First Priority Flashcards

1
Q

Which space has internal vertebral Venus plexus

A

Epidural space

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2
Q

Aortic auscultation

A

RIGHT second intercoastal

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3
Q

Action of genioglossus muscle

A

Sticking the tongue out

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4
Q

Sensory dysfunction of musculocutaneous nerve compression within coracobrachialis

A

Hyperaesthesia of lateral forearm

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5
Q

The effective refractory period (ERP) of the atrioventricular (AV) node affected by parasympathetic and sympathetic nerve

A

P increases ERP
S decreases

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6
Q

Which urethra is entirely surrounded by bucks fascia

A

Spongy

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7
Q

Large artery passing inferiorly over anterior aspect of pancreatic head

A

SMA

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8
Q

Posterior relation of kidney with muscles

A

M. edially psoas M. ajor
L. aterally quadratus L. umborum
most lateral is transversus abdominis

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9
Q

Only difference of posterior relation between kidneys

A

Left kidney has relation with 11 th rib

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10
Q

Nerve at greatest risk during Lanz incision

A

Ilioinguinal

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11
Q

Which structure contains splenic vessels

A

Linorenal ligament

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12
Q

Content of gastrosplenic ligament

A

Left gastroepiploic vessels and short gastric vessels

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13
Q

Which nerve maybe compressed at arcade of frohse

A

PIN
This arcade is SUPERFICIAL part of supinator

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14
Q

Which nerve maybe compressed at aberrant gantzer muscle

A

AIN
Gantzer is aberent part of flexor pollicis longus

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15
Q

Primary source of innervation of anterior scrotal skin

A

Ilioinguinal

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16
Q

Neck swelling moves sideways

A

Chemodectoma

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17
Q

Most common symptom of syringomyelia

A

Loss of pain and temperature sensation mostly of upper limb

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18
Q

Autosomal Type of achondroplasia

A

Dominant

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19
Q

Most common cause of dwarfism

A

Achondroplasia

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20
Q

Mechanism of achondroplasia

A

Defect in Fibroblast growth factor

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21
Q

Bowen disease

A

In situ SCC
Erythematous scaling patch from sun exposure

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22
Q

Most common site to be affected by osteomyelitis

A

Cervical spine

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23
Q

Most common site to be affected by TB

A

Thoracic spine

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24
Q

Recurrent Painful hematuria ,bladder pain , increased frequency without infection in younger patient

A

Interstitial cystitis

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25
Q

Best imaging for managing fracture

A

Orthopantomogram
(Panoramic tomography)
Panoramic > wide view
Tomography > cross section through

https://www.google.com/search?q=orthopantomogram&oq=orthopantomogram+&gs_lcrp=EgZjaHJvbWUyBggAEEUYOTIHCAEQABiABDIHCAIQABiABDIHCAMQABiABDIHCAQQABiABDIHCAUQABiABDIHCAYQABiABDIHCAcQABiABDIHCAgQABiABDIHCAkQABiABDIHCAoQABiABDIHCAsQABiABDIHCAwQABiABDIHCA0QABiABDIHCA4QABiABNIBCDQ5MDFqMGo5qAIAsAIB&client=ms-android-oneplus-rvo3&sourceid=chrome-mobile&ie=UTF-8

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26
Q

Which muscle is cut during pfannenstiel

A

Transversus abdominis

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27
Q

Emergency airway access

A

Piercing cricothyroid membrane

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28
Q

Courvoisier law for what

A

Carcinoma of pancreatic head causing jaundice

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29
Q

Timing of anal fissure bleeding

A

Post defecation

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30
Q

What to do for post cholesystectomy RUQ pain

A

ERCP and stenting

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31
Q

Tender RUQ of a sheep owner

A

Hydatid cyst

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32
Q

First line treatment of large femoral thrombosis

A

IV heparin
(Not warfarin- H is before W)

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33
Q

Spinal injury level to cause autonomic dysreflexia

A

At or above T6
(Higher the lesion greater the risk)

https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Autonomic_dysreflexia

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34
Q

What may occur following long term varicose vein

A

Eczema

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35
Q

Follow up after resection of large 4cm carcinoid

A

CT/PET CT
OR
somatostatin receptor scintigraphy

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36
Q

Follow up for asymptomatic post carcinoid operation

A

P-CgA twice a year
Annual USG

P-CgA, or chromogranin A, is a protein that can be used to help diagnose and monitor carcinoid tumors
A CgA test can help diagnose carcinoid tumors, especially when combined with a 5HIAA urine test.

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37
Q

Sudden sharp chest pain in pregnancy

A

Aortic dissection

Specially in the third trimester due to increased blue volume and cardiac output
Tall statute suggests underlying connective tissue disorder associated with it.

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38
Q

Most specific factor for rheumatic arthritis

A

ANA

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39
Q

Origin of right coronary artery

A

Anterior cusp above valve

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40
Q

Origin of left coronary artery

A

Posterior cusp above valve

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41
Q

Cause of hemolysis in splenomegaly

A

Sequestration by sinusoids

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42
Q

Component of PIGMENTED gall stone

A

Calcium bilirubinate

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43
Q

Dartos muscle is derived from

A

Superficial fascial layer

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44
Q

Brachial cyst is derived from with arch

A

2nd

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45
Q

SA or AV which is part of conducting system

A

AV

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46
Q

First line treatment of hypercalcemia

A

IV normal saline

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47
Q

Treatment of antithrombin 3 deficiency

A

Warfarin for life

Warfarin inhibits synthesis of vitamin-K dependent clotting factors II, VII, IX, and X as well as anticoagulant factors proteins C and S.

Antithrombin III (AT III) is a protein that regulates blood clotting by inactivating factors that contribute to blood clots
AT III is responsible for up to 80% of thrombin inhibition.

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48
Q

Do not operate before what core temperature

A

36° C

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49
Q

Most common cause of painless fresh PR bleeding in children but having abdominal pain

A

Juvenile polyp

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50
Q

Sympathetic and peristalsis

A

Sympathetic activity decreases peristalsis

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51
Q

Epispadias due to

A

Abnormal positioning of genital tubercle

https://images.app.goo.gl/3mhEPQG8JPbdNwkZ7

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52
Q

Hypospadias is defect of

A

Urogenital fold

The genital tubercle pulls together the urethral folds (from the cloacal folds) to form the urogenital folds, which will fuse in the midline to become the shaft of the penis in males or the unfused labia minora in females.

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53
Q

Early and late cause of tachypnea and arrest following femur fracture

A

Early by fat embolism (hours)
Late by pulmonary embolism (days)

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54
Q

Why carbohydrate rich drink before surgery

A

To reduce insulin resistance and improve nitrogen balance

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55
Q

Cause of low platelet and peticheal rash with high PT and APTT after splenectomy

A

DIC

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56
Q

Investigation for hypercalcemia from lung cancer

A

PTH related peptide
(Para neoplastic syndrome)

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57
Q

Most common lab abnormality of Cushing disease

A

Hypokalemia

Steroid acts as mineralocorticoid and saves sodium and excretes potassium

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58
Q

Adrenaline acts on which Heart receptor to increase heart rate

A

B1

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59
Q

Affected receptor in myasthenia gravis

A

Post synaptic cholinergic receptors

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60
Q

Pathology to cause renal damage in white limbs from arterial embolus

A

Rhabdomyolysis leading to myoglobinuria

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61
Q

Emergency tracheostomy between

A

Suprasternal notch and cricoid cartilage

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62
Q

Full bladder control even after complete transaction of spinal cord

A

Intact innervation to internal sphincter

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63
Q

Concentrating urine in loop of Henle meditated by

A

Water impermeability in thick ascending loop

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64
Q

Lymph from scrotum draining

A

Superficial HORIZONTAL inguinal

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65
Q

Lymph from lower limb draining into

A

Superficial VERTICAL inguinal

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66
Q

Lymphatics from anal canal below dentate line

A

Superficial inguinal

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67
Q

Failure of development of metanephros results in

A

Renal agenesis

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68
Q

Nerve responsible for Freys syndrome or gustatory sweating

A

Parasympathetic regeneration of auriculotemporal nerve

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69
Q

Nerve involved in numbness of cheek

A

Maxillary division of trigeminal

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70
Q

Ions responsible for function of aldosterone

A

Na/K

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71
Q

Site of action of aldosterone

A

Collecting duct

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72
Q

Ductus arteriosus originates from which aortic arch

A

6th

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73
Q

Basis of Cushing reflex

A

Sympathetic stimulation due to increased ICP

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74
Q

First CBC change after splenectomy

A

Thrombocytosis

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75
Q

Site of brain hemorrhage after sudden collapse from exercise

A

Subarachnoid

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76
Q

Medication for brain metastasis from lung cancer

A

Dexamethasone

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77
Q

Can carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) test can help detect breast cancer

A

Yes

but it’s not used to screen for or diagnose breast cancer alone

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78
Q

Tender and red best swelling not responding to antibiotics

A

Inflammatory breast malignancy

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79
Q

Stabbed at left 5th intercostal space but x-ray normal and patient is stable
What investigation is to do next

A

Echo cardio gram

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80
Q

Relapse of graves’ disease
What to do

A

Give carbimazole
And if pregnant then give propylthiouracil

Another option is surgery

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81
Q

Structure going superolaterally from umbilicus

A

Remnant of umbilical vein to liver

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82
Q

What is ligamentum teres

A

The ligamentum teres, also known as the round ligament of the liver, is a fibrous cord that connects the liver to the umbilicus and is a remnant of the umbilical vein

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83
Q

Relation if Falciform ligament with umbilical vein

A

Within the lower edge of the falciform ligament is (Falciform ligament is
A triangular fold of peritoneum)
the ligamentum teres (round ligament), a remnant of the obliterated umbilical vein (ductus venosus) that travels from the umbilicus into the umbilical fissure where it is in continuity with the ligamentum venosum as it joins the left branch of the portal vein.

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84
Q

What forms the median umbilical fold

A

Urachus

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85
Q

What forms the medial umbilical fold

A

Umbilical artery

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86
Q

What forms the lateral umbilical fold

A

Inferior epigastric artery and vein

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87
Q

Non comminuted and STABLE patella fracture

A

casting

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88
Q

Non comminuted and DISPLACED patella fracture

A

Wire binding

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89
Q

Comminuted patella fracture

A

Patellectmy

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90
Q

Swimmer with recurrent otalgia, heart loss and tympanic membrane can’t be visualized

A

Exostosis

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91
Q

Mechanism of action of year

A

It activates anti thrombin 3 and forms complex with factor 2,9,10,11,12

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92
Q

4cm Rhomboid excision of face

A

Full thickness skin graft

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93
Q

Dog bite of nose

A

Secondary intension

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94
Q

Abscess drainage

A

Alginate ribbon pack

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95
Q

Superficial wound dehiscence

A

Vacuum dressing

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96
Q

Full thickness burn

A

Split thickness skin graft

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97
Q

Pretibial laceration with intact periosteum

A

Split thickness skin graft

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98
Q

Pretibial laceration with injured periosteum

A

Flap

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99
Q

Injured pretibial flap which can’t be approximated

A

Graft

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100
Q

Venous ulcer over medial malleolus

A

Compression bandage

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101
Q

Supply of SA node

A

Cardiac plexus
(Combination of both sympathetic and parasympathetic)

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102
Q

Nerve supply of ventricle

A

Sympathetic

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103
Q

Primary action to clear fourth foreign substance from lung

A

Mucocililiary action

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104
Q

Best investigation for fistula vs recurrent fistula

A

Fistulogram
For recurrent do MRI

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105
Q

Hip pain with history of fracture repair
1 year ago

A

Avascular necrosis

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106
Q

ABDOMINAL aortic aneurysm size<5.5cm

A

Active observation with USG every 3 months

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107
Q

When to do CT angiography for abdomen aortic aneurysm

A

To confirm rupture

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108
Q

Myelinated nerve fibers are

A

A and B
Not C

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109
Q

Diameter and velocity of conducting decreases

A

A>B>C

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110
Q

Anesthesia in COLLES’ fracture

A

Hematoma block

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111
Q

Most numerous nerve fiber

A

Narrowest one C fibre

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112
Q

Normal site of oxyphil cells

A

Parathyroid

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113
Q

ABNORMAL site of oxyPHil cells

A

Hurtle cell types of PHollicular carcinoma of thyroid

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114
Q

Definition of metaplasia

A

Reversible change of cell type in response to local injury

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115
Q

How does a trans cuteneous electrical nerve stimulation relieves chronic pain

A

Inhibiting of posterior horn of grey matter

By gate theory of pain

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116
Q

Jaundice from Zimbabwe with another ABNORMAL liver function but normal liver USG

A

Hepatitis A

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117
Q

Most common lung cancer of non smoker

A

Adenocarcinoma

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118
Q

Most common cause of lymphangitis

A

Streptococcus pyogenes

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119
Q

Most common renal stone

A

Calcium oxalate
Multiple
Recurrent
Familial hyper oxaluria

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120
Q

Most radio opaque renal stone

A

Calcium phosphate

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121
Q

Proteus mirabilis associated with which renal stone

A

Struvite of staghorn stone

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122
Q

Most radio lucent renal stone

A

Urate

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123
Q

Renal stone associated with chemotherapy

A

Xanthine
From cell death

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124
Q

Progression of HIV lymphadenitis

A

Follicular hyperplasia>mixed>follicular involution

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125
Q

Cardiac muscle contraction is maintained by

A

Influx of Va2+ through sarcolemma

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126
Q

Cause of pre renal failure from massive hemorrhage

A

RENAL vasoconstriction from hypovolemia

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127
Q

Which nerve damage cause huperacusis

A

Nerve to stapedius a branch of facial nerve

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128
Q

Multiparous woman with painful breast lump ,brown nipple discharge with dilated lactation duct in USG

A

Periductal mastitis

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129
Q

Which acute protein increases after
24 hours

A

CRP

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130
Q

Action us l of aspirin

A

Inhibits COX 1 AND
decreases thromboxane

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131
Q

Radiological site of Vesicoureteric junction

A

Ischial spine

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132
Q

High urine osmolality and low serum osmolality after head injury

A

Fluid restriction
It’s SIADH

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133
Q

Treatment of raw bone surface

A

Random flap

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134
Q

Treatment of bone is not exposed

A

Split thickness skin graft

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135
Q

Swollen leg of pregnant lady just like her mother and maternal aunt

A

Anti phospholipid antibody

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136
Q

Checking amyloid

A

With congo red under polarized light
Showing apple green

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137
Q

Which electrolytes imbalance has long QT

A

Hypocalcemia

138
Q

Most common cause of fever after
24 hours of cholecystectomy

A

Pulmonary atelectasis

139
Q

Metabolic disorder of pyloric stenosis

A

Hypochloremic hypokalemic metabolic alkalosis

140
Q

Medication for recurrent emboli despite taking heparin

A

IVC filter

141
Q

Appropriate investigation for pulmonary embolism

142
Q

Reconstruction of full thickness burn

A

By split thickness skin graft

143
Q

Management of full thickness burn with dry crusty

A

Occlusive dressing then make wound granulation then split thickness skin graft

144
Q

Side effect of long term metformin use

A

Lactic acidosis

145
Q

Good prognostic factor of Malignant melanoma

A

Breslow thickness

146
Q

Nerve involved for lower lip numbness

A

Mental nerve or inferior alveolar nerve
Which are branches of Trigeminal nerve

147
Q

Connection between superior and inferior mesenteric arteries

A

Marginal artery of Drummond

148
Q

Cause of bleeding in patient taking aspirin

A

Aspirin induced thrombocytopenia

149
Q

Differ obstructive and restrictive lung disease by FEV1/FVC

A

<70% is obstructive
>70% is restrictive

150
Q

Relation of left coronary artery with pulmonary trunk

A

LCA runs behind pulmonary trunk

https://images.app.goo.gl/K1AiQVeRTgvq2xVU7

151
Q

Which muscle causes descend of MEDICALLY adducted eyeball

A

Superior oblique

https://images.app.goo.gl/imqovHEyfem797eo7

152
Q

Biliary change after cholecystectomy

A

Reduced Hepatic circulation of bile salt

153
Q

Anal canal below dentate line vs lower limbs lymphatic drainage

A

Anal canal is horizontally related so horizontal superficial inguinal nodes

Limbs are vertically related so
vertical superficial inguinal nodes

154
Q

Structure at risk during short gastric artery ligation

A

Fundus of stomach

155
Q

First action for anaphylaxis

A

Adrenaline 1:1000 IM

156
Q

Large amounts of normal saline can cause

A

An overload of chloride ions in the blood, which can lead to metabolic acidosis. This is because chloride and bicarbonate work together to maintain the ionic balance of cells.

https://images.app.goo.gl/cMPLVkmuxppZfGCG8

157
Q

ECG having flat P and wide QRS

A

Hyperkalemia

https://images.app.goo.gl/c7TEwwUN9mFRZ8ic6

158
Q

Initial treatment of hypercalcemia

A

IV normal saline

159
Q

Cause of Bilateral leg edema from extensive burn

A

Hypoalbuminemia

160
Q

What divides Subclavian artery into 3 parts

A

For its passage between scalenus anterior and medius

https://images.app.goo.gl/M8FW5Fk5gHvnFKs48

161
Q

What divides axillary artery into 3 parts

A

Pectoralis minor

https://images.app.goo.gl/MjKCwiHK6raQf6oM8

162
Q

Which anesthesia for a Patient with COLLES’ fracture having CKD and IHD

A

Bier’s block

163
Q

Which electrolyte abnormality will cause Paraesthesia after thyroidectomy

A

Ca

Circumoral paresthesia after a thyroidectomy can be a symptom of hypocalcemia, which can occur when the parathyroid glands are accidentally removed during surgery

164
Q

Affect of CKD on parathyroid glands

A

Hyperplasia

PTH increases calcium absorption from food and removes calcium from bones to maintain normal blood calcium levels.

When kidneys are damaged, they can’t activate vitamin D, which is needed to absorb calcium from food. This leads to low calcium levels in the blood, which signals the parathyroid glands to produce more parathyroid hormone (PTH).
Which leads to secondary hyperparathyroidism

165
Q

HER positive and ER negative for breast cancer
Which chemo should be given

A

Only herceptin aka trastuzumab

166
Q

HER positive and ER positive for breast cancer
Which chemo should be given

A

Herceptin and ECF regimen (epirubicin, cisplatin and fluorouracil)

ECF is considered the “gold standard” chemotherapy regimen for hormone sensitive breast cancer.

167
Q

dysplasia vs metaplasia

A

Metaplasia is the replacement of one mature cell type with another mature cell type, while dysplasia is the replacement of a mature cell type with a less mature cell type.

Metaplasia is reversible, while dysplasia is not.

168
Q

What is another name of premalignant condition

169
Q

Peripheral lung carcinoma are

A

Adenocarcinoma
Large cell carcinoma

170
Q

Central lung carcinoma

A

Small cell carcinoma
Squamous cell carcinoma

171
Q

Next step after finding out post traumatic widened mediastinum on x-ray

172
Q

Renal transplant patient with multiple bone fractures and high serum calcium, low phosphate, high ALP

WHAT IS DX

A

Tertiary hyperparathyroidism

173
Q

Which pathology causes multinodular goitre

A

Hyperplasia

174
Q

Investigation for diplopia from head injury with apparently normal visual acuity and external orbital anatomy

175
Q

In which disease steroid improves dry mouth

A

Sarcoidosis

176
Q

How does Squamous cell carcinoma (SCC) of the lung can cause polyuria

A

As a result of pituitary metastasis, which leads to central diabetes insipidus

177
Q

Which bone tumor causes lytic lesion

A

giant cell tumors (GCTs) are lytic lesions, which means they cause destructive bone lesions

https://images.app.goo.gl/GABFyWRpFijq3xpy8

178
Q

Complain of pain and stiffness at the fracture site after 20 years.
What might be the cause?

A

Osteoarthritis

179
Q

Treatment of subcapital femoral fracture of a patient in wheelchairs

A

Hemiarthroplasty
Cause patient is hemi mobile

180
Q

Most common causative organism of discitis

A

Staphylococcus aureus

181
Q

Weight loss, Microsoft hypochromic anemia, palpable left supraclavicular node

A

Gastric carcinoma

182
Q

Intubated post traumatic patient becomes hypoxic after log rolling

What is the cause

A

Tracheal tube displacement

183
Q

Why Regional anesthesia is a key component of Enhanced Recovery

A

Regional anesthesia is a key component of Enhanced Recovery After Surgery (ERAS) protocols, and plays a vital role in improving patient outcomes. Regional anesthesia can:

Reduce opioid use: Regional anesthesia can help reduce the need for systemic opioids after surgery.

Improve recovery: Regional anesthesia can help patients recover faster.

Improve mobility: Regional anesthesia can help improve mobility after surgery.

Reduce nausea and vomiting: Regional anesthesia can help reduce postoperative nausea and vomiting.

Improve organ function: Regional anesthesia can help improve organ function after surgery.

184
Q

boerhaave vs mallory weiss

A

Boerhaave’s syndrome
A rupture in the full thickness of the esophagus wall, also known as a transmural tear. This is a severe condition that usually requires emergency repair and can be life or death. Symptoms include sudden severe chest pain, repeated vomiting and retching, and pain that may radiate to the back or left shoulder.

Mallory-Weiss syndrome
A tear in the inner lining of the esophagus. This is rarely fatal, as the tears usually heal on their own within 48 to 72 hours. Symptoms include vomiting blood, passing black or sticky stools, stomach pain, dizziness, and fainting.

185
Q

nerve at risk of injury during posterior approach of lower femur

A

Sciatic/tibial

186
Q

Can GERD cause malena

A

Gastroesophageal Reflux Disease (GERD) can cause melena, which is dark, tarry stools that indicate bleeding in the upper gastrointestinal (GI) tract

conditions associated with excessive acid production, such as gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD), may cause severe inflammation of the esophagus known as erosive esophagitis, which in turn can lead to ulceration and consequent bleeding.

187
Q

What is a intestinal duplication?

A

Intestinal duplications are tubular structures that are attached to the intestines and share a common blood supply; their lining resembles that of the gastrointestinal tract.

The clinical picture is usually characterized by epigastric pain, vomiting and palpable abdominal mass,

https://images.app.goo.gl/m4qNax6DXqEQFpY76

188
Q

Rapidly growing (3 months) thyroid mass in old aged female (70 years)

A

Anaplastic carcinoma

189
Q

Which carpal bone dislocation will cause median nerve injury

190
Q

Which spinal injury will involve multiple nerves and followed by bladder and bowel involvement

A

Sudden central lumber disc prolapse

An example is weight lifting

191
Q

Treatment of single rib fracture of young patient without pneumothorax or hemothorax

A

Oral analgesics

192
Q

First line of investigation for painless thyroid nodule

193
Q

What to do with false arterial aneurysm

A

Observe with serial USG

194
Q

Treatment of scald burn

A

Occlusive dressing by duoderm

195
Q

most common breathing complications after surgery.

A

Atelectasis

is the collapse of a lung or part of a lung, also known as a lobe. It happens when tiny air sacs within the lung, called alveoli, lose air.

196
Q

What is the most common site of atelectasis?

A

Right middle

Because the right middle lobe orifice is the narrowest of the lobar orifices and because it is surrounded by lymphoid tissue, it is the most common lobe to become atelectatic.

197
Q

Surgical compilation of autonomic neuropathy

A

Reduced pulse rate variability

198
Q

How to increase microcytic hypochromic anemia before surgery

A

Oral Iron supplement

199
Q

Most common cause of jaundice, splenomegaly, gall stone in Caucasian

A

Spherocytosis

200
Q

What is ankle brachial index

A

https://my.clevelandclinic.org/health/diagnostics/17840-ankle-brachial-index-abi

So if ABI is within normal range then do only heparinization for dusky swollen leg

201
Q

Scrotal lymph draining point

A

Medial group of superficial inguinal nodes

202
Q

Cause of minor painless PR bleeding in a 5 years old

A

Juvenile polyp

203
Q

majority of Pancoast tumors are

A

non-small cell lung cancer (NSCLC), with adenocarcinoma being the most common subtype

204
Q

Which nerve root is damaged by Pancoast tumor

205
Q

Most important lab findings in osteomyelitis/rickets

A

Raised PTH
Raised ALP
Low calcium
Low phosphate

Bone biopsy will show increased
non mineralized osteoid

206
Q

Structure divided during pfannenstiel incision

A

Skin
Rectus sheath
Fascia transversalis
Parietal peritoneum

207
Q

Most common electrolyte abnormality in Cushing disease

A

Hypokalemia

208
Q

Cause of unilateral proptosis with gingivolqbial fullness and cheek anesthesia of old age

A

Maxillary sinus carcinoma

209
Q

Immediate management of pneumothorax

A

Chest drain

210
Q

30 year of age with focal breast pain but examination is normal and USG normal

What to do

A

Analgesic ain’t reassurance

211
Q

Most appropriate treatment for post phlebitis syndrome

A

Compression stockings

Post-thrombotic syndrome (PTS), also called postphlebitic syndrome and venous stress disorder is a medical condition that may occur as a long-term complication of deep vein thrombosis (DVT).

212
Q

10 months old
Vomited since birth
Fall to thrive
Recurrent chest infection

A

Tracheo oesophageal fistula

213
Q

Management of exposed bone from burn

214
Q

Treatment for morning headache, nausea, blurring of vision in a bronchial cancer patient

A

Dexamethasone

Brain metastases, or brain mets, are a common occurrence in lung cancer patients, with 16–20% of patients developing them.

They can make you feel better by improving the symptoms caused by increased pressure inside the skull, such as headaches

215
Q

Treatment given for antithrombin 3 deficiency

A

Oral anti coagulant for lifelong

216
Q

Most common electrolyte abnormality in metastatic bone cancer

A

Hypercalcemia

217
Q

Treatment of jaundice from pancreatic cancer with metastasis

A

ERCP and stenting

218
Q

Time frame of fat embolism

A

Within 3-4 days

219
Q

Time frame of pulmonary embolism

A

After 7 days

220
Q

Which disease causes Hypochromic stuff microcytic anemia with axillary and inguinal lymphadenopathy

A

Non Hodgkin’s lymphoma

221
Q

Post surgical defect of local carcinoma

A

Local flap

222
Q

Executional dyspnoea with history of ICU ventilation

A

Subglottic stenosis

223
Q

Cause ot laryngomalacia

A

Withdrawal of compression
After goitre surgery

224
Q

Minimal displaced closed Spiral tibial fracture in young aged patent

A

Toe to groin cast
Both knee and ankle joints must be immobilized

225
Q

What is Paget Schroetter syndrome

A

PSS is effort-induced thrombosis of the axillary and subclavian veins associated with compression of the subclavian vein at the thoracic outlet.

Manifestation is engorged veins while raising arms

https://images.app.goo.gl/sjy3XYQuizUB82pYA

226
Q

Causes of Paget-Schroetter syndrome

A

Repetitive trauma—sports like crochet, swimming, wrestling, or gymnastics, or work in jobs that involve repeated overhead motion.

Anatomical abnormalities—outlet can be abnormally shaped, costoclavicular ligament inserting more laterally than normal ,subclavius and anterior scalene muscles can also hypertrophy

Compression—subclavian vein can be compressed between the clavicle and first rib

227
Q

Drug for peripheral vascular disease having no effect on heart

A

Pentoxyphilline

228
Q

Basis of Morgagni hernia

A

Defeat of cardioperitoneal membrane

229
Q

Metabolic effect of adrenaline

A

Glycolysis

230
Q

Management of patient with pulmonary embolism

231
Q

Air embolism position

A

Lateral decubitus

232
Q

most common site of ruptured thoracic aorta

A

Proximal descending aorta distal to origin of subclavian artery

233
Q

X-ray finding of ruptured thoracic aor aorta

A

Widening medium

234
Q

factors of intrinsic pathway

235
Q

factors of Extrinsic pathway

236
Q

What is dabigatran

A

Thrombin inhibitor

237
Q

Heart rate of transplanted patient depends on

A

Atrial filling

238
Q

Nerve involved in post exercise lower abdominal pain going to groin

A

Iliohypogastric nerve

239
Q

Some abdominal planes

A

Trans pyloric L1
Sub costal L3
Trans umbilical L3-L4
Inter spinous L4
Inter tubercular L5

240
Q

Blood supply of meckels diverticulum

A

Vitelline artery
Or
Omphalomesenteric artery

241
Q

Finding of gut malrotation in children

A

SMA is right to midline in trans pyloric plane

242
Q

ABG in septic shock

A

Low bicarbonate
Compensatory tachypnea causing low co2

Metabolic acidosis is a common acid-base disturbance in patients with septic shock

243
Q

Indications for renal transplant

A

K+ > 6.5 despite medical treatment
Hyper Mg
Hyper urecemia
Metabolic acidosis
Urine output < 200

244
Q

Antibody found in atrophic gastritis

A

Against parietal cells

245
Q

Interpretation of urinary outputs decrease

A

Sudden decrease catheter block
Gradual decrease renal cause

246
Q

What forms posterior wall of inguinal canal

A

Conjoint tendon medially
Fascia transversalis laterally

247
Q

Lymph from Anal canal above pectinate line

A

Internal iliac

248
Q

Change of parathyroid in CKD

A

Hyperplasia

249
Q

Post op regime for breast cancer with HER +,ER-,PR-

A

Herceptin and ECF regime

250
Q

Premalignant lesion aka

251
Q

Lung cancer with polyurea

A

Squamous cell type

252
Q

Branches of V3

A

Buccal
Mental
Auriculotemporal
Lingual
Inferior alveolar

253
Q

Causes of lactic acidosis

A

Primary -shock, hypoxia, burn
Secondary-metformin

254
Q

Prognostic factor of malignant melanoma

A

5mm breslow thickness

255
Q

Most common site of Pigmentation in malignant melanoma

A

Sun exposed areas like face, back, arms, legs

256
Q

The scrotum has multiple layers

A

Skin: The thin, hairless scrotal skin has many sweat and sebaceous glands that help regulate the temperature of the testicles.

Dartos fascia: A continuation of Colles fascia in the perineum and Scarpa’s fascia in the abdomen.

External spermatic fascia: A continuation of the external oblique aponeurosis.

Cremaster muscle and fascia: A continuation of the internal oblique muscle.

Internal spermatic fascia: Loosely attached to the tunica vaginalis.

Tunica vaginalis: A layer of the scrotum.

257
Q

Treatment for bradycardia of heart transplant patient

A

Isoproterenol

258
Q

Side of action of isoproterenol

259
Q

Treatment of bradycardia in non heart transplant patient

260
Q

Anesthesia for COLLES’ fracture

A

Bier’s block with prilocaine

261
Q

GFR measurement by

A

Endogenous by creatinine
Exogenous by inulin

262
Q

Renal plasma flow measurement by

A

Endogenous by urea
Exogenous by para amino hippuric acid

263
Q

Gut rotating axis and degree

A

Axis is SMA
degree is 270

264
Q

High risk of surgery in a patient with microcytic Hypochromic anemia

A

Decreased cardiac contractility due to anemic heart failure

265
Q

Changes after cholecystectomy

A

Increased rate of bile flow after meal

266
Q

cause of offensive stool in obstructive jaundice

A

blockage that prevents bile from reaching the intestines

So reduced enterohepatic circulation of bile salt

267
Q

Cause of auto digestion in pancreatitis

268
Q

Cause of auto digestion in hemorrhagic pancreatitis

A

Fecal elastase

Hemorrhagic pancreatitis is a severe form of acute pancreatitis that causes the pancreas to release a large amount of active elastase.

Elastase is an enzyme produced by the pancreas that helps break down fats, proteins, and carbohydrates during digestion.

269
Q

Cause of hypertension, bradycardia, low voltage ECG

A

Hypothyroidism

270
Q

Metabolic cause of confusion, nausea, vomiting, acute illness in metastatic breast cancer

A

Hypercalcemia

271
Q

Cerebral lesion with central necrosis causing midline compression

A

Glioblastoma

272
Q

Most likely cause of upper outer quadrant. Breast mass with axillary lymphadenopathy

A

Invasive ductal carcinoma

273
Q

Gut resection affecting vit K

A

Resection of terminal ileum

274
Q

Receptor for nor epinephrine

275
Q

Origin point of cranial nerves

A

2,2,4,4
Cerebrum, midbrain , pons, medulla

https://images.app.goo.gl/fXGn6RXyc9nueeGBA

https://images.app.goo.gl/TSQg9mkP6nwDjBEx5

276
Q

H/O IHD, hypertensive, tachycardia, cool periphery
Dx?

A

Carcinogenic shock

277
Q

Type of parotid tumor with perineural invasion

A

Adenoid cystic carcinoma

278
Q

Level of Spinal injury with urinary retention and reduced anal tone

279
Q

26 years old, unilateral testicular swelling, heterogeneous mass, elevated AFP

280
Q

Patient is in HDU with difficulty swallowing with mucosal white plaques

A

Candida oesophagitis

281
Q

Naloxone antidote to what?

A

rapidly reverse opioid overdose

can reverse and block the effects of other opioids, such as heroin, morphine, and oxycodone.

282
Q

ACE inhibitors in case of MI

A

ACE inhibitors can reduce the rate of myocardial infarction

283
Q

can oxpentifylline reduce rate of myocardial infarction

284
Q

Artery supply Broca’s area

A

Middle cerebral

285
Q

Patient with sudden affection of gait, disequilibrium, nystagmus

A

PICA syndrome
Or
Wallenberg syndrome
Or
Lateral medial syndrome

286
Q

Arterial cause of sudden urinary retention and lower limb paresis

A

Artery of adamchweick which is a branch of descending aorta

287
Q

Effect of oculomotor nerve injury on iris

288
Q

Full names of clotting factors

A

https://images.app.goo.gl/U6WknvAVciJg3WNw5

289
Q

Mechanism of heparin action

A

Activation of antithrombin 3
Inhibition of factor Xa

290
Q

Origin of ranula

A

Sublingual gland

291
Q

Tumor marker for malignant melanoma

292
Q

Treatment for nasal MRSA positive

A

Mupirocin ointment

293
Q

Treatment for skin MRSA positive

A

Chlorhexidine

294
Q

Systemic treatment for MRSA positive patient

A

IV vancomycin
IV Teicoplanin
IV/oral Rifampicin

It resistant then Linezolid

295
Q

Apocrine metaplasia, epithelial overgrowth, papillary projection

A

Benign breast cyst

296
Q

Painless bright red per rectal bleeding

A

Juvenile polyp

297
Q

Pressure on which nerve cause torticollis

A

Spinal accessory

298
Q

Relation is age of pregnancy with breast cancer

A

Delayed age increases risk

299
Q

Increased sympathetic activity, losing 5kg weight in 6 months in female

A

Graves disease

300
Q

Morphine overdose on ABG

A

Respiratory acidosis

301
Q

What to do after excision of melanoma in situ with 1cm margin

A

Education about skin self examination and discharge from flow up

302
Q

Rate of blood pumping during exercise for adult

A

5-6 litter/minute

303
Q

2 days old, lower limb cyanosis, Bilateral absence if femoral pulse

A

Interrupted aortic arch
(Maybe distal to left Subclavian artery)

304
Q

Cause of dark urine in obstructive jaundice

A

Increased conjugated bilirubinURIA

305
Q

Earliest physiological response to hypothermia

A

Increased constriction of peripheral blood vessels

306
Q

Diffuse skin pigmentation with hypotension after surgery

A

Adrenal insufficiency

307
Q

CO2 sensitivity of blood

A

Central chemoreceptor

308
Q

Frank painless hematuria, anemia, prostate mildly enlarged in DRE,PSA normal

A

Transitional cell carcinoma

309
Q

Emergency tracheostomy between suprasternal notch and

A

Cricoid cartilage

310
Q

5 year Survival rate of dukes B

311
Q

Angina on pegging laundry after left internal mammary graft for CABG

A

Subclavian artery steal syndrome

312
Q

Most common parotid tumor with perineural invasion

A

Adenoid cystic carcinoma

313
Q

Ganglion for tear

A

Pterygopalatine
(Tear—pTerigo)

314
Q

Weakness of leg after nerve block for inguinal hernia repair

315
Q

Vessel may be injured from a subclavian incision extending from sternoclavicular joint to deltopectoral groove

A

Thoracoacromial artery

316
Q

Cause of hypotension/shock, tachycardia, tachypnea

317
Q

Most common rejection of marrow

A

Graft vs host

318
Q

Type of hypertension in graft vs host

319
Q

Clinical presentation of graft vs host rejection

A

Diarrhoea, rash, jaundice

320
Q

Type of hypersensitivity in hyper acute rejection

321
Q

Type of hypersensitivity in acute graft rejection

322
Q

Type of hypersensitivity in chronic graft rejection

A

Type lll & lV

323
Q

Treatment of old age breast cancer with estrogen receptor positive

A

Letrozole
But
Tamoxifen for younger

324
Q

Relation of Radiotherapy with breast conservative surgery

A

It follows BCS

325
Q

Indication of Radiotherapy in mastectomy

A

High grade
Large
Marked lymph vascular invasion

326
Q

vertebral level of bifurcation of right bronchus

A

fifth thoracic vertebra

327
Q

Relation among coagulation pathways with aPTT and PT

A

aPTT for intrinsic pathway factors 12,11,9,8
PT for extrinsic pathway factors
7,10,5,2

https://images.app.goo.gl/mPeZ1WWdA284gD9v8

https://images.app.goo.gl/1LTUx2Jbtvh42J8c6

328
Q

elevated jugular venous pressure (JVP) can indicate which type of heart failure

A

congestive heart failure/venous hypertension/right-sided heart failure/Cardiogenic shock

329
Q

Which artery runs with recurrent laryngeal nerve

A

Inferior laryngeal artery which is a branch of inferior thyroid artery

330
Q

Which artery runs with internal laryngeal nerve

A

Superior laryngeal artery

331
Q

Buttock claudication

A

Aorto iliac block

332
Q

Thigh claudication

A

Common femoral
External iliac
Block

333
Q

Calf muscle claudication

A

Superficial femoral artery block

334
Q

Origin of gluteal arteries

A

Internal iliac artery

335
Q

Leriche Syndrome

A

aortoiliac occlusive disease

336
Q

Cause ofLeriche Syndrome

A

severe atherosclerosis affecting the distal abdominal aorta, iliac arteries, and femoropopliteal vessels.

337
Q

Manifestation of Leriche Syndrome

A

It presents with a triad of claudication, impotence, and absence of femoral pulses

338
Q

Intra peritoneal fluid collection in spine position

A

Hepatorenal pouch

339
Q

Some causes of hypercalcemia

A

Thiazide
Antacid
Sarcoidosis
Zollinger Ellison syndrome

340
Q

Effect of Coeliac disease

A

Hypocalcemia from reduced absorbtion

341
Q

Relapse of graves’ disease on anti thyroid drugs

A

Give radio iodine

342
Q

Relation of calcium with hyperventilation

A

Hypo
Causing circumoral paresthesia