Puberty occurs during, but is not synonymous with, adolescense

818
Q

Gynecomastia

A

Usually found in Tanner Stage 3

Usually resolves in 6-12 months

819
Q

Fragile X Syndrome

A

Most common cause of autism in either gender

1 in 4000 males

1 in 8000 females

Occurs in all racial/ethnic groups

Males: large forehead, prominent jaw, tendency to avoid eye contact, large testicles, large body habitus, learning and behavioral differences (hyperactivity, developmental disability common)

Females: Significantly less common w/ fewer prominent findings, usually w/ less severe developmental issues

Blood testing available for carrier state or for dx

Antenatal dx possible w/ amnio, CVS or preimplantaion dx

820
Q

Klinefelter Syndrome

A

XXY male

Only males affected

Low testicular volume, hip and breast enlargement, infetility

Most developmental issues, language impairment most commonly

Most common form of sex hormone aneuploidy

1 in 500-1000 some w/o sx

Blood testing available for carrier state or for dx

Antenatal dx w/ amnio, CVS, or preimplantaion dx

821
Q

Turner Syndrome

A

XO female

Found in 1 in 2000-2500 females

Short stature (5 feet or under)

Usually evident by 5 years of age

wide, webbed neck

No ovaries

Broad, shield-shaped chest

Absent menses

Infertility

Often noticeable at birth

Narrow high-arched palate

Retrognathia

low set ears

edema of hands and feet

Females who are classified as Turners mosaic w/ chromosonal changes in some but not all cells, typically w/ milder features

High rate of spontaneous pregnancy loss in XO F fetus

Blood testing for dx, antenatal dx w/ amnio, CVS, or preimplantaion dx

822
Q

Acne Vulgaris pathophys

A

Follicular epidermal hyperproliferation w/ subsequent follicle plugging, excess subum production, presence of P. acnes, accompanying inflammation

Leads to keratolytic and antibacterial tx

Affects 80% of all teens w/ 20% having severe and subsequent scarring

Affects skin areas where sebaceous follicles located: face, upper chest, back

823
Q

Benzoyl Peroxide

A

Antibacterial against P. acnes as well as a comedolytic

2.5% as effective as higher strength and less likely to irritate skin

Inexpensive

OTC

Most helpful in mild acne, usually w/ keratolytic acne wash w/ salicylic acid 2%

824
Q

Tretinoin (retinoic acid) gel, cream

A

Keratolytic

normalized hyperkeratinization

Decreases cohesion between epidermal cells

Increases epidermal turnover

Significant antiinflammatory effect

Indicated in all acne types

Mild to moderate skin irritaion w/ redness and dryness - improves over time, expect 6 weeks therapy prior to noting improvement

Photosensitizing, use sunscreen

825
Q

Topical abx for acne

A

Clindamycin, Erythromycin, Dapsone

Antibacterial against P. acnes, anti-inflammatory

Indicated in tx of mild to moderate acne

Most effective for mild ane

Less effective than oral abx for moderate-severe acne

often used in combination w/ comedolytic such as benzoyl peroxide and/or tretinoin

826
Q

Oral abx or acne

A

Doxy, Minocycline, Erythro, TMP/SMX, Azithro (500 mg every 5 days)

Antibacterial against P. acnes, anti-inflammatory

Indicated for moderate inflammatory acne, usually when topical tx has been inadequate

Once skin is clear (usually after 3 months of continuous tx), taper off slowly over a few months while adding topical abx agents

Rapid discontinuation will result in return of acne

Long-term tx or repeat tx usually needed

827
Q

COC for acne

A

Reduction in adrogen levels, decreased sebum production

Best suited for females w/ moderate to severe acne

About 3 months of use prior to significant acne improvement

With discontinuation, acne usually returns

828
Q

Isotretinoin (Accutane)

A

Mechanism of action not well understood

Likely inhibits sebaceous gland function

Indicated for cystic severe acne that does not respond to other tx

usual course of tx is 4-6 months

discontinue when nodule count is reduced by 70%

Repeat course only if needed after 2 months off drug

Careful monitoring for mood destabilization and/or suicidal thoughts

menthal health risk is low

Prescriber and pt must be properly educated in use of drug and fully aware of adverse reactions profile:

cheilitis, conjunctivitis, hypertriglyceridemia, xerosis, photosensitivity, potent teratogenicity

Females of childbearing age must use two types of highly effective contraception 1 month prior to, during, and 1 month after use of isotretinoin

iPLEDGE program is designed to prevent pregnancies in patients using isotretinoin by using iPLEDGE prescribers pharmacies, and signin iPLEDGE card

829
Q

Mild Acne

A

Tx:

Topical retinoid alone often helpful

Consider adding topical abx or benzoyl peroxide

830
Q

Moderate acne

A

20-100 comedones

15-50 inflammatory lesions

30-125 total lesions

Tx:

Oral abx with topical retinoid

831
Q

Severe acne

A

> 5 cysts

> 100 total comedones

> 50 total inflammatory lesions

> 125 total lesions

Tx:

Oral abx w/ topical retinoid

if ineffective:

Oral isotretinoin (Accutane)

For large, painful cysts, consider intralesional corticosteroid injection

832
Q

Most common cause of adolescent death in US

A

Accidental injury

833
Q

CRAFFT screening test

A

For adolescent substance abuse

Car - have you ridden in a car driven by someone who has been high/using drugs/ETOH?

Relax - Do you ever use ETOH/drugs to relax, feel better about yoruself, fit in?

Alone - Do you ever use alone?

Forget - Do you ever forget things you did while using ETOH or drugs

Friends - Do your family/friends ever tell you that you should cut down?

Trouble - Have you ever gotten into trouble while using ETOH/drugs?

2 or more = serious problem

834
Q

Most common contraceptive used by teens

A

Male condom

18% failure rate

835
Q

All 50 states entitle adolescents to conset to care for which conditions?

A

Contraception

Pregnancy

STI

Substance abuse

Mental health

836
Q

Screening for Type II DM in Children

A

Consider testing:

Overweight or obese BMI > 85th percentile + 2 or more risk fx

Risk fx:

Family hx of DM2 in first or second degree relative

Race/ethnicity (other than Caucasian)

Signs of, or condition associated w/, insulin resistance such as acanthosis nigricans, HTN, HL, PCOS, SGA

Maternal DM or gestational DM

Initiate testing at age 10 years or at onset of puberty, early if puberty occurs earliet

Frequency: every 3 years

837
Q

Lipid Screening and CV Health in children

A

Low-fat dairy products

Diet and nutritional counseling

Screen children and adolescents w/ positive family hx of HL or premature (55 years or younger for men, and 65 years or younger in women) CVD or dyslipidemia.

Screen children whose family hx is not known or those w/ other CVD risk factors such as overweight, (BMI 85th percentile or higher), obesity (BMI 95th percentile or higher), cigarette smoking, DM

Use a fasting lipid profile; if normal repeat in 3-5 years

First screening should take place after 2 years of age but no later than 10 years of age

Primary tx of high TG or low HDL and overweight - weight mgmt (diet and nutrition)

For pts 8 years and older with LDL => 190 (or =>160 if family hx of early heart disease or =>2 risk fx, or =>130 in DM), pharmacologic intervention should be considered.

Target initially is LDL

Can be as low as LDL

838
Q

Scarlatina-form or sandpaper rash

Exudative pharyngitis

Fever, headache

tender anterior cervical lymphadenopathy

Rash erupts on day 2 of pharyngitis and often peels a few days later

Dx?

A

Scarlet fever

Pathogen: S. pyogenes (GABHS)

Tx:

Penicillin first line

PCN allergy: Azithro, clarithro, erithro

839
Q

Discrete rosy-pink macular or maculopapular rash lasting hours to 3 days

Follows a 3-7 days period of fever, often quite high

90% in children

A

Roseola

Agent: Human herpesvirus 6 (HHV-6)

Often in children 6-24 months

Febrile seizures in 10% of children affected

Supported tx

840
Q

Mild sx

Fever, sore throat, malaise, nasal discharge

Diffuse maculopapular rash lasting 3 days

Posterior cervical and postauricular lymphadenopathy beginning at 5-10 days PRIOR to onset of rash

Arthralgia in 25% (most common in women)

Dx

A

Rubella

Agent: Rubella virus

“3 day measles”

aka: German Measles

Incubation period: 14-21 days

Transmissible 1 week prior to rash onset and 2 weeks after rash appears

Generally mild, self-limiting illness

Greatest risk to unborn child, especially w/ first trimester exposure (80% of congenital rubella syndrome)

Notifiable disease, usually to state/public health authorities, laboratory confirmatin w/ serum rubella IgM

841
Q

Usually acute presentation w/ fever, nasal discharge, cough, generalized lymphadenopathy, conjunctivitis (copious clear discharge), photophobia

Koplik spots appearing 2 days prior to onset of rash as white spots w/ blue rings help within red spots in oral mucose in 1/3 of pts

Pharyngitis mild w/o exudate

Maculopapular rash onset 3-4 days after onset of sx

May coalesce to generalized erythema

Dx

A

Measles

Agent: Rubeola virus

aka “Hard measles”

Incubation period 10-14 days

Transmissble for 1 week prior to onset of rash to 2-3 weeks after rash appears

CNS and respiratory tract complications common

Permanent neurologic impairment or death possible

Supportive tx as well as intervention for complications

Notifiable to state/public health

Lab confirmation with serum rubeola IgM

842
Q

Maculopapular rash in 20%, rare petechial

Fever, “shaggy” purple-white exudative pharyngitis

Malaise, marked diffuse lymphadenopathy

Hepatic and splenic tenderness w/ occassional enlargement

Dx?

A

Dx testing: Heterophil antibody test (Monospot), leukopenia w/ lymphocytosis and atypical lymphocytes

Infectious Mononucleosis (IM)

Agent: Epstein Barr virus (human herpesvirus 4)

Incubation period: 20-50 days

>90% will develop a rash if given amoxicillin or ampicillin during the illness

Potential for respiratory distress when enlarged tonsils and lymphoid tissue impinges on upper airway - corticosteroids may be helpful

Splenomegaly most often occurs between days 6-21 days after onset of illness

Avoid contact sport for at least 1 month d/t risk of splenic rupture

843
Q

Fever, malaise, sore mouth, anorexia

1-2 days later, lesions

Also can cause conjunctivitis, pharyngitis

Duration of illness 2-7 days

Dx?

A

Hand, foot, and mouth disease

Agent: Coxsackie virus A16

Transmission via oral-fecal or droplet

Highly contagious

Incubation period of 2-6 weeks

Supportive tx

Analgesia important

School exclusion typically until all blisters have dried

844
Q

3-4 days of mild, flu-like illness

Followed by 7-10 days of red rash that begins on face with “slapped cheek” appearance

Spreads to trunk and extremities

A

Fifth’s disease

Agent: Human parvovirus B19

aka. erythema infectiosum

Droplet transmission

Leukopenia common

Risk of hydrops fetalis w/ resulting pregnancy loss when contracted by woman during pregnancy

Supportive tx

Rash onset corresponds w/ disease immunity w/ patient

Viremic and contagious prior to but not after onset of rash

845
Q

Child w/

Maculopapular rash, fever, mild pharyngitis

Ulcerating oral lesions

Diarrhea

Diffuse lymphadenopathy

Dx

A

Acute HIV infection

Agent: Human immunodeficiency virus

Most likely to occur in response to infection w/ large viral load

Consult w/ HIV specialist concerning initiation of antiretroviral Tx

846
Q

Acute-phase usually lasts 11 days

Fever T > 104 F (40 C) lasting 5 or more days

Polymorphic exanthem on trunk, flexor regions, and perineum

Erythema of oral cavity (“strawberry tongue”) w/ extensively chapped lips

Bilateral conjunctivitis usually w/o eye discharge

Cervical lymphadenopathy

Edema and erythema of hands and feet w/ peeling skin (late finding, usually 1-2 weeks after onset of fever)

Dx?

A

Kawasaki disease

Agent: unknown

Usually in ages 1-8 years

M>F

Tx:

IV immunoglobulin and PO ASA during acute phase

Tx reduces rate of coronary abnormalities such as coronary artery dilation and coronary aneurysm

Expert consultation and tx advice about ASA use and ongoign monitoring warranted

847
Q

Most common anemia in childhood

A

Iron-deficiency (IDA)

Hemogram: Microcytic, Hypochromic, elevated RDW

Most common in children ages 12-30 months

Major contributors: depletion of birth iron stores (usually lasts 6 months), initiation of lower-iron diet later in infancy, early toddler stage

-

Most calories in first year of life shoud be from iron-enriched infant formula or breast milk w/ iron supplementation starting at ages 4-6 months, depending on amount of iron-fortified formula intake

cow’s milk > 16 oz/day after 12 months of age = most potent risk fx for IDA

In child

848
Q

Preterm infants and iron

A

If breastfed, should receive 2 mg/kg/d of elemental iron starting age 1 month through 12 months

If formula fed, iron supplements could be required

849
Q

Term infants and iron

A

If > 1/2 of feedings as human milk, should receive 1 mg/kg/day of supplemental iron starting at age 4 months until introduction of complementary foods (fortified cereals, legumes, red meats, dark green vegetables, vitamin C)

If formula fed, receives enough iron from formula w/ introduction of complementary foos after ages 4-6 months

850
Q

IDA tx in children

A

Supplemental iron should be continued for about 2 months after correction of anemia to replenish body stores

All children should be screened for IDA through hemoglobin measurement at age 1 year

Hg

With milder anemia (Hg 10-11 g/dL), an alternative evaluation plan includes treating w/ iron for 1 month. A rise in Hg 1g or more after 1 month confirms IDA.

851
Q

Vitamin D supplementation infants

A

AAP:

Breastfed: Vitamin D 400 IU/day starting first weeks of life

Formula fed: If less than 800-1000mL/day of formula, supplement

852
Q

Vitamin D requirements per age

A

Infants: 400 IU/day

Children to adults age 70: 600 IU/day

Age > 70: 800 IU/day

853
Q

Calcium requirement per age (children)

A

Toddler (age 1-3): 500 mg/day

Preschool, younger school age (4-8 years): 800 mg/day

Older children to teens (9-18 years): 1300 mg/day

854
Q

Calcium foods

A

1 cup of milk/yogurt = 250 mg Ca

1 cup of collards = 357 mg Ca

1 cup of black-eyed peas = 211 mg Ca

3 oz of tofu = 163 mg ca

1 cup cottage cheese 1% milk fat = 138 mg Ca

1 cup of soy milk = 93 mg Ca

1 oz of almonds (24 nuts) = 70 mg of Ca

855
Q

ADHD key dx

A

Sx must be present before age 12

Impairment must be present in at least 2 settings

must have evidence of functional interference (socially, academically, or in extracurricular activities)

856
Q

ADHD

Inattention dx

A

Inattention: 5 or more must occur often:

Fails to give close attention to details or makes careless mistakes in schoolwork, work, other activities

Difficulty sustaining attention in tasks, play activities

does not seem to listen when spoken to directly

Does not follow through on instructions or fails to finish schoolwork, chores, or duties

Difficulty organizing tasks and activities

Easily distracted by extraneous stimuli

Forgetful in daily activities

857
Q

ADHD

Hyperactivity-Impulsivity Dx

A

Fiver or more of the following must occur often:

Fidgets w/ hands or feets or squirms in seat

Leaves seat in classroom or in other situations in which remaining seated is expected

Runs about or climbs excessively in situations when inappropriate

Difficulty playing or engaging in leisure activities quietly

Acts “on the go” or acts as if “driven by a motor”

Talks excessively

Blurts out answers before questions are completed

Difficulty waiting turn

Interrupts or intrudes on others

858
Q

Croup

A

Laryngotracheobronchitis

Stridor

Caused by upper airway obstruction - getting air in more of a problem than getting air out

Characteristic sound heard on inspiration

Viral, allergic in origin

Most common 6 months to 5 years

“Steeple” sign on frontal chest radiograph

Tx
Supportive

Systemic corticosteroids

859
Q

Foreign body airway obstruction

A

Stridor - upper airway obstruction

Acute onset from mechanical obstruction, most common in toddlers

Tx: removal

860
Q

Peritonsillar abscess

A

Stridor - upper airway obstruction

Usually bacterial

Most often in older child or adult

Usually presents w/ “hot potato” voice

Difficulty swallowing

Trismus

Contralateral uvula deviation

Tx:

Attention to airway

Prompt ENT consult

Antimicrobial therapy

Usually inpatient admission

Perhaps surgical intervention

861
Q

Acute epiglottitis

A

Bacterial origin (most often H. influenzae type B)

Most often in children age 2-7 years

Abrupt onset of high-grade fever, sore throat, dysphagia, drooling

Dx:

Attention to airway maintenance

Thumb sign on lateral soft-tissue radiograph of neck

Prompt ENT consult

Antimicrobial therapy

Usually inpatient admission

862
Q

Acute bronchiolitis

A

Often called “disease of the happy wheezer”

Milder ill child

3 months to 3 years

Most

viral etiology

Most often from RSV

less commonly from influenzae or adenovirus

short-term acute illness w/ wheezing lasting about 3 weeks

Most serious in early infancy (

Nearly all episodes occur between Novemenr and April

Tx:

Supportive

Little evidence that inhaled bronchodilateros or inhaled/systemic corticosteroids are helpful

Palivizumab (Synagis) often used to prevent RSV in fection in premature infants

(first RSV season in infants born at

863
Q

Acute bronchitis

A

Viral etiology

Short-term, self-limiting

Tx:

Supportive

Inhaled beta-agonist

Oral anti-inflammatory tx

864
Q

Wheeze DDx in Children

A

Acute bronchiolitis

Acute bronchitis

Asthma

865
Q

DDx of stridor in children

A

Croup

Foreign body

Congenital obstruction

Peritonsillar abscess

Acute epiglottitis

866
Q

Intermittent asthma children 0-4 years

A

Sx =

Nighttime awakenings 0

SABA =

No interference w/ normal activity

Exacerbations requiring oral corticosteroids 0-1/year

Step 1 Tx

867
Q

Mild persistent asthma 0-4 years

A

Sx > 2 days/week

Nighttime awakenings 1-2x/month

SABA > 2 days/week but not daily

Minor activity limitation

2 or more exacerbations in 6 months requiring oral corticosteroids or 4 or more wheezing episodes/year lasting > 1 day

Tx Step 2

868
Q

Moderate Persistent asthma 0-4 years

A

Daily sx

Nighttime awakenings 3-4x/month

Daily SABA

Some limitation to normal activity

2 or more exacerbations requiring oral prednisone in 6 months or 4 or more episodes/year of wheezing lasting > 1 day

Tx: Step 3

869
Q

Severe persistent asthma 0-4 years

A

Sx throughout the day

Nighttime awakenings : > 1x/week

SABA several times a day

2 or more exacerbation requiring oral prednisone in 6 months or 4 or more episodes of wheezing in 1 year lasting more than 1 day

Tx: Step 3 and consider short course of corticosteroids

870
Q

Step 1 asthma 0-4 years

A

SABA PRN

871
Q

Step 2 asthma 0-4 years

A

Low-dose ICS

SABA PRN

Alternative:

Cromolyn

Montelukast

872
Q

Step 3 asthma 0-4 years

A

Medium-dose ICS

SABA PRN

873
Q

Step 4 asthma 0-4 years

A

Medium-dose ICS

+

LABA or Montelukast

SABA PRN

874
Q

Step 5 asthma 0-4 years

A

High-dose ICS

+

LABA or Montelukast

SABA PRN

875
Q

Step 6 asthma 0-4 years

A

High-dose ICS

+

Montelukast or LABA

AND

Oral Systemic Corticosteroids

876
Q

Intermittent asthma 5-11 years

A

Sx =

Nighttime awakenings =

SABA =

No interference w/ activity

Normal FEV1 between exacerbations

FEV1 > 80% predicted

FEV1/FVC > 85%

877
Q

Mild Persistent Asthma 5-11 years

A

sx > 2 days/week but not daily

Nighttime awakenings 3-4x/month

SABA > 2 days/week but not daily

Minor activity limitation

FEV1 =>80% predicted

FEV1/FVC ration > 80%

878
Q

Moderate Persistent Asthma 5-11 years

A

Daily sx

Nighttime awakenings > 1x/week but not nightly

Daily SABA

Some activity limitation

FEV1 60-80% predicted

FEV1/FVC = 75-80%

879
Q

Severe Persistent Asthma 5-11 years

A

Sx throughout day

Nighttime awakenings often 7x/week

SABA several times per day

Extremely limited activity

FEV1

FEV1/FVC

880
Q

Step 1 asthma 5-11 years

A

SABA PRN

881
Q

Step 2 asthma 5-11 years

A

Low-dose ICS

Alternative

Cromolyn

LTRA

Nedocromil

Theophylline

882
Q

Step 3 asthma 5-11 years

A

Low-dose ICS

+

LABA or LTRA or Theophylline

Alternative

Medium-dose ICS

883
Q

Step 4 asthma 5-11 years

A

Medium dose ICS

+

LABA

Alternative:

Medium dose ICS

+

LTRA or Theophylline

884
Q

Step 5 asthma 5-11 years

A

High-dose ICS

+

LABA

Alternative:

High-dose ICS

+

LTRA or Theophylline

885
Q

Step 6 asthma 5-11 years

A

High dose ICS

+

LABA

+

Oral systemic corticosteroid

Alternative
High-dose ICS

+

LTRA or Theophylline

+

Oral systeic corticosteroid

886
Q

Cogwheeling

A

Resistance to passive movement

Best felt at elbow, wrist, neck

Found in Parkinsons

887
Q

Tzanck smear

A

Dx of herpes

Tzanck smear will reveal giant multinucleated cells

888
Q

RA susceptibility fx

A

heredity

family hx

female gender

889
Q

Posterior nasal bleed

A

May hemorrhage

send to ER

890
Q

Most common cause of secondary HTN

A

renal conditions

e.g. renal artery stenosis and renal failure

891
Q

Acute glomerulonephritis tx

A

Avoid high potassium foods

Treat inpatient until edema and HTN are under control

Restrict protein in presence of azotemia and metabolic acidosis

Fluid intake should be restricted to only the amount patient requires to replace lost fluids

892
Q

BMI calculation

A

Divide person’s weight by height squared

893
Q

Hemorrhoid tx

A

Topical hydrocortisone can relieve pain, itching, inflamm

Stool softener reduce straining during defecation

Local analgesic spray, suppository, or cream provide pain relief

894
Q

Peristalsis and progesterone

A

Decreased peristalsis from progesterone

Physiologic change during pregnancy

Results in GERD and constipation

895
Q

Thelarche earliest onset

A

7 years

896
Q

Pubarche earliest onset in females

A

8 years

range 8-13 years

897
Q

Male

Age range onset of Tanner 2

A

9-14 years

898
Q

Female

Alteration in puberty

A

Idiopathic in 85% or higher

Most common puberty disorder

Continuous GnRH agonist analog option to delay progress

-

> 13 years

Multiple fx: nutrition (low weight), hormonal, genetic (Turner syndrome XO), others

899
Q

Male

Alterations in puberty

A

Idiopathic in

CNS tumors most often implicated

-

> 14 years

Multiple fx: nutritional, hormonal, genetic, others

900
Q

Infant

tearing in both eyes

Mucoid discharge

dx?

A

Congenital lacrimal duct obstruction

901
Q

Osteomalacia

A

Adult form of rickets

Poor bone formation in children and softening of bones in adults

Causes spine to bend and legs to become bowed

Result of Calcium and Vitamin D deficiency

902
Q

Gold standard of ectopic pregnancy sx

A

transvaginal U/S

903
Q

Surgical consult abd pain indicators (5)

A

fever

increased WBC

tachycardia

peritoneal signs

advanced age

904
Q

When to refer to burn center

A

if burns are > 10% of TBSA in age 50

> 20% TBSA in all other ages

burns over a joint

circumferential burns

905
Q

Borborygmi

A

Hyperactive bowel sounds

Rush of gurgling, tinkling sounds

Typically loud

906
Q

Most common cause of ED

A

DM

907
Q

Multiple sclerosis adverse outcome predictors

A

older age at onset

cerebellar involvement

male gender

persisting deficits in brain stem

short first inter-attack interval

908
Q

How many viral illnesses per year are common in infants and toddlers

A

Up to 10

909
Q

Esotropia

A

Misalignment of one or both eyes (cross-eyed)

Infants younger than 20 weeks may have intermitten esotropia, usually resolves spontaneously

910
Q

coarctaion of the aorta

A

discrete narrowing of the aorta just opposite the site of the ductus arteriosus

911
Q

Vitamin D deficiency risk fx

A

gastric bypass

Limited sun exposure

renal disease

use of sunscreen

use of phenobarbital

hepatic disease

912
Q

Baker cyst

A

swelling behind knee

cystic swelling in popliteal space

if bursa ruptures, acute swellling of lower leg might mimic DVT

913
Q

Bulimia pharm tx

A

SSRIs, TCAs, CBT

Avoid MAOI - potential for severe food interactions and HTN crisis

914
Q

Acute bacterial meningitis tx

A

Infants: ampicillin + 3rd gen ceph

Adults: 3rd gen ceph + chloramphenicol

Adults > 50: Amox + 3rd gen ceph

915
Q

Which imaging test measures the accuracy of brain structure

A

CT - computerized tomography

916
Q

Average American man lifetime risk of latent prostate cancer

A

40% risk of latent disease

10% risk of clinically significant disease

3% risk of dying from prostate ca

917
Q

Drugs for seizures

A

Myoclonic and atonic seizures: Clonazepam

Simple, Complex partial: carbamazepine, phenytoin, divalproex sodium, valproic acid

918
Q

Campylobacter jejuni tx

A

Erythromycin

919
Q

Salmonella tx

A

Ampicillin

920
Q

Shigella tx

A

Trimethoprim-Sulfamethoxazole

921
Q

Giardia lamblia tx

A

Metronidazole

922
Q

BPH sx

A

urinary urgency, hesitancy

dysuria

incontinence

923
Q

Lyme disease pathogen

A

Ixodes tick bite infected w/

Borrelia burgdorgeri

924
Q

Aminoglycosides and pregnancy

A

can cause deafness

Teratogen

925
Q

Lithium in pregnancy

A

Teratogen

Can cause cardiac defects

926
Q

Cocaine in pregnance

A

Teratogen

Can cause CVAs and mental retardation

927
Q

Sulfa drugs in pregnancy

A

Contraindicated in the third trimester

Can cause hemolysis in utero w/ resulting hyperbilirubinemia

928
Q

AOM pathogens

A

No pathogen 4%

Virus 70%

Bacteria + virus 66%

Strep pneumo (gram +) in 49% of bacterial AOM - Treatment target. Consider drug resistance risk. Mechanism of resistance: alters protein binding sites within bacterial cells. Low rate of 10-20% spontaneous resolution w/o abx

H. influenzae (Gram - bacillus) 29% - Resistance via beta-lactamase production. Moderate rate of 50% spontaneous resolution w/o abx

M. catarrhalis (Gram - cocci) 28% - Resistance via beta-lactamase production. Nearly ALL resolve w/o abx

929
Q

Psoas sign

A

Appendicitis

Pain in RLQ w/ passive right hip extension

930
Q

Valgus stress test

A

tests MCL

Bend knee INward

931
Q

Varus stress test

A

tests LCL

bend knee OUTward

932
Q

Rovsing’s Sign

A

RLQ pain illicited w/ LLQ pain palpation

+ appendicitis

933
Q

Portal hypertension

A

r/t obstruction of portal blood flow which increases portal venous pressure resulting in:

splenomegaly

Ascite

collateral venous channels

para-umbilical and hemorrhoidal veins

Cardia of the stomach and into esophagus

934
Q

Analgesia definition

A

absence of pain sensation

935
Q

hypalgesia definition

A

decreased sensitivity to pain

936
Q

hyperalgesia definition

A

increased sensitivity to pain

937
Q

anesthesia definition

A

absence of touch sensation

938
Q

Flashing lights across field of vision or vitreous floaters

Dx?

A

Detachment of vitreous from the retina

939
Q

Palpable thrill in the LUSB suggest

A

pulmonary valve stenosis

940
Q

palpable thrill in the right clavicular region or in the upper right sternal area suggest

A

aortic valve stenosis

941
Q

thrill palpable in the LLSB suggest

A

ventricular septal defect

942
Q

Infant weight gain

A

double by 6 months

Triple by 1 year

943
Q

Sacral lymph nodes receive lymphatic fluid from

A

prostate/cervix

rectum

urinary bladder

posterior pelvic wall

944
Q

Internal ileac lymph nodes receive lymphatic fluid from

A

all pelvic viscera

deep part of perineum

gluteal region

945
Q

Tachypnea in newborn is

A

RR at rest is => 60 bpm

946
Q

Frequency range close to conversation speech

A

512 Hz

947
Q

How to assess pelvic floor muscle strength during bimanual

A

have pt squeeze around inserted fingers for as long as possible

full strength = snug compression for 3 or more seconds

948
Q

Peak bone mass is reached by what age

A

30

949
Q

HCG

A

produced by the placenta

supports progesterone syntehesis in the corpus luteum, effectively preventing early embryo from being lost to menstruation

950
Q

dull, aching pain when attempting active or passive ROM to one shoulder

localized tenderness w/ external rotation

Dx?

A

Adhesive capsulitis

951
Q

Global aphasia

A

difficulty speaking and understanding words and unable to read/write

952
Q

Broca’s aphasia

A

speech is confluent, slow

few words

laborious effort

inflection and articulation are impaired but words are meaningful, w/ nouns, transitive verbs, and important adjectives

small grammatical words are often dropped

953
Q

Anomic aphasia

A

word-findingn difficulties

struggles to find right words for speaking and writing

954
Q

Wernicke’s aphasia

A

speech is fluent, often rapid, voluble, and effortless

Inflection and articulation are good BUT

sendtences lack meaning and words are malformed (paraphasias) or invented (neologisms)

Speech may be totally incomprehensible

955
Q

Mental retardation levels

A

Mild: mental age 8-12 years

Moderate: trainable up to 3-7 years IQ 35-55

Severe: IQ between 25-40, limited communication, capable of learning certain self-care activities, and mental age of toddler

Profound: IQ

956
Q

Palpable thrill in the left mid-sternal border would be consistent with

A

Tetralogy of Fallot

957
Q

Extrusion reflex infant normal

A

disappears by 4 months

958
Q

Babinski reflex normal

A

Disappears by 12 months or when walking

959
Q

Medial epicondylitis aka

A

Golfer’s elbow

960
Q

Ankle joint aka

A

tibiotalar joint

assessed through dorsi and plantar flexion

961
Q

Pronator drift test

A

extend both arms and palms face upward for 20-30 sec

forearm drifts downward = corticospinal lesion in the contralateral hemisphere

forearm drifts upward = lesion in the cerebellum

962
Q

Pain of duodenal or pancreatic origin refers to

A

the back

963
Q

Referred pain from biliary tree

A

right shoulder or right posterior chest

964
Q

Preterm SGA are more likely to experience

A

asphyxia

hypoglycemia

hypocalcemia

965
Q

Preterm AGA (appropriate for gestational age) are prone to

A

respiratory distress syndrome

apnea

patent ductus arteriosus w/ left to right shunt

infection

966
Q

Akinesia definition

A

absence or loss of control of voluntary muscle movement

967
Q

Dystonia definition

A

involuntary muscle spasms and twisting of limbs

968
Q

Dyskinesia definition

A

presence of involuntary muscle movement such as tics or chorea

can be seen in children w/ rheumatic fever

969
Q

bradykinesia definition

A

impaired ability to adjust one’s body position

noted in Parkinson’s

970
Q

Dysesthesia definition

A

abnormal or unpleasant sense of touch

971
Q

Why should pregnant pts avoid unpasteurized dairy, soft cheeses, raw egges, deli meats?

A

Risk of Listeria, Salmonella, toxosplasmosis

972
Q

how to test for thumb opposition

A

touch thumb to each of the other fingertips

973
Q

Postterm infants are at risk for

A

meconium aspiration

asphyxia

974
Q

Four classic structural defects in Tetralogy of Fallot

A

ventricular septal defect

overriding aorta

pulmonary stenosis

right ventricular hypertrophy

975
Q

Deciduous teeth and permanent teeth

A

20 deciduous teet between 6 months and 5 years of age

Permanent teeth begin to erupt at 6 years of age when deciduous teeth begin to fall out

All 32 permanent teeth usually erupt by late adolescence

976
Q

Diminished breath sound in one side of the chest of a newborn suggests

A

Unilateral lesions

e.g. congenital diaphragmatic hernia

977
Q

Hormone implicated for increasing insulin resistance and hyperglycemia associated w/ gestational diabetes

A

Human placental lactogen

978
Q

Daughters of women who took Diethylstilbestrol (DES) during pregnancy are at risk for:

A

columnar epithelium cover most or all of cervix

vaginal adenosis

circular collar or ridge of tissue, of varying shapes, between the cervix and vagina

979
Q

Angle of Louis location

A

on the manubrium and body of sternum

980
Q

Aphonia definition

A

loss of voice

accompanies disease affecting larynx or its nerve sypply

981
Q

Dysphonia definition

A

refers to less severe impairment in volume, quality, ptich of voice

982
Q

Chronic pelvic pain definition

A

pelvic pain that lasts > 6 months w/o response to tx

983
Q

Severe epigastric pain that radiates to posterior trunk and entire abdomen is suggestive of

A

acute pancreatitis

984
Q

Lateral epicondylitis aka

A

tennis elbow

985
Q

Dx of AOM in children

A

Moderate or severe bulging of TM

OR

new onset of otorrhea not r/t OE w/ otalgia

-

Mild bulging TM AND recent (within 48 hours) onset of ear pain OR intense TM erythema w/ otalgia

986
Q

Severe vs Nonsevere AOM

A

Nonsevere:

Mild otalgia

or

Fever

Severe:

Moderate to severe otalgia

or

Otalgia > 48 hours

or

Fever 39 C / 102.2 F or higher

987
Q

Watchful waiting AOM

A

Analgesia w/o abx

Indicated if

low risk for adverse outcome w/o abx

high rate of spontaneous AOM resolution

Watchful waiting only appropriate for child 6 months of age and older w/ non-severe illness for unilateral AOM

If used, follow up must be ensured w/ ability to start abx within 48-72 hours if child fails to improve or worsens

80% of children will be better in 7-10 days

70% within 2-3 days

988
Q

AOM tx - first line

A

Amoxicillin 80-90 mg/kg/day in 2 divided doses

OR

Amox-Clav 90 mg/kg/d amox and 6.4mg/kg/d of clav in 2 divided doses

PCN allergy:

Cefdinir 14 mg/kg/day in 1 or 2 doses

Cefuroxime

Cefpodoxime

Ceftriaxone 50 mg IM for 1-3 days

989
Q

AOM tx after abx failure after 48-72 h

A

Amox clav 90 mg/kg/d amox w/ 6.4 mg/kg/d of clav in 2 divided doses

Ceftriaxone 50 mg IM daily x 3 days

PCN allergy:

Ceftriaxone 50 mg IM daily x 3 days

Clindamycin 30-40 mg/kg/d in 3 divided doses w/ or w/o 3rd gen ceph

Consider tympanocentesis, referral to specialist

990
Q

PCN allergy and cephalosporins

A

Avoid 1st generation and older 2nd generation cephalosporins

minimal risk for reaction

1% cross-allergy risk

Note: ceftriaxone has stronger strep pneumo coverage than other cephalosporins

991
Q

OME

A

fluid in middle ear w/o infection

formerly known as serous otitis

Watchful waiting in majority

75-90% will resolve within 3 months w/o specific tx

Consider audiologic eval if OME persists for at least 3 months, if concerns for hearing, speech, or language

Tympanostomy and/or adenoidectomy reduced time w/ OME and improved hearing in short term but were associated w/ expected risk

Persistent OME is the most common cause of TEMPORARY speech delay in early childhood

992
Q

Mild Dehydration

A

3-5%

Normal BP, pulse quality, HR, turgor, fontanels, eyes (tears present), cap refill (

Slightly dry lips

thick saliva

Slighly decrease urine output

normal thirst to slightly increaseed

993
Q

Moderate dehydration

A

6-9%

Normal BP

Normal to slightly decreaed pulse quality

Normal to increased HR

Turgor recoil

Slightly depressed fontanels

Dry lips and oral mucosa

Slighly sunken eyes, decreased tears

Delayed cap refill (1.5-3 seconds)

Normal to fatigued/restless/irritable mental status

Decreased urine output

Moderately increased thirst

994
Q

Severe dehydration

A

> 10%

Normal to reduced BP

Moderately decreased pulse quality

Increased HR (sometimes brady)

Recoil > 2 seconds/tenting turgor

Depressed fontanels

Very dry lips, oral mucosa

Deeply sunken eyes, tears absent

Delayed cap refill > 3 seconds

Apathetic, lethargic, unconscious

Minimal urine output

Very thirsty to too lethargic to assess

995
Q

Rehydration tx minimal dehydration

A

Rehydration tx N/A

sips of fluid frequently as tolerated to maintain circulating volume/hydration status

Replacement for ongoing losses:

> 10 kg: 120-240 ml for each loss

996
Q

Rehydration tx for mild to moderate dehydration

A

Rehydration Tx:

ORT w/ ORS

50-100 mL/kg over 3-4 hours

best tolerated in frequent, small volumes

supply in office to demonstrate ability tolerate oral tx

Replacement for ongoing losses:

> 10 kg: 120-240 ml for each loss

997
Q

Rehydration Tx and vomiting

A

Consider premedication w/ 5-HT3 antagonist such as Ondansetron to minimize risk of further upper GI fluid loss

998
Q

Rehydration Tx for severe dehydration

A

Lactated Ringers preferred over NS

may use NS if LR not available

Bolus 20 mL/kg until improvement then 100 mL/kg over 4 hours

Replacement for ongoing losses:

> 10 kg: 120-240 ml for each loss

If unable to drink, give through NG tube or give D5W1/4 NS w/ K+ 20 meq + IV

999
Q

Febrile neonate

A

Tx w/ empiric parenteral abx

admit to hospital for neonatal sepsis eval

1000
Q

Sepsis work up

A

CBC w/ diff, blood culture, U/A and C&S via transurethral cath or suprapubic tap

As indicated: LP for CSF analysis and culture, CXR, stool culture, fecal WBC count

Note: tachypnea: PNA until proven otherwise

1001
Q

Empiric CAP Tx

A

Presumed bacterial:

Amox 90 mg/kg/d in 2 doses

Alternative: Amox-Clav

Presumed atypical:

Azithromycin 10 mg/kg on day 1, followed by 5 mg/kg/d day 2-5)

Alternative:

Clarithro (15mg/kg/d in 2 doses x 7-14 days)

Erythromycin (40mg/kg/d in 4 doses)

1002
Q

Empiric CAP Tx 5-17 years old

A

Amox 90 mg/kg/d in 2 divided doses, max 4g/d

May add macrolide to beta-lactam abx if unsure if atypical or not

Alternative: Amox clav

Presumed atypical:

Azithro 10 mg/kg/d on day 1, 5 mg/kg/d day 2-5

Azithro max of 500 mg day 1, 250 mg day 2-5

Alternative: Clarithro/Eryhtro. Doxy if > 7 years old

1003
Q

Tx Influenza PNA children 3 months to 17 years

A

Oseltamivir

5 years and older:

Oseltamivir

Zanamivir if children 7 years old or older

Peramivir

IV Zanamivir availabe for compassionate use

1004
Q

UTI tx age 2-24 months

A

Amox 20-40 mg/kg/d x 3 doses

Bactrim 6-12 mg TMP, 30-60 mg SMX per kg in 2 doses

Cefixime 8 mg/kg/d in 2 doses

Cefpodoxime 10 mg/kg/d in 2 doses

Cefprozil 30 mg/kg/d in 2 doses

Cephalexin 50-100 mg/kg/d in 4 doses

Loracarbef 15-30 mg/kg/d in 2 doses

1005
Q

Uncomplicated viral URI

vs

ABRS

s/sx

A

Uncomplicated viral URI: nasal sx and/or cough, nasal discharge progresses from clear to purulent to w/o abx, usually within 10 days; Fever early in illness assoc. w/ constitional sx such as headaches, myalgias that resolve in 24-48 hours as the respiratory sx worsen

When ABRS: (1 or more)

Worsening URI course, such as double sickening (acute worsening of respiratory sx or new fever at day 6-7 of URI)

Persistence of URI sx w/o improvement after 7-10 days, including nasal discharge, day time cough, bad breath, fatigue, headache, decreased appetite

Acute onset of T: 102.2, purulent nasal discharge, ill appearance for 3-4 days

1006
Q

ABRS tx in children

A

Acute URI w/ persistent illness or daytime cough > 10 days w/o improvement:

Abx or 3 days observation

Worsening course, double sickening, severe onset fever, purulent nasal discharge > 3 consecutive days:

Abx tx

Contrast CT of sinuses and/or MRI w/ contrast should be obtained if child is supected of having CNS or orbital complications

Likely pathogens:

S. Pneumo (30%) - decreased d/t pneumococcal vaccine

Non-typeable H. influenzae (30%)

M. Catarrhalis (10%)

Sterile (no pathogen isolated, viral) 25%

Abx:

Initital: Amoxicillin 80-90 mg/kg/d w/ or w/o Clav

If no improvement or worse in 72 hours: HD amox-clav

If initial tx HD amox-clav and no improvement in 72 hrs:

Clindamycin AND cefixime

or

Linezolid and cefixime

or

Levofloxacin

1007
Q

Physiologic murmur

A

aka innocent/functional

Gr 1- 3/6 early to midsystolic murmur

heard best at LSB but usually audible over precordium

No radiation beyond precordium

Softens or diseappears w/ STANDING

Increases in intentsity w/ activity, fever, anemia

S1 S2 intact

normal PMI

Etiology: flows over aortic valve, heard in 80% of thin, healthy adults if examined in soundproof room

Asymptomatic

1008
Q

Aortic Stenosis

A

Gr 1-4/6 systolic murmur

crescendo-decrescendo

heard best at 2nd RICS, apex

softens w/ standing

radiates to carotids

may have diminished S2

slow-filling carotid pulse

narrow pulse pressure

Loud S4

heaving PMI

later peak = greater stenosis

In younger adults: congential bicuspid valve

In older adults: calcific, rheumatic in nature

Ominous signs: dizziness, syncope = severe decreased CO

1009
Q

Aortic sclerosis

A

Gr 2-3/6 high systolic ejection murmur

heard best at 2nd RICS

Full carotid upstroke, not delayed

no S4

no symptoms

Benign thickening and/or calcification of aortic valve leaflets

No change in valve pressure gradient

AKA: “50 over 50” murmur - foundin > 50% of those over 50y

1010
Q

Aortic regurgitation

A

Gr 1-3/4 high-pitched blowing diastolic murmur

heard best at 3rd LICS

May be enhanced by forced expiration, leaning forward

Usually w/ S3

Wide pulse pressure

Sustained thrusting apical pulse

More common in MEN

usually from rheumatic heart disease

Occassionally d/t tertiary syphilis

1011
Q

Mitral stenosis

A

Gr 1-3 low-pitched late diastolic murmur

heard est at apex, localized

short crescendo-decrescendo rumble

like a bowling ball rolling down alley or distant thunder

Often w/ opening snap, accentuated S1 in mitral area

Enhanced by left lateral decubitus, squat, cough, immediately post Valsalva

Nearly all rheumatic in origin

Protracted latency period, then gradual decrease in exercise tolerance leading to rapid downhill course d/t low CO

AF common

1012
Q

Atrial septal defect (uncorrected)

A

Gr 1-3/6 systolic ejection murmur at the pulmonic area

Widely split S2, right ventricular heave

Typically w/o sx until middle age then present w/ HF

Persisten ostium secundum in mid-septum

Will resolve w/ ASD correction

1013
Q

Pulmonary hypertension (PH)

A

Narrow splitting S2

murmur of tricuspid regurgitation

Report of SOB nearly universal

Seen w/ RVH, as identified by ECG, echo

Secondary PH might be consequence of Redux (fen-phen) use

1014
Q

Mitral regurgitation

A

Gr 1-4 high-pitched blowing systolic murmur

Often extending beyond S2

Sounds like long “haaa” “hooo”

Heard best at RLSB

Radiates to axilla

Often laterally displaced PMI

Decreased w/ standing, valsalva maneuver

Increased by squate, hand grip

Found in ischemic heart disease, endocarditis, RHD

W/ RHD, often w/ other valve abnormalities such as AS, MS, AR

1015
Q

Mitral Valve Prolapse

A

Gr 1-3/6 late systolic

crescendo murmur

honking quality

heard best at apex

follows midsystolic click

click moves forward to earlier systole w/ Valsalva or standing, resulting in a longer-sounding murmur

W/ hand grasp or squat, click moves back further into systole, resulting in shorter murmur

Often seen w/ minor thoracic deformities (e.g. pectus excavatum, straight back, and shallow AP diameter. Chest pain somimes present but there is question at whether MVP is cause)

1016
Q

Infective Endocarditis abx prophylaxis indication

A

Prosthetic cardiac valve of prosthetic material used for cardiac valve repair

Previous IE

Congenital heart disease

Unrepaired cyanotic CHD including shunts/conduits

Completed repaired heart defet w/ prosthetic material/device, during first 6 months after procedure

Repaired CHD w/ residual defects at site or next to site of prosthetic pathc/device (which inhibit endotheliazation)

Cardiac transplant

1017
Q

Infective Endocarditis abx prophylaxis before respiratory tract or esophageal procedures

A

Give 30-60 minutes before procedure

Adults:

Amox 2 g

Ampicillin 2 g IM or IV

Clindamycin 600 mg

Cephalexin 2 g

Azithro/Clarithro 500 mg

Cefazolin or ceftriaxone 1 g IM/IV

Clindamycin 600 mg IM/IV

Children:

Amox 50 mg/kg PO

Ampicillin 50 mg/kg IM or IV

Cefazolin or Ceftriaxone 50 mg/kg IM/IV

Clindamycin 20 mg/kg

Cephalexin 50 mg/kg

Azithro/Clarithro 15 mg/kg

Cefazolin or ceftriaxone 50 mg/kg IM or IV

Clindamycin 20 mg/kg IM or IV

1018
Q

Rheumatoid Arthritis Tx

A

MANAGEMENT

Rheumatology referral

PT/OT referral

Start DMARD therapy ASAP after dx

Lab testing prior to therapy

CBC

ESR

CRP

aminotransferase

BUN

Creatinine

NSAIDs until DMARD has taken effect

Example:

Hydroxychloroquine (HCQ) 400 mg tablet, take 1 tablet orally with food or milk daily.

Sulfasalazine (SSZ) enteric coated 500 mg tablets, take 1 tablet orally daily x 1 week, then 1 tablet twice a day for the second week, 2 tablets in the morning and 1 tablet at night for third week, then 2 tablets twice a day for the fourth week.

May use OTC Naproxen 500 mg orally twice a day until DMARD has taken effect. Discontinue as soon as possible.

HCQ commonly results in clinical improvement within 2-3 months, maximum effects may required up to 4-6 months.

If anadequate response at 3 months, add an alterantive DMARD, usually MTX, or combine HCQ with other DMARDs such as SSZ and MTX.

MTX dosing: 7.5 mg once weekly orally then adjust dose gradually not to exceed 20 mg once weekly. OR start at 10-15 mg once weekly, then go up by 5 mg every 2-4 weeks to a maximum to 30 mg once weekly.

Nonpharmacological tx/patient education:

Rest joint when inflamed but alternate rest periods w/ exercise to avoid loss of ROM/muscle atrophy

Ensure adequate nutrition/dietary intake

Stress reduction

1019
Q

OA Tx

A

Nonpharm: exercise, weight loss, PT, orthoses, brace/splint, joint protection, moist superficial heat, psychosocial support

Pharm:

APAP PRN 650 every 4-6 hours do not exceed 3250 mg/day

APAP 1000 mg every 6 hours do not exceed 3000 mg/day

If inflammation/APAP inadequate:

Try Naproxen first, if no effect after 2-4 weeks on max dose, try other NSAID

Naproxen 500 to 1000 mg daily in 2 divided dose

Etoricoxib 30-60 mg once daily

Diclofenac

Celecoxib

Ibuprofen 400-800 mg 3-4x/day max 3.2g/day

Obtain CBC, Bun, Creat and LFTs at least annually on pts on chronic NSAIDs

May add Capsaicin as adjunct to NSAIDs

Capsaicin patch - apply to affected area 3-4 x/day for 7 days, patch may remain in place for up to 8 hours

1020
Q

Increased CVD risk d/t OA and NSAID use

A

Monitor BP

Monitor for edema

Encourage non-pharm measures

Choose lowest effective dose

Modulate antiHTN tx and diuretic tx as needed to maintain target BP/weight

Change NSAIDs as needed to one w/ lower CV risk

1021
Q

C5 nerve root

A

Biceps motor

Biceps reflex

Sensation lateral arm at/above elbow

1022
Q

C6 nerve root

A

Thumb motor

Brachioradialis reflex

Sensation to forearm, thumb side

1023
Q

C7 nerve root

A

Motor: 3rd finger

Triceps reflex

sensation to middle finger

1024
Q

C8 nerve root

A

Motor: 4th finger

Lateral sides of hand sensation

1025
Q

T1 nerve root

A

Motor: 5th finger

Sensation medial side of forearm

1026
Q

Acute Gout tx

A

Acute: tx within 24 hours

First line: NSAIDs

Naproxen 500 mg BID or Indomethacin 50 mg TID x 5-7 days

Avoid ASA - paradoxical effect on serum urate

If cannot take NSAID:

Colchicine 1.5 - 1.8 mg in 2-3 divided doses in first 24 hours then taper

If cannot take NSAID/Colchicine: intraarticular corticosteroid injection

If not candidate for joint injection, oral prednisone 30-50 mg until sx resolve then taper

1027
Q

Prevention of Gout attack

A

Xanthine oxidase inhibitor (COI) tx w/ Allopurinol or febuxostat (Uloric) = first line urate-lowering tx

Low-dose NSAID tx also appropraite for gout attack prophylaxis

Serum urate should be lowered w/ target of

Pegloticase (Krystexxa) is appropriate for pts w/ severe gout

Pharmacological antiinflammatory prophylaxis is recommended for all gout pts when urate lowering tx is initiated, continue if clinical evidence of continuing gout disease and/or urate tarte has not yet been achieved

1028
Q

AV banking

A

Ophthalmoscopic exam: vein is twisted on the distal side of the artery

1029
Q

AV nicking

A

vein appears to stop abruptly on either side of artery

1030
Q

normal eye AV ophthalmoscopic exam

A

vein appears to cross beneath artery

1031
Q

AV tapering

A

vein appears to taper down either side of artery

1032
Q

Argyll Robertsion pupil

A

pupils appear small and irregularly shaped

accommodate but do NOT react to light

1033
Q

CN III paralysis

A

dilated pupil fixed to light and near accommodation

ptosis and lateral deviation of eye usually present

1034
Q

Most important risk fx for cervical cancer

A

Persistent infection w/ high risk HPV subtypes 16 or 18

1035
Q

Optimal position for rectal exam

A

lateral decubitus

1036
Q

Bronchiectasis

A

Classic clinical presentation: cough and daily production of mucopurulent and tenacious sputum lasting months to years

acquired disorder of major bronchi and brondhoiles

Eval: CBC w/ diff, immunoglobulin quant, sputum culture, xray, PFTs

Exacerbations caused usually by acute bacterial infections

1037
Q

Insulin Tx DM2

A

Step 1

Target fasting plasma glucose FPG target: 70-130 mg/dL

HS basal insulin - start 10 units or 0.2 units/kg

Increase dose 2 units every 3 days until FPG is 70-130 mg/dL

Can increase by 4 units every 3 days if FPG > 180

Step 2

Target premeal glucose (1 target at a time) 70-130 mg/dL

If pre-lunch > 130, start 4 units bolus insulin before breakfast

If pre-supper glucose > 130, start 4 units bolus insulin before lunch OR add/increae morning NPH, detemir, glargine

If bedtime glucose is above target (>140), start 4 units bolus insulin before supper OR incrase evening NPH, detemir, or glargine

>>

For all above

Increase bolus insulin by 2 units every 3 days

Once insulin dose > 10 units, egin to change insulin dose by 10-20%

Step 3

If A1C not at goal, target post-prandial glucose w/ bolus premeal insulin

2-hour post-prandial glucose target

1038
Q

Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction

A

Occurs in 30% of pts tx for primary syphilis

Occurs in 70% of pts tx for secondary syphilis within 24 hours of tx

The Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction is an acute febrile reaction that usually occurs within the first 24 hours after any therapy for syphilis. The fever may be accompanied by headache, myalgias, rigors, sweating, hypotension, and the worsening of rash if initially present

These symptoms often resolve without intervention within 12 to 24 hours

1039
Q

West Nile Dx confirmative

A

CSF w/ IgM antibody for WNV

WNV: viral infection causing febrile illness, rash, arthritis, myalgias, weakness, lymphadenopathy, meningoencephalitis

1040
Q

DSM-IV Cognitive Dementia dx criterea

A

Multiple cognitive deficits, memory impairment

one or more of the following:

aphasia, apraxia, agnosia, disturbance of executive function

1041
Q

Normal RBCs (in 1 mL of plasma)

A

M: 37-49%

F: 36-46%

1042
Q

Diverticulitis imaging

A

Abd CT w/ oral and IV contrast

Identifies bowel wall thickening, complications such as fistulas and abscesses

1043
Q

Cystic Fibrosis

A

Cough, maldigestion, excessive NaCl excretion in sweat and saliva

Most common genetic disorder of the white population

1044
Q

Causes of chronic pelvic pain

A

leiomyomas

endometriosis

malignancy of uterus, ovary, or colon

adhesions

interstitial cystitis

1045
Q

PCV is not given after what age

A

7 years

1046
Q

Tachyphylaxis

A

Progressive loss of effectiveness

To minimize in steroid tx of eczema, use for 10 days then allow for 4 treatment free days

1047
Q

Nateglinidie

A

Brand: Starlix

Meglitinide analog

short-acting oral antidiabetic

stimulates insulin release glucose dependent

quick onset but should not be taken if meal is skipped

1048
Q

Molluscum contagiosum

A

Lesions usually subside w/o tx 6-9 months

refer to derm if multiple lesions are unresponsive to tx

1049
Q

Bulimia and Buproprion

A

should NOT be used for pts w/ bulimia

can induce further binging or seizures in pts w/ bulimia

(Wellbutrin)

1050
Q

Varicella and analgesia

A

APAP best choice

Avoid ASA in children w/ viral illness d/t Reye syndrome

Avoid Ibupofen in varicella d/t risk of necrotizing fasciitis

1051
Q

Whipples triad

A

low plasma glucose

parasympathetic and sympathetic symptoms

Relief w/ ingestion of carbohydrates

1052
Q

Colchicine and interactions

B12

Iron

A

Colchicine interacts w/ B12 by decreasing absorption

Does not interact w/ iron therapy

1053
Q

Iron therapy drug interactions

common drugs

A

Antacids

Caffeine

Fluoroquinolones

Tetracyclines

some antihypertensives

thyroid hormones

histamine-2 receptor antangonists

1054
Q

Impetigo pregnant woman tx

A

Penicillin VK

Erythromycin

1055
Q

Azithromycin side effects

A

nervousness, insomnia, decreased sense of smell and taste, ringing in the ears

mild skin rash - if rash spreads or turns purple, immediate medical attention should be sought

1056
Q

Gold standard for endometriosis dx

A

Laparoscopy

1057
Q

T system breast ca

T0

T1

T2

T3

A

T0 = no evidence of primary tumor

T1 = Tumor 2 cm or less in greatest dimension

T2 = Tumor > 2 cm but no more than 5 cm in greatest dimension

T3 - Tumor > 5 cm in greatest dimension

1058
Q

Tine unguium

A

Fungal nail infection

1059
Q

Hidradenitis suppurativa

A

Bacterial infection of the sebaceous glands of the acilla by Gram + S. aureaus

Marked by flare ups and resolution

1060
Q

Bariatric sx teaching

A

Average weight loss from gastric band: 40-60% of body weight

About 80% of pts lose a great deal of weight w/o major complications and maintain loss long-term

Expected weight loss form gastric bypass: 70-80% of excess body weight

1061
Q

Angle closure glaucoma sx

A

halos around light

unilateral ocular pain

blurred vision

lacrimation

photophobia

frontal ipsilateral h/a

N&V

1062
Q

H. pylori when to test

Alarm sx

Test of choice

A

Only if clinician plans to offer tx for positive results

pts w/ gastric MALT lymphoma, active peptic ulcer disease, OR past hx of documented peptic ulcer

test and treat stratedgy effective for pts under age 55 w/ uninvestigated dyspepsia w/o alarm features

Alarm features: bleeding, anemia, early satiety, unexplained weight loss, progressive dysphagia, odynophagia recurrent vomiting, family hx of GI ca, previous esophagogastric malignancy

Test of choice:

Test for active infection w/ stool antigen or urea breath test

Serology has low value as it cannot differentiate between past or current infection

Endoscopy bx

For pts who are undergoing dx endoscopy and are found to have an ulcer and those who require endoscopy to follow up a gastric ulcer, or for dx/f/u of suspected MALT lymphoma - biopsy urease testing in pts not taking abx or PPIs (if taking, will interfere w/ test)

RE-TEST

Recommended to confirm eradication

at least four weeks after treatment w/ stool and/or breath test

1063
Q

MRSA tx

skin/soft tissue infection

A

Clindamycin

FDA approved to treat serious infections d/t S. aureus

C-diff associated, uncommon, but more so than other agents

Tetracyclines

Doxy/Mino

FDA-approved for staph

Not recommended during pregnancy

Not recommneded for children

Unknown activity against A. strep

TMP/SMX

Not FDA-approved to treat any staph infection

May not provided coverage for A strep (common cause of cellulitis)

Not recommended for women in third trimester of pregnancy

Not recommended for infants

Rifampin

Use only in combo w/ other agents

Drug-drug interactions common

Linezolid

Consult w/ an ID

FDA-approved for complicated skin infections including MRSA

Assoc. w/ myelosuppresion, neuropathy, lactic acidosis w/ prolonged tx

IMPORTANT

MRSA is resistant to all currently available beta-lactams (PCN, ceph)

Fluroquinolones (cipro, levo) and macrolides (erythro, clarithro, azithro) are not optima flr tx of MRSA SSTI d/t resistance

1064
Q

H. Pylori Abx Tx

A

No PCN allergy w/o hx of macrolide tx:

Standard dose PPI + Clarithro 500mg BID + Amox 1000 mg BID x 10-14d

PCN allergy w/o hx of macrolide tx or unable to tolerate bismuth quadruple tx:

Standard dose PPI + Clarithro 500mg BID + Metronidazole 500 mg BID x 10-14d

PCN allergy quad tx:

Bismuth subsalicylate 525 mg QID, Metronidazole 250 mg QID, Tetracycline 500 mg QID, Ranitidine 150 mg BID (or standard dose PPI QD-BID) x 10-14d

PPI examples: Omeprazole 20 mg BID, Lanzoprazole 30 mg BID

1065
Q

Hemangioma

Clinical presentation

A

Benign tumor of endothelium, local proliferative process

Perhaps genetic mutation of epithelial regulation

Often not present at birth, rapid growth from first days of life to 6 months, slows down 6-12 months

Involution phase from 12 months to age 3-6 years

1/3 present at birth as light port wine stain

1066
Q

Hemangioma tx

A

Active nonintervention for uncomplicated hemangiomas that are not disfiguring: regular monitoring and attention to psychosocial effects

Intervention for lesions at increased risk for complications, scarring, disfigurement

Periorbital - refer to opththalmology, oral propranolol 0.5 - 1mg/kg/day then gradually increase to target 2mg/kg/day

Refer to pediatric derm, vascular anomalies team etc. if tx

Oral propranolol in addition to meticulous wound care and appropriate analgesia for the tx of ulcerate hemangiomas that may cause permanent disfigurement, interfere w/ daily activities, or do not response to wound care measures

Uncommonly used tx: vincristine, interferon alpha, injected corticosteroids, laser therapy

1067
Q

Port wine lesion

clinical presentation

patho

A

disorder of dermal capillaries and post capillary venules

Occassionally assoc w/ other congenital or genetic syndromes (Sturge-Weber, or AV malformation syndrome)

Present at birth

BLANCHABLE from red/dark pink, grows proportionally w/ child

Will darken and often become nodular as child grows, will not regress

Lesions onf ace tend to follow branches of trigeminal nerve

1068
Q

Port Wine Lesion Tx

A

Pulse dye laser therapy - standard, lightens lesion byt does not remove

Referrals:

Ophthalmology if eyelids involved d/t association w/ glaucoma

Neurology if facial lesions assoc. w/ seizures

1069
Q

Mongolian spot

A

Diffuse melanocytes within dermis, d/t interrupted movement during fetal development

Non-tender, blue-black-gray macular, usually lower back and buttocks

Mgmt

Lighten over time and often disappear during childhood

No tx required

No malignancy potential

1070
Q

Milia

A

Retention of keratin and sebaceous material

Raised white bumps, mainly on nose and cheeks

Mgmt:

No tx

Resolve spontaneously within a few weeks

Parent/caregiver eassurance most important intervention

Do not pick at lesions as may cause scarring

1071
Q

Erythema Toxicum Neonatorum

A

Unknown etiology, thought to be immaturity of pilosebaceous glands

Occassionally present at birth, usually appears within first 48 hours and resolves by day 5-7

Erythematous papules that progress to pustular

Mgmt:

Observation, no tx necessary

Resolves spontaneously, reassure parents

30-70% of infants will experience these lesions

1072
Q

Atopic Dermatitis

Patho

Presentation

A

Impaired epidermal layer, w/ impaired barrier allowing irritants into dermis

Decreased water content d/t poor barriers

Itch-scratch cycle worsend condition

Believed to have genetic component

11% of children in the US
- 60% first year of life

  • 85% by age 5
  • 40% resolves by early adulthood

Birth to 2 years: Red, crusty, extensor, face, scalp

2-12 years: Lichenification of flexure surfaces

> 12 years: similar to child but common on hands and feet

1073
Q

Atopic Dermatitis

Mgmt

A

3 prongs:

Eliminate triggers

Hydrate - thick creams/ointments. Avoid lotions

Control itch - sedating antihistamines, topical corticosteroids to control flares

1074
Q

Acne neonatorum

A

Results from stimulation of sebaceous glands by maternal/infant adrogens

Present: face, forehead, nose, cheeks

Acneiform lesions starting in the first month of life, usually lasts 1-2 months

Affects 20% of infants

Mgmt:

Self-resolving

Advise pts/caregive not to pick at lesions

Benzoyl peroxide 2.5% applied to region once a day is acceptable

1075
Q

Infant dyschezia

A

Ineffective defection, manifested by straining in the absence of constipation

Funtional disorder defined as at least 10 minutes of straining/crying before successful passage of soft stool in an otherwise healthy infant

Can occur up to 9 months of age

Resolves spontaneously as infant matures

Reassure parents

1076
Q

Seborrheic dermatitis

A

Usually in areas of dense sebaceous glands (scalp, face, groin, underarms)

Thought to be overstimulation of sebum production

Possibly lipid-dependent yeast

Erythematous plaque, appears greasy w/ yellow scales

Commonly seen in infants but can be present through life

Mgmt:

Apply emollient (petrolatum, vegetable/mineral oil) overnight, then remove plaque w/ soft brush

For other parts of nody: Ketoconazole 2% cream once daily x 1 week or low-dose hydrocortisone 1% daily x 1 week

1077
Q

Keratosis Pilaris

A

Genetic disorder resulting in hyperkeratinization of hair follicles

Rough skin texture, gooseflesh appearance/chicken skin

Usually asymptomatic, occassional pruritus

Worst w/ cold, dry weather

Mgmt

No cure/universally effective tx available

Regular skin care regimen w/ lotions and creams can lead to improvement

Use mild soap/cleansers, lubricate w/ moisturizer

Lactic acid lotions, salicylic acid, alpha-hydroxy acid lotion, topical steroid, retinoid acid

1078
Q

Low cardiac output sx

A

Dyspnea

HF sx

Syncope

Note: when syncope is d/t cardiac, it it d/t bradycardia and/or obstruction

1079
Q

ACS sx women

A

95% reported sx weeks prior to event:

Unusual fatigue (70%), sleep disturbance (48%), SOB (42%)

Indigestion (39%), Anxiety (35%)

Sx of women during ACS:

SOB (58%)

Weakness (55%)

Unusualy fatigue (43%)

Dipahoresis (39%)

Dizziness (39%)

Chest pain/pressure (30%)

No chest discomfort (43%)

1080
Q

ACS in elder

A

Clinical presentation => 75 years:

Dyspnea, Neurological sx (syncope, weakness, acute confusion),

Chest pain/prssure

Be liberal in the EKG in the elder

1081
Q

S1 and S2

valves and systole/diastole

A

S1

Beginning of systole

Closure of MITRAL and TRICUSPID

LUB-dub

S2

End of systole

Closure of AORTIC and PULMONIC

lub-DUB

“MTAP”

Both heard best w/ diaphragm

1082
Q

Physiologic split S2

A

Benign, document, no f/u needed

Widening of normal interval between aortic and pulmonic valves

Caused by delay of pulmonic component

Heard best pulmonic region

Split INcreases on patient INspiration

Found in the majority of adults

1083
Q

Only congenital heart defect found in more females than males

F > M

A

Atrial Septal Defect

1084
Q

Pathologic Split S2

A

Fixed split, no change w/ inspiration

Paradoxical split - narrows or closes w/ inspiration

Heard best in pulmonic region

Fixed split often found in uncorrected septal defect

Paradoxical split often found in conditions that delay aortic closure such as LBBB
Resolve w/ tx of underlying condition

1085
Q

Pathologic S3

A

Marker of ventricular overload and/or systolic dysfunction

Heard best in early diastole, can sound like it is “hooked on” to the back of S2

LOW pitch, best heard w/ bell

For dx of HF, correlated w/ sx such as dyspnea, tachycardia, crackles

Can resolve w/ tx of underlying condition

May not be heard if pt is euvolemic

1086
Q

Pathologic S4

A

Marker of poor diastolic function, most often found in poorly controlled HTN or recurrent MI

Heard late in diastole, sounds like it is “hooked on” to front of S1

Sometimes called a “pre-sysolic” sound

Soft, low-pitch but higher pitch than S3

Best heared w/ BELL of steth

Can resolve w/ tx of underlying condition

1087
Q

Grading of heart murmurs

A

I - very faint, may not be auscultated unless thin chest wall and ideal circumstances - typically no clinical consequence

II - Quiet but immediatley heard

III - Moderately loud w/o thrill - as loud as S1 and S2

IV - Loud w/ thrill

V - Very loud w/ Thrill

VI - Audible w/o stethoscope

1088
Q

Murmur character and example

A

Harsh - heard well w/ both bell/diaphragm, aortic stenosis

Rumble - LOW, heard best w/ bell, mitral stenosis

Blowing - HIGH, heard best/ diaphragm, aortic regurgitation

Musical - vibratory quality - Still murmur

1089
Q

Systolic murmurs

Benign s/sx

A

Likely benign

Consider benign if all noted:

Negative hx

Lower grade (Grade III or lower)

No radiation

S1 S2 intact

No heave/thrill

PMI WNL

Softens or disappears w/ supine to stand

1090
Q

Systolic murmur

Pathologic s/sx

A

Consider pathologic (order echocardiogram) until proven otherwise if => 1 of the following present:

Abnormal Hx

Higher grade > Grade III

Radiation

S1 S2 obliterated

w/ Thrill or heave

PMI displaced

Increases w/ intensity w/ supine to stand

1091
Q

Radiating murmur vs Carotid artery bruit

A

Carotid bruit: usually softer, often unilateral, differtn sound than that of chest

Radiating murmur: louder, bilateral, same sound and timing as found in chest

1092
Q

Cardiac Arrest

A

CVD 56% - hypertrophic cardiomyopathy most commonly implicated, 1/3 of all deaths

Blunt trauma causing structural changes to heart 22% - eg. cardiac concusion, likely induces VF, baseball, basketball most commonly associated

Commotio cordis 4% - likkely underreported, a chest blow that interrupts cardiac rhythm WITHOUT visible cardiac injury

Heat stroke 2% - likely d/t HYPERKALEMIA induced by extensive tissue damage

1093
Q

How many weeks

Uterus grapefruit size/softball size

A

12 weeks

1094
Q

Risk fx for Gastric Ulcer

A

NSAID

Corticosteroid use

Cigarette smoking

1095
Q

Aortic Regurgitation

A

High pitched

Diastolic murmur

heard best at R side of sternum 2nd ICS

1096
Q

Normal serum creatinine

A

FEMALES: 0.6 - 1.1

MALES: 0.7 - 1.3

1097
Q

Latex allergy cross reaction w/ what fruits

A

Kiwi

Bananas

Avocadoes

1098
Q

Pregabalin

A

Lyrica

FDA approved for pain reduction in fibromyalgia

1099
Q

Tx goals endometriosis

A

Pain relief

Controlling endometrial patch growth

Preserving fertility

Tx options: Hormonal contraception, Provera tabs PO, NSAIDs

1100
Q

Blepharitis

A

Inflammation of the eyelids

Mgmt:

Good lid hygiene mainstay

Warm compresses

Lid massage

Lid washing - very dilute baby shampoo

Avoid vigorous washing

Topical azithromycin 1% ophthalmic up to 4x/a day x 4 weeks an option to minimize bacterial overgrowth, may relieve s/sx. Ointment can blur vision after application

Oral abx in severe cases - tetracyclines, azithro

Doxy 100 mg daily x 2-4 weeks

Z-pak

1101
Q

PID complications

A

Infertility in 10-30% of pts after first episode of PID

Increased risk of ectopic pregnancy d/t scarred fallopian tubes

Fitz-Hugh-Curtis syndrome occurs in 5-30% of cases of pelvic infection (perihepatitis - severe RUQ abd pain pleuritic, might refer to right shoulder)

1102
Q

Lipid abnormalities in chornic renal insufficiency

A

Elevated total cholesterol and TG

1103
Q

Lipid abnormality in chronic inactivity

A

Low HDL

1104
Q

Lipid abnormality w/ ETOH abuse

A

Elevated TG

Elevated HDL

Elevated LDL

1105
Q

Lipid abnormality in untreated/undertreated hypothyroidism

A

Elevated total cholesterol

Elevated TG

Elevated LDL

1106
Q

Rheumatic fever

A

Inflammatory disease that is most common cause of ACQUIRED heart diseae in children

Usually affects aortic and mitral valves

Associated w/ strep infection

Collagen disease that injures heart, blood vessels, joints, and subcutaneous tissue

1107
Q

Eating disorder s/sx

A

Orthostatic hypotension

Yellowing of skin

Brittle nails

Pruritus

Halitosis

Decreased temp

Bradycardia

Arrhythmia

1108
Q

PCOS tx

A

Spironolactone to decrease/control hirsutism

Low-dose OCP to suppress ovaries

Provera tablets to induce menses

Glucophage to induce ovulation if pregnancy desired

1109
Q

Diverticulitis s/sx

A

LLQ pain after eating

Depressed owel sounds (increased if obstruction)

Tender, firm, palpable mass in left iliac fossa

tender rectum

hemorrhoids

1110
Q

S4 conditions

A

Most frequent observed in patients w/ decreased left ventricular distensibility

Common in hypertensive heart disease, aortic stenosis, hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

LVH - present in all these conditions

1111
Q

S3 conditions

A

Occurs in high-output states such as thyrotoxicosis or pregnancy

Almost always present in patients w/ hemodynamically significant chronic mitral regurgitation

S3 gallop - important and early finding of HF assoc w/ dilated cardiomyopathy and may also be heard in pts w/ diastolic HF (S3 being heard in systolic HF more common)

1112
Q

Bromocriptine pharm class

A

Dopamine agonist

used in PD

1113
Q

Glaucoma susceptibility risk fx

A

Corticosteroid tx

Eye inflammation/trauma

Neoplasm

Neovascularization

Increasing age

1114
Q

Herbal/nutritional therapies for prostatic disease

A

Rye

Palmetto

Pumpkin

pending further studies

considered emerging tx by the AUA

1115
Q

Paroxysmal stage pertussis

A

lingering cold

Nasal sx are usually resolved

Cough worsens because pathogen attached to respiratory cilia and produced toxins that paralyze cilia and induce inflammation of respiratory tract

1116
Q

Hearing loss decibels

A

Mild hearing loss: 26-40 dB

Moderate hearing loss: 41-55 dB

Profound hearing loss: > 91 dB

1117
Q

Uterine fibroids dx imaging

A

Hysterosonogram

Procedure - uterus is filled w/ saline and transvaginal pelvic U/S is performed

1118
Q

Cholelithiasis risk fx

A

female gender

Obesity

HL

rapid weight loss (e.g. in bariatric sx)

age > 50 years

pregnancy

genetic fx

diet w/ high glycemic index

1119
Q

corticosteroid tx of Osgood Schlatter?

A

Do not use in OS

May weaken quadriceps tendon

May produce cutaneous thinnking

May produce depigmentation

1120
Q

Preeclampsia

Define

A

Disease of widespread vascular endothelial malfunction and vasospasm that develops after 20th week of pregnancy up to 4-6 weeks postpartum

1121
Q

Preeclampsia Risk Fx

A

Age > 40

First pregnancy

Pregestational DM

High BMI

Primary HTN

Renal Disease

Family Hx

Multiple gestation

African ancestry

Emerging risk fx: Vit D Def, Maternal periodontal disease

1122
Q

Preeclampsia Clinical Presentation

A

Elevated BP > 140/90 or w/ preexisting HTN, if SBP increased by 30 mmHg or DBP by 15mmHg

Must be on successive measurements 4-6 hours apart within 1 week

Proteinuria > 300 mg/24 h or 1+ on 2 random urines at least 6 hours apart within 1 week

Sudden increase in edema or onset of facial edema suggestive of preeclampsia but not required for dx

1123
Q

Preeclampasia Tx

A

Prompt recognition

Rest

Maternal and fetal monitoring

Anti-HTN meds w/ > 160/110 (either)

Anticonvulsant meds including Mg

Birth

1124
Q

When is birth Tx for Preeclampsia

A

Mom:

GA 37 weeks or >

Uncontrollable BP

Platelet count

Suspected abruption, ruptured membrane

Pulmonary edema

SOB or CP w/ O2 sat > 94% on RA

Deteriorating hepatic/renal function

Persistent h/a, vision change, epigastric pain, N&V

Baby:

Severe growth restriction

Non-reassurign fetal test results

Oligohydramnios

1125
Q

1-6 months language milestone

A

Coos in response to voice

1126
Q

6-9 months language milestone

A

Babbles

1127
Q

10-11 months language milestone

A

Imitates sounds, nonspecific mama, papa

1128
Q

12 months language milestone

A

Specific mama, papa, 2-3 syllable words imitated

1129
Q

13-15 months language milestone

A

4-7 words, jargon,

1130
Q

16-18 months language milestone

A

Extensive jargon, 20-25% of speech understood by strangers

1131
Q

19-21 months language milestone

A

20 words, 50% speech understood by strangers

1132
Q

22-24 months language milestone

A

> 50 words, 2-word phrases, less jargon, 60-70% of speech understood by strangers

1133
Q

2-2.5 years language milestone

A

400 or > words

2-3 word phrases, uses pronouns

75% speech understood by strangers

1134
Q

3-4 years language milestone

A

3-6 word sentences

asks questions, tells stories

Nearly all speech understood by strangers

1135
Q

4-5 years language milestone

A

6-8 word sentences

Names 4 colors

Counts 10 objects correctly

1136
Q

Newborn Developmental Milestones

A

Moves all extremities

Reacts to sound by blinking/turning

Well-developed sense of smell

Preference for higher pitched voices

Reflexes: tonic neck, palmar grasp, babinski, rooting, suck

Able to be calmed by feeding, cuddling

Responds to cries of other neonates

Reinforces presence of developmental tasks seen in exam room

1137
Q

1-2 months developmental milestones

A

Lifts head

Hold head erect

Follows objects through visual field

Moro reflex fading

Spontaneous smile

Recognizes parents

1138
Q

3-5 months developmental milestones

A

Reaches for objects

Brings objects ot mouth

Raspberry sounds

Sits w/ support

Rolls back to sdie

Laughs

Recognizes food by sight

1139
Q

6-8 months developmental milestones

A

Sits briefly w/o support

Scoops small object w/ rake grip, some thumb use

Hand to hand transfer

Recognizes “no”

1140
Q

9-11 months developmental milestones

A

Stands alone

Imitates peek-a-boo

Picks up small object w/ thumb and index finger

Cruises

Follows simple commands such as “Come here”

1141
Q

12-15 months developmental milestones

A

Walks solo

Neat pincher grasp

Place cube in cup

Tower of 2 bricks

Scribbles spontaneously

Indicates wants by pointing

Hands over objects on request

1142
Q

15-20 months developmental milestones

A

Points to several body parts

Uses spoon w/ little spilling

Walks up and down steps w/ help

Understands 2-step commands

Feeds self

Seats self in chair

Carries and hugs doll

1143
Q

24 months developmental milestones

A

Kicks ball upon request

Jumps w/ both feet

Developing handedness

Copies vertical and horizontal line

Washes and dries hands

Parallel play

1144
Q

30 months developmental milestones

A

Walks backwards

Hops on one foot

Copies circle

Gives first and last name

1145
Q

36 months developmental milestone

A

Holds crayons w/ fingers

Walks down stairs w/ alternating steps

Rides tricycle

Copies circles

Dresses w/ supervision

1146
Q

3-4 years developmental milestone

A

Responds to command to place object in, on, or under table

Draws circle when one is shown

Takes off jacket and shoes

Washes and dries face

Cooperative play

Knows gender

1147
Q

4-5 years developmental milestone

A

Runs and turns w/ balance

Stands on 1 foot for at least 10 sec

Counts to 4

Draws person w/o torso

Copies + by imitation

Buttons clothes

Dresses self except tying shoes

Can play w/o adult input for about 30 min

Verbalizes activities to do when cold, hungry, tired

1148
Q

5-6 years developmental milestones

A

Catches ball

Knows age

Knows right/left hand

draws person w/ 6-8 body parts including torso

Able to complete simple chores

sense of gender

identifies best friend

Likes teacher

1149
Q

6-7 years developmental milestone

A

copies triangle

draws person w/ at least 12 parts

Prints name

reads multiple single syllable words

counts to 30 or beyond

Ties shoes laces

generally plays well w/ peers

no significant behavioral problems in school

Names intended career

1150
Q

7-8 years developmental milestone

A

copies a diamond

Able to read simple sentences

Draws a person w/ at least 16 parts

Ties shoes

Knows day of the week

1151
Q

8-9 years developmental milestone

A

able to add, subtact, borrow, carry

Understands concept of working as a team

able to give response to question such as what to do if an object is accidentally broken

1152
Q

Plumbism

A

Lead poisoning

1153
Q

Plumbism most common source

A

Lead-based paint, found in majority of homes built before 1957 if not deleaded

Banned since 1978 - lead paint use

Risk increases if lead-based painted home is undergoing renovation

1154
Q

Plumbism greatest risk group

A

Young child living in/frequently visiting a home w/ lead-based paint/built before 1957, undergoing renovation

Less common is a young child w/ an adult whose hobby/work involves lead exposure or who lives near industrial area where lead release is likely

1155
Q

Plumbism greatest risk age

A

2-3 years if lead-based paint is source

all children 6 years and

All ages at risk for non-paint source

Plumbism from pain source uncommon in > 4 years unless developmental disability or pica present

Additional household Pb sources: unregulated toys, inexpensive jewelry

1156
Q

Lead risk products/sources aside from paint

folk remedies

A

Folk remedies (up to 30%)

Great and Azarcon (aka alarcon, coral, luiga, maria luisa, rueda) are traditional remedies used in Latino communities to tx upset stomach. Fine orange powders w/ lead content as high as 90%

Ghasard, Indian folk remedy used as tonic

Ba-baw-san Chinese folk remedy used to tx colic

Candies produced in Mexico may contain lead

Lead-based products used in stained glass and bullet making

1157
Q

Lead poisoning prevention

A

focus on child 6 years and

Test at risk housing for lead-based paint

If de-leading is moving not an option:

keep child away from peeling paint or chewable surfaces, create barriers between living/play areas and lead sources, regularly wash children’s hands and toys to remove paint dust, regularly wet-mop floors and wet-wipe window components to keep paint dust contained, prevent children from playing in bare soil, if possible provide sandboxes, soil around foundation of a building painted w/ lead based pain often contains high levels of lead

1158
Q

Clinical presentation of lead poisoning

A

Few manifestations, if any

Environmental hx is critical to identify children at risk

Severe: anorexia, constipation, recurrent abd pain

1159
Q

Plumbism tx

A

First line: remove Pb hazard

Chelation tx for higher levels - mainstay for blood levels > 45 ug/dL

Expert in mgmt of lead chemotherapy should be consulted prior to use of chelation agents

Tx per blood level:

If

10-14 - Repeat and confirm within 1 month, avoid exposure, repeat testing in 3 months

15-19 - Repeat and confirm within 1 month, avoid exposure, repeat testing in 2 months

20-44 - Repeat to confirm within 1 week, aggressive hazard mgmt, environmental assessment by local health dept, intervention to reduce exposure

45-69 - Repeat to confirm within 2 days, aggressive environmental intervention to reduce exposure, chelation tx

>69 - Medical emergency, repeat testing immediately to confirm, begin chelation tx, hospitalize patient, w/ care by experts in plumbism

1160
Q

alterations in growth children

A

BMI - age and gender specific

Overweight > 95th percentile

Risk of overweight 85-95th percentile

Underweight

Indicators of nutritional status:

HC for age 95th percetile

HC reflects brain size, often used to screen for potential developmental problems from birth to 24 months

Length or short stature for age

consider familial short stature

Stunted growth d/t long-term malnutrition, delayed maturation, chronic illness, genetic disorder

Underweight for length

Recent or chronic malnutrition, dehydration, genetic disorder

1161
Q

IUGR definition

A

Fetal weight less than 10th percentile for GA

Typical initial finding: uterine size less than anticipated for GA

1162
Q

SGA definition

Small for gestational age

A

Infant weight

1163
Q

What problems can occur at birth w/ IUGR?

A

Low Apgar

Meconium aspiration

Hypoglycemia

Poor body temp regulation

Polycythemia

Intrauterine asphyxia

1164
Q

Maternal fx contributing to IUGR

A

Any condition that can lead to decreased uterine and placental blood flow: stress, HTN, smoking, use of vasoconstrictors such as cocaine, meth, advanced DM w/ vascular disease, kidney disease

Any condition that can lead to decreased oxygen carrying capability: poorly controlled asthma or other pulmonary disease, smoking, profound anemia, heart disease

Other fx: insufficient prenatal, malnutrition of poor weight gain, chronic infection, placenta previa

1165
Q

Infant fx contributing to IUGR

A

Chromosomal defects

Multiparity

1166
Q

Tx - IUGR

A

Confirm condition

Continue to monitor w/ serial U/S and appropriate testing of fetal well-being (kick count, non-stress test, biophysical profile

1167
Q

Macrosomia definition

A

Birth weight > 90th percentile for GA after correcting for neonatal sex and ethnicity

Typical initial finding - uterine size > anticipated GA though of limited accuracy

U/S eval positive predictive value of 30-44%

1168
Q

What problems might occur at birth w/ macrosomic infant?

A

Most commonly:

shoulder dystocia

Perinatal asphyxia

Respiratory distress syndrome

In cases of poorly controlled maternal DM, additional fetal or neonal risks (e.g. hypoglycemia)

1169
Q

Maternal fx contributing to macrosomia

A

Maternal DM w/ poor glycemic control

Glucose intolerance

Excessive maternal prepregnancy weight/stature

Excessive weight gain during pregnancy

Previous hx of macrosomic infant

Postdate gestation

1170
Q

Infant fx contributing to macrosomia

A

Multiparity

Male fetus

1171
Q

What monitoring or intervention is recommended for infant w/ macrosomia

A

Tight glycemic control

Elective caesarean delivery (not supported in literture, though possibly indicated if fetal weight > 4,500 g, hx of cesarean delivery and/or shoulder distocia)

1172
Q

Age related changes % water percentage body

A

60% at age 20-30

to

53% at age 60-80

1173
Q

Lean body mass reduction at age 60-80

A

=>20% reduction

1174
Q

Age related changes at age 60-80

Serum albumin

Body fat %

Kidney weight

hepatic blood flow

A

Increased body fat

38-45% in women

36-38% in men

Decreased serum albumin (avg 3.8g/dL from 4.7g/dL avg at 20-30y)

80% of relative kidney weight

55-60% relative hepatic blood flow

1175
Q

Caffeine

pharmacokinetics

A

Half life of 1.5 to 9 hours

Cmax 15-100 min

Minimum first pass effect

CYP450 1A2 substrate

  • CYP450 isoenzyme levels can drop by up to 30% in elders by age 70
  • CYP450 1A2 activity influence by estrogen in women
1176
Q

Anticholinergics in Elderly

A

Avoid drugs w/ systemic anticholinergic effect

Risk of confusion, urinary retention, constipation, visual disturbance, hypotension

If unavoidable, choose product w/ least amount of this effect

1177
Q

Medications w/ significant anticholinergic effects

Examples

A

1st generation antihistamines (Chlorpherniramine, Diphenhydramine, Hydoxizine, Cyproheptadine, Promethazine) - clearance reduced w/ advanced age, tolerance develops if these products are used as a hypnotic

Doxepin (Sinequan, Silenor) - sleep aid - avoid in elderly

1178
Q

OAB drugs and anticholinergic effect in elderly

A

Desired effect for OAB

Oxybutynin (Ditropan) - sustained release better tolerated w/ similar therapeutic efficacy

1179
Q

TCAs in elderly

Amitriptyline vs nortriptyline

A

Amitriptyline is prodrug of nortriptyline

Nortriptyline is a metabolite of Amitriptyline

Nortriptyline has 50% less anticholinergic effect

1180
Q

Anticholinergic effect summary

A

Dry as a bone (dry mouth)

Red as a beet (flushing)

Mad as a hatter (confusion)

Hot as a hare (hyperthermia)

Can’t see (vision changes)

Can’t pee (urinary retention)

Can’t spit (dry mouth)

Can’t shit (constipation)

1181
Q

Antiarrhythmic drugs in Elderly

A

Avoid as first line tx of A-Fib

Rate control yields better balance of benefits and harms than rhythm control in older adults

Amiodarone is assoc. w/ multiple toxicities including thyroid dx, pulmonary disorders, and QT prolongation

Irreversible pulmonary fibrosis

long QT = sudden cardiac death risk V-Fib, V-Tach

1182
Q

Topical vaginal cream in elderly

A

Topical low-dose intravaginal estrogen acceptable to tx dyspareunia, lower UTI, vaginal sx in elderly

Typically do not tx asymptomatic bacteriuria in elderly

low estrogen dose okay to use w/o progestin opposition in elderly

1183
Q

ASA in elderly for cardiac events prevention

A

Lack of evidence of benefit vs risk at age 80 or >

Use w/ caution

1184
Q

Dabigatran (Pradaxa) in Elderly

A

Greater risk of bleeding than w/ Warfarin in adults 75 years and >

Lack of evidence for efficacy and safety in pts with Cr Cl > 30 mL/min (0.5 mL/s)

1185
Q

A1C goal in elderly, frail, or life expectancy 5 years or

A
1186
Q

Dietary supplements in elderly

rate

A

50% rate of use

Increase over time and w/ advancing age

e.g. Ginkgo, ginseng, garlic - the 3 Gs w/ antiplatelet effect, problematic w/ prescription antiplatelet meds

1187
Q

Most commonly used herbal product w/ antiplatelet effect

A

Ginkgo biloba

Garlic

Ginseng

3 G’s

1188
Q

St. John’s Wort

Pharmacodynamics

Drug Drug

A

CYP450 3A4 inducer

Potential for serotonin syndrome when taken w/ SSRI

1189
Q

Valerian root

A

GABA agonist

Sedating

Not to be used w/ benzo, ETOH, sedative-hypnotics

1190
Q

Kava

A

similar effect to benzo

hepatotoxicity potential

1191
Q

Echinacea

A

May have immune stimulating effects

Evidence does not support efficacy in treating or preventing common cold

Not to be recommended

However, appears relatively safe, although GI side effects and allergic reactions have been reported

May interfere w/ immunosuppressant tx

1192
Q

Saw Palmetto

A

Large high quality studies have not shown saw plametto to be effective in tx of BPH

Do not recommend

Appears well-tolerated, rare serious side effects

1193
Q

Zollinger Ellison syndrome short definition

A

Hyper acid secretion syndrome

1194
Q

PPI long-term use adverse effects

A

Rebound hypersecretion in 60-90% using PPIs for more than 2 months

Explains increaed GI sx w/ discontinuation

Consider tapering medication w/ reducing dose, followed by QOD use, H2RA, antacid use w/ sx

Potential decrease in absorption of select micronutrients such as Iron, B12

Supplementation needs not established

Increased fx risk - calcium supplement - choose Calcium citrate as absorption is less affected by gastric acidity

Decreased magnesium absorption - increased risk w/ Mg depleting med like Thiazides/Loop diuretics, Digoxin toxicity risk increased w/ low Mg

1195
Q

H2 receptor antagonists

use

examples

A

Inhibit acid secretion by blocking histamine H2 receptors on the parietal cell

Examples: cimetidine, ranitidine, famotidine, nizatidine

Achieve less acid suppression than PPIs

1196
Q

Hypomagenesemia sx

A

Muscle cramps, heart palpitations, dizziness, tremors, seizures

Preferred dx: 24 hour urine Mg

(Serum Mg very poor reflection of Mg status)

1197
Q

Hypomagnesemia tx

A

Elemental Mg (lactate or gluconate preferred) 200-400 mg daily

lower dose recommended in renal impairment

1198
Q

PPI and plavix interaction

A

CYP450 2C19 inhibition by PPI

=

20-40% decrease in antiplatelet effect

recommend: separate by 12-20 hours

1199
Q

Beta adrenergic agents and age related effects in elderly

A

Decreased therapeutic effect

Beta 2 agonists such as albuterol

Beta antagonists such as metropolol, carvedilol

d/t decrease in beta receptors in aging (lungs and heart)

1200
Q

Inhaled anticholinergic and elderly for bronchodilation

A

Add to bronchodilator in elderly

less age-related impact

e.g. tiotropium, ipratropium bromide

1201
Q

CCBs in eldelry

Dihydropyridines vs nonDPH

A

Dihydropyridines (DPH) such as Amlodipine = most powerful BP reduction regardless of race, preferred

Non-DPH such as verapamil and diltiazem = increased sensitivity to PR-prolonging effects in the elder, blunts HR,

1202
Q

Macrobid and renal impairment in elderly

A

If Cr Cl > 50 mg/dL - standard dosing for tx of UTI

If Cr Cl

Decreased concentration of abx in urinary tract

1203
Q

Cipro in renal impairment/elderly

A

If Cr Cl => 30 mL/min = no change in dose = 250-750 BID

If Cr Cl

1204
Q

Bactrim in Elderly/renal impairment

A

Cr Cl > 30 ml/min = no change 1 DS tab BID

Cr Cl 15-20 ml/min = 1 DS tab every 24 hr or 1 SS tab every 12 hours

Cr Cl

1205
Q

Fosfomycin use in UTI

A

Likely effective against ESBL producing strains, most often K. pneumo, E. coli, Acinetobacter

Half life increases to 50 hours in renal impairment

1206
Q

CrCl vs GFR

A

Cr Cl approximates GFR but might overestimate d/t creatinine secreted by proximal tubule, filtered by the glomerulus

1207
Q

GFR in healthy young adult

A

150 mL/min

1208
Q

GFR of 60 mL/min CKD?

A

Stage II-III CKD

1209
Q

Fx that might effect Serum Creatinine concentration

A

Muscular bulk = increased d/t muscle metab

Malnutrition, muscle wasting, amputation = reduced d/t reduced muscle mass and/or reduced protein intake

Vegetarian diet = decrease in creatinine generation

Ingestion of cooked meats = transient increase in creatinine generation, might be blunted w/ transient increase in GFR

Older age = reduction in creatinine generation, age-related decline in muscle mass

Female sex = reduced d/t reduced muscle mass

Obesity = no change, excess mass is fat

1210
Q

When should 24 hour urine collection for creatinine clearance be performed?

A

Extremes of age and body size

Severe malnutrition/obesity

Disease of skeletal muscle

Paraplegia/quadriplegia

Vegetarian diet

Rapidly changing kidney function

Pregnancy

1211
Q

Impact of aging on kidney

A

Decreased renal blood flow d/t reduction in CO

=

Less reserve, increased risk of drug-induced nephrotoxicity

1212
Q

ACEI and hyperkalemia intervention

A

Assure adequate hydration

Take ACEI dose in the morning to allow for overnight excretion of renal potassium to avoid hyperkalemia

1213
Q

Cholinesterase inhibitor use in Alzheimers

Adverse effects

A

Increased risk for syncope, bradycardia, pacemaker insertion, hip fx

Weigh against the drug’s generally modest benefits in AD

1214
Q

Second Generation Antipsychotics and the Elderly

A

Increased risk of death w/ SGA

1215
Q

Celexa in elderly (citalopram)

A

If > 40 mg (in all ages) = QT prolongation effect w/ no additional benefit

Max dose of 20 mg/daily in elderly

Contraindicated in: congenital long QT syndrome, bradycardia, hypokalemia, hypomagnesemia, recent acute MI, or uncompensated HF, other drugs that prolong QT

Max dose of 20 mg/daily in: age > 60y, hepatic impairment, concomitant cimetidine, many PPIs

1216
Q

Citalopram and long QT when to discontinue

A

In pts found to have persistent QTc measurements > 500 ms

Discontinue Citalopram

1217
Q

Enteric coated iron

A

all extended release products are released in the jejunum

Decreased pH in the elder, reduced ability to dissolve the enteric coating

Avoid!

1218
Q

Fluroquinolones (-floxacins) and calcium supplements/antacids

A

Do not take within 2 hours of each other

d/t chelation effect

1219
Q

Somatization

A

expression of psychological stress through physical sx

somatoform disorders demonstrate mind-body interactions that cause real distress to pt

Eg. hypochondriasis, pain disorder, coversion disorder

1220
Q

What part of the eye is used for color perception?

A

Cones

1221
Q

complications from Lyme disease examples

A

Lyme carditis

Lyme meningitis

Facial nerve paralysis

Lyme encephalitis

Lyme arthritis

1222
Q

Allegra and dietary interaction

A

Grapefruit and other citrus fruits are known to inhibit Allegra and reduce effectiveness

1223
Q

Lyme disease tx pregnant

A

Amoxicillin 250-500 mg TID x 10-21d

(for pregnant, lactation, and

1224
Q

Ishihara chart

A

Used to test for color blindness

1225
Q

Psoriasis - avoid what as it can cause rebound flares?

A

Systemic steroids

1226
Q

Actinic keratosis f/u frequency

A

every 6 months

New lesions frequently occur

Development of skin ca can occur

1227
Q

Infant with sickle cell f/u frequency

A

every 3 months until 2 years of age

then every 6 months until age 5

then yearly

1228
Q

Ankle brachial index severity levels

A

> 0.9 normal

  1. 6-0.8 moderate
  2. 5 and
1229
Q

Normal serum AST

A

5-50 u/L

1230
Q

Normal ALT

A

10-35 iu/L

1231
Q

32 y/o F

Achy, nausea x 3 weeks

Very dark urine

Temp 100.7 F

long-term hx of mulitple male sexual partners

Suspected Dx?

A

Hep B

Order Hep B surface antigen

1232
Q

Herpangina

A

Acute viral illness causing fever, ulcerative mouth lesions, cough, coryza, and pharyngitis

Seen more frequent in temperate climates (summer and fall)

Fever may be as high as 106F

Malaise, headache, backache, anorexia, drooling, vomiting, diarrhea

Supportive Tx

Resolution typically within 7 days

1233
Q

Adam position

A

Dx for scoliosis

Child bends forward w/ head and hands down

Assess rib hump or prominence

1234
Q

Rubella school exclusion

A

German measles

Stay home from school for 7 days after onset of rash

Supportive tx

Rest and fluids

1235
Q

Scarlet fever sx appear after infection

A

Rash and sx appear within a day or two of infection

Scarlet fever produces flushed face, pinpoint red papules w/ a sandpaper-like rash

Sx: sore throat, h/a, strawberry tongue

1236
Q

Most common risk fx for bladder ca

A

Cigarette smoking

1237
Q

Most common type of kidney stones

A

Calcium

Can occur in two forms:

Calcium oxalate or calcium phosphate

1238
Q

Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea define

A

SOB that occurs at night, characterized by sudden awakening after few hours of sleep, w/ feeling of anxiety, breathlessness, and suffocation

1239
Q

Risk fx for asthma death

A

Infants

Previous severe exacerbations

2 or more hospitalizations in the past year

3 or more ER visits in the past year

hospital/ER in the last month

Poort patient perception of sx

Lack of written asthma care plan

Sensitivity to Alternaria

Low socioeconomic status

Illicit drug use

Major psychosocial problems

Comorbidities (CV, COPD)

Major psychological disease

1240
Q

Severe acne define

A

> 5 nodules or

Total inflammatory lesion count > 50

Total lesion count > 125

1241
Q

Moderate acne define

A

20-100 comedones or

15-50 inflammatory lesions or

total lesion count 30-125

1242
Q

Mild acne define

A

Fewer than 15 inflammatory lesions or

Total lesion count

1243
Q

Pancreatitis dx imaging

A

Abdominal CT provides diagnostic view of inflamed pancreas

Abd U/S can dx gallbladder disease but does not help with pancreatitis d/t limited view of the organ

If Amylase and Lipase are 3x the upper limit of normal and gut perf/infarct have been ruled out, these lab values are diagnostic for pancreatitis

Concurrently order lipase w/ amylase as amylase can e elevated in other conditions such as perforated duodenal ulcer and other abdominal emergencies, lipase will increase dx specificity for pancreatitis

1244
Q

Most accurate dx test for DVT in a 2nd or 3rd trimester pregnant woman

A

MRI

MRI is more accurate in the s_econd or third trimester of pregnancy_ than Duplex U/S because the gravid uterus alters venous flow characteristics

1245
Q

How long should anticoagulant tx be after first DVT episode? Minimum

A

3-6 months

If > 1 episode, lifelong

1246
Q

Fioricet drug components

A

Caffeine

Butalbital

Acetaminophen

- Inexpensive and generally well-tolerated h/a tx

Helps relieve migraine and tesion-type headache pain

1247
Q

First line tx PTSD

A

SSRI (sertraline, venlafaxine) to treat arousal sx and associated depression

1248
Q

Normal PSA level

A
1249
Q

Common sites of fx in osteoporosis

A

hips, wrist, vertebrae

1250
Q

HTN control reduces heart failure by %

A

50%

1251
Q

HTN control reduces stroke incidence by %

A

35-40%

1252
Q

HTN control reduces MI by %

A

20-30%

1253
Q

Theories of aging psychosocial

A

Disengagement theory

Activity theory

Continuity theory

1254
Q

Antacids

when is it best taken

w/ other drugs?

A

Antacids are most effecive when used 1-3 hours after meals and at bedtime

Antacids neutralize that secreted acids and inactivate pepsin and bile salts

Interact w/ many other medications, should be used at least 2 hours apart

Fluroquinolones - antacid shoudl be used 2-4 hours before or 4-6 hours after the fluoroquinolone

1255
Q

Contraception recommendation ratings

A

1 = No restriction

2 = Generally can use

3 = Generally do not use

4 = Do not use

1256
Q

Woman is not pregant - reasonably certain

A

No sx of pregnancy AND

No intercourse since start of last menses

Correctly and considently using a reliable method of contraception

Within 4 weeks postpartum

Fully or nearly fully breastfeeding (>85% of needs), amenorrheic, and

1257
Q

How to start COC/Patch/Ring

A

Sunday start - start COC/patch/ring on Sunday after menses begin - so that menses occur during week not weekend if using hormone-free week monthly, back up for 7 days needed

First day of menses start - No back up needed

Quick start - not pregnant, start COC/patch/ring that day, back up for 7 days

Jump start - unprotected intercourse since LMP, prescribe ECP, start COc, patch, ring that day, use back up for 7 days

1258
Q

Abx and OCP

A

Do not interact, but abx reduces gut flora

continue OCP

Use back up for duration of abx + 7 days

1259
Q

Progestin only pill and HTN woman > 35 w/ adequate control

Recommendation?

A

1 = no restriction

1260
Q

Progestin only pill, HTN woman > 35 w/ poor control

Recommendation?

A

1 = no restriction SBP

1261
Q

Rifampin CYP450 what?

A

Inducer

1262
Q

Spotting on hormonal contraception while on an interacting med

A

OCP failure - spotting ocurs while on abx, woman thinks its her period and stop taking the pill!

Teach:

Continue to take OCP even if spotting occurs

Use backup method for duration of time taking the interacting medication + 7 days

1263
Q

Gastric bypass and OCP

Category ?

A

Category 3

Exercise caution

Gastric bypass = duodenum gets bypassed = decreased OCP absorption

1264
Q

COC and postpartum

A

COC is NOT acceptable the first 3 weeks postpartum

Post partum is a prothrombotic state

May decrease quantity of breastmilk

1265
Q

Copper containing IUD

Mechanism of Action

A

Foreign body effect

results in sterile inflammatory response that is toxic to sperm and ova

impairs implantation

Local uterine changes enhances by presence of copper

Approved to remain in place for 10 years, likely effective up to 20 years

1266
Q

Levonorgestrel containing IUD

Mechanism of action

A

Foreign body effect

Sterile inflammatory response that is toxic to sperm and ova

imapirs implantation

Local uterine changes = thickening of cervical mucus d/t progestin, results in physical barrier to prevent sperm from entering

Progestin also induces endometrial thinning, discourages implantation

Approved for 5 years - Mirena

Approved for 3 years = Skyla

1267
Q

Antiepileptics and OCPs

A

Systemic OCPs interact w/ many anti-seizure medications

1268
Q

Mirena/Copper IUD

45 y/o nulliparous woman category?

A

2 = generally can use

1269
Q

Mirena/Copper IUD

33 y/o who smoke 2 PPD

Category?

A

1 = no restrictions

1270
Q

Mirena/Copper IUD

25 y/o w/ seizure disorder

Category ?

A

1 = no restrictions

*Systemic OCPs interact w/ seizure meds so not preferred in pts w/ seizure disorder

1271
Q

Mirena/Copper IUD

33 y/o w/ HIV w/o AIDS defining illness

Category ?

A

2 = generally can use

1272
Q

Contraceptive Implant

A

Etonogestrel - Nexplanon/Implanon

Provides daily constant release of low dose progestin

Effective for at least 3 years

Adverse effects: irregular bleeding, can be managed w/ COC use x 3 months, or timed NSAID use x 2 weeks - Naproxen 550 mg BID (anti-prostaglandin)

1273
Q

What is the chance of getting pregnant from a single unprotected coital act?

A

7.2%

Emergency contraception helps reduce this risk

1274
Q

Emergency contraception candidates

A

Any time unprotected sexual intercourse occurs, including potential method failure

(late or missed pills, late for Depo, dislodged/misplaced diaphragm, condom break/slippage, expelled IUD, etc.)

1275
Q

Emergency contraception options

A

IUD - Copper

Pregnancy rate if used as EC = 0.09%

ECPs:

  • Ulipristal acetate (UPA) 30 mg x 1 dose)
  • Levonorgestrel 1-2 dose (1.5 if 1 dose)

Similar effectiveness if within 3 days after unprotected intercourse in many circumstances

UPA > LNG between days 3 and 5 after unprotected intercourse

1276
Q

Levonorgestrel mechanism of action as emergency contraception

A

Depending on time taken during menstrual cycle, interferes w/ fertilization by:

Inhibit or delay ovulation (most likely effect) when given 2d prior to LH surge

Once LH begins, levonorgestrel has no impact on ovulation

Inhibits tubal transport of egg or sperm

Unlikely mechanism of action: has minimal to no alteration to endometrium therefore unlikely to to inhibit implantation of a fertilized egg

1277
Q

Plan B

Adverse effects

A

Most common adverse effects:

Nausea 14%

Vomiting 1%

Dose should be repeated if vomiting occurs within 2 hours of taking

In 95% or > of women, next period would occur within 3 weeks of taking the medication

Obtain pregnancy test if menses delayed beyond 1 week of anticipated date of onset

1278
Q

Plan B instructions

A

Take dose within 72 h but also effective up to 120 h after intercourse

Improved efficacy when taken earlier in this time frame

For two tab regimens: take both pills in single dose or

1 pill and then the second pill 12 hours later

Available OTC for purchase by anyone at any age

though some labeling will state not ot be used in women age

Health insurance may cover expense

1279
Q

ella (Ulipristal Acetate)

Mechanism of action

A

Progesterone agonist/antagonist, thus direct inhibitory effech of follicular development and ovum release

Changes endometrium possibly can alter likelihood of fertilized egg being implanted

vs Plan B:

Remains effective when administered immediately before obulation and when LH surger begins

Give prior LH surge, inhibit 100% of follicular rupture

Given after LH increase, follicular rupture fails to occur within 5-6 days in 50% of cases

Given at LH peak, inhibits ovulation by 24-48 hours

Approved for use up to 5 days (120 hours) post unprotected sex

Rx only

1280
Q

ella (Ulipristal Acetate)

Instructionsn for use

A

Take 1 tablet as soon as possible w/ or w/o food within 120 hours of unprotected sex/known contraceptive failure

If vomiting occurs within 3 hours, consider repeating dose

1281
Q

Copper IUD as EC

Mechanism of Action

Contraindication

A

Same as contraceptive mechanism action - foreign body effect, sterile inflammatory response toxic to sperm and ova, impairs implantation

Advantage: can be left in place for 10 years for highly reliable contraception

Contraindication: Active uterine infection

1282
Q

Obesity and EC

A

Issues of lower efficacy in LNG EC option

Not noted w/ EC use of copper IUD in obesity

1283
Q

Perimenopause

Define

A

Time surrounding menopause

Onset of beginning of sx and ends w/ cessation of menses

Average onset of perimenopause is 40-45 years

Occurs earlier in cigarette smokers

Lasts an average of 4 years

Can range from a few months to 10 years

1284
Q

Menopause

Define

Avg age?

A

Menopause when no period for 12 months

Average age of menopause for a woman in North America is 51.3 years

1285
Q

Perimenopause sx

A

Menstural irregularity common

Ovulation more erratic but pregnancy still possible

Hot flashes and sleep problems usually worse week before menses - reported in 65-75% - hormonal shifts are more dramatic

Estrogen levels are usually normal at this stage, but FSH is elevated

1286
Q

Perimenopause - hormonal levels

A

LH and FSH increase (anterior lobe of pituitary) in an attempt to induce ovulation

Ovaries fail to respond, sometimes leading to heavy, anovulatory menstural bleeding

Levels of estrogen forms and androgens are reduced

Hot flashes become more frequent/severe in part d/t FSH surge

Surgical menopause = more severe sx

1287
Q

Postmenopausal hormone therapy for hot flashes

A

When given during the first 5 years after menopause, reduction of hot flashes 80% to 95% is expected

All types/routes of estrogen are effective

Even low-doses are often effected

Higher doses (1mg oral estradiol) provide relief in 4 weeks

Lower dose provide relief in abotu 8-12 weeks

Low dose better tolerated w/ less breast tenderness and uterine bleeding

Low dose and short duration as possible for sx

1288
Q

post menopausal hormone therapy adverse effects

A

Endometrial ca risk w/ unopposed estrogen

5 year use risk of 2%, 10 year use risk of 4%

Must take progestin w/ estrogen to minimize this risk unless woman has no uterus

Increased risk of breast ca w/ long term use

Avoid supplemental estrogen in women who has hx or high risk for CVD, breast ca, uterine ca, venous thromboembolic events, active liver disease

Compared w/ oral form, transdermal estrogen use is assoc w/ lower thromboembolic risk in short-term studies

1289
Q

Atrophic vaginitis

A

Many women who use oral HT continue to have sx

the addition of topical estrogen via an estrogen containing vaginal cream/ring/tab can be helpful

increasing dose of oral estrogen is seldome helpful, likely increases HT adverse effects

Vaginal entroitus remains colonized w/ protective flora when HT is used = lower rates of urogenital atrophy and UTIs in women using this tx, whether systemic or local

1290
Q

Significant vasomotor sx in postmenopause

cannot/does not use HT for relief

tx option

A

Low-dose antidepressant (SSRI and SSNRI) can reduce frequency and severity of hot flashes by 35%

E.g.

SNRI - Venlafaxine (Effexor)

SSRI - Sertraline (Zoloft), Paroxetine (Paxil)

Typically in lower dose for vasomotor sx than for dose use for depression

Adverse effects: sexual dysfunction including anorgasmia

Gabapentin has also demonstrated efficacy in reducing vasomotor sx

Others:

Methyldopa (aldomet), Clonidine (Catapres)

1291
Q

In woman who is still menstruating w/ significant perimenopausal sx options

A

low-dose OCP can be helpful for sx relief and cycle regulation

OCPs contain 3-4x estrogen dose compared to usual dose HT

1292
Q

Postmenopausal women w/ low libido

Tx options

A

Androgen supplementation in the form of low-dose testosterone can be helpful in women w/ low libido postmenopause, and in women w/ continue hot flashes despite HT - particularly problematic in younger women who has undergone surgical menopause

Adverse effects: acne, hirsutism, alopecia, vocal changes, clitoral enlargement

1293
Q

Absolute contraindication to Post menopausal Estrogen Tx

A

Unexplained vaginal bleeding

Acute liver diseae

Chronic impaired liver function

Thrombotic disease

Neuro-ophthalmologic vascular disease

Endometrial ca (short-term might be aceptable)

Breast ca (short-term might be acdeptable)

1294
Q

Postmenopausal Estrogen Tx

Use w/ Caution

(not absolute contraindication)

A

Seizure disorder (d/t potential drug-drug interaction)

Dyslipidemia - particularly hypertrigyceridemia (transdermal, intravaginal HT has limited lipid impact)

1295
Q

Postmenopausal HT and bone density

A

When taken w/ calcium supplements, post menopausal HT can help reduce risk of postmenopausal fx by 50%

Minimizes further bone loss

HT should not be used for this purpose solely, however, other medications available

1296
Q

Nutritional supplements for menopausal sx

A

Few high quality studies support

(e.g. phytoestrogens from apples/carrots/coffee/potatoes etc)

OTC topical creams of wild yam, phytoprogesterone etc.; However, w/ poor bioavailability

1297
Q

Hot Flash triggers

A

Spicy foods, chocolate

ETOH

Elevated ambient temp/humidity

Tight, restrictive clothing

Cigarette smoking

Hot baths/showers

Not relaxed state

1298
Q

Piriformis Syndrome

A

Piriformis muscle irritates the transversing sciatic nerve

Causing pain, tingling, and numbness in the buttock and leg

Can mimic sciatica

Stretching can reduce pain

1299
Q

McMurray’s Test

A

Meniscus Tear

Positive = audible click is felt over meniscus as knee is brought from full flexion to 90 degree flexion

1300
Q

Plantar Fasciitis

Dx Test

A

Sine qua non: Sharp heel pain w/ the first couple of steps in the morning

Palpation over medial tubercle of calcaneus usually reproduces pain

Other provocative measures:

Passive dorsiflexion of toes (windlass test)

Have pt stand on tiptoes and toe walk

1301
Q

Finkelstein’s Test

A

DeQuervain’s Tenosynovitis

Patient flexes thumb across palm and the clinician applies ulnar deviation to the wrist reproducing pain

1302
Q

Empty Can for rotator cuff

A

It is performed by having the patient place a straight arm in about 90 degrees of abduction and 30 degrees of forward flexion, and then internally rotating the arm completely (ie, thumb pointing down)

Patient then resists the clinician’s attempts to depress the arm.

Pain without weakness is consistent with tendinopathy, while pain with weakness is consistent with partial or complete tendon tear.

1303
Q

Cystoplasmic pattern ANA is often found in the presence of what codition?

A

Biliary cirrhosis

1304
Q

Kidney stones type that form when urine is persistently acidic

A

Uric acid stone

occur in people who do not drink enough fluids or who lose too much fluid, eat a high-protein diet, or who have gout

1305
Q

Kidney stones type causes by high calcium excretion and oxalate excretion

A

calcium oxalate stones

1306
Q

Kidney stones type that is caused by high urine calcium and alkaline urine

A

Calcium phosphate stones

1307
Q

Kidney stones that result from kidney infections

A

Struvite stones

1308
Q

Drop Arm Test

A

Rotator cuff

Tests ability to lower arms from a full abducted position

+ of pt unable to lower arm w/ same coordianted motion as the unaffected arm

1309
Q

Neer Test

A

For rotator cuff

Passive painful arc

Passively flexing glenohumeral joint while preventing shoulder from shrugging

Used to assess degree of impingment

Degree of rotator cuff tendinopathy is determined by angle which the arc becomes painful

1310
Q

Spurling test

A

Foraminal compression test

Confirms cervical radiculapathy

Position pt w/ neck extended and head rotated

apply downward pressure on head

+ if pain radiates to limb ipsilateral to which head is rotated

93% specific, 30% sensitive in dx acute radiculopathy

1311
Q

Nerve root compromise

L4

A

Weak extension of quadriceps

Test: squat and rise

Knee jerk diminished

Pain from posterior upper glute and goes around thigh to front of leg

1312
Q

Nerve root compromise

L5

A

Pain lateral side of LE

numbness lateral lower leg

Weak dorsiflexion of great tow and foot

Test: heel walk

1313
Q

Nerve root compromise

S1

A

Pain posterior LE all the way down

Numbness to calf area/back of leg

Weak plantar flexion of great toe and foot

Test: walk on toes

Ankle jerk reflex diminished

1314
Q

Where would you auscultate: VSD or tricuspid valve?

A

LLSB

1315
Q

Left to right shunting

cyanotic or acyanotic?

A

Acyanotic

1316
Q

Right to left shunting

cyanotic or acyanotic?

A

Cyanotic

1317
Q

Acyanotic heart defects

examples

A

Left to right shunting

Atrial Septal Defect

Ventricular Septal Defecet

1318
Q

Cyanotic heart defects

A

Right to Left shunting

Transposition of the great arteries

Tetralogy of Fallot

Tricuspid atresia

1319
Q

Common genetic syndrome and their cardiac anomalies

DiGeorge

Down Syndrome

Marfan

Turner

A

DiGeorge: aortic arch anomalies

Down Syndrome: VSD > ASD

Marfan: Aortic regurg, MVP

Turner: coarctation, tricuspid aortic valve

1320
Q

Egg on a string x-ray

A

Transposition of the great arteries

right to left shunting

Cyanotic

ECG: RVH

X-ray: egg on a string, w/ cardiomegaly and increased pulmonary vascular markings

1321
Q

Boot-shaped heart x-ray

A

Tetralogy of Fallot

Four Defects:

Large VSD

RVH

Overriding aorta

Pulmonary stenosis

1322
Q

Injuries cause approximately % of child deaths?

A

50%

highest rate in adolescents, infants, males, low-income, rural areas, native american, african american

1323
Q

Tdap common side effects

A

h/a, stomach ache, nausea

typically subside quickly

1324
Q

Steven Johnson Syndrome manifestation

A

acute onset of vesicular to bullous lesions all over body

range from hives to blisters and hemorrhagic lesions

Mucosal involvement w/ blisters on conjunctiva, mouth, and genitals also possible

Hx of recent abx can precede onset

1325
Q

Aortic Regurgitation sx

A

Long asymptomatic period, followed by exercise tolerance, then dyspnea at rest

Left ventricular failure eventually occurs

1326
Q

How many months

infant will turn head to locate sounds

A

about 3 months

1327
Q

Magnesium food sources

A

dried beans

whole grains

nuts

1328
Q

Trigeminal neuralgia

A

h/a caused by impingement of trigeminal nerve

Rare before age 35, peaks at age of 60

F > M

Pain lasts a few seconds and only stops when offending activity ceases

1329
Q

What does the following labs say about kidney

BUN

Creat

Urine volume and osmolality/specific gravity

A

BUN = renal perfusion

Creat = actual tubular function

Urine volume, osmolality, specific gravity = ability excrete and concentrate flulid

1330
Q

Epistaxis

A

Anterior epistaxis usually result of localized nasal mucosa dryness/trauma

Most episodes managed w/ simple pressure to area superior to the nasal alar cartilage

1331
Q

Genu valgum

A

knock knees

can be seen in children ages 2-4

Corrects w/o tx by the time child reaches 10 years of age

1332
Q

Normal TG

A

Normal

150-200 borderline high

> 200 high

> 500 extremely high

1333
Q

Prenatal appt frequency

A

6-28 weeks - every month

28-34 weeks - every 2 weeks

34-41 weeks - every week

1334
Q

Six cardinal features of Parkinson’s Disease

A

Bradykinesia

Rigidity

Tremor at rest

Masklike facies

Loss of postural reflexes

Flexed posture

1335
Q

Glasgow coma scale levels

A

13-15 = Mild brain injury

9-12 = Moderate brain injury

8 or less = severe brain injury and coma in 90% of pts

1336
Q

High reticulocyte count conditions

A

G6PD deficiency

Autoimmune hemolysis

sickle cell anemia

Rh isoimmunization

1337
Q

Stage II HTN

A

SBP > 160

DBP > 100

1338
Q

When can CVS be done

A

between 10 and 13 weeks after LMP

1339
Q

Decribe regurgitant murmurs

A

Usually are more pure, uniform sound

1340
Q

% of bladder ca have persistent microscopic hematuria

A

20%

Other sx: irritative voiding sx and urinary frequency

1341
Q

Milwaukee brace

A

Scoliosis Tx

Should be worn 23 hours per day

Worn over a T-shirt to minimize skin discomfort/irritation

Assess skin for irritation/breakdown often

1342
Q

How many teeth by 18 months of age

A

14

Expected teeth can be calculated by subtracting 4 from age of child in months

1343
Q

Constipation tx in 2 month old infant

A

AAP does not recommend changing to a low-iron formula in constipation

Typical tx: adding dark corn syrup, nonstarchy vegetables, and more water

Juices that are recommended are apple, prune, and pear

Avoid rice cereal

1344
Q

Depression relapse risk fx

A

Onset before 20 years or after 50 years of age

poor recovery between episodes

Family hx of depression

Dysthymia preceding episode of depression

1345
Q

Bronchiolitis f/u

A

3-5 days

Most cases expect reduction of sx in 3-5 days

cough might continue for 1-2 weeks

1346
Q

CN assoc. w/ gag reflex and soft palate

A

CN 9 and 10

Glosspharyngeal and Vagus

Assoc w/ gag reflex, symmetrical soft palate, uvula, and voice quality

1347
Q

Shotty lymph nodes definition

A

Small, pellet-like nodes that are movable, cool, nontender, and discrete

Range in size up to 3 mm in diameter

1348
Q

Positive PPD in children

A

Induration 10 mm or >

1349
Q

Stage II Hodgkin’s disease

A

2 or more node groups on the same side of the diaphragm

5 year survival rate is 90%

1350
Q

SLE incidence/epi

A

Most common in 15-45 years old persons

Incidence is 10-15x more frequent in women

Childhood onset is more severe

Common in Klinefelter’s

Incidence is 1 in 1000 whites and 1 in 250 in black age 18-65

1351
Q

Scurvy

A

Vitamin C deficiency

Common among elderly patients and bedbound

Found in fresh fruits/juices

Regular smoker risk increases

1352
Q

Absorption topical agents

lotion vs gel vs ointment vs cream

A

generally, the less viscous the vehicle, less absorption

ointment, cream > gel, lotion

1353
Q

Dysmenorrhea risk fx

A

nulliparity

smoking

earlier menarche

longer menstrual periods

obesity

ETOH

stress

1354
Q

Fontaine Classification of PVD Stages

A

Stage 1 = silent

Stage 2 = intermittent claudification

Stage 3 = rest ischemia

Stage 4 = ulceration/gangrene

1355
Q

Prozac weight change

A

SSRIs like Prozac are more likely to cause lack of appetite and weight LOSS

Digestive upsets, constipation, and diarrhea common side effects

Insomnia, vivid dreams may also occur

1356
Q

Anti-anxiety w/ most rapid onset of action?

A

Diazepam

Rapid onset of action and relatively sustained effect

1357
Q

Abx contraindicated in pregnancy

A

Quinolones and tetracyclines

1358
Q

Strabismus

A

Deviation of one or both eyes

Latent strabismus occurs only under monocular conditions

Manifest strabistmus under binocular conditiosn

1359
Q

Seborrheic keratosis

A

May be itchy, round lesion

Appear suddenly

Brown w/ waxy apperance and scaly surface

1360
Q

Normal weight gain for pregnancy

Underweight

Normal weight

A

Underweight: 28-40 lbs

Normal weight: 25-35 lbs

1361
Q
A
1362
Q
A
1363
Q
A