Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Anatomy Practical 2 > First Term Material > Flashcards

First Term Material Flashcards

1
Q

Anatomical planes

A

flat surface that passes through the body to provide a frame of reference in 3D, includes frontal plane (coronal), transverse (horizontal) plane and saggital (medial) plane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Frontal plane

A

(coronal plane) divides the body into anterior and posterior portions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Transverse plane

A

(horizontal plane) divides the body into superior and inferior portions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Saggital plane

A

(medial plane) divides the body into right and left segments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Front of the body terminology

A

ventral or anterior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Back of the body terminology

A

dorsal or posterior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What does cranial refer to?

A

superior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What does caudal refer to?

A

inferior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Proximal

A

closer to the origin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Distal

A

further away from the origin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

4 body tissues

A

epithelia, nervous tissue, muscle tissue and connective tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Epithelia

A

in general, is classified based on cell morphology and number of layers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Nervous tissue

A

main component of the brain, spinal cord and nerves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Muscle tissue

A

contractile tissue controlled either voluntarily (skeletal muscle) or involuntarily (cardiac and smooth muscles)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Connective tissue

A

tissue that connects, supports, binds or separates other tissues or organs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Types of Connective tissue

A

(1) proper connective tissue - can be loose tissue functioning as a binding tissue (ex. adipose tissue) or it can be dense tissue that resists mechanical stress (ex. ligaments, tendons and deep fascia)
(2) blood - transports medium for respiratory gases, nutrients and wastes
(3) bone - supports and protects organs, attachment site for muscles
(4) cartilage - provides cushion and support (ex. hyaline cartilage covering ends of bones and fibrocartilage between intervertebral discs)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Fascia

A

type of connective tissue, it can be (1) superficial fascia also known as the hypodermis (below the dermis), contains adipose (loose connective tissue), fat storage, passageway for nerves and blood vessels (2) deep fascia found between adjacent muscles, no fat, dense proper connective tissue, creates compartments, surrounds individual and groups of muscles and large nerves and vessels, reduces friction during muscle contractions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Joints

A

articulations or sites where two or more bones meet, provides stability and / or mobility to the skeleton

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Classification of joints

A

(1) functional - immovable, slightly movable or freely movable joints
(2) structural - fibrous, cartilaginous or synovial joint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Fibrous joint

A

connected by dense regular connective tissue, lacks a joint cavity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Types of fibrous joints

A

(1) sutures - located between skull bones, immovable
(2) syndesmoses - connected by ligaments, movement range depends on length (ligaments of fibula and tibia)
(3) gomphoses - peg-in-socket joint for root of tooth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Cartilaginous joint

A

bones united by cartilage, lack a joint cavity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Types of cartilaginous joints

A

(1) synchondroses - hyaline cartilage, immovable

(2) symphyses - fibrocartilage, slightly movable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Synovial Joint

A

fluid-filled joint cavity, contains synovial fluid, classified according to degree of movement and shape

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Classifying synovial joint based off degrees of movement

A

(1) non-axial movement - gliding does not involve rotation around an axis (plane joint - ex. intercarpal joint)
(2) uni-axial movement - movement around a single axis (hinge joint - ex. elbow) (pivot joint - ex. proximal radioulnar joint in forearm)
(3) bi-axial movement - movement around two axes (condyloid joint - ex. metacarpophalangeal joint) (saddle joint - ex. carpometacarpal joint at thumb), includes flexion extension abduction and adduction
(4) multi-axial movement - movement around multiple axis (ball and socket joint - ex. shoulder), flexion, extension, abduction, adduction and rotation in all planes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Human skeleton

A

consists of 206 bones including the axial skeleton (80) and the appendicular skeleton (126)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Axial skeleton consists of …

A

skull, vertebral column, ribs, sternum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Appendicular skeleton consists of …

A

upper and lower limbs, shoulder girdle (attaches the upper limb to the trunk) and the pelvic girdle (attaches the lower limb to the trunk)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Girdle

A

attaches the bone of the appendicular skeleton to the bones of the axial skeleton

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Surfaces that form joints

A

(1) head - bony expansion on a narrow neck
(2) facet - smooth articular surface
(3) condyle - rounded articular projection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Projections that are sites of muscle and ligament attachments

A

(1) process - any bony prominence
(2) tubercle - small rounded projection
(3) tuberosity - larger rounded projection (can be rough)
(4) spine - sharp slender projection
(5) crest - narrow ridge
(6) line - narrow ridge, less prominent than crest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Depressions and openings of the bones

A

(1) fossa - shallow depression
(2) notch - indentation on edge of structure (looks like a bit out)
(3) foramen - round / oval opening through bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Development of vertebrate from birth

A

fetus only has one curvature, at birth humans have a primary thoracic and sacral curves formed, once you become a child, you develop secondary cervical and lumbar curves, development of the curvatures are important for stability and holding up the head with increasing mass

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Scoliosis

A

abnormal lateral curvature (spine curved away from midline)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Kyphosis

A

exaggerated thoracic curvature

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Lordosis

A

exaggerated lumbar curvature

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Anatomy of the vertebral column

A

7 cervical, 12 thoracic, 5 lumbar, 1 sacral (5 bones fused together) and 1 coccyx bones (4 fused together)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Pedicle

A

base of the superior and inferior articular processes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Cervical vertebrae

A

(C1-C7), bifid spinous process (shorter) (appearance is like a dolphin fin), transverse process on each side contains a foramen in them

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Axis and Atlas

A

axis (C2) - has a projection known as the dens and this articulates with the atlas (C1), it is a large projection that goes up and articulates with the atlas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Injury to the atlas (C1)

A

vertical compressive force - force from skull onto the atlas, coming from above onto the skull causing a Jefferson fracture (burst), can occur from diving into shallow water, drives the base of the atlas and the posterior and anterior portions of the atlas detach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Injury to the axis (C2)

A

hyperextension of the head and neck can cause of traumatic spondylosis of C2 in a Hangman’s fracture, neck is in place and the head is forcefully extended, involves breaking between the inferior and superior articular processes of C2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Thoracic vertebrae

A

(T1-T12), the spinous processes are exaggerated (much longer), principle responsibility is interacting with the ribs, articulates with the ribs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Thoracic vertebrae and the ribs - articulation

A

ribs touch the spine in 3 locations - touching two vertebrae and a transverse costal facet, the transverse vertebrae contain a superior and inferior demifacet on each vertebrae and these are known as the superior costal facet and inferior costal facet, the head of the rib articulates with the inferior costal facet of the superior vertebra and the superior costal facet of the inferior vertebra, 3rd point of contact is the tubercle of the rib articulates with the transverse costal facet of the transverse process of the inferior vertebra

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Costal groove

A

ribs offer protection for vessels that run in the costal groove (located on the lower inside of each rib)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Costal cartilage

A

attaches bone of the ribs to the sternum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Sternum

A

manubrium, the body of the sternum and the xiphoid process

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Manubrium articulates with …

A

the first rib

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

True ribs

A

have their own costal cartilage connecting them to the sternum, ribs 1-7

50
Q

False ribs

A

use the costal cartilage of the first 7 true ribs to reach the sternum, 8-12

51
Q

Floating ribs

A

do not actually make contact with the sternum, not directly attached, ribs 11-12

52
Q

Articulation point between axial and appendicular skeleton

A

is between the clavicle and the manubrium of the sternum

53
Q

Shoulder girdle consists of …

A

clavicle and the scapula

54
Q

Two joints of the shoulder girdle …

A

sterno-clavicular joint and the acromio-clavicular joint

55
Q

Landmarks of the scapula

A

(1) acromion - highest point of the scapula, points out towards the should is on the dorsal scapula
(2) suprascapular notch - wedge cute away appearance, at the top of the scapula
(3) spine - divides the scapula into two fossas, the supraspinous fossa and the infraspinous fossa

56
Q

Bicipital groove also known as

A

intertubercular groove

57
Q

Parts of the more proximal humerus

A

head, neck, greater tubercle (more posterior) and lesser tubercle (more anterior) near the neck of the humerus, bicipital groove (or intertubercular groove) runs between the greater and lesser tubercle down the lateral humerus, where it meets up with the deltoid tuberosity, on the posterior shaft of the humerus is the radial groove

58
Q

Parts of the more distal humerus

A

medial and later epicondyles, between the medial and lateral epicondyles posteriorly is the olecranon fossa, and anteriorly is the coronoid fossa, between the olecranon fossa and the coronoid fossa is the trochlea

59
Q

Ulna plays a larger role in …

A

the elbow joint movement, but little in hand movement, therefore has a larger proximal end and a smaller distal end

60
Q

Radius plays a larger role in …

A

wrist movement and little in elbow movement therefore has a larger distal end and a smaller proximal end

61
Q

Head of the radius and the head of the ulna are …

A

opposite to one another, at the proximal radioulnar joint (near the elbow), the head of the radius articulates with the ulna in a pivot joint, and at the distal radioulnar joint (near the wrist) where the head of the ulna articulates with the radius

62
Q

Ulna landmarks

A

olecranon is the more superior surface at the top, and coronoid process is the bottom of the trochlear notch, the radial notch is inferior to the trochlear notch on the posterior ulna and the ulna tuberosity is on the medial superior shaft, the styloid process of the ulna is at the distal end lateral to the head of the ulna

63
Q

Radius landmarks

A

head and neck at proximal end, radius tubercle on the medial side, styloid process on the lateral distal end and ulnar notch (for the head of the ulna) at the medial distal end, dorsal tubercle is on the posterior distal end of the radius

64
Q

Radius and ulna held together by

A

interosseous membrane

65
Q

Falling on an outstretched arm

A

the radius head becomes more proximal when fractured (goes backward) when you fall on an outstretched arm, only the radius is fractured through this injury because it’s taking all of the pressure and force from the wrist, the ulna is often protected as its more proximal and inside articulating with the radius

66
Q

Type of joint - sternoclavicular joint

A

bi-axial, saddle joint

67
Q

Type of joint - acromioclavicular joint

A

non-axial, plane joint

68
Q

Venue comitantes

A

deep veins are often paired with arteries, this pairing is known as venue comitantes

69
Q

Veins of the brachium (and just above)

A

subclavian vein passes first rib and then becomes axillary vein which branches off to form the cephalic vein and then further down branches off to the anterior and posterior circumflex humeral veins and at about teres major the axillary vein becomes the basilic vein and the brachial vein … basilic vein runs medially down the arm and cephalic runs laterally down the arm and the median cubital vein connects the two in the cubital fossa

70
Q

Zygapophyseal joint

A

also known as facet joint - where the inferior and superior facets come together of the vertebral column

71
Q

damage to the anterior longitudinal ligament

A

extreme hyperextension

72
Q

damage to the supraspinous ligament

A

hyperflexion

73
Q

ligamentum flava

A

connects laminae of adjacent vertebrae

74
Q

pars interarticularis

A

piece between articulations, located between inferior and superior articular processes of the facet joint

75
Q

spondylolysis

A

spine divide common at L4/L5 due to repeated stress fractures caused by hyperextension (ex. gymnastics), excessive hyperextension

76
Q

spondylolisthesis

A

spine slips forward, facet joint is no longer able to hold vertebrae in place against force of bodyweight, if compromised, it can slip

77
Q

enlargements of the spinal cord

A

braids of nerves leaving at the region at cervical and lumbar because nerves leave to upper and lower limbs at these points

78
Q

Vertebral column ends at …

A

L2, but nerve roots continue lower

79
Q

Filum terminale

A

fibrous terminal filament, runs from the end of the spinal cord to the coccyx

80
Q

Pairs of cervical spinal nerves

A

8 pairs, but only 7 cervical vertebrae because the cervical nerves exit above the corresponding vertebra, but there is an eighth one below C7

81
Q

Spinal nerves leaving vertebra (other than cervical region)

A

they exit below the corresponding vertebra

82
Q

How many pairs of spinal nerves are there?

A

31 pairs - 8 cervical, 12 thoracic, 5 lumbar, 5 sacral and 1 coccyx

83
Q

Meninges

A

3 connective tisse membranes that protect the CNS and blood vessels, including dura mater (more external), arachnoid mater (middle layer) and the pia mater (right on the outside of the spinal cord)

84
Q

denticulate ligament

A

pair, one on each side and it is an extension of the meninges - lateral expansion of the pia mater

85
Q

white matter

A

region outside of the grey matter (spinal cord), myelinated area of the cells axons, myelinated

86
Q

Epidural space

A

above the dura - child bearing

87
Q

Subdural space

A

below the dura - only potential space (becomes a space if there is bleeding of the spinal cord or there is trauma)

88
Q

subarachnoid space

A

below the arachnoid meninge - lumbar puncture (spinal tap), contains cerebrospinal fluid which acts as a cushion for the CNS, nourishes brain and spinal cord

89
Q

Mixed spinal nerve

A

has both motor and sensory roots

90
Q

grey matter

A

unmyelinated

91
Q

Peripheral nervous system

A

ventral (motor) and dorsal (sensory) roots

92
Q

Voluntary Muscle / Motor of the spinal cord

A

ventral horn of spinal cord –> ventral root –> mixed spinal cord –> ventral OR dorsal ramus (branch) –> muscle

(may also have its own nerve that goes from the ventral or dorsal ramus to its own nerve and then to the muscle)

93
Q

Sensory Innervation of the spinal cord

A

sensory receptor –> ventral OR dorsal ramus (branch) –> mixed spinal nerve –> dorsal root ganglion (neuronal cell body) –> dorsal root –> dorsal horn of spinal cord

(if it is skin of the anterior side of the body it starts from the ventral ramus and then to the mixed spinal nerve and then continues through dorsal root)

94
Q

Sympathetic trunk ganglion

A

swelling of the synapse location going from pre into the ganglion to fire and then going to the post ganglion

95
Q

lateral horn

A

autonomic nervous system output, motor coming out, goes down ventral root of thoracolumbar region, communicating branch is myelinated (white matter)

96
Q

deltopectoral triangle

A

between the pectoralis major and the deltoid and this is where the cephalic vein comes through

97
Q

Why is the clavicle’s inferior side rough

A

because it attaches to the subclavius muscle there

98
Q

Waiter’s tip position

A

upper injury caused by head / neck movement, damage to C5 and C6 roots, cannot abduct (axillary nerve cannot innervate deltoid), laterally rotate (axillary nerve cannot innervate teres minor) or supinate (musculocutaneous nerve cannot innervate biceps brachii, therefore arm is in position of adduction, medial rotation and pronation (arm facing backwards to normal anatomical position)

99
Q

Claw hand

A

caused by excessive upward pull of limb, damage to C8 and T1, ulnar nerve cannot fire and median nerve is weakened, therefore cannot make full fist because flexor digitorum profundus, flexor digitorum superficialis, flexor carpi ulnaris, flexor carpi radialis cannot be fired effectively

100
Q

Ape hand

A

thumb hardly moves, cannot perform abduction and opposition because recurrent branch of median nerve does not function, can still flex thumb because flexor palmaris longus from anterior interosseous nerve has higher innervate than carpal tunnel

101
Q

Wrist drop

A

being unable to extend your wrist, damage to extensor digitorum

102
Q

bicipital aponeurosis

A

sheath that hold contents of the anterior arm

103
Q

triangular space of the brachium

A

superior boundary - teres minor, inferior boundary = major and lateral = triceps long head, circumflex scapular artery

104
Q

Quadrangular space

A

triceps long head is the medial border, humerus is the lateral border and inferior and superior are teres minor and teres major, this is where axillary nerve and the posterior circumflex humeral artery

105
Q

Triangular interval

A

moving triceps laterally, teres major, humerus and long head of triceps make up this space and this is where the profunda brachii artery comes out as well as the radial nerve (on top of the radial groove of the posterior humerus)

106
Q

Ligaments of the sternoclavicular joint

A

anterior and posterior sternoclavicular ligament, costoclavicular ligament and the interclavicular ligament

107
Q

Ligaments of the acromioclavicular joint

A

acromioclavicular ligament and the coracoclavicular ligaments including the trapezoid ligament and the conoid ligament

108
Q

Subluxation of the shoulder joint

A

partial dislocation, occurs from an indirect force to the shoulder, still more muscles to maintain the integrity of the shoulder / scapula, only acromioclavicular ligament it torn

109
Q

Dislocation of the shoulder joint

A

full dislocation, occurs from direct force on the shoulder, trapezoid and conoid ligaments are fractured (coracoclavicular ligaments) as well as the acromioclavicular ligament

110
Q

Ligaments of the glenohumeral joint

A

coracohumeral ligament - does not bend with the joint capsule, prevents superior dissolution of the humerus (strengthens superior portion) and the glenohumeral ligaments - superior, middle and inferior ligaments resists hyperextension of the head of the humerus

111
Q

Dislocation of the humerus damages …

A

the axillary nerve causing weakness abducting fully and loss of sensation over the shoulder

112
Q

Weakest and thinnest band of the elbow joint ligaments

A

oblique band between ulna and humerus

113
Q

Supination vs. pronation

A

supination is the active uncrossing and pronation is the crossing of the radius and ulna bones

114
Q

Tommy John surgery

A

taking tendons of the contralateral limb to replace the ulnar collateral ligament, replacement surgery, tendon graph, important to tighten the joint of the elbow

115
Q

motor deficits of carpal tunnel

A

recurrent branch of median nerve is not functional therefore cannot abduct or oppose the thumb, but can flex because flexor pollicis longus is innervated by anterior interosseous nerve of the median nerve higher up, median nerve is crushed under extensor retinaculum of the wrist

116
Q

Sensory innervation of the median nerve of the hand

A

anterior surface of the thumb and digits 2-4.5 and the posterior surface of digits 2-4.5

117
Q

Sensory innervation of the ulnar nerve of the hand

A

posterior and anterior surface of digits 4.5 and 5

118
Q

Sensory innervation of the radial nerve of the hand

A

posterior surface of the thumb and lower digits 2 and 3

119
Q

Sensory innervation of the palmar branch of the medial nerve

A

palm by the thumb and half way up to digits 2 and 3, this is spared during carpal tunnel because the palmar branch of the medial nerve goes about the extensor retinaculum

120
Q

Stuff box of the wrist

A

made by the tendons of the extensor pollicis longus and extensor pollicis brevis, scaphoid and trapezium bones of the carpals form the floor

Anatomy Practical 2 (2 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions