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Joint Fire Support > FIST Certification > Flashcards

FIST Certification Flashcards

1
Q

______is fires that directly support land, maritime, amphibious, and special operations forces to engage enemy forces, combat formations, and facilities in pursuit of tactical and operational objectives (Joint Publication [JP] 3-09.3). It requires close coordination and integration with maneuver forces. Effective fire support requires an observer that understands the tasks to accomplish and how these tasks support the overall operation. The observer must be able to accurately locate targets, understand which targets to attack, and effectively communicate what he sees to the rest of the fire support community.

a) Joint Effects
b) Fire Support
c) Detailed Integration
d) Coordinated Fires

A

b) Fire Support

Ref: ATP 3-09.30 CH1, pg 1-1

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2
Q

True/False: There are five requirements for achieving first-round Fire for effect. These five requirements for accurate predicted fires are: accurate target location and size, firing unit location, weapon ammunition information, meteorological information, and computational procedures. The observer is solely responsible for the first requirement.

A

True

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3
Q

The________and it’s elements integrate the fires warfighting function in operations. It has resources to plan for future operations from the main command post and to support current operations from tactical command post (when deployed). Additionally it has the limited capability to provide coverage to the command group and the deputy command group when deployed. The _____is the centerpiece of the targeting architecture, focused on both lethal and nonlethal target sets. The _____thus collaboratively plans, coordinates and synchronizes fire support, to include Joint Fires.

a) Joint Effects Cell
b) Fire Direction Center
c) Fire Support Element
d) Fires Cell

A

d) Fires Cell

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4
Q

The______has the responsibility to integrate fire support with the scheme of maneuver. He provides the commander’s intent for an operation and issues guidance, including guidance for the fire support. The_____translates the guidance into fire support tasks. Each fire support task and purpose directly supports a maneuver task and purpose. Then assigns responsibility of tasks in the Fire Support Plan, assets, and priority of fires, to the observers using all available assets. Ensures dissemination of FS products to all supporting assets.

a) Maneuver Commander / FSO
b) Brigade FSO / Battalion FSO
c) Brigade CDR / Brigade FSO
d) DIVARTY Commander / FIST

A

a) Maneuver Commander / FSO

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5
Q

A target identified too late, or not selected for action in time, to be included in deliberate targeting that, when detected or located, meets criteria specific to achieving objectives and is processed using dynamic targeting.

a) Target
b) Time Sensitive Target
c) Target of Opportunity
d) Unplanned Target

A

c) Target of Opportunity

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6
Q

A_____is a target that is known to exist in the operational environment, upon which actions are planned using deliberate targeting, creating effects which support Commander’s objectives.

a) Established Target
b) Approved Target
c) Priority Target
d) Planned Target

A

d) Planned Target

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7
Q

A____is a planned target upon which fires or other actions are scheduled for prosecution at a specified time.

a) Scheduled Target
b) Specified Target
c) Time Sensitive Target
d) Priority Target

A

a) Scheduled Target

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8
Q

A_____target is a planned target upon which fires or other actions are determined using deliberate targeting and triggered, when detected or located, using dynamic targeting.

a) Scheduled Target
b) On-call Target
c) Deliberate Target
d) Dynamic Target

A

b) On-call Target

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9
Q

A______is a Target in which the delivery of fires takes precedence over all the fires for the designated firing unit or element.

a) Priority Target
b) Immediate Suppression
c) Final Protective Fire
d) On-call Target

A

a) Priority Target

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10
Q

_______is an immediate available prearranged barrier of fire designed to impede enemy movement across defensive lines or areas.

a) On-call Target
b) Final Protective Fire
c) Immediate Suppression
d) Defensive Fires

A

b) Final Protective Fire

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11
Q

A______consists of two or more targets on which Fire is desired simultaneously.

a) Collective Target Set
b) Series of Targets
c) Multiple Target
d) Group of Targets

A

d) Group of Targets

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12
Q

A_______is a number of Targets and/or group(s) of Targets planned to be fired in a predetermined sequence to support a maneuver operation.

a) Sequential Targets
b) Series of Targets
c) Collective Target Set
d) Program of Targets

A

b) Series of Targets

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13
Q

A_______consists of a number of planned targets of a similar nature that are planned for sequential attack.

a) Sequential Targets
b) Series of Targets
c) Group of Targets
d) Program of Targets

A

d) Program of Targets

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14
Q

A_______is accomplished using targeting and the running estimate. It includes developing integrated fire plans (target lists, fire support execution/fire support task matrix, scheme of fires, and overlays) and determining forward observer control options that support the commander’s scheme of maneuver.

a) Fires Coordination
b) Indirect Fires Execution
c) Fire Support Planning
d) Fire Support Coordination

A

c) Fire Support Planning

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15
Q

____________is the planning and executing of Fire so that targets are adequately covered by a suitable weapon or group of weapons (JP 3-09). The FIST must maintain situational understanding at all times and monitor voice requests for fire support within the maneuver element to prevent fratricide as the result of friendly fire support. The FIST must advise the commander on any fire support coordination measures (FSCM) in effect.

a) Fire Support Coordination
b) Indirect Fires Execution
c) Fire Support Planning
d) Joint Fires Coordination

A

a) Fire Support Coordination

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16
Q

True / False: In order to develop an effective fire support plan, the FSO must understand the fires planning process and address all the essential elements of a Fire Support plan. To help ensure all considerations are addressed, the FSO uses the memory aid FAPARCA, which means—
F-Fire support tasks, described in terms of a clear tsk, purpose, and effect
A-Allocation of assets/targets to subordinate units
P- Positioning guidance fire support assets and observers
A-Assault Instructions
R-Resources Available
C-Coordinating Instructions
A-Assessment (measurement of performance, measurement of effectiveness)

A

False

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17
Q

True / False: When occupying an observation post using SLOCTOP; A reconnaissance security sweep should be made 180 degrees forward of the OP.

A

False

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18
Q

Occupying an observation post using SLOCTOP; identify the item that is not part of L-Location.

a) Select a position that is not sky lined or easily identifiable as an observation post (military crest, 2/3 up, on nondescript high ground)
b) Send the team location to the fires cell, artillery/mortar fire direction center (FDC) and supported maneuver organization.
c) Select a position on the highest terrain in order to quickly detect enemy forces (provides the best observation)
d) The team should prepare its observed fire (OF) fan for use, begin its terrain sketch using reference points within its area of observation, and develop its visibility diagrams.

A

c) Select a position on the highest terrain in order to quickly detect enemy forces (provides the best observation)

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19
Q

Occupying an observation post using SLOCTOP; what is the number one priority for the team?

a) Observation
b) Communication
c) Targeting
d) Security

A

b) Communication

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20
Q

Occupying an observation post using SLOCTOP; identify the item that is not part of T-Targeting.

a) Locate Targets using the most accurate and expedient means available, incorporate the targets into the terrain sketch.
b) Conceal the laser rangefinder/designator and operate all lasting devices within safety parameters.
c) Affix the night sight to the laser rangefinder/designator as soon as possible. (Although it may be daylight, the night sight may be able to see through smoke and other obscurations.)
d) Refine company/troop targets and those assigned by higher headquarters

A

d) Refine company/troop targets and those assigned by higher headquarters

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21
Q

True / False: Occupying an observation post using SLOCTOP; during O-observation ensure all team members are proficient in friendly/threat forces recognition.

A

True

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22
Q

Occupying an observation post using SLOCTOP; what does the P stand for?

a) Precision Occupation
b) Precision Targeting
c) Precision Refinement
d) Position Improvement

A

d) Position Improvement

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23
Q

What is the preferred method of establishing accurate target location?

a) Precision Target Locating Tools
b) LLDR
c) Map, Compass, and Binoculars
d) PFED

A

a) Precision Target Location Tools

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24
Q

An observer must be able to self-locate to within ____meters or ______meters of degraded by lack of position locating systems or other navigational aids.

a) 1 or 150
b) 10 or 150
c) 10 or 100
d) 100 or 250

A

c) 10 or 100

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25
Q

_____is the process of measurement of a feature or location on the earth to determine an absolute latitude, longitude, and elevation.

a) Targeting
b) Mensuration
c) Accuracy
d) Orienting

A

b) Mensurating

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26
Q

What are three base (reference) directions or azimuthal?

a) North, Magnetic, Map
b) Mike, Degrees, Cardinals
c) True, Grid, Magnetic
d) True, Map, Magnetic

A

c) True, Grid, Magnetic

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27
Q

______is the interior angle formed at the Target by the intersection of the observer-target and the gun-target lines with its vertex at the Target.

a) OT Factor
b) Angle T
c) Vertex Angle
d) Vertical Angle

A

b) Angle T

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28
Q

If angle T is ________or greater, the FDC should tell the observer. If the observer is told that angle T is _____or greater, at first he continues to use his OT factor to make his deviation corrections. If he sees that he is getting more of a correction than he asked for, he should consider cutting his corrections to better adjust rounds onto the Target.

a) 500 mils
b) 600 mils
c) 600 meters
d) 100 meters

A

a) 500 mils

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29
Q

The M22/M24 binocular reticle pattern is divided into increments of _______with shorter hash marks at _______ increments.

a) 100 meters and 10 meters
b) 10 meters and 5 meters
c) 100 mils and 50 mils
d) 10 mils and 5 mils

A

d) 10 mils and 5 mils

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30
Q

Using a declinated M2 or a lensatic compass on a tripod or other stable platform, the observer can measure direction to an accuracy of _________. Take care when using a compass around electronic devices such as radios and computers, or large concentrations of metal such as vehicles. Observers should move about_________away from vehicles to avoid incorrect readings.

a) 1 mil and 100 meters
b) 10 mils and 50 meters
c) 1 mil and 50 meters
d) 10 mils and 100 meters

A

b) 10 mils and 50 meters

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31
Q

In artillery and mortar calls for fire, the observers will always convert direction to________direction in the CFF request.

a) True North
b) Magnetic
c) Lensatic
d) Grid

A

d) Grid

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32
Q

Using a protractor, the observer can scale direction from a map to an accuracy of ______mils.

a) 20
b) 10
c) 100
d) 1

A

b) 10

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33
Q

Laser rangefinders are the preferred means of determining the observer-target distance. When a laser rangefinder is used, distance may be determined to the nearest ______meters.

a) 10
b) 5
c) 1
d) 100

A

a) 10

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34
Q

Using flash to bang, the observer counts the number of seconds between the time the round impacts (flash) and the time the sound reaches the observer (bang) and multiply by _______meters/second. The answer is the approximate number of meters between the observer and the round.

a) 350
b) 400
c) 450
d) 250

A

a) 350

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35
Q

If there is a significant difference in vertical shift (greater than or equal to _______meters in altitude between the observer’s position or known point and the Target), the observer includes the vertical shift in his target location (expressed to the nearest ______meters).

a) 30, 10
b) 50, 10
c) 35, 5
d) 5, 5

A

c) 35, 5

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36
Q

The terrain sketch is a panoramic sketch as precise as possible of the terrain by the observer of his area of responsibility. It aids in target location in a static environment. What should the terrain sketch also provide?

a) A call for fire cheat card
b) Means of orienting relief personnel
c) Code words to deceive enemy of lost
d) Fires net frequency

A

b) Means of orienting relief personnel

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37
Q

What is the purpose of DA Form 5429-R?

a) Requesting CAS
b) Recording Fire Mission Data
c) Requesting Ammunition
d) Equipment Maintenance

A

b) Recording Fire Mission Data

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38
Q

True/False: The three transmissions of a Fire mission are

  • Observer ID and Warning Order
  • Target location and target description
  • Method of engagement and method of fire and control
A

False

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39
Q

The warning order clears the net for the fire mission. The warning order consists of

a) Type of adjustment, callsign, and method of target location
b) Mission type, type of adjustment, and the size of element to FFE
c) Callsign, type of adjustment, and the method of target location
d) Type of mission, the size of the element to FFE, and the method of target location

A

d) Type of mission, the size of the element to FFE, and the method of target location

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40
Q

Normally, _________missions are fires on planned targets, and a length of time to continue firing (duration) is associated with the call for fire.

a) Final Protective Fire
b) Suppression
c) FFE
d) Immediate Suppression or Immediate Smoke

A

b) Suppression

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41
Q

When engaging a planned target or target of opportunity that has taken friendly maneuver or elements under Fire, the observer announces________

a) Final Protective Fire
b) Suppression
c) FFE
d) Immediate Suppression or Immediate Smoke

A

d) Immediate Suppression or Immediate Smoke

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42
Q

True/False: When conducting an immediate suppression or Immediate smoke mission the CFF is sent in three transmissions.

a) True
b) False

A

b) False

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43
Q

True/False: The methods of target location are grid, polar plot, and shift from known point.

A

False

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44
Q

Using the laser grid method of target location during an adjust fire mission; how are the corrections sent?

a) same as a standard grid mission
b) deviation correction, range correction, height of burst correction
c) in the form of a grid to the burst location
d) sent only as refinement

A

c) in the form of a grid to the burst location

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45
Q

True/ False: In a polar plot mission the FDC only needs to know the target location.

A

False

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46
Q

In a polar plot mission a _______tells the FDC how far, in meters, the Target is located above or below the observer’s location

a) Altitude
b) Elevation
c) Angle T
d) Vertical Shift

A

d) Vertical Shift

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47
Q

True/False: In a shift from known point mission the range shift is in relation to the observer’s location.

A

False

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48
Q

What is the purpose of the target description in a call for fire?

a) so the FDC can determine the amount and type of ammunition to use
b) so the commander can approve the target engagement
c) to determine the priority on the High Payoff Target List (HPTL)
d) so the ground commander can make a tactical risk assessment (TRA)

A

a) so the FDC can determine the amount and type of ammunition to use

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49
Q

The method of engagement consists of

a) type of mission, ammunition, danger close, attitude, and mark
b) warning order, type of mission, trajectory, danger close, and mark
c) warning order, type of mission, trajectory, attitude, distribution, and mark
d) type of adjustment, trajectory, ammunition, distribution, danger close, and mark

A

d) type of adjustment, trajectory, ammunition, distribution, danger close, and mark

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50
Q

True/False: The type of adjustment that may be employed is area fire or precision fire

A

True

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51
Q

True/False: Precision Fire is used for Final Protective Fires (FPF) and destruction missions

A

False

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52
Q

Danger close for artillery and mortars is ________and naval gunfire is __________

a) 600/750
b) 600/1000
c) 600/700
d) 600/500

A

a) 600/750

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53
Q

True/False: MARK is included in the method of engagement to indicate that the observer is going to call for rounds for either of the following reasons

  • to orient themselves in zone of observation
  • to indicate targets to ground troops, aircraft, or other observers
  • to mark the illumination optimal height of burst
A

False

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54
Q

During a call for fire an observer wants to indicate a change in the type of ammunition, what term would be used?

a) Ammunition
b) Volume of fire
c) Followed by
d) Projectile

A

c) Followed by

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55
Q

If Target length, or length and width are given, the observer must also give_______

a) Depth
b) Attitude
c) Radius
d) Altitude

A

b) Attitude

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56
Q

If the observer wishes to control the time of delivery of fire, they would include__________in the method of control. This method of control is also useful when sending the call for fire to the FDC prior to receiving clearance to fire.

a) At my command
b) Time on target
c) Time to Target
d) Duration

A

a) At my command

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57
Q

In the initial call for fire the observer should announce _______to indicate the observer cannot see the target (because of vegetation, terrain, weather, intensity of the conflict, or smoke)

a) Unobserved
b) Lost
c) Lost line of sight
d) Cannot observe

A

d) Cannot observe

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58
Q

True/False: The FDC announces “SPLASH” to the observer 5 seconds prior to round to round impact. The observer then announces SPLASH out, the observer does not wait to see the impact to announce SPLASH out.

A

True

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59
Q

The observer normally uses_______for suppression and smoke missions. ____________will tell the FDC the total time to engage a Target.

a) Time on Target
b) Duration
c) Time
d) Interval

A

b) Duration

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60
Q

A ______is the observer’s determination of the location of the burst, or the mean point of impact (MPI) of a group of bursts, with respect to the adjusting point as observed along the observer-Target line

a) Spotting
b) Correction
c) Impact
d) Adjusting point

A

a) Spotting

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61
Q

True/False: The sequence of spottings is height of burst, range, and deviation

A

True

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62
Q

True/False: The three HOB spottings are air, graze, and mixed

A

False

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63
Q

A spotting of _______is a round whose location cannot be determined by sight or sound

a) Doubtful
b) Unobserved
c) Lost
d) Cannot observe

A

c) Lost

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64
Q

A spotting of __________is a round not observed but known to have impacted.

a) Doubtful
b) Unobserved
c) Lost
d) Cannot observe

A

b) Unobserved

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65
Q

A __________is the angular measurement from the adjusting point to the burst as seen from the observer’s position.

a) HOB Spotting
b) Correction
c) Range spotting
d) Deviation spotting

A

d) Deviation spotting

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66
Q

True/False: A spotting of “LINE” is a round that impacts on line with the adjusting point as seen by the observer (on the observer-target line).

A

True

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67
Q

During adjustments of a fire mission an observer spots round burst left of the target along the OT line. The observer measures the angular deviation as 70 mils. His deviation spotting is_________.

a) Left 70
b) Depends on OT factor
c) Right 70
d) 70 left

A

d) 70 left

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68
Q

What spotting would an observer make if the round was a dud (nonfunctioning fuzz), resulting in no visual or audible identification.

a) Unobserved
b) Lost
c) Dud
d) Doubtful

A

b) Lost

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69
Q

During subsequent corrections the observer sends the observer-target direction if it has not been sent previously or if the observer-Target direction changes by more than _________from the previously announced direction.

a) 10 mils
b) 50 mils
c) 20 mils
d) 100 mils

A

d) 100 mils

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70
Q

If a burst correction is desired during an immediate suppression mission what should be transmitted before the correction?

a) Altitude
b) Target description
c) Number of rounds
d) Repeat

A

b) Target description

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71
Q

Which adjustment technique mathematically ensures FFE rounds will be within 50 meters of the target.

a) Creeping Fire
b) One round adjust
c) Precision fire
d) Successive bracketing

A

d) Successive bracketing

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72
Q

________is best when responsive fires are required and the observer is experienced in the adjustment of fire.

a) Creeping Fire
b) One round adjust
c) Hasty bracketing
d) Successive bracketing

A

c) Hasty bracketing

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73
Q

___________is best used in danger close missions and other missions requiring the observer to make small adjustments to bring fires onto the target in order to minimizing collateral damage.

a) Creeping Fire
b) One round adjust
c) Hasty bracketing
d) Successive bracketing

A

a) Creeping Fire

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74
Q

Normally, the observer using successive bracketing requests FFE when they split a ________meter bracket. Under certain conditions when the PER of the weapon is ______meters or larger, an observer is justified in calling for FFE when a ________meter bracket is split.

a) 50, 38, 100
b) 100, 25, 200
c) 50, 25, 100
d) 100, 38, 200

A

d) 100, 38, 200

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75
Q

The objective of impact registration is to get spottings of ___________________ along the observer-target line from rounds fired with the same data or from rounds fired with data 25 meters apart.

a) 2 rounds, 1 over and 1 short
b) 2 rounds, Target hit or range correct
c) 4 rounds, Target hit or range correct
d) 4 rounds, 2 over and 2 short

A

d) 4 rounds, 2 over and 2 short

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76
Q

True/False: If PER is greater than or equal to 25 meters the objective of impact registration is to get spottings of four rounds (two overs and two shorts) along the observer-target line from rounds fires with the same data or from rounds fired with data 50 meters apart.

A

True

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77
Q

During a registration mission spottings of target hit or range correct count as spottings of _______________

a) Both over and short
b) Target
c) Line
d) Accurate and sufficient

A

a) Both over and short

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78
Q

During impact registration the observer spots the rounds for deviation to the nearest one mil and brings the rounds onto the observer-target line before ____________

a) Splitting 400 meter bracket
b) Adding or dropping
c) Splitting 200 meter bracket
d) Corrections are made

A

c) Splitting 200 meter bracket

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79
Q

During impact registration when the 50 meter range bracket has been established, _________rounds are fired with data 25 meters in the direction opposite that of the last range spotting.

a) 1
b) 2
c) 4
d) FFE

A

b) 2

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80
Q

True/False: During impact registration range refinement, if the registration point is nearer the last round(s) fires, no range refinement is necessary to move the impact toward the registration point.

A

True

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81
Q

If the Registration point is equidistant between the two sets of rounds, the observer determines the range refinement to be ADD______or DROP______ from the last data fired.

a) 50
b) 25
c) 10
d) 20

A

c) 10

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82
Q

If the registration point is nearer the pair of rounds at the opposite end of the bracket, (instead of the last round) the observer determines the range refinement to be ADD _____ or DROP ________

a) 25
b) 20
c) 10
d) 50

A

b) 20

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83
Q

What form would an observer use to keep track of the rounds and spottings n relation to the registration point?

a) DA 5429-R
b) DA 4187-R
c) DA 2185-R
d) Shell Report

A

a) DA 5429-R

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84
Q

In registration, deviation refinement is determined by adding the deviation spottings of the rounds establishing the two over and two short (this may include two, three, or four deviation spottings). Then ____________the total of the deviation spottings by the number of rounds (two, three, or four) to get an average deviation. Express the result to the nearest mil. The average deviation multiplied by the observer-target factor equals the correction, which the observer expresses to the nearest ____________

a) Multiply, 10 mils
b) Divide, 10 mils
c) Subtract, 1 meter
d) Add, 1 mil

A

b) Divide, 10 meters

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85
Q

Upon achieving the objective of registration the observer has recorded the following usable deviation spottings. What should the observer send to the FDC for deviation refinement?
Round: Spotting: OT Factor:
————. —————. —————
6. 7 Right. 2
7. 15 Right
8. 5 Left
9. 3 Right

a) Left 20
b) Right 20
c) Right 10
d) Left 10

A

d) Left 10

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86
Q

Mortar registration procedures are identical to the impact registration procedures for artillery. The exception is that once a ______meter range bracket has been split and the last round is fired within_______meters of the target, the observer sends refinement corrections to the FDC and ends the mission. Make range corrections to the nearest 25 meters. Only _____round over and _______round short are required.

a) 50, 25, 2, 2
b) 100, 50, 2, 2
c) 50, 25, 1, 1
d) 100, 50, 1, 1

A

d) 100, 50, 1, 1

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87
Q

In the event the Excalibur projectile does not acquire adequate GPS signal, or experiences a reliability failure in flight, the round is desired to

a) Continue it’s flight path to the target un-armed and impact as a dud
b) Continue to Target as a non-PGM and function as a standard HE round
c) Continue it’s trajectory to the ballistic impact point without arming and dud
d) Continue its trajectory to the ballistic impact point and function as a standard HE round

A

c) Continue its trajectory to the ballistic impact point without arming and dud

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88
Q

What munition is available to utilize with the 120mm mortar that minimizes collateral damage and reduces the number of rounds required to defeat targets?

a) XM 982
b) APKWS
c) APMI
d) Copperhead

A

c) APMI

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89
Q

What fuze can be added to the 155mm HE M795 to provide near precision?

a) APKWS
b) Excalibur
c) PGK
d) APMI

A

c) PGK

90
Q

PGK incorporates a safe arm function. During the last few seconds of flight, PGK performs a “should hit vs. will hit” test. If the “will hit” grid is more than ______meters away from the “should hit” grid, PGK will fail safe (not arm) and will not detonate on impact.

a) 50
b) 150
c) 100
d) 30

A

b) 150

91
Q

The illumination shell is a base ejection projectile containing a flare attached to a parachute. What is NOT a use of illumination?

a) illuminate areas of suspected threat activity
b) Provide illumination for night adjustment of fires
c) Mark friendly location for CAS attacks
d) Harass threat positions

A

c) Mark friendly location for CAS attacks

92
Q

What is the initial height of burst for 155mm M485A2 illumination?

a) 600
b) 500
c) 550
d) 750

A

a) 600

93
Q

What is the initial height of burst for 105mm illumination?

a) 600
b) 500
c) 550
d) 750

A

d) 750

94
Q

What is the initial height of burst for 120mm illumination?

a) 600
b) 500
c) 550
d) 750

A

b) 500

95
Q

Use the ___________pattern when an area requires more illumination than can be furnished by one gun illumination.

a) Two fun illumination range spread
b) Two gun illumination
c) Multi-gun illumination
d) Two gun GTL Spread

A

b) Two gun illumination

96
Q

Which illumination pattern is fired perpendicular to the observer target line?

a) Two gun illumination range spread
b) Two gun illumination lateral spread
c) Multi-gun illumination
d) Two gun illumination

A

b) Two gun illumination lateral spread

97
Q

In order for an observer to achieve as few as possible shadows during an illumination mission they should request __________in the call for fire.

a) Two gun illumination
b) illumination lateral spread
c) illumination OTL and GTL spread
d) illumination range and lateral spread

A

d) illumination range and lateral spread

98
Q

Illumination range and deviation correction of less than _________ meters should not be made.

a) 100
b) 50
c) 30
d) 200

A

d) 200

99
Q

What is the minimum illumination HOB correction?

a) 10 meters
b) 5 meters
c) 50 meters
d) 100 meters

A

c) 50 meters

100
Q

During an ILLUM mission if the flare burns out 60 mils above the ground and the OT factor is 2, what correction should the Observer send for HOB?

a) Down 150
b) Down 120
c) Down 100
d) Down 50

A

c) Down 100

101
Q

During an ILLUM mission your round burns on the ground for 13 seconds. You are observing 155mm M485A2 illumination and the rate of decent is 5 meters per second. What HOB correction do you send?

a) Up 100
b) UP 50
c) No refinement
d) Up 150

A

b) Up 50

102
Q

True/False: The four types of smoke are obscuring, marking, incendiary, and deception

A

False

103
Q

_________is a smoke curtain used on the battlefield between threat observation points and friendly units to mask friendly forces, positions, and activities.

a) Signaling smoke
b) Obscuring smoke
c) Screening smoke
d) Signaling smoke

A

c) Screening smoke

104
Q

_________is placed on or near the threat to suppress threat observers and to minimize their vision.

a) Deception smoke
b) Obscuring smoke
c) Screening smoke
d) Masking smoke

A

b) Obscuring smoke

105
Q

Use the quick smoke mission to obscure areas from_______meters up to ________meters wide.

a) 600 to 1500
b) 150 to 500
c) 600 to 1000
d) 150 to 600

A

d) 150 to 600

106
Q

True/False: A quick smoke mission requires the observer to send length, attitude, maneuver target direction, wind direction, and duration in the call for fire.

A

True

107
Q

During a quick smoke mission with shell smoke (HC) use HE in adjustment until a ______meter bracket is split. The observer then requests shell smoke. Fire one smoke round, and make any necessary corrections. Then request FFE.

a) 100
b) 200
c) 400
d) 50

A

b) 200

108
Q

Final protective fires may be any distance from the friendly position, but is normally within _______to________ meters of friendly positions.

a) 200 to 400
b) 200 to 600
c) 400 to 600
d) 100 to 400

A

a) 200 to 400

109
Q

True/False: The observer adjusts only the center weapon onto the center grid of the FPF when adjusting for an automated FDC that uses muzzle velocity variations and special corrections.

A

True

110
Q

True/False: During multiple missions the observer should use the assigned target number followed by corrections

A

True

111
Q

A linear irregularly shaped target requires the observer to send Target description, length, width, and ________in the third transmission of the call for fire.

a) Direction
b) Elevation
c) Attitude
d) Radius

A

c) Attitude

112
Q

Attitude is sent to the nearest ________and less than 3200 mils

a) 1 mil
b) 10 mils
c) 20 mils
d) 100 mils

A

d) 100 mils

113
Q

What is the max range of the M777 155mm standard HE?

a) 18200
b) 37500
c) 22500
d) 21700

A

c) 22500

114
Q

What is the max range of the M224 60mm mortar?

a) 3500
b) 3489
c) 3600
d) 3689

A

b) 3489

115
Q

What is the max range of the M252 81mm mortar?

a) 5800
b) 4800
c) 4600
d) 5400

A

a) 5800

116
Q

What is the max range of the M120 120mm mortar?

a) 5800
b) 7200
c) 7400
d) 6700

A

b) 7200

117
Q

What is the max range of M982 Excalibur?

a) 44,000
b) 24,500
c) 22,200
d) 37,500

A

d) 37,500

118
Q

A_______operation is a coordinated attack using a combination of FW and Army RW assets normally supported by artillery or NSFS. Electronic warfare (EW), air defense artillery, and intelligence, surveillance, and reconnaissance assets also may support. To maximize the effectiveness of a ______, fires are integrated, mutually supportive, and synergetic, not simply deconflicted.

a) JARN Joint Air Reconnaissance Network
b) JAAT Joint Air Attack Team
c) JAAF Joint Aviation Assault Force
d) JAST Joint Air and Surface Team

A

b) JAAT Joint Air Attack Team

119
Q

Size, activity, location, time, remarks (SALT-R) is the standard format for passing BDA information. Minimum requirements include ___________

a) Good effects, damage, and time
b) Good bombs, no need for re-attack
c) End of mission
d) Successful, unsuccessful, or unknown

A

d) Successful, unsuccessful, or unknown

120
Q

JTACs and FAC(A)s can use _______to develop and correlate targeting data, mark targets, and provide terminal guidance operations.

a) LLDRs
b) Digitally aided CAS
c) Ground burst illumination
d) JFOs

A

d) JFOs

121
Q

What is line 8 of the JFO target brief?

a) Mark type
b) Location of nearest friendlies
c) Target location
d) Egress

A

b) Location of nearest friendlies

122
Q

True/False: When communicating direct to a CAS platform and a JTAC or FAC(A) is not available the observer must state “I am not a JTAC” or “I am a JFO”.

A

True

123
Q

True/False: After receiving the army attack aviation call for fire from the ground forces, the aircrews are not required to identify the location of the friendly element and the target prior to conducting an engagement.

A

False

124
Q

True/False: Army Attack Aviation and Special Operations Forces (SOF) gunship use the same call for fire format

A

True

125
Q

How would an observer maintain positive control of SOF Gunship or Army Attacks Aviation during engagement?

a) State “I am not a JTAC”
b) State “cleared hot”
c) State “check fire”
d) State “at my command”

A

d) State “at my command”

126
Q

True/False: Clearance to Fire is the transmission of the Aviation/SOF gunship call for fire unless “at my command” or “danger close” has been stated

A

True

127
Q

If “danger close” has been announced in an Aviation/SOF gunship call for fire what else must be passed to the attacking aircraft?

a) Grid to nearest friendlies
b) Ground commanders risk assessment
c) Ground commanders initials
d) At my command

A

c) Ground commanders initials

128
Q

What fixed wing aircraft is equipped with 30mm, 105mm, and small diameter bombs?

a) F16
b) B-1B
c) F/A-18
d) AC-130W

A

d) AC-130W

129
Q

Which fixed wing aircraft can be equipped with 20mm, 2.75 inch rockets, AGM 65, GBU, and GP bomb?

a) B-52
b) F-16
c) F-15E
d) F-35

A

b) F-16

130
Q

True/False: The AH-64 is equipped with 30mm, 2.75 inch rockets, and AGM-176 Hellfire.

A

False

131
Q

What UAS can be equipped with GBU and Hellfire?

a) MQ-1C
b) MQ-9
c) MQ-5B
d) Predator

A

b) MQ-9

132
Q

What brevity term is sighting of a FRIENDLY aircraft or ground position?

a) Contract
b) Spot
c) Eyes on
d) Visual

A

d) Visual

133
Q

What brevity term acknowledges sighting a specified reference point (either visually or via sensor)?

a) Visual
b) Spot
c) Contact
d) Joy

A

c) Contact

134
Q

What brevity term is sighting a target, non-friendly aircraft, or enemy position?

a) Tally
b) Contact
c) Bogey
d) Squirter

A

a) Tally

135
Q

Brevity: Acquisition of laser designation or the platform is laser spot tracker (LST) capable

a) Capture
b) Spot
c) Contact
d) Acquire

A

b) Spot

136
Q

Brevity: The laser designator system is inoperative.

a) Dead eye
b) Blind
c) No joy
d) Terminated

A

a) Dead eye

137
Q

Brevity: Mark/marking a target by infrared (IR) pointer.

a) Snake
b) Pulse
c) Lasing
d) Sparkle

A

d) Sparkle

138
Q

Brevity: Oscillate an IR pointer in a figure eight about a target.

a) Pulse
b) Snake
c) Sparkle
d) Rope

A

b) Snake

139
Q

Brevity: Once the aircrew sees the IR energy and is able to discern between the friendly and target end of the pointer, ________________ call may be made.

a) Tally
b) Match sparkle
c) Cease sparkle
d) Contact sparkle

A

d) Contact sparkle

140
Q

Brevity: Specified surface target or object has been acquired and is being tracked with an onboard sensor.

a) Track
b) Captured
c) Spot
d) Contact

A

b) Captured

141
Q

Brevity: FRIENDLY air-to-surface missile launch

a) One away
b) Remington
c) Rifle
d) Winchester

A

c) Rifle

142
Q

Brevity: No ordnance remaining

a) Remington
b) Winchester
c) Rifle
d) Browning

A

b) Winchester

143
Q

___________ is the unintentional or incidental injury or damage to persons or objects that are not lawful military targets.

a) Fratricide
b) Collateral damage
c) Error probability
d) Retrograde

A

b) Collateral damage

144
Q

True/False: Regardless of friendly forces posture, commanders, JTACs, and aircrew will refer to the standing posture column and use this distance to determine when danger close procedures apply

A

True

145
Q

The mission of the Field Artillery is to _________________ the enemy with integrated fires to enable maneuver commanders to dominate in unified land operations.

a) Destroy, suppress, or neutralize
b) Destroy, deter, or defeat
c) Destroy, defeat, or disrupt
d) Destroy, deny, or disrupt

A

c) Destroy, defeat, or disrupt

146
Q

Field Artillery contributes to unified land operations by ______________ in space and time on single or multiple targets with precision, near- precision, and area fire capabilities.

a) Massing Fire
b) Placing indirect fire
c) Denying enemy
d) Converging fires

A

a) Massing fires

147
Q

Actions executed to deliberately mislead adversary military, paramilitary, or violent extremist organization decision makers, thereby causing the adversary to take specific actions (or inactions) that will contribute to the accomplishment of the friendly mission.

a) Defeat
b) Deceive
c) Delay
d) Destroy

A

b) Deceive

148
Q

Tactical mission task that occurs when an enemy force has temporarily or permanently lost the physical means or the will to fight.

a) Defeat
b) Deceive
c) Delay
d) Destroy

A

a) Defeat

149
Q

Slow the time of arrival of enemy forces or capabilities or alter the ability of the enemy or adversary to project forces or capabilities.

a) Suppress
b) Defeat
c) Deceive
d) Delay

A

d) Delay

150
Q

Tactical mission task that physically renders an enemy force combat-ineffective until it is reconstituted.

a) Destroy
b) Defeat
c) Deceive
d) Neutralize

A

a) Destroy

151
Q

Tactical mission task in which a commander integrates direct and indirect fires, terrain, and obstacles to upset an enemy’s formation or tempo, interrupt the enemy’s timetable, or cause enemy forces to commit prematurely or attack in a piecemeal fashion.

a) Divert
b) Disrupt
c) Defeat
d) Deceive

A

b) Disrupt

152
Q

The act of drawing the attention and forces of an enemy from the point of the principal operation; an attack, alarm, or feint that diverts attention.

a) Divert
b) Deceive
c) Defeat
d) Delay

A

a) Divert

153
Q

Tactical mission task that results in rendering enemy personnel or materiel incapable of interfering with a particular operation.

a) Delay
b) Neutralize
c) Disrupt
d) Suppress

A

b) Neutralize

154
Q

Tactical mission task that results in temporary degradation of the performance of a force or weapon system below the level needed to accomplish the mission.

a) Neutralize
b) Delay
c) Disrupt
d) Suppress

A

d) Suppress

155
Q

Activity that neutralizes, destroys, or temporarily degrades surface-based enemy air defenses by destructive and/or disruptive means.

a) Immediate Suppression
b) Destruction mission
c) Suppression of enemy air defense
d) Offensive task

A

c) Suppression of enemy air defense

156
Q

A__________is a tactical plan for using the weapons of a unit or formation so that their fire will be coordinated.

a) Scheme of maneuver
b) Fire plan
c) Annex D
d) Offensive plan

A

b) Fire plan

157
Q

A______________is a target whose loss to the enemy will significantly contribute to the success of the friendly course of action.

a) High value target
b) High value individual
c) High payoff target
d) High yield target

A

c) High payoff target

158
Q

A______________is a Target the enemy commander requires for the successful competition of the mission.

a) High payoff target
b) High yield target
c) High value individual
d) High value target

A

d) High value target

159
Q

________________is normally a high volume of fires delivered over a short period of time to maximize surprise and shock effect.

a) Suppression Fire
b) Offensive Fire
c) Destruction fire
d) Preparation Fire

A

d) Preparation Fire

160
Q

_____________is an offensive task that is designed to develop the situation or regain contact.

a) Preparation fires
b) Deliberate contact
c) Movement to contact
d) Scheme of maneuver

A

c) Movement to contact

161
Q

_____________is an offensive task that destroys or defeats enemy forces, seizes and secures terrain, or both.

a) Movement to contact
b) Exploitation
c) Attack
d) Deliberate attack

A

c) Attack

162
Q

____________is an offensive task that usually follows the conduct of a successful attack and is designed to disorganize the enemy in depth.

a) Deep fires
b) Attack
c) Disrupt
d) Exploitation

A

d) Exploitation

163
Q

_____________is an offensive task designed to catch or cut off a hostile force attempting to escape, with the aim of destroying it.

a) Exploitation
b) Neutralize
c) Movement to contact
d) Pursuit

A

d) Pursuit

164
Q

A_____________is a task conducted to defeat an attacking enemy force, retain key terrain, gain time, economize forces, and develop conditions favorable for offensive or stability tasks.

a) Defensive task
b) Offensive task
c) Concept of fires
d) Scheme of maneuver

A

a) Defensive task

165
Q

____________is a defensive task that concentrates on denying enemy forces access to designated terrain for a specific time rather than destroying the enemy outright.

a) Terrain denial
b) Specified defense
c) Terrain defense
d) Area defense

A

d) Area defense

166
Q

_____________is a defensive task that concentrates in the destruction or defeat of the enemy through a decisive attack by a striking force.

a) Area defense
b) Deception defense
c) Mobile defense
d) Mobile strike

A

c) Mobile defense

167
Q

_____________is a defensive task that involves organized movement away from the enemy.

a) Retrograde
b) Retreat
c) Recession
d) Reconnoiter

A

a) Retrograde

168
Q

___________________are those operations undertaken by a commander to provide early and accurate warning of enemy operations, to provide the force being protected with time and maneuver space within which to react to the enemy, and to develop the situation to allow the commander to effectively use the protected force.

a) Passage of lines
b) Security operations
c) Signaling operations
d) Force protection

A

b) Security operations

169
Q

___________is an operation in which a force moves forward or rearward through another force’s combat positions with the intention of moving into or out of contact with the enemy.

a) Forward passage of lines
b) Movement to contact
c) Position exploitation
d) Passage of lines

A

d) Passage of lines

170
Q

_______________occurs when a unit passes through another unit’s positions while moving toward the enemy.

a) Hasty attack
b) Movement to attack
c) Forward passage of lines
d) Enemy passage of lines

A

c) Forward passage of lines

171
Q

__________is a tactical mission task in which the unit employs all available means to break through or establish a passage through an enemy defense, obstacle, minefield or fortification.

a) Breach
b) Clear
c) Attack
d) Offense

A

a) Breach

172
Q

__________is the act of designing an operating force, support staff, or sustainment package of specific size and composition to meet a unique task or mission.

a) Retrograde
b) Task organizing
c) Coordinating fires
d) Mission organizing

A

b) Task organizing

173
Q

_____________is assigned to and forming an essential part of a military organization as listed in its table of organization for the Army, Airforce, and Marine Corps, and are assigned to the operating forces for the Navy.

a) Assign
b) Task organized
c) Operational
d) Organic

A

d) Organic

174
Q

__________is to place units or personnel in an organization where such placement is relatively permanent, and/or where such organization controls and administers the units or personnel for the primary function, or greater portion of the functions, of the unit or personnel.

a) Assign
b) Organic
c) Attach
d) Task

A

a) Assign

175
Q

_____________is the authority to perform those functions of command over subordinate forces involving organizing and employing commands and forces, assigning tasks, designating objectives, and giving authoritative direction necessary to accomplish the mission.

a) Tactical control
b) Operational control
c) Organizational control
d) Positive control

A

b) Operational control

176
Q

______________is the authority over forces that is limited to the detailed direction and control of movements or maneuvers within the operational area necessary to accomplish missions or tasks assigned.

a) Positive control
b) Operational control
c) Organizational control
d) Tactical control

A

d) Tactical control

177
Q

______________ is a support relationship requiring a force to support another specific force and authorizing it to answer directly to the supported force’s request for assistance.

a) General Support
b) Operational Support
c) Reinforcing
d) Direct Support

A

d) Direct Support

178
Q

______________is a support relationship requiring a force to support another supporting unit.

a) General supporting reinforcing
b) Reinforcing
c) Indirect support
d) Direct support

A

b) Reinforcing

179
Q

______________is that support which is given to the supported force as a whole and not to any particular subdivision thereof.

a) General support
b) General support reinforcing
c) Direct support
d) Close support

A

a) General support

180
Q

____________is the delivery technique of applying accurately computed corrections (not determined by firing) to standard firing data for all nonstandard conditions (weather, weapon, ammunition, rotation of the earth) to deliver accurate surprise, nuclear, or nonnuclear fire on any known target in any direction from any weapon limited only by the characteristics of the weapon and ammunition used.

a) Accurate Fire
b) Predetermined Fire
c) Responsive Fire
d) Predicted Fire

A

d) Predicted fire

181
Q

____________is the specific targeting of enemy indirect fire systems including their command and control, sensors, platforms, and logistics before they engage friendly forces.

a) Counterfire
b) Reactive counterfire
c) Proactive counterfire
d) Deliberate counterfire

A

c) Proactive counterfire

182
Q

____________provides immediate indirect fires to neutralize, destroy, and suppress enemy indirect fire weapons once acquired.

a) SEAD mission
b) Reactive counterfire
c) Immediate suppression
d) Proactive counterfire

A

b) Reactive counterfire

183
Q

_______________tasks and systems that provide collective and coordinated use of Army indirect fires, air and missile defense, and joint fires through the targeting process.

a) Offensive fires
b) Deliberate targeting
c) Fires warfighting function
d) Joint fire support

A

c) Fires warfighting function

184
Q

What is NOT a method in which to achieve responsive fires?

a) Rehearsals
b) Planning fire support requirements in advance
c) Streamlining the call for fire by shortening the number of transmissions
d) Continually training observers in all aspects of fire support

A

c) Streamlining the call for fire by shortening the number of transmissions

185
Q

The goal of the Field Artillery is to achieve ________________. This enables greater effectiveness and a reduced logistical footprint. It requires that all five of the requirements for accurate fire are consistently being met.

a) Accurate and sufficient fires
b) Lasting operational effects
c) First round fire for effect
d) Fires that support the scheme of maneuver

A

c) First round fire for effect

186
Q

The___________is an Army coordination organization that provides selected operational functions between the Army and the air component commander. Its mission is to provide the critical and continuous coordination between the air and land commanders.

a) Ground liaison detachment
b) Battlefield coordination detachment
c) Fires and effects coordination cell
d) Joint fires cell

A

b) Battlefield coordination detachment

187
Q

The_______________plans, coordinates, integrates, synchronizes and deconflicts the employment and assessment of fires for both current and future operations. They’re generally organized with a fire support officer and assistants, an air defense airspace management element (ADAM), an electronic warfare element, a targeting element, and digital systems operators.

a) Battalion fires cell
b) Joint fires cell
c) Division Fire cell
d) Brigade fires cell

A

d) Brigade fires cell

188
Q

A____________is a subordinate operational component of a tactical air control system designed to provide air liaison to land forces and for the control of aircraft.

a) Joint Fires Observer
b) Tactical Air Control Party
c) Joint Terminal Attack Cell
d) Terminal Attack Control Element

A

b) Tactical Air Control Party

189
Q

___________is the detection, identification, and location of a target in sufficient detail to permit the effective employment of weapons.

a) Target acquisition
b) The targeting process
c) Attack guidance
d) Target exploitation

A

a) Target acquisition

190
Q

______________typically neutralize or incapacitate a target or modify adversarial behavior without causing permanent injury, death, or gross physical destruction. At times, a target may return to pre-engagement functionality as part of the desired effect. Assessment of this effect is usually measured by time and level of effort required for recovery of the target.

a) Nonlethal effects
b) Suppression effects
c) Influencing effects
d) Nonkinetic effects

A

a) Nonlethal effects

191
Q

____________is a clear and concise expression of the purpose of the operation and the desired military end state that supports mission command, provides focus to the staff , and helps subordinate and supporting commanders act to achieve the commander’s desired results without further orders, even when the operation does not unfold as planned.

a) Operations Order
b) Commander’s intent
c) Scheme of maneuver
d) Concept of operations

A

b) Commander’s intent

192
Q

The____________is the detailed, logical sequence of targets and fire support events to find and engage targets to accomplish the supported commander’s intent. It’s planned to support the commander’s scheme of maneuver and is built on the fire support tasks developed by the FSCOORD/FSO.

a) Commander’s intent
b) Concept of maneuver
c) Concept of fires
d) Scheme of fires

A

d) Scheme of fires

193
Q

____________is the commander’s guidance to his staff, subordinate commanders, fire support planners, and supporting agencies to organize and employ fire support in accordance with the relative importance of the unit’s mission.

a) Scheme of fires
b) Priority of fires
c) High payoff target list
d) Concept of fires

A

b) Priority of fires

194
Q

_______________is the continuing process of analyzing, allocating, and scheduling fires to describe how fires are used to facilitate the actions of the maneuver force.

a) Fire Support planning
b) Targeting
c) Fires processing
d) Fires synchronization

A

a) Fire Support planning

195
Q

A_______________is a plan that addresses each means of fire support available and describes how Army indirect fires, joint fires, and target acquisition are integrated with maneuver to facilitate operational success.

a) Concept of operations
b) Scheme of fires
c) Fire support plan
d) Fire support execution matrix

A

c) Fire support plan

196
Q

____________is the planning and executing of fire so that targets are adequately covered by a suitable weapon or group of weapons.

a) Fire support coordination
b) Fire support planning
c) Joint fires coordination
d) Fire support execution

A

a) Fire support coordination

197
Q

___________is the process of selecting and prioritizing targets and matching the appropriate response to them, considering operational requirements and capabilities.

a) Proactive counterfire
b) Target execution
c) Target prosecution
d) Targeting

A

d) Targeting

198
Q

______________are criteria applied to enemy activity (acquisitions and battlefield information) used in deciding whether the activity is a target.

a) Target selection standards
b) Attack guidance matrix
c) Target synch matrix
d) Task execution

A

a) Target selection standards

199
Q

__________is the first step in the targeting process. It begins with the military decision-making process (MDMP). It does not end when the plan is completed; the decided function continues throughout the operation.

a) Detect
b) Assess
c) Decide
d) Attack

A

c) Decide

200
Q

The second step of the targeting process, ____________, directs how and which target acquisition assets find the specified targets to the requisite level of accuracy.

a) Detect
b) Assess
c) Decide
d) Deliver

A

a) Detect

201
Q

___________occurs throughout the operations process. Targeting is continuously refined and adjusted between the commander and staff as the operation unfolds. Combat assessment measures how effectively attack systems and munitions functioned, effects on the target, and a recommendation as to whether the target should be reattacked.

a) Tactical risk assessment
b) Assess
c) Measure of effectiveness
d) Decide

A

b) Assess

202
Q

___________is the geographical area where high-value Targets can be acquired and engaged by friendly forces.

a) Target area of interest
b) Named area of interest
c) Known area of interest
d) Series of targets

A

a) Target area of interest

203
Q

The _____________is the operation that directly accomplishes the mission.

a) Shaping operation
b) Direct engagement
c) Decisive operation
d) Strategic operation

A

c) Decisive operation

204
Q

A _____________is a criterion used to assess friendly actions that is tied to measuring task accomplishment.

a) Collateral damage estimate
b) Measure of performance
c) Effects assessment
d) Measure of effectiveness

A

b) Measure of performance

205
Q

A___________is a criterion used to assess changes in system behavior, capability, or operational environment that is tied to measuring the attainment of an end state, achievement of an objective, or creation of an effect.

a) Assessment
b) Measure of effectiveness
c) Measure of performance
d) Patterns of life

A

b) Measure of effectiveness

206
Q

______________is the process by which the supported commander ensures that fires or their effects will have no unintended consequences on friendly units or the scheme of maneuver.

a) Collateral damage estimation
b) Fire support coordination measures
c) Airspace coordinating measure
d) Clearance of fires

A

d) Clearance of fires

207
Q

Permissive fire support coordination measures _____________the attack of Targets by reducing the coordination necessary for the clearance of fires.

a) Restrictive
b) Redundant
c) Increase
d) Facilitate

A

d) Facilitate

208
Q

True/False: Restrictive fire support coordination measures are those that provide safeguards for friendly forces and non-combatants, facilities, or terrain.

A

True

209
Q

A______________is a line that delineates surface areas for the purpose of facilitating coordination and deconfliction of operations between adjacent units, formations, or areas (JP 3-0). It divides up areas of operation and define responsibility for clearance of fires. It is both permissive and restrictive in nature.

a) Coordinated fire line
b) Phase line
c) Fire support coordination line
d) Boundary

A

d) Boundary

210
Q

A____________is an area assigned to an artillery unit where individual artillery systems can maneuver to increase their survivability.

a) Free fire area
b) Position area for artillery
c) Firing point
d) Firing area

A

b) Position area for artillery

211
Q

A___________is an area , usually a friendly unit or location which the maneuver commander designates as critical to the protection of an asset whose loss would seriously jeopardize the mission.

a) Critical friendly zone
b) Censor zone
c) Artillery target intelligence zone
d) Call for fire zone

A

a) Critical friendly zone

212
Q

A__________is an area from which Radar is prohibited from reporting acquisitions. Normally placed around friendly weapon systems to prevent them from being acquired by friendly radars.

a) Artillery target intelligence zone
b) Call for fire zone
c) Critical friendly zone
d) Censor zone

A

d) Censor zone

213
Q

A____________is a line beyond which conventional, indirect, surface fire support means may create effects at any time within the boundaries of the establishing HQ without additional coordination.

a) Fire Support Coordination Line
b) Coordinated Firing Line
c) Restrictive Firing Line
d) Boundary

A

b) Coordinated Firing Line

214
Q

____________facilitate the expeditious engagement of targets of opportunity beyond the coordinating measures. It applies to all fires of air, land, and maritime based weapon systems using any type of munition against surface targets.

a) Coordinated Firing Line
b) Free Fire Area
c) Fire Support Coordination Line
d) Phase Line

A

c) Fire Support Coordination Line

215
Q

A_______________ is a specific designated area into which any weapon system may fire without additional coordination with the establishing HQ. It is used to expedite joint fires and to facilitate emergency jettison of aircraft munitions.

a) Restrictive Fire Area
b) Coordinated Firing Area
c) Coordinated Firing Line
d) Free Fire Area

A

d) Free Fire Area

216
Q

A___________is a three-dimensional area used to facilitate the integration of joint fires and airspace.

a) Kill Box
b) Airspace Coordination Area
c) Free Fire Area
d) No Fire Area

A

a) Kill Box

217
Q

A____________is a land area designated by the appropriate commander into which fires or their effects are prohibited.

a) No Fire Area
b) Free Fire Area
c) Restrictive Fire Area
d) Impact Area

A

a) No Fire Area

218
Q

A_____________is an area in which specific restrictions are imposed and into which fires (or the effects of fires) that exceed those restrictions will not be delivered without coordination with the establishing HQ.

a) Restricted Area
b) No Fire Area
c) Restrictive Fire Area
d) Restrictive Firing Line

A

c) Restrictive Fire Area

219
Q

The ___________is a line established between converging friendly forces — one or both may be moving — that prohibits joint fires or the effects of joint fires across the line without coordination with the affected force. The purpose of the line is to prevent friendly fire and duplication of engagements by converging friendly forces.

a) Restrictive Firing Line
b) Coordinated Firing Line
c) Phase Line
d) Boundary

A

a) Restrictive Firing Line

220
Q

A three-dimensional block of airspace in a target area, established by the appropriate commander, in which friendly aircraft are reasonably safe from friendly surface fires. It is normally established using lateral, altitude, or time separation, or a combination thereof.

a) Airspace Coordination Area
b) Kill Box
c) Air Corridor
d) Airspace Coordination Measure

A

a) Airspace Coordination Area

221
Q

What format would an observer use when the decision has been made to attack a target using CAS?

a) CAS 9 Line
b) CAS Brief
c) JFO Target Brief
d) Joint Tactical Air Strike Request

A

c) JFO Target Brief

Joint Fire Support (1 decks)

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