First Pass Miss Flashcards

1
Q

What forms the endothelial cells of the liver sinusoids?

A

Remnants of the yolk sac circulation -> vitelline and umbilical vessels

Stellate (Ito) cells, fibroblasts, Kupffer cells, hematopoietic stem cells, and connective tissue formed by mesenchyme of septum transversum

Biliary tract system + parenchyma formed by hepatic diverticulum foregut at week 4

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2
Q

What zone of hepatocytes are most susceptible to drugs / toxins / hypoxia / ischemia?

A

Hypoxia / Ischemia - zone 3, furthest from blood supply

Drugs / toxins - Zone 3 as well, due to phase 1 reactions (ethanol and acetaminophen toxicity causes centrilobular necrosis)

Zone 1 most susceptible to hemochromatosis

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3
Q

What are the symptoms of acute liver failure and why?

A

80-90% loss of liver function in weeks, most commonly caused by fulminant hepatitis

Encephalopathy -> increased nitrogen wastes

Hypoglycemia -> decreased glucose homeostasis maintenance by liver

Coagulopathy -> decreased production of coagulation factors

Renal failure -> not well understood

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4
Q

What is the hallmark of mild chronic hepatitis pathologically?

A

Inflammation of portal tracts, but minimal detectable hepatocyte injury

-> for viral hepatitis, will be lymphocytes which don’t really leave the portal tract area (chronic inflammatory infiltrate)

Chronic will show inflammation leaking out of portal triad, with piecemeal necrosis, interface (portal vein / liver) hepatitis, and bridging necrosis

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5
Q

What are the unique features of HBV vs HCV chronic hepatitis?

A

HBV - eosinophilic ground glass appearance of hepatocytes due to accumulated HBsAg

HCV - focal macrovesicular fatty change, and large periportal lymphoid aggregates

Autoimmune - plasma cells in portal tracts

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6
Q

How does acute hepatitis appear pathologically?

A

Lobular disarray - disruption of architecture

Random hepatocyte injury w/ ballooning degeneration, cytolysis, apoptosis

Inflammatory infiltrate, reactive Kupffer cells, and hepatocyte regeneration

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7
Q

What are the clinical manifestations of cholestasis?

A
  1. Pruritis - from retention of bile salts / acids
  2. Jaundice / icterus -> conjugated bilirubin increases
  3. Xanthomata / xanthelasma - lipid-laden Macs deposit in dermis due to increased serum cholesterol
  4. Fat / fat-soluble vitamin malabsorption
  5. Coagulopathy - failure to absorb vitamin K
  6. Osteoporosis - failure to absorb vitamin D
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8
Q

Describe the general pathogenesis of cirrhosis.

A

Chronic liver injury -> cytokine production by Kupffer cells, lymphocytes, and endothelial cells

Ito cells become myofibroblast-like cells due to cytokines, which causes contraction and synthesis of Types I and III collagen into space of Disse

Fibrosis impairs blood flow and diffusion of metabolites -> formation of fibrous septae and portosystemic shunts, impaired endothelial fenestrations

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9
Q

What are some etiologies of cirrhosis?

A

Alcohol abuse
Non-alcoholic fatty liver disease -> associated with metabolic syndrome + insulin resistance
Viral hepatitis (HBV/HCV)
Cholestasis
Metabolic disorders (hemochromatosis, Wilson’s, A1AT deficiency)
Cryptogenic (idiopathic)

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10
Q

What will happen to hepatocytes in terms of injury pattern in cholestasis disorders?

A

Feathery degeneration - actually doesn’t look that different, but we call it feathery degeneration when it is in the presence of dilated bile ducts and smooth green to golden-brown globular pigment

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11
Q

Why does portal venous blood flow increase in cirrhosis?

A

Circulation becomes hyperdynamic

  • > cardiac output increases due to peripheral vasodilation which is not fully understood, mediated by nitric oxide and decreased response to vasoconstrictors
  • > mesenteric / splanchnic arterial vasodilation -> increased blood flow to portal system
  • > systemic arterial vasodilation also decreases effective arterial volume -> increased RAA activation -> sodium and water retention
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12
Q

What are the complications of cirrhosis due to portal hypertension?

A
  1. Ascites (due to increased fluid congestion in portal system leading to pressure backflow through capillies) -> peritonitis
  2. Extrahepatic portosystemic shunts can lead to significant hemorrhage
  3. Hypersplenism / congestive splenomegaly
  4. Hepatic encephaloathy - intrahepatic shunts avoid hepatic parenchyma for waste removal
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13
Q

What are the consequences of loss of hepatic function in cirrhosis?

A
  1. Hypoalbuminemia
  2. Coagulopathy
  3. Hepatorenal / hepatopulmonary symptoms
  4. Hyperestrogenism
  5. Jaundice / icterus with cholestasis
  6. Hepatic encephalopathy
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14
Q

Why does hyperestrogenism happen in liver disease and what are the clinical signs / symptoms

A

Decreased sex hormone binding globulin and decreased inactivation of estrogen and testosterone leads to more formation and maintenance of estrogen levels.

  1. Spider angiomas and palmar erythema (not well understood)
  2. Gynecomastia
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15
Q

What are the two shitty categories of cirrhosis?

A
  1. Micronodular - uniform, small nodules separated by thin fibrous septae -> hepatocytes replicating from a single lobule or portion of a lobule, forming nodules
    - everything else
  2. Macronodular - variably-sized, often larger nodules encircled by irregular bands of broad connective tissue, originating from multiple lobules
    - viral
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16
Q

Why does sinusoidal vascular resistance increase?

A
  1. Active vasoconstriction -> stellate cell contraction, and increased endothelial production of endothelin
  2. Circulatory compression from fibrous tissue and regenerating parenchymal nodules
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17
Q

What is the clinical definition of acute liver failure?

A

Severe hepatic dysfunction progressing to encephalopathy within 8-12 weeks from initial onset of liver disease (no history of pre-existing liver dz, otherwise acute on chronic)

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18
Q

What are physical signs of cholestasis disorders?

A

Icterus
Skin excoriation - due to pruritis
Ecchymoses - coagulopathy (prolonged PT)
Xanthomas and xanthelasmas
Acholic (gray) stools
Gallbladder may be enlarged / palpable if obstructed

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19
Q

What are three special modalities used to check for hepatobiliary disease?

A
  1. ERCP - endoscopic retrograde cholangio-pancreatogram, inject dye into ampulla of vater
  2. PTC - percutaneous cholangiogram, find a bile duct through the skin and check for obstruction
  3. MRCP - Magnetic resonance cholangiopancreatogram
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20
Q

What are the treatments for medical jaundice / cholestasis?

A

Bile salt binding resins such as cholestyramine -> treat the pruritis

Ursodeoycholic acid - binds cholesterol and protects against gallstones

Vitamin K / Vitamin D supplementation

Medium chain triglycerides - can be absorbed without bile salts

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21
Q

What are the treatments for portosystemic collaterals (varices)?

A
  1. Transfusion - for blood loss if bleeding
  2. Endoscopic injection - sclerose the vessels closed
  3. Rubber band ligation -> suck them closed
  4. Pharmacologic agents to lower portal pressure
  5. Decompression
    - > i.e. TIPS
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22
Q

What are the three types of portosystemic encephalopathy? How do they differ broadly in terms of reversibility?

A

Acute type -> not due to portal HTN/ shunting, irreversible:

Type A - Acute - delirium + convulsions, commonly progress to coma -> BBB and cerebral edema

Chronic types -> usually due to shunting problem, usually reversible:

Type B - Bypasses -> Occurs in patients with portosystemic bypasses

Type C - Cirrhosis / Chronic liver disease - functional hepatocellular failure with large shunting / portal HTN component

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23
Q

What factors precipitate worsening of hepatic encephalopathy?

A

Increased NH3 production or absorption:

  1. Excess oral protein intake -> ammonia builds
  2. GI bleed -> increased protein to gut microbes
  3. Constipation / infection

Decreased NH3 removal:

  1. Alkalosis / hypokalemia -> Increased K+ reabsorption stimulates H+ excretion via ammonia, but ammonia ends up returning to blood so it just exacerbates the issue
  2. Renal failure
  3. Diuretics -> hypokalemia
  4. TIPS procedure
  5. Benzos / sedatives
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24
Q

What pharmacologic agents are useful in reducing portal pressures and thus are useful in treating acute variceal bleeds?

A

Octreotide -> somatostatin analogy which decreases secretion of splanchnic vasodilators

Vasopressin -> constrictor of vascular beds

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25
Q

What lab tests are helpful in determining the etiology of the ascites fluid?

A
  1. Protein content
  2. WBC’s and type - monocytes elevated in TB, PMNs in bacterial peritonitis
  3. Malignant cells - diagnostic of cancer
  4. Amylase - elevated in pancreatitis
    - > pancreatitis is a cause of ascites because malnutrition leads to decreased protein and hence oncotic pressure
  5. Gram stain and culture - diagnostic of infection
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26
Q

How does protein content help determine the etiology of ascites and what is the cutoff?

A

Protein content:

High in chronic infection and tumor (exudate)

Low in portal hypertension - transudate

If serum minus ascities albumin is greater than 1.1 g/dL -> portal HTN is very likely

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27
Q

What are the problems associated with ascites?

A
  1. Spontaneous bacterial peritonitis
  2. Umbilical hernia with rupture -> Flood syndrome!
  3. Can lead to pleural effusions and generally diaphragm harder to move -> breathing difficulties
  4. Drug dilution due to increased volume of distribution
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28
Q

What are the two types of hepatorenal syndrome?

A

Type 1 - rapid development of kidney failure in less than two weeks, worst prognosis

Type 2 - Slower onset -> diuretic resistant or unresponsive ascites

Patients will have oliguria but no ultrasound or urine sediment signs of ATN

Must rule out pre-renal azotemia by trying volume expansion with saline to see if kidney function improves

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29
Q

What are some other non-hepatic causes of ascites?

A
Peritoneal infections, i.e. TB 
Cancer - primary or metastatic to peritoneum 
Nephrotic syndrome 
Pancreatitis 
CHF, constrictive pericarditis
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30
Q

How does alcoholic hepatitis appear pathologically?

A

Swollen and necrotic hepatocytes with a NEUTROPHILIC inflammatory infiltrate.

Mallory-Denk bodies -> alcoholic hyaline - eosinophilic cytoplasmic inclusions which are inclusions of damage keratin filaments

Can be some centrilobular fibrosis

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31
Q

What are the laboratory findings of alcoholic hepatitis?

A

Mild to moderate increase in serum transaminases, especially AST > ALT. “Make a toAST with alcohol”

Elevated bilirubin, alkphos, GGT with cholestasis, and mild leukocytosis due to neutrophils

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32
Q

Where does iron tend to accumulate in hemochromatosis and what are the consequences?

A

Bronze diabetes
Liver - micronodular cirrhosis and HCC

Pancreas - diabetes mellitus

Myocardium - restrictive -> dilated cardiomyopathy

Joint synovial tissue - arthropathy

Pituitary - hypogonadism

Skin - increased melanin in epidermis, increased hemosiderin in dermis

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33
Q

What is the pathogenesis of Wilson disease?

A

Defective transport of copper in liver -> decreased incorporation of copper into ceruloplasmin -> decreased excretion of excess copper into bile -> toxic copper accumulation

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34
Q

What are the consequences of copper excess in all liver and CNS in Wilson disease?

A

Liver - fat and glycogen accumulation -> hepatitis -> cirrhosis

CNS - neuronal injury -> neurologic and psychiatric manifestations.

Basal ganglia involvement: Temors, rigidity, dysarthria

Elsewhere: depression, anxiety, psychosis

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35
Q

What is the cause of primary biliary cholangitis (PBC) and who tends to get it?

A

Probably an autoimmune disease characterized by progressive T-cell mediated destruction of small to medium sized intrahepatic ducts

As it is autoimmune, it is classically seen in middle-aged women with other autoimmune disorders (i.e. Sjogren’s, RA, Hashimoto)

Pathognomonic is florid duct lesion: giant cell neck to ducts
-> starts as granulomatous inflammation in portal tract and worsens to biliary cirrhosis

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36
Q

What is seen in the lab values / tests for PBC?

A

Cholestatic lab profile (increased alk phos, GGT, cholesterol, conjugated bilirubin)

Increased IgM levels -> antimitochondrial antibodies and lipoprotein X (type of LDL only seen in bile diseases)

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37
Q

What is the treatment for PBC?

A

Ursodeoxycholic acid -> protects against bad bile acids, and symptomatic treatment of complications (i.e. vitamin D, cholestyramine, portal HTN treatments like octeotide)

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38
Q

What ducts are destroyed in primary sclerosing cholangitis (PSC) and who tends to get it?

A

Progressive destruction of large intrahepatic and extrahepatic bile ducts

Found mostly in middle-aged men, strongly associated with ulcerative colitis, p-ANCA+

Complications: Gallbladder cancer, cholangiocarcinoma, biliary cirrhosis

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39
Q

How does pathology appear in PSC?

A

Think sclerosing + targetting bile ducts

Alternating areas of stricture (concentric, “onion-skin” fibrosis around ducts) and dilatation “beads”.

Basically strictures of fibrosis that look like hyperplastic arteriolosclerosis of ducts, and dilations that are like “beads” - seen on barium study via ERCP

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40
Q

Representative examples of liver injury types:

A

Acute hepatitis - phenytoin

Chronic hepatitis - alpha-methyldopa, nitrofurantoin

Cholestasis - estrogens
Cholestasis/hepatitis - amox/clav, chlorpromazine

Macrovesicular fatty liver - corticosteroids

Microvesicular fatty liver - tetracycline overdose

Dose-related cirrhosis - methotrexate, need multiple liver biopsies

Granulomatous - allopurinol

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41
Q

What liver injury does pre-marrow-transplant chemotherapy cause?

A

Hepatic veno-occlusive disease

-> a cause of intrahepatic portal HTN

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42
Q

What determines if acetaminophen is toxic or not and how does the antidote work?

A

Phase I - toxic
Phase II - safe

N-acetylcysteine works to replenish intracellular glutathione stores involved in dealing with toxic NAPQI accumultation. These are also depleted in alcoholism and malnutrition

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43
Q

What is the type of DILI accounted for by most hepatic drug reactions? What is the clinical course?

A

Unpredictable, idiosyncratic

-> occurs rarely for any drug, includes herbals

  • > long latent period (sensitization?) for several weeks before reaction
  • > rechallenge with same drug will lead to rapid reaction
  • > associated with fever, rash, eosinophilia (suggesting hypersensitivity)

-> drug acts as a hapten for immunologic response, or produces toxic metabolites

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44
Q

What drug reaction does phenytoin usually cause?

A

Acute hepatitis with delayed onset

May cause DRESS syndrome though:
Drug Reaction with Eosinophilia and Systemic Symptoms
-> fever, rash, eosinophilia, lymphadenopathy
-> mechanism unclear

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45
Q

What is the course and presentation of CMV hepatitis?

A

Generally causes hepatitis in children, or immunosuppressed adults.

Anicteric hepatitis with no chronic phase propensity, may be lethal in immunosuppressed

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46
Q

What atypical hepatitis occurs in immunosuppressed individuals and is associated with high mortality? How is it seen? What is the treatment?

A

HSV -> seen by inclusion bodies on light microscope

Treatment is acyclovir or vidarabine

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47
Q

Is acute liver failure common in HBV? What drugs are used to treat chronic infection?

A

No -> chronic carrier state can be though.

Drugs: Think NRTI wielding mace and lamb (lamivudine), as well as IFN-alpha antenna

Most commonly used are entecavir and tenofovir, suppressing virus

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48
Q

How is hepatitis E virus transmitted and why is it unique? What type of virus is it?

A

Fecal-oral, especially from contaminated water

RNA hepevirus

Unique - only human hepatitis virus with an animal reservoir (swine)

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49
Q

Who is considered at highest risk for HBV?

A

Men who have sex with men (trauma during sex), people born in areas with high rates of chronic HBV (especially Asia), and those with multiple sex partners

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50
Q

What is a Von Meyenburg Complex and what causes it?

A

Bile duct hamartoma - caused by persistence of embryonic bile duct structures
-> presence of multiple with intervening connective tissue may look like metastatic adenocarcinoma, need to differentiate based on lack of cellular atypia

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51
Q

Who tends to get focal nodular hyperplasia and how is it found?

A

Occurs in young adults, especially with oral contraceptives in women, or anabolic steroids in men

Usually found as an incidental finding -> looks like an oncocytoma of kidney, with a central scar and radiating bands of fibrous tissue

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52
Q

What are the microscopic features of focal nodular hyperplasia, and what are the clinical consequences?

A

Central scar, with abnormally large arterial branches accompanied by bile ductular proliferation (which don’t drain anything) and chronic inflammation, with no well defined portal triads

Hyperplasia grows between radial spokes of fibrosis

There are no clinical sequellae -> just need to differentiate between important masses

Proliferations occur due to alterations in blood flow leading to increased oxygenation by hepatic artery and thus release of growth factors causing reactive hyperplasia

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53
Q

What are the gross and microscopic features of nodular regenerative hyperplasia? What is it difficult to differentiate from?

A

Gross - diffuse, pale, fine nodularity of the liver

Microscopic - Regenerative nodules WITHOUT fibrosis (check trichrome stain), often with obliterated portal vein branches

Lack of fibrosis will help differentiate from cirrhosis

Arise in individuals with a predisposition for decreased blood flow to liver: i.e. hematologic / neoplastic disorders. Possible consequence: may develop portal HTN

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54
Q

How does cavernous hemangioma appear microscopically?

A

Frequently subcapsular - most common benign liver tumor

Large, thin-walled, blood-filled spaces lined by normal-appearing endothelial cells, separated by scarce fibrous connective tissue

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55
Q

What benign liver neoplasm is most associated with oral contraceptive or estrogen use, and almost never arises outside of this context? How does it present clinically?

A

Hepatocellular adenoma

Present in young women on oral contraceptives. May cause an acute abdomen due to rupture and intraperitoneal hemorrhage

Subcapsular, green, well-circumscribed, but more likely to bleed than cavernous hemangioma

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56
Q

How does hepatocellular adenoma appear microscopically?

A

Sheets and cords of relatively normal-looking hepatocytes, containing glycogen or triglycerides (functioning properly) but with NO portal tracts and scattered arteries and veins which are prone to hemorrhage.

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57
Q

What are the early vs late lab elevations in metastasis to liver?

A

Spread from colon, pancreas, lung (hepatic artery), breast (after lung)

Early - elevated Alk Phos (indicates metastasis to liver) and LDH (nonspecific for cell death)

Late - increased serum bilirubin and transaminases - due to necrosis of hepatocytes from ischemia and blockage of bile drainage = HEPATOMEGALY

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58
Q

What are the three major risk factors for development of HCC? Which is most common in US?

A
  1. Asymptomatic HBV carrier state
  2. Cirrhosis (repeated cycles of necrosis and regeneration is progressively mutagenic) - most common in US
  3. Exposure to aflatoxin
    - > stored grains and peanuts from Aspergillus flavus, induces p53 mutations
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59
Q

What are the clinical consequences of venous invasion by HCC?

A

Portal vein -> portal hypertension

Hepatic vein -> Budd-Chiari syndrome, can even extend to right atrium thru IVC

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60
Q

What is the clinical triad of Budd-Chiari syndrome? What is seen in the liver?

A

Sudden liver enlargement (hepatomegaly), pain, and ascites - due to acute hepatic venous occlusion

Centrilobular congestion and necrosis can be seen

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61
Q

How does HCC appear microscopically?

A

highly variable. May be trabeculated or pseudoacinar if more well differentiated.

Can be told apart from benign by presence of prominent nucleoli, eosinophilic cytoplasm, and lack of simple hepatocellular cords (tend to grow in clusters / acini)

Will cause elevated alpha-fetoprotein (fetal albumin)

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62
Q

What form of hepatocellular carcinoma is seen in young adults and has a good prognosis? Why is the prognosis good?

A

Hepatocellular carcinoma, fibrolamellar variant

Prognosis is good because it is well circumscribed and individuals often have no underlying liver disease (can resect just fine)

  • > well-differentiated tumor cells in abundant fibrous stroma and parallel lamellae of collagen
  • > appears grossly like oncocytoma
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63
Q

What is cholangiocarcinoma? What are the risk factors?

A

Carcinoma of the bile duct epithelium (intrahepatic or extrahepatic)

Risk factors: often absent, but include primary sclerosing cholangitis, congenital biliary tract abnormalites leading to stasis, Thorotrast exposure, and Clonorchis sinesis (liver fluke)

-> looks like regular desmoplastic adenocarcinoma, very poor prognosis if intrahepatic (detected late)

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64
Q

How does hepatoblastoma appear grossly and microscopically?

A

Grossly - Large, hemorrhagic, necrotic nodular mass

Microscopically - small, round, blue-cell tumor with evidence of epithelial (embryonal to fetal hepatocellular) differentiation +/- mesenchymal differentiation (may even have random bone deposits)

Expresses alpha-fetoprotein

-Aggressive but treatable malignancy of children

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65
Q

What is the fate of bilirubin once it enters the intestine?

A

Bacteria in the gut deconjugate it to urobilinogen.

Urobilinogen can be excreted in stool after being made into stercobilin -> gives the stool its brown color.

Some urobilinogen is reabsorbed -> can be excreted again in bile, or transported to kidneys where it is oxidized to urobilin -> gives the urine its yellow color.

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66
Q

What is the most common congenital anomaly of the gallbladder?

A

Phrygian cap -> fundus (body, as opposed to neck and cystic duct) of the gallbladder folded inward

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67
Q

What gallbladder pathology is commonly seen with cholesterol stones and what is the cause? How does it appear grossly and microscopically?

A

Cholesterolosis - aggregates of foamy macrophages within the subepithelium of gallbladder (looks a bit like Whipple’s disease, but in gallbladder). Grossly -> little yellow deposits within the mucosa.

Increased bile cholesterol increases cholesterol absorption by gallbladder mucosa -> accumulate in subepithelium

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68
Q

What are the risk factors for pigment gallstones?

A
  1. Chronic hemolysis -> increased biliary excretion of conjugated bilirubin, and a small percentage always becomes UNconjugated
    - > forms black stones which conjugate with Ca+2 and are radioopaque
  2. Biliary tract infections -> microbial deconjugation of bile acids
    - >forms brown stones which are soft and soap and radiotranslucent
  3. Gallbladder hypomotility -> thickens bile
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69
Q

What are the four F’s of cholelithiasis risk factors?

A

Female
Fat
Fertile (pregnant)
Forty

+ Native American
-> cholesterol stones

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70
Q

What are the possible complications of cholelithiasis?

A
  1. *Acute cholecystitis
  2. Hydrops of gallbladder due to chronic obstruction - gallbladder filled with mucin
  3. Choledocholithiasis -Obstruction of the common bile duct
  4. Chronic cholecystitis
  5. Gallstone ileus
  6. Carcinoma of the gallbladder
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71
Q

What is the most common type of cholecystitis and its pathogenesis?

A

Calculous cholecystitis - obstruction of neck of gallbladder via a stone = retention of bile, gallbladder distention, and vascular compression in the wall (venous congestion, causing hemorrhagic infarct overtime)

Acalculous happens in critically ill patients with hypoperfusion or hypomotility

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72
Q

What are the predisposing factors to chronic cholecystitis, and what are the characteristic microscopic features?

A

Chronic cholelithiasis and bacterial contamination

Chronic inflammation - lymphocytes, macrophages, plasma cells, and fibrosis

Rokitansky-Aschoff sinuses - mucosal diverticula seen in gallbladder wall due to contraction against thick gallbladder wall
-> Porcelain gallbladder is most well-recognized variant

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73
Q

What is a Klatskin tumor and what are its risk factors?

A

A type of carcinoma of the extrahepatic bile ducts, which is located at the origin of the common hepatic duct (before it merges with cystic duct)

Risk factors for all adenocarcinomas of extrahepatic bile ducts:
Older males, biliary tract infections, PSC, choledochal cysts

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74
Q

What stimulates the release of the contents from duct cells and acinar cells?

A

Cephalic phase - Vagus nerve - acetylcholine

Gastric phase - Duct cells are stimulated by -> secretin, produced by S cells in duodenum

Intestinal phase - Acinar cells are stimulated by -> cholecystokinin, released by I cells, “I like fat”

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75
Q

What do the two buds of the pancreas form?

A

Ventral bud - forms off of the hepatic diverticulum (off the biliary tree endoderm which will induce formation of liver) -> will form the caudal portion of the head of the pancreas as well as the uncinate process

Dorsal bud - comes off of duodenum dorsally - forms the rostral portion of head of pancreas plus body and tail

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76
Q

What are the causes of acute pancreatitis?

A

I GET SMASHED

Idiopathic, Ischemia

**Gallstones
**Ethanol
Trauma - i.e. MVA in children, stabbings

Steroids 
Mumps infection 
Autoimmune disease 
Scorpion stings 
Hypercalcemia / hypertriglyceridemia (>1000 mg/dL) 
ERCP - to clear stone 
Drugs
77
Q

What are the clinical manifestions of acute pancreatitis?

A

Acute abdominal pain, often radiating to the back

  • > made better by leaning forward to take pancreas off retroperitoneum
  • > orthostatic changes due to volume depletion
  • > worsened by food

Increased serum amylase or lipase (more specific marker)

78
Q

What are the systemic complications of acute pancreatitis and why?

A

DIC - circulating amylase and lipase damage endothelium

ARDS - damage to pulmonary membranes

Shock - bleeding and loss of edema fluid -> progress to renal failure

Metabolic effects -> lactic acidosis, hyperglycemia, hypoalbuminemia, hypocalcemia

Extrapancreatic fat necrosis - circulating lipases

79
Q

What diseases cause true cysts in the pancreas?

A

ADPKD, von Hippel-Lindau

-> cysts are lined with epithelium (vs pseudocysts)

80
Q

What cells of the pancreas does pancreatic adenocarcinoma arise from? How is this differentiated from chronic pancreatitis?

A

Ductal cells of pancreas (acinar is insanely rare)
-> especially in head, where there are many ducts

-> differentiated from chronic pancreatitis by loss of normal lobular architecture in adenocarcinoma

81
Q

What are the risk factors for pancreatic adenocarcinoma and how does is appear microscopically?

A

-> happens in black male diabetic smokers with chronic pancreatitis

Microscopic - loss of normal lobular architecture with haphazard, irregularly glandular structure, desmoplasia, and perineural invasion -> can be painful

82
Q

What is Trousseau syndrome?

A

Migratory thrombophlebitis - redness and tenderness on palpation of extremities -> thrombosis of arms and legs due to hypercoagulability. The adenocarcinoma produces a procoagulant (probs mucin)

83
Q

What are the three forms of acute pancreatitis? How are they defined?

A

Mild = interstitial damage, with absence of organ failure or necrosis

Moderately severe = local complications and may have transient organ failure for <48 hours

Severe = necrotizing - persistent organ failure + local complications, high mortality, especially if infected

84
Q

What causes hereditary pancreatitis and what is it associated with risk of?

A

Mutation in trypsin making it resistant to lysis

Autosomal dominant -> cumulative risk of pancreatic cancer is 40% (very high)

85
Q

What are the two distinct phases of pancreatitis which have been identified?

A

Early phase - within 1 week, systemic inflammatory response syndrome +/- organ failure

Late phase - after 1 week, characterized by local complications

86
Q

What are some common signs of acute pancreatitis on abdominal exam?

A

Grey Turner’s sign - flank discoloration -> secondary to retroperitoneal hemorrhage

Cullen’s sign - periumbilical discoloration

Paralytic ileus (absent ball sounds)

Pleural effusions, ascites, jaundice

87
Q

What are the diagnostic criteria for making the diagnosis of acute pancreatitis?

A

Present of at least 2/3 of the following:

  1. Acute epigastric pain radiating to the back
  2. Amylase and lipase levels elevated >3x ULN
  3. Characteristic imaging findings
88
Q

What are the causes of severe necrotizing pancreatitis and what is the treatment?

A

Cause is an infection, usually by E.coli, Klebsiella, or Enterococcus

Treatment - broad spectrum antibiotics until aspiration biopsy tells you sensitivities. Surgical debridement after infection clears.

89
Q

When should pseudocysts be treated and how is this done?

A

Treat if they are symptomatic
-> can treat endoscopically (via ERCP or across stomach), percutaneously under CT guidance, or surgically

These are local fluid collections which may cause severe pain, obstruction, bleeding, infection, leakage / rupture

90
Q

What is the treatment for chronic pancreatitis?

A

Oral pancreatic enzyme replacement therapy (when 90% of function is lost) -> improves maldigestion of fat, and gives negative feedback for CCK release

Analgesia, with denervation of the pancreas and Whipple procedure of needed.

91
Q

Other than obvious jaundice-related symptoms and Trousseau, what are a couple signs / symptoms which make you worry about pancreatic cancer?

A
  1. New onset diabetes - in the absence of pancreatitis or past history, especially late in life
  2. Depression - new onset depression with unclear reasoning, common in pancreatic cancer

Courvoisier sign - palpable, non-tender gallbladder in presence of obstructive jaundice

92
Q

What is the characteristic pain felt in acute cholecystitis?

A

Severe, constant RUQ pain which may radiate to the shoulder

Positive Murphy’s sign (inspiratory arrest on RUQ palpation)

93
Q

Where is the venous drainage from from the upper 1/3, middle 1/3, and lower 1/3 of the esophagus? Where does the portal system connect?

A

Upper 1/3 - Superior vena cava via inferior thyroid veins
LN: deep cervical nodes

Middle 1/3 - azygous system
LN: mediastinal

Lower 1/3 - portal system via left gastric vein (coronary vein), which forms an anastamosis with the azygous system
LN: celiac and gastric nodes

94
Q

What is the definition of “transfer” as it relates to swallowing?
What is the definition of “transport” as it relates to swallowing?

A

Transfer - Bolus propulsion into posterior pharynx and proximal esophagus, past the UES
-> failure = transfer dysphagia = oropharyngeal dysphagia

Transport - Peristalsis propels food through esophagus into stomach (includes LES)

95
Q

What type of dysphagia is achalasia and why does it occur?

A

Transport dysphagia

Occurs because LES fails to fully relax after swallow

  • > esophageal contractions are often uncoordinated or absent as well, leading to absent persitalsis
  • > preferential loss of inhibitory neurotransmitters (NO/VIP) from Auerbach’s plexus
  • > high LES pressure on esophageal manometry
  • > bird beak sign on X-ray
96
Q

What is pseudoachalasia?

A

Achalasia caused by carcinomas of the proximal stomach
-> may infiltrate Auerbach plexus by mass effect or cause ganglionic destruction by paraneoplastic secretion

-> EGD is needed to make this diagnosis in the presence of achalasia

97
Q

What is diffuse esophageal spasm (DES) and how does it differ from achalasia? How is the diagnosis made?

A

Disorder of esophageal motility where peristalsis is replaced by a series of repetitive, non-propulsive, high amplitude contractions (vs nutcracker esophagus where they are propulsive)

Major difference from achalasia: Peristalsis and LES function are preserved. They are really opposite ends of the spectrum.

  • > causes dysphagia and chest pain
  • > precipitated by emotional stress or after drinking very hot or cold liquids

Corkscrew appearance on esophageal manometry

98
Q

What characterizes sclerodermal esophageal dysmotility (the E in CREST)?

A

Smooth muscle (distal 1/2) infiltration and atrophy from collagen deposition

  • > Decreased LES pressure (always open)
  • > minimal or aperistalsis (dysmotility)
  • > early: aperistalsis and GERD
  • > late: esophagitis and strictures
99
Q

How is transfer dysphagia treated?

A

Depending on the cause. I.e. treatment of neuromyopathies like dermatomyositis or MG (immunosuppressants or anti-Ach-E)

Treatment of UES dysfunction via myotomy (incision of sphincter muscle) or Botulinum toxin (botox) for cricopharyngeal achalasia

Altering food consistency if post-stroke / postsurgical

100
Q

What do you use to treat spastic conditions of the esophagus and what must be ruled out first?

A

Nitrates, calcium channel blockers, tricyclics

r/o cardiac disease first before starting all these cardiac-active drugs

101
Q

What is a pulsion diverticulum and what are the two main types? Is it a true diverticulum?

A

Mucosal herniation (pseudodiverticulum since not the whole wall) caused by high intraluminal pressures

  1. Zenker diverticulum - most common
  2. Epiphrenic diverticulum
    - > in association with achalasia or hiatal hernia
102
Q

What is a traction diverticulum and what causes it?

A

A mid-esophageal diverticulum caused by something pulling on the esophagus

Commonly due to malignancy or TB with scarring

103
Q

What are esophageal webs? How are they different than rings?

A

Webs - Idiopathic, partially circumferential membranous thickenings in upper esophagus, cause intermittent obstruction and dysphagia
-> middle-aged women, in association with GVHD, GERD, and blistering skin diseases

Rings - idiopathic, same as webs just slightly thicker and extend for the entire circumference

104
Q

What are the two types of esophageal rings? When do they happen?

A

A ring - found proximal to GE junction, covered with squamous epithelium

B ring / Schatzki ring - occurs AT GE junction, often superiorly covered with squamous epithelium and inferiorly covered with glandular epithelium. Happens in association with hiatal hernia

105
Q

What are the two esophageal syndromes associated with violent wretching and which is more serious? why?

A
  1. Mallory-Weiss syndrome - partial-thickness longitudinal mucosal lacerations at GE junction
  2. Boerhaave syndrome - transmural, distal rupture due to violent wretching -> can cause mediastinitis and subcutaneous emphysema (due to air in mediastinum) and is a surgical emergency
106
Q

What are the three causes of infectious esophagitis and who generally gets it? Give the morphology for each.

A

Generally immunocompromised individuals

  1. Candida - white pseudomembranes
  2. HSV-1 - punched out ulcers
  3. CMV - linear ulcers from base of esophagus wall thickness
107
Q

What does reflux esophagitis look like grossly and microscopically? Risk factors?

A

Grossly - Mild hyperemia, can’t tell much

Microscopically - Intraepithelial eosinophils (first infiltrate seen in GI inflammation), later neutrophils, and bazal zone hyperplasia with elongation of lamina propria papillae

Same risk factors as hiatal herna:
increased intraabdominal pressure or decreased LES tone

108
Q

What type of esophageal carcinoma is most common in the rest of the world and what are its risk factors? Where does it arise?

A

Squamous cell carcinoma, arises usually mid-esophagus but can be anywhere

RF: alcohol and tobacco smoking**, hot liquids and achalasia (irritation), caustic strictures with repeated injuries, Plummer-Vinson, etc

109
Q

What is the most common salivary gland tumor? Where is it thought to arise from histologically?

A

Pleomorphic adenoma - benign mixed tumor

Arises from intercalated ductal reserve cells or myoepithelial cells

Makes sense because the tumor is actually heterogenous

Epitheloid component and mesenchymal / stromal component which can be very diverse

110
Q

What is a Warthin tumor and who gets it?

A

Papillary Cystadenoma Lymphomatosum

Always arises in the parotid gland in male smokers

111
Q

What malignancy most frequently occurs in the minor salivary glands, especially in the palate? What is the prognosis*** (this is unique)?

A

Adenoid cystic carcinoma

Prognosis is poor because of common recurrence and VERY late metastases. 15 year survival is significantly worse than 5 year survival.

anastomosing cords around cystic spaces containing homogenous, hyaline material -> looks like thyroidization with desmoplasia outside

112
Q

What is sialadenitis and what typically causes it?

A

Acute or chronic inflammation of the salivary gland

Parotid glands - often viral infection like mumps or HIV

Bacteria - i.e. Staph aureus, can cause or complicate it by filling it with pus

Autoimmune disorders like Sjogren’s syndrome may cause it

113
Q

How does spread of cancer from the stomach differ from colon and why?

A

Spreads much easier from stomach than colon because the lamina propria of the stomach DOES contain lymphatic tissue -> can metastasize with this little invasion of mucosa

114
Q

What stimulates somatostatin, what releases it, and what are its actions?

A

Stimulated by increased acid or loss of vagal stimulation

Released by D cells of pancreas and stomach / duodenum, as well as hypothalamus -> widespread inhibitory action on release of hormones, including gastrin and histamine

115
Q

What things cause decreased mucosal protection to cause acute gastritis?

A
  1. Advanced age - decreased mucus production
  2. NSAIDS - loss of PGE2, which is needed to maintain blood flow to mucosa, and maintain production of HCO3- / mucin
  3. Uremia - acidosis will allow less bicarbonate to be excreted
  4. Low O2 -> shock, high altitudes, severe burns
116
Q

What things tend to induce acute gastric ulcers?

A
  1. NSAIDs
  2. Intracranial trauma - stimulation of vagal nerve increases gastric acid secretion
    - > Cushing ulcer
  3. Major physiologic stress - shock, sepsis, burns (Curling ulcer) leads to decreased perfusion of mucosa (decrease nutrients) and systemic acidosis (Decrease bicarbonate excretion)
117
Q

How does H.pylori-induced gastritis appear grossly and microscopically?

A

Grossly - Erythematous, rough-appearing gastric mucosa with active inflammation. Mucosal atrophy and intestinal G-cell metaplasia and hyperplasia is also present

Microscopically - acute on chronic inflammation (neutrophils + chronic inflammatory infiltrate) + presence of spiral-shaped bacteria in superficial mucus

118
Q

What causes autoimmune gastritis and what part of the stomach does it affect?

A

Loss of self-tolerance of CD4+ T cells to gastric parietal cells

  • > stimulation of autoantibodies to parietal cells or intrinsic factor
  • > chronic inflammation and destruction of gastric body and fundus by CD8 activation

Inflammation found deep in mucosa rather than near surface (i.e. H. pylori gastritis)

119
Q

What causes Menetrier disease and how does it appear?

A

Increased production of TGF-alpha leads to diffuse hyperplasia of mucous glandular epithelium in body and fundus, with atrophy of parietal and chief cells -> thick rugae

-> protein-losing enteropathy and premalignant

120
Q

What type of polyp is characterized by irregularly dilated gastric glands without inflammation and what prediposes to it?

A

Fundic Gland Polyp - associated with proton pump inhibitor use

Inflammatory / hyperplastic are most common

121
Q

What are the two types of gastric adenocarcinoma and the risk factors for each?

A

Intestinal-type - Chronic atrophic gastritis of both types (causes intestinal metaplasia), dietary nitrosamines, gastric adenoma, smoking

Diffuse-type - risk factors unknown (thus increasing in prevalence)

122
Q

What is Diffuse-Type Gastric Adenocarcinoma also called? What mutation is associated with it? What does it look like microscopically?

A

Signet-Ring Cell Adenocarcinoma

Associated with loss of E-cadherin

Microscopically - mucin-filled cells with peripheral nuclei, widespread over stomach. Infiltrating singly or in small nests (glandular differentiation with intracellular mucin)

-> induces linitis plastica or “leather bottle” from invasion of stomach wall

123
Q

What are some more uncommon presenting symptoms for gastric cancer?

A

Acanthosis nigricans - axillary browning

Leser-Trelat sign - multiple keratoses appearing all over body

124
Q

What are other important sites of distant metastasis for gastric carcinoma? Which one of these is only seen with one of the two types?

A
  1. Sister Mary Joseph nodule - periumbilical nodular metastasis
  2. Krukenberg tumor - bilateral metastases to ovaries, with abundant mucus secretion. Only signet-ring cell type.
125
Q

What is the general diagnostic workup employed with acute gastritis?

A

EGD - allows direct visualization of the mucosa for ulcers / erosions as well as direct biopsy
-> this also allows for direct testing of H. pylori

Young patients with positive H. pylori serology and no “alarm” symptoms may be treated empirically

Older patients with “alarm” symptoms need biopsy to rule out gastric cancer

Alarm symptoms include: weight loss / anorexia, NV with coffee ground emesis, melena, anemia

126
Q

What are the surgical options for treating PUD? When are they done?

A

Vagotomy - sometimes with antrectomy

Subtotal gastrectomy - remove acid producing organ

Usually done when complications of PUD are arising, but you should rule out gastrinoma first

127
Q

How does Zollinger-Ellison present?

A

Recurrent ulcers in duodenum / jejunum, with abdominal pain and diarrhea (from malabsorption because pancreatic enzymes don’t work at low pH)

-> failure to lower gastrin levels when IV secretin is given

128
Q

What are considered the high risk vs low risk NSAIDs for causing ulcers?

A

High risk - indomethacin, ketoroLAC (mainly used as analgesic per sketchy), aspirin, piroxicam (think of the sox cam in sketchy)

Low risk: Ibuprofen, diclofenac, naproxen, meloxicam (more COX-2 per sketchy, thus less side effects), especially celecoxib

129
Q

What are the risk factors for chronic ulcers?

A
  1. Age > 60 years
  2. Prevent healing -
    Concurrent use of corticosteroids / anticoagulants
  3. Use of several or high dose NSAIDs
130
Q

What is the quadruple therapy and when must it be used?

A

PPI + bismuth + tetracycline + metronidazole

Must be used if patient has a penicillin allergy or there has been past macrolide use

131
Q

What is the mechanism of action of sucralfate and the adverse effect of concern?

A

Undergoes extensive crosslinking in ulcer base if the environment is acidic

Concern - contains aluminum hydroxide -> special care for patients who may have aluminum overload, i.e. renal failure

132
Q

What medical therapy must be given for variceal upper GI bleed?

A

PPI infusion, and octreotide

Mechanism - octreotide reduces portal pressures by inhibiting glucagon-mediated splanchnic vasodilation

Also need 72 hours of PPIs to prevent rebleeding in non-variceal GI bleeds

133
Q

What are the rules of 2’s for Meckel’s?

A

2 inches long, 2 feet from ileocecal valve, in 2% of the population, occurring in first 2 years of life, contains 2 types of epithelia (gastric / pancreatic)

Most common congenital anomaly of the GI tract

134
Q

How are mucoid cells of the ectopic gastric mucosa in a Meckel’s detected?

A
Pertechnetate scan (Actively uptaken and secreted by mucosal epithelial cells of gastric tissue)
-> remember this can cause bleeding

-> also intussusception, volvulus, obstruction

135
Q

What is seen on anatomic pathology of Celiac disease? Where is the damage worst?

A

Villous atrophy / blunting with crypt hyperplasia for regeneration, and chronic inflammation surrounding

Worst in proximal small intestine

Hypersensitivity to gliadin associated with anti-endomysial Abs, anti-deamidated gliadin, and anti-tissue transglutaminase (IgA/IgG)

associated with dermatitis herpetiformis

T cell lymphoma and small intestinal adenocarcinoma

136
Q

How is Whipple disease detected pathologically?

A

Numerous, distended foamy macrophages in lamina propria as well as mesenteric lymph nodes which stain PAS+. They can only be seen by EM since they are so small
-> intracellular gram + systemic infection seen in older men
-> Whipped cream CAN
C: cardiac symptoms
A: arthralgias
N: neurologic symptoms

137
Q

What causes the majority of the injury in ischemic bowel, and what area is particularly susceptible?

A

Secondary reperfusion injury -> due to oxygen-derived free radicals

Splenic flexure is most vulnerable - watershed area between SMA / IMA

138
Q

Where does gastrointestinal carcinoid tumor tend to appear and how does it appear grossly / microscopically?

A

Ileum (remember this is the only common primary malignancy of small bowel, per pathoma), appendix, rectum

Grossly - yellow-to-white mass with variable degree of wall inflammation and fibrosis which may lead to kinking

Microscopic - Small round cells with salt and pepper chromatin and high vascularization

Small bowel - may cause obstruction due to prominent desmoplasia, and can metastasize

Appendix / rectal - Usually found incidentally, almost never metastasize

if makes it to liver - carcinoid syndrome: wheezing, flushing, diarrhea, right-sided valvular heart disease, precipitated by emotional stress

139
Q

What is the most common kind of lymphoma of the GI tract in terms of cell type? Most common subtype?

A

B cell lymphomas

MALT lymphoma - marginal zone (MAnTLe doesn’t go with MALT) lymphoma associated with chronic gastritis due to H. pylori

140
Q

What aggressive B cell lymphoma is often found in the abdomen or pelvis and is often not associated with EBV?

A

Burkitt lymphoma - sporadic form seen here in the U.S.

t(8;14) which happens independent of EBV

Mediterranean lymphoma - aggressive B cell lymphoma in children / young adults which is cured with antibiotics

141
Q

What neoplasm is derived from the interstitial cells of Cajal and what mutation is commonly associated with it? What tumor does it look similar to and what is the treatment?

A

Gastrointestinal stromal tumor
- tyrosine kinase mutations, specifically c-KIT -> treated well with imatinib

  • looks very similar to leiomyosarcoma (grows outward and will not cause symptoms unless obstructing lumen)
142
Q

Give two tests for assessing fat malabsorption (one rapid, one more extensive)

A

Rapid - Sudan stain to see qualitative amount of fat in stool

72-hour fecal fat collection - monitor fat intake for 72 hours and measure fat concentration in stool (collect in a coffee jar). if <94% of fat has been absorbed, that’s abnormal

143
Q

What is the bentiromide test for pancreatic insufficiency? Problem?

A

Give patient PABA linked to bentiramide -> if chymotrypsin is present, PABA will be reabsorbed. PABA will show up in urine if pancreas is functioning properly.

Problem - test can also be positive if small bowel absorption is diminished (no PABA reabsorbed)

144
Q

What is the D-xylose test and what is it checking for? Is it affected by pancreatic insufficiency?

A

Give patient D-xylose, which is passively absorbed in small intestine. Normal test is about 25% of given xylose showing up in the urine.

Causes for decreased blood or urine levels of xylose include:

  1. Decreased small bowel absorptive capacity (i.e. Celiac’s)
  2. Bacterial overgrowth -> before it reaches the small bowel

Passively reabsorbed so not affected by pancreatic insufficiency

145
Q

How do you test for lactose deficiency via breath test? How do you get a baseline?

A

Hydrogen breath test
-Give lactose. A greater than 20 PPM rise over several hours in breath hydrogen is noted if you have lactose deficiency. This is because lactose hits your colonic bacteria who ferment it.

baseline is given via lactulose which is always fermented if there is some question of the result

146
Q

What are the imaging and biopsy techniques to test for malabsorption in general?

A

Small bowel CT enterography or X-ray

Small bowel enteroscopy and biopsy (this must be done if past 1st section of small bowel, which is farthest an EGD can be advanced)

Wireless capsule endoscopy (swallow a camera pill)

147
Q

Other than B12, what other deficiencies can bacterial overgrowth cause? What are the symptoms?

A

Fat malabsorption - due to deconjugation of bile salts

Direct damage to mucosal epithelium

Iron deficiency

SCFA production and carbohydrate fermation in colon -> diarrhea, gas, cramping

148
Q

What is the easy way to microscopically diagnose Hirschsprung disease?

A

Preganglionic nerve fiber hypertrophy can be seen which stains very intensely for acetylcholinesterase
-> much easier than simply saying that ganglion cells are absent, because it could just be your sample or cut

149
Q

What are two antibodies which can slightly help differentiate between Crohn’s and ulcerative colitis? How does smoking play into these two diseases?

A

atypical p-ANCA - more typical of ulcerative colitis -> smoking is protective

anti-Saccharomyces cervisiae antibodies - more typical of Crohn disease
-> smoking predisposes

150
Q

How does Crohn disease appear microscopically?

A

Transmural fibrosis and chronic inflammation, sometimes with noncaseating granulomas which would be pathognomonic

Inflammation will be patchy even on a microscopic level. Ulcers will progress from superficial to deep and narrow.

151
Q

What sign is sometimes seen on barium studies of Crohn’s disease and where is it most commonly found?

A

“string sign” due to thickening of smooth muscle and fibrotic strictures

-> most common in terminal ileum

152
Q

How does ulcerative colitis appear grossly in active disease and what is a pseudopolyp?

A

Active - superficial, broad-based ulcerations and hemorrhage with intervening inflammatory pseudopolyps

Pseudopolyp - what remains of the mucosa level which as not ulcerated

Loss of haustra on imaging - “lead pipe” appearance on barium enema

153
Q

What is the feared complication of ulcerative colitis?

A

Toxic megacolon - knockout of submucosal plexus by inflammatory mediators leads to stasis and functional obstruction of bowel
-> expansion of bowel with risk of perforation / rupture

This is also called fulminant colitis

154
Q

What are diverticula and where do they appear?

A

Outpouchings of the mucosa / submucosa of the colon through the muscularis propria at points where the vasa recta enter (false diverticula)

Appear commonly in the sigmoid colon (where the water has been mostly reabsorbed so poop takes more force to propel)

155
Q

What are the causes of functional obstruction / ileus?

A

Disruption of intestinal peristalsis (i.e. Hirschsprung)

Risk factors: recent abdominal surgery, opiates, hypokalemia, sepsis

156
Q

What is the most common cause of mechanical obstruction?

A

Formation of adhesions - abnormal fibrous bands between tissues, especially in Crohn’s disease or following surgery

157
Q

What are the skin manifestations of IBD? Eyes? Joints?

A

Erythema nodosum - red markings due to fat inflammation on extensor surfaces of skin, common on shins

Pyoderma gangrenosum - ulcerating lesion with heaped up edges

Eyes - Uveitis, iritis, episcleritis

Peripheral arthritis - occurs only during exacerbations

Central arthritis - sacroilitis / ankylosing spondylitis, not associated with IBD activity

158
Q

What aspects of ulcerative colitis increase your susceptibility to cancer, and what are the screening guidelines?

A
  1. Extent of colonic involvement
  2. Duration of disease
  3. Age at symptom onset
  4. Primary sclerosing cholangiitis - associated, and an indepedent risk factor

Colonoscopy with multiple biopsies every 2 years after 8-10 years with disease, with colectomy for at least low-grade dysplasia

159
Q

What is the cause of IBS?

A

Problem of disordered motility and/or nociception

  • > multifactorial, and often associated with altered microbiome following infectious enteritis.
  • > Psychosocial factors also play a role
160
Q

What is the treatment for severe active ulcerative colitis and then maintenance afterwards?

A

Severe acute - Oral prednisone with 5-ASA + IV steroids if extremely severe

Maintenance - immunomodulator therapy

-Guidelines stay start immunomodulators for maintenance therapy of right-sided colitis

161
Q

What are the side effects of corticosteroids?

A

Cushing syndrome
Adrenal insufficiency - negative feedback causes atrophy
Hyperglycemia / diabetes - insulin resistance and increased gluconeogenesis
Psychosis - insomnia first
Cataracts
Hypokalemia - via mineralocorticoid effects
Osteoporosis with avascular necrosis of femoral head - broken chairleg
Skin thinning / bruising with streaks from capillary atrophy

162
Q

What corticosteroids are typically used in the treatment of ulcerative colitis and when?

A

Typically used in acute episodes only, try to avoid maintenance treatment with it, although about 1/3 of patients are steroid-dependent

Moderate disease -> oral budesonide which is not absorbed, stays in GI tract

Severe disease - IV steroids i.e. methylprednisolone / hydrocortisone

Steroids can also be used to treat chemotherapy-induced nausea: dexamethasone

163
Q

What other biologic immunomodulator class is being used in IBD? Which is the drug of choice in this and why?

A

Anti-alpha4-integrins - used for WBC adhesion

Vedolizumab - think “Vital”-zumab treatment of choice because it doesn’t cross BBB like Natalizumab which is used in the treatment of multiple sclerosis (increased risk of PML)

164
Q

What drugs are the mainstay for antispasmodic treatment for IBS-D? Side effects?

A

Hyoscyamine, dicyclomine

  • > antimuscarinic medications which predominately block Ach release in smooth muscle GI tract
  • > side effects include dry mouth, dry skin, and urinary retention
165
Q

What is Alosetron used for? Mechanism of action?

A

Used for treatment of IBS-D, it is a 5HT3 antagonist (similar to zofran) which is specific to causing constipation in the gut by slowing movement

166
Q

What are the two stimulant laxatives and what is their relative strength?

A

Senna - slow-acting, weak - think of the senna suntan lotion stimulating that man’s belly in sketchy

Bisacodyl - very strong

These both stimulate the enteric nervous system directly and produce strong but brief peristaltic movements

167
Q

What causes Peutz-Jeghers syndrome and how can its polyps be told apart from juvenile polyps? Are they premalignant?

A

Autosomal dominant disorder

GI tract: Large, pedunculated, hamartomatous polyps

Major characteristic difference: Large bundles of smooth muscle within the polyps in PJS

They are NOT premalignant, although PJS is associated with increased risk of cancer

  • > associated with melanotic macules of lips, face, hands, and feet
  • > increased risk of breast and GI cancers
168
Q

What are the clinical features of tubular adenoma vs villous adenoma?

A

Tubular - Usually asymptomatic, but some occult bleeding is possible

Villous - rectal bleeding is common. Cells are also so dysplastic that they release alot of protein -> hypoproteinemia due to protein-losing enteropathy. Can also secrete Cl- causing metabolic alkalosis -> hypokalemia

169
Q

What FAP variant is assocatied with osteomas (benign tumors of bone)? What else is it associated with?

A

Gardner syndrome

Also associated with soft tissue tumors: fibromatosis of retroperitoneum (fibroblast proliferation), and dental abnormalities

170
Q

What are the steps of the adenoma-carcinoma sequence?

A
  1. 2-hits to APC
  2. KRAS mutations - Ras becomes GTPase-activating protein (GAP) resistant
  3. Loss of TGF-beta signalling (important inhibitor of epithelial proliferation)
  4. TP53 knockout - DNA repair checkpoint is lost
  5. Additional mutations and acquisition of telomerase
171
Q

What are the stages of colorectal carcinoma?

A
0 = CIS before invasion thru muscularis mucosa (no lymphatics in mucosa) 
1 = no deeper than muscularis propria 
2 = Through muscularis propria 
3 = lymph node metastases 
4 = distant metastases (most commonly liver, then elsewhere)
172
Q

What would be the flexible sigmoidoscopy and CT colonography findings which would prompt colonoscopy?

A

Flexible sigmoidoscopy - if adenoma is found. Also, if FOBT is +, need colonoscopy

CT colonography - polyp >6mm is found

Note: >1cm on colonoscopy with biopsy is considered to have malignant potential

173
Q

What is the surveillance of PJS?

A

EGD beginning at age 10 for intestinal hamartomas

Colonoscopies every 3 years beginning at age 25 looking for CRC

Breast surveillance starting at age 25 - breast cancer

Abdominal / pelvic exams with PAPs starting at age 25
-ovarian and testicular cancer

174
Q

What is neo-adjuvant / adjuvant therapy for CRC and when is it used?

A

Neoadjuvant - surgery with PRE-operative chemo
-> Stage II (no lymph node involvement)

Adjuvant - surgery with POST-operative chemo -> used when lymph node involvement is seen (Stage III)

175
Q

What cells does Salmonella typhi spread to and what is it’s main virulence factor?

A

Invades thru M cells then lives intracellularly in macrophages and reticuloendothelial system, including liver and spleen.

Virulence factor includes a Type III secretion system from a Salmonella pathogenicity island which translocates proteins from its intracellular vacuole into the macrophage cytoplasm, preventing maturation of mature phagolysosome.

176
Q

What are the stages of Typhoid fever?

A

Early constipation or diarrhea for 1-2 weeks (BEFORE fever)

Flu-like symptoms begin by end of first week

Second week - high fever, often with loss of diarrhea, and appearance of rose spots, hepatosplenomegaly, and relative bradycardia

3rd-4th week: Systemic complications
-> hematogenous spread of bacteria just about anywhere

177
Q

What is the major difference between type of inflammation and disease produced by typhoid and nontyphoidal Salmonella strains?

A

Nontyphoidal - Neutrophil inflammation and gastroenteritis
-antibiotics NOT indicated

Typhoid - monocytic inflammation and significantly less diarrhea
-ceftriaxone or fluoroquinolones

178
Q

What are some entities which will lead to increased active secretion of solute in the small bowel? Will fasting help this?

A
  1. Cholera
  2. VIPoma - stimulates enterocytes to secrete
  3. Celiac sprue - crypt hyperplasia with increased secretion

Fasting will not help the active secretion. However, fasting would help conditions of decreased absorption (i.e. other mechanism of Celiac sprue, lactose malabsorption)

179
Q

What are the humoral peptides which are secretagogues of interest?

A

VIP - as in VIPoma
PGE - as in colitis (produced in inflammation)
Gastrin - as in Gastrinoma
Serotonin - as in carcinoid syndrome (ondansetron blocks and causes constipation)

180
Q

What are some causes of increased secretion (i.e. endogenous laxatives) from colon?

A

Colon: Bile acid malabsorption (direct secretagogues), fatty acid malabsorption (fatty acids interact with gut bacteria to increased net secretion), colitis (increased PGE)

181
Q

When does bile salt diarrhea occur and what is the effective treatment?

A

Whenever there is a partial iliectomy (<100 cm lost) -> enough of bile salts are reabsorbed for liver to make enough daily, so you don’t have malabsorption, but many bile salts reach colon and act as secretagogues on colonic epithelium

Treatment: Cholestyramine - bile salt binding resin

> 100cm is steatorrhea, and u got worse issues on your hands (Adding cholestyramine would make it worse)
-> decrease fat take, use Medium chain FA, supplement FADEK, give oral calcium to bind fatty acids

182
Q

What is the definition of short bowel syndrome? What will the symptoms be?

A

Less than 1/3 of small bowel left (<200 cm)

Symptoms of extreme malabsorption and thus increased diarrhea:

  • steatorrhea
  • fluid / electrolyte imbalances
  • malnutrition
  • increased gastrin to compensate with further diarrhea
  • > PPIs to deal with gastrin and antibiotics to prevent bacterial overgrowth
  • > vein and liver disease can be caused by parenteral nutrition
  • > consider small bowel + liver transplant if needed
183
Q

How does diabetes cause fecal incontinence and how is it a real problem?

A

Sympathetic denervation of the smooth muscle in the IAS leads to required voluntary contraction by EAS striated muscle to maintain continence

  • > causes problems at night where you shit yourself because you aren’t awake to think about your need to contract EAS
  • > decreased resting IAS tone on manometry studies

Bezoar - vegetables in stomach which can’t be moved

-> scleroderma is a worse version of this

184
Q

What causes intestinal diarrhea in diabetes and what are the consequences?

A

Increased parasympathetic tone relative to sympathetic -> increased secretions

Stasis of gut - bacterial overgrowth, bile acid deconjugation, fat malabsorption -> further diarrhea

Diabetes causes non-alcoholic fatty liver disease

185
Q

What GI manifestations does hyperparathyroidism and its associated hypercalcemia cause?

A

Constipation or diarrhea

Calcium stimulates gastrin -> Hypergastrinemia -> peptic ulcer disease + diarrhea

Calcium stimulates pancreas -> pancreatitis

Note: ZE syndrome (gastrinoma) associated with parathyroid adenoma

186
Q

What is characteristic of renal failure in the GI tract?

A

Angiodyplasias

Pancreatitis

Ascites

Duodenal polyps with hypertrophy of brunner’s glands

187
Q

What are the GI symptoms of Graft-versus-Host disease?

A

Bleeding, diarrhea, malabsorption, protein-losing enteropathy

In liver: “vanishing bile duct” syndrome -> cholestasis / jaundice

188
Q

What are the two main types of familial conjugated hyperbilirubinemia? Will they have symptoms of cholestasis?

A
  1. Dubin-Johnson syndrome (NOT SJS lul)
  2. Rotor syndrome

Will not have symptoms of cholestasis since the problem is only with excretion of bilirubin and not any of the other components of bile.