First Responder Workbook Flashcards
Which of these is not a level recognized by the paramedic association of Canada?
a. Primary care paramedic
b. initial care paramedic
c. critical care paramedic
d. emergency medical responder
b. initial care paramedic
When obtaining consent before caring for someone, which of the following do you not have to do?
a. Have the person sign and acceptance of treatment form.
b. Identify yourself with your name.
c. Indicate what you think may be wrong and what you plan to do.
d. State your level of training.
a. Have the person sign and acceptance of treatment form.
Discontinuing care of a patient without their consent or without ensuring that someone with equal or greater treating will continue the care is called:
a. Abandonment.
b. Refusal of care.
c. Transfer of function.
d. Competence.
a. Abandonment.
If you’re speaking with a physician is important that you:
a. Write down everything the physician says.
b. Repeat any orders back to the physician.
c. Present all information rapidly.
d. Verify that everything is said about the physician is covered in your writing protocols.
d. Verify that everything said by the position is covered in your writing protocols.
Which of the following is good practice when using a radio?
a. Speaking slowly and clearly.
b. Beginning to speak at the same time you push the “push to talk”button.
c. Holding the radio right up to your mouth.
d. Relaying all information you have collected at the scene up to that point.
a. Speaking slowly and clearly.
Which of the following is not a primary responsibility of the responder at an emergency scene?
a. Ensuring the safety for yourself and any bystanders.
b. Gaining access to the patients
c. Contacting the friends and/or family of the patient.
d. Determining any threats to the patient’s life.
c. Contacting the friend and/or family of the patient.
If there is a down electrical wire and an emergency scene, how far away should any bystander be?
a. Twist the length of the span of the wire.
b. Half the distance between the two poles from which the broken wire has been strong
c. At least 15 metres (50 feet) from the downed wire
d. There is no specific distance that is safe.
c. At least 15 metres (50 feet) from the downed wire
Which of the following is a clue that a hazardous material may be present at an emergency?
a. Chemical transport tanks and/or placards.
b. Clouds of vapour or spilled solids or liquid liquids.
c. Unusual orders.
d. All of the above.
d. All of the above.
When is it acceptable to enter a confined space to help patient?
a. When you must access a patient to perform immediate life-saving interventions.
b. When there are no other responders on the scene.
c. When you have specialized training and dealing with confined spaces.
d. When you have confirmed that the confined space has adequate ventilation systems operating.
c. when you have specialized training in dealing with confined spaces.
Which of the following can be transmitted by airborne particles?
a. HIV/ AIDS
b. Hepatitis and chickenpox.
c. Meningitis and tuberculosis.
d. Herpes and tetanus.
c. Meningitis and tuberculosis.
If a patient’s intern becomes infected through particles expelled during coughing method of disease transmission would this be?
a. Direct contact.
b. Indirect contact.
c. Vector Borne transmission.
d. Airborne transmission.
d. Airborne transmission.
If you think you’ve been exposed to an infectious disease at an emergency scene, the first step you should take is?
a. Go to the hospital to be tested.
b. Report the exposure immediately.
c. Determine what type of disease it is.
d. Contact the poison control center.
b. Report the exposure immediately.
In which of the following cases, should you wear full protective equipment?
a. When wiping down a blood pressure cuff after a call.
b. When caring for bleeding that is spurting.
c. When caring for someone with signs of an infectious respiratory illness.
d. Both b and c
b. When caring for bleeding that is spurting
Which of the following can be transmitted by contaminated food?
a. Tuberculosis and rubella.
b. Typhus and diphtheria
c. Meningitis and hepatitis A.
d. HIV/AIDS and herpes.
c. Meningitis and hepatitis A.
Which two body systems interact to alert someone to their injury?
a. Nervous and respiratory.
b. Endocrine and nervous.
c. Nervous and integumentary.
d. Circulatory and digestive.
c. Nervous and integumentary.
The epiglottis prevents liquids and solids from entering what
a. The stomach
b. The lungs
c. The sinuses
d. The intestines
b. The lungs
Where do arteries carry blood?
a. From the heart to the body tissue.
b. From the lungs to the heart.
c. From the heart to the lungs.
d. Both a and c
d. Both a and c
One of the main functions of the integumentary system is to?
a. Prevent infection.
b. Secrete hormones.
c. Produce white blood cells
d. Transport nutrients to cells.
a. Prevent infection.
The respiratory system and cardiovascular system work together to:
a. Provide oxygen to the cells of the body.
b. Keep hormones distributed throughout the body.
c. Regenerate nervous tissue after injury.
d. Regulate blood flow to the digestive system.
a. Provide oxygen to the cells of the body
The child’s babysitter is able to answer any questions you have regarding the child. Which of the following should you ask her about?
a. The child sleeping patterns, eating times, and vaccination records.
b. The event leading up to the collapse, as well as the child’s allergies, medical history, current medications, and last oral intake
c. The child’s age, address, and school.
d. The child’s normal, vital signs and typical behavior.
b. The event leading up to the collapse as well as the child’s allergies, medical history, current medication’s, and last oral intake.
If you check the pillar refill and the nail bed does not return to its normal colour after you release what does this mean?
a. The patient has insufficient circulation.
b. You press on the fingernail too hard.
c. You did not press on the finger nail hard enough.
d. The patient’s heart is not beating.
a. The patient has insufficient circulation
Which of the following should you treat before performing a secondary assessment?
a. A fracture of the elbow.
b. And peeled object in the right hand.
c. Severe bleeding from the left leg.
d. None of these injuries should be treated until after the secondary assessment.
c. Severe bleeding from the left leg.
Forming a general impression which of the following, do you not need to determine?
a. Whether the patient is ill or injured.
b. The patient sex and approximate age.
c. Weather the patient takes any medication.
d. The patient, chief complaint or problem.
c. Whether the patient takes any medication.
Which of the following patients should be in the rapid transport category?
a. A 30-year-old woman who has a bruise on her leg from a soccer ball.
b. A 50-year-old man experiencing numbness and tingling on the right side of his body and slurred speech
c. A 10-year-old girl who is crying because of a bee sting
d. 65 year-old man experiencing stiffness in his back after swimming 30 lengths of a pool
b. 50-year-old man experiencing numbness and tingling on the right side of his body and slurred speech.
What is the purpose the primary and secondary assessment?
a. Determine whether the patient is in shock; identify whether the patient is still in shock or if your treatment has helped
b. Identify any hazards that are a threat to those at the scene; determine what else might be wrong with the patient
c. Determine the initial vital sign to compare with during later monitoring; identify any allergies or medication’s patient might have
d. Identify conditions that are in immediate threat to life or could become an immediate threat to life; identify conditions that are not immediately life-threatening
d. Identify conditions that are an immediate threat to life or could become an immediate threat to life; identify conditions that are not immediately life-threatening
Which body systems can be affected by anaphylaxis?
a. Nervous, endocrine, and genitourinary
b. Integumentary, endocrine, musculoskeletal, and nervous.
c. Digestive, respiratory and genitourinary.
d. Integumentary, respiratory cardiovascular and digestive.
d. Integumentary, respiratory cardiovascular, and digestive.
A person has experience anaphylactic reactions in the past often carry:
a. A glucometer.
b. And epinephrin auto injector.
c. A pulse oximeter.
d. A metre dose inhaler.
b. An epinephrin auto injector.
General care for any respiratory disease can include:
a. Assisting the patient with taking prescribed medication, reassuring the patient.
b. Performing CPR.
c. Having a patient lie down to keeping the patient cool
d. Ensuring the area is well ventilated performing abdominal thrust.
a. Assisting the patient with taking prescribed medication, reassuring the patient
A patient has no sense of breathing or circulation. After giving two one-second ventilations, what should you do?
a. Check for signs of circulation, including a pulse, for no more than 5 to 10 seconds
b. Check the patient’s level of responsiveness
c. Continue providing assisted ventilation.
d. Begin 30 chest compressions.
d. Begin 30 chest compressions.
If an unresponsive, patient vomits while you are performing ventilations, this is probably because:
a. The smell of the mask is bothering the patient.
b. The head wasn’t tilt back appropriately, or you were ventilating to forcefully
c. The patient had been poisoned, and the ventilations caused the stomach to expel the poison
d. Lungs are reacting to the positive pressure of the ventilations.
b. That wasn’t took back appropriately, or you were ventilating to forcefully.
If a patient is wearing dentures and you need to perform ventilation, what should you do?
a. Remove them immediately to prevent them from obstructing the patient’s airway.
b. Always keep them in; if you take them out, they will most likely get lost or broken
c. Leave them in unless they have become loose, as this will give you a better seal around the mouth
d. Check the patient’s wallet for a card that expresses what they want a rescuer to do with the dentures in case of an emergency
c. Leave them in unless they have become loose as this will give you a better seal around the mouth.
You were starting care for someone who is unresponsive and choking. If your first ventilation does not go in, you should:
a. Do 30 chest compressions.
b. Attempt another ventilation with slightly more force.
c. Do a finger sweep of the mouth.
d. Reposition the patient’s head and attempt another ventilation.
d. Reposition the patient’s head an attempt another ventilation.
When performing back blows and chest thrust on our response of choking infant, how should you position the patient?
a. On a flat surface, such as the table.
b. On a soft surface, such as a folded blanket.
c. On your thigh with the head lower than the chest.
d. Upside down, so gravity has the most effect.
c. On your thigh with the head lower than the chest.
How long will it D cylinder of oxygen last given a gauge pressure of 2000 and a flow rate of 12 LPM?
a. 12.6 minutes.
b. 16 minutes.
c. 20.4 minutes.
d. 24 minutes.
d. 24 minutes.
Children’s and babies hearts usually stop because:
a. The hearts are not fully developed yet.
b. There are a large number of disease that often affect their hearts.
c. Their brains are not fully programmed to regulate the hearts electrical system.
d. Their breathing stops.
d. Their breathing stops.
During two responder CPR, the ventilator should:
a. Periodically check the effectiveness of the compressions by checking the pulse.
b. Have the compressor stop every minute to reassess the ABCs.
c. Give one ventilation every five compressions.
d. All of the above.
a. Periodically check the effectiveness of the compressions by checking the pulse.
The main purpose of CPR is to:
a. Reverse the damage, the myocardium may have sustained or deprived of oxygenated blood.
b. Keep oxygenated blood circulating to the vital organs of the body.
c. Prevent clinical death from occurring.
d. None of the above.
b. Keep oxygenated blood circulating to the vital organs of the body.
The surest sign of cardiac arrest is:
a. Unresponsiveness.
b. Absence of a pulse.
c. In effective or absent breathing.
d. Blueness around the lips.
b. Absence of a pulse.
What should you do for a patient? Who is in shock?
a. Provide a sugary, snack or drink.
b. Give the patient plenty of water.
c. Keep the patient as cool as possible.
d. Place the patient in the Trendelenburg or supine position.
d. Place the patient in the Trendelenburg or supine position.
Shock is life-threatening because:
a. The blood becomes poisonous.
b. The vital organs are not getting adequate oxygen rich blood.
c. There’s not enough blood in the circulatory system.
d. Carbon dioxide is not being released from the tissue in large enough quantities.
b. The vital organs are not getting adequate oxygen rich blood.
Why does the skin of someone in shock appear pale and feel cool?
a. The heart beats faster; therefore the bodies heat is used as energy
b. The heart slows down, therefore less heat is produced.
c. The blood vessels constrict in the arms, legs and skin.
d. The body cools itself to conserve energy.
c. The blood vessels are constrict in the arms, legs and skin.
Which of the following situations is likely to lead to shock?
a. A teenager damages her spine in a diving incident.
b. A worker loses his arm to piece of farming equipment.
c. A child who has the flu has been unable to keep fluids down for several days.
d. All of the above.
d. All of the above.
Which position is recommended for a patient in shock?
a. Supine with the head elevated.
b. Supine or Trendelenburg.
c. Seated comfortably in a chair.
d. On a long backboard.
b. Supine or Trendelenburg.
Which of the following is not included in the general care for shock?
a. Administering oxygen.
b. Maintaining normal body temperature.
c. Giving assisted ventilations.
d. Providing rest and reassurance.
c. Giving assisted ventilations.
Three signs of external haemorrhage is:
a. Blood oozing from a wound.
b. Blood that fails to clot after you have tried to control it.
c. Blood spurting from a wound.
d. Both b and c
d. Both b and c
Which of the following is not involved in the care for internal hemorrhaging?
a. Obtaining more advanced medical care.
b. Administrating supplemental oxygen.
c. Giving the patient sips of water.
d. Treating the patient for shock.
c. Giving the patient sips of water.
If direct pressure and pressure bandages do not stop the bleeding which of the following can be used as a last resort?
a. Arterial clamping.
b. A tourniquet.
c. Elastic bandaging.
d. Hyperbaric recompression.
b. A tourniquet.
Which of the following can a bandage be used for?
a. Preventing air from reaching a wound.
b. Providing a sterile covering for a wound.
c. Applying pressure to control bleeding.
d. Preventing germs from reaching a wound.
c. Applying pressure to control bleeding.
If someone has been struck by lightning, which of the following injuries might you suspect?
a. Burns.
b. Spinal injuries.
c. Entry and exit wounds.
d. All of the above.
d. All of the above.
If a patient has a burn that is black and charred with a white tissue in the middle, this is a:
a. Superficial burn.
b. Partial thickness burn
c. Full thickness burn
d. None of the above.
c. Full thickness burn
A patient has dropped a chemical powder on her foot, causing a chemical burn. What should you do first?
a. Brush the dry chemicals off the foot using a glove hand.
b. Cool area with cool running water.
c. Apply cold compress to the area.
d. Cover the area with a nonstick sterile dressing.
a. Brush the dry chemical off the foot using a gloved hand.
Which of the following patients required more advanced medical care?
a. A 35-year-old man with a full thickness burn on his hand.
b. A seven-year-old child with a sunburn on his back.
c. A 72-year-old woman with a blistered burn on her leg.
d. Both a and c
d. Both a and c
The area around a recent wound is now red and swollen, and feels warm to the touch, this may indicate:
a. An underlying chronic illness.
b. Severe internal bleeding.
c. An infection.
d. A superficial burn.
c. An infection.
Which of the following situations involving epistaxis (nosebleed) would indicate obtaining more advanced medical care?
a. The epistaxis cannot be controlled within 10 to 15 minutes by pinching the nostrils.
b. The epistaxis is the fourth nose bleed in a one-year period.
c. The epistaxis is caused by low blood pressure.
d. The epistaxis is the first nosebleed the patient has ever had.
a. The epistaxis cannot be controlled within 10 to 15 minutes by pinching the nostrils.
