Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

USMLE > First Aid Rapid Review > Flashcards

First Aid Rapid Review Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
USMLE® Step 1 flashcards
1
Q

Abdominal pain, ascites, hepatomegaly

A

Budd-Chiari syndrome (posthepatic venous thrombosis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Achilles tendon xantoma

A

Familial Hypercholesterolemia (reduced LDL receptor signalling)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Adrenal hemorrhage, hypotension, DIC

A

Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrom (meningococcemia)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Arachnodactyly, lens dislocation, aortic dissection, hyperflexible joints

A

Marfan’s syndrome (fibrillin defect)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Athlete w/ polycythemia

A

secondary to erythropoeitein injection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

back pain, fever, night sweats, weight loss

A

Pott’s Disease (vertebral TB)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Bilateral hilar adenopathy, uveitis

A

sarcoidosis (noncaseating granulomas)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

blue sclera

A

osteogenesis imperfecta (type 1 collagen defect)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

bluish line on gingiva

A

Burton’s lines (lead poisoning)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

bone pain, bone enlargement, arthritis

A

Paget’s disease of bone (increased osteoblastic and osteoclastic activity)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Bounding pulses, diastolic heart murmur, head bobbing

A

Aortic regurgitation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Butterfly facial rash and Raynaud’s phenomenon in a young female

A

SLE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Cafe au lait spots, Lisch nodules (iris hamartoma)

A

NF type 1 (+pheochromocytoma, optic gliomas)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Cafe au lait spots, polyostotic fibrous dysplasia, precocious puberty, multiple endocrine abnormailities

A

McCune-Albright syndrome (Mosaic G-protein signalling mutation)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Calf psuedohypertrophy

A

muscular dystrophy (most commonly Duchenne’s): X-linked recessive deletion of dystrophin gene

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Cherry-red spot on macula

A

Tay-Sachs (ganglioside accumulation) or Neimann-Pick (sphingomyelin accumulation), central retinal artery occlusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Chest pain on exertion

A

Angina (stable: with moderate exertion; unstable: with minimal exertion)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Chest pain, pericardial effusion/friction rub, persistent fever following MI

A

Dressler’s syndrome (autoimmune-mediated post-MI fibrinous pericarditis, 1-12 weeks after acute episode)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Child uses arms to stand up from squat

A

Gower’s sign (Duchenne muscular dystrophy)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Child with fever later develops red rash on face that spreads to the body

A

Slapped Cheeks (erythemea infectiosum/fifth disease: parvovirus B19)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Chorea, dementia, caudate degeneration

A

Huntington’s Disease (autosomal-dominant CAG repeat expansion)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

chronic exercise intolerance with myalgia, fatigue, painful cramps, myoglobinuria

A

McArdle’s disease (muscle glycogen phosphorylase deficiency)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Cold intolerance

A

hypothyroidism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

conjugate lateral gaze palsy, horizontal diplopia

A

internuclear ophthalmoplegia (damage to MLF; bilateral [multiple sclerosis], unilateral [stroke])

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

continuous “machinery” heart murmur

A

PDA (close with indomethacin; open or maintain with misoprostol)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

cutaneous/dermal edema due to connective tissue deposition

A

myxedema (caused by hypothyroidism, Graves’ disease [pretibial])

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Dark purple skin/mouth nodules

A

Kaposi’s sarcoma (usually AIDS patients [MSM]; associated with HHV-8)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Deep, labored breathing/hyperventilation

A

Kussmaul breathing (diabetic ketoacidosis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Dermatitis, dementia diarrhea

A

Pellagra (niacin [vit. B3] deficiency)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

dilated cardiomyopathy, edema, alcoholism or malnutrition

A

wet beriberi (thiamine [vitamin B1] deficiency)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

dog or cat bite resulting in infection

A

pasturella multocida (cellulitis at inoculation site)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

dry eyes, dry mouth, arthritis

A

Sjogren’s syndrome (autoimmune destruction of exocrine glands)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

dysphagia (esophageal webs), glossitis, iron deficiency anemia

A

Plummer-Vinson syndrome (may progress to esophageal squamous cell carcinoma)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

elastic skin, hypermobility of joints

A

Ehlers-Danlos syndrome (type III collagen defect)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Enlarged, hard left supraclavicular node

A

Virchow Node- Gastric Cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Facial Muscle spasm

A

Chvostek’s sign (hypocalcemia)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Fat, female, forty, and fertile

A

Cholelithiasis (gallstones)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Fever, chills, headache, myalgia following antibiotic treatment for syphillis

A

Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction (rapid lysis of spirochetes results in toxin release)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

fever, cough, conjunctivitis, coryza, diffuse rash

A

Measles (morbillivirus)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

fibrous plaques in soft tissue of the penis

A

Peyronie’s disease (connective tissue disorder)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

gout, mental retardation, self-mutilating behavior in a boy

A

Lesch-Nyhan syndrome (HGPRT deficiency, X-linked recessive)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

green-yellow rings around peripheral cornea

A

Kayser-Fleischer rings (copper accumulation from Wilson’s Disease)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Hamartomatous GI polyps, hyperigmentation of mouth/feet/hands

A

Peutz-Jeghers syndrome (inherited, benign polyposis can cause bowel obstruction; increased cancer risk, mainly GI)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

hepatosplenomegaly, osteoporosis, neurologic symptoms

A

Gaucher’s disease (glucocerebrosidase deficiency)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Hereditary nephritis, sensorineural hearing loss, cataracts

A

Alport syndrome (mutation in alpha chain of collagen 4)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Hyperphagia, hypersexuality, hyperorality, hyperdocility

A

Kluver-Bucy syndrome (bilateral amygdala lesion)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Hyperreflexia, hyerptonia, Babinski sign present

A

UMN damage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Hyporeflexia, hypotonia, atrophy, fasciculation

A

LMN damage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

hypoxemia, polycythemia, hypercapnia

A

blue bloater (chronic bronchitis: hyperplasia of mucous cells)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

indurated, ulcerated, genital lesion

A

Nonpainful: chancre (primary syphilis, Treponema pallidum)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

infant with failure to thrive, hepatosplenomegaly and neurodegenration

A

Neimann-Pick disease (genetic sphinomyelinase deficiency)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

infant with hypoglycemia, failure to thrive, and hepatomegaly

A

Cori disease (debranching enzyme deficiency)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

infant with cleft lip/palate, micorcephaly or holoprosencephaly, polydactyly, cutis aplasia

A

Patau’s syndrome (trisomy 13)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

infant with microcephaly, rocker-bottom feet, clenched hands, and structural heart defect

A

Edward’s syndrome (trisomy 18)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Jaundice, palpable distended non-tender gallbladder

A

Courvoisier’s sign (distal obstruction of biliary tree)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Large rash with bull’s-eye appearance

A

erythema chronicum mugrans from Ixodes tick bite (lyme disease: borrelia)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

lucid interval after traumatic brain injury

A

Epidural heamtoma (middle meningeal artery rupture)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

male child, recurrent infections, no mature B cells

A

Bruton’s disease (x-linked agammaglobulinemia)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Mucosal bleeding and prolonged bleeding time

A

Glanzmann’s thrombasthenia (defect in platelet aggregation due to lack of GpIIb/IIa)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Muffled heart sounds, distended neck veins, hypotension

A

Beck’s triad of cardiac tamponade

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Multiple colon polyps, osteomas/soft tissue tumors, impacted/supernumerary teeth

A

Gardner’s syndrome (subtype FAP)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

myopathy (infantile hypertrophic caridomyopthy), exercise intolerance

A

Pompe’s disease (lysosomal alpha-1,4-glucosidase deficiency)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Neonate with arm paralysis following difficult birth

A

Erb-Duchenne Palsy (superior trunk [C5-C6] brachial plexus injury: “waiter’s tip”)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

No lactation postpartum, absent menstruationm cold intolerance

A

Sheehan’s syndrome (pituitary infarction)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Nystagmus, intention tremor, scanning speech bilateral internuclear ophthalmoplegia

A

Multiple Sclerosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Oscilliating slow/fast breathing

A

Cheyne-Stokes repsirations (central apnea in CHF or increased intracranial pressure)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Painful blue fingers/toes, hemolytic anemia

A

Cold agglutinin disease (autoimmune hemolytic anemia caused by Mycoplasma pneumoniae, infectious mononucleosis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Painful, pale, cold finger/toes

A

Raynaud’s phenomenon (vasospasm in extremities)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Painful, raised red lesions on pad of fingers/toes

A

Osler nodes (infective endocarditis, immune complex deposition)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

painless erythematous lesions on palms and soles

A

Janeway lesions (infective endocarditis, septic emboli/microabscesses)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Painless jaundice

A

Cancer of the pancreatic head obstructing the bile duct

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Palpable purpura on buttocks/legs, joint pain, abdominal pain (child), hematuria

A

Henoch-Schonlein purpura (IgA vasculitis affecting skin and kidneys)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Pancreatic, Pituitary, Parathyroid tumors

A

MEN 1 (autosomal dominant)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Periorbital and/or peripheral edema, proteinuria, hypoalbuminemia, hypercholesterolemia

A

Nephrotic syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Pink Complexion, dyspnea, hyperventilation

A

Pink Puffer (emphysema: centriacinar [smoking], panacinar [alpha-1-antitrypsin deficiency])

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Polyuria, renal tubular acidosis type II, growth failure, electrolyte imbalances, hypophosphatemic rickets

A

Fanconi’s syndrome (proximal tubular reabsorption defect)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Positive anterior “drawer sign”

A

Anterior Cruciate Ligament injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Pruritic, purple, polygonal planra papules and plaques (6 P’s)

A

Lichen Planus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Pupil accomodates but doesn’t react

A

Argyll Robertson pupil (neurosyphilis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Rapidly progressive leg weakness that ascends following GI/upper respiratory infection

A

Guillain-Barre syndrome (acute autimmune inflammatory demyelinating polyneuropathy)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Rash on palms and soles

A

Coxsackie A, secondary syphilis, Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Recurrent cold, unusual eczema, high serum IgE

A

Hyper-IgE syndrome (Job’s syndrome: neutrophil chemotaxis abnormality)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Red “currant jelly” sputum in alcoholic or diabetic patients

A

Klebsiella pneumoniae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Red “currant jelly” stools

A

Acute mesenteric ischemia (adults), intussusception (infants)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Red, itchy, swollen rash of nipple/areola

A

Paget’s disease of the breast (represents underlying neoplasm)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Red, urine in the morning, fragile RBCs

A

Paroxysmal nocturnal Hematuria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Renal cell carcinoma (bilateral), hemangioblastomas, angiomatosis, pheochromocytoma

A

VHL disease (dominant TSG mutation)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Resting tremor, rigidity, akinesia, postural instability

A

Parkinson’s disease (nigrostriatal dopamine depletion)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Retinal hemorrhages with pale centers

A

Roth’s spots (bacterial endocarditis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Severe jaundice in a neonate

A

Crigler-Najjar syndrome(congenital unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Severe RLQ pain with LLQ palpation

A

Rovsing’s sign (accute appendicitis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Severe RLQ pain with rebound tenderness

A

McBurney’s sign (appendicitis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Short stature, increased incidence of tumors/leukemia, aplastic anemia

A

Fanconi’s anemia (genetic loss of DNA crosslink repair; often progresses to AML)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Single palmar Crease

A

Simian Crease (Down Syndrome)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

Situs inversus, chronic sinusitis, bronchietasis, infertility

A

Kartagener’s syndrome (dynein defect in cilia)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

Skin hyperpigmentation, hypotension, fatigue

A

Addison’s disease (primary adrenocortical insufficiency causes increased ACTH and increased alpha-MSH)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

slow, progressive muscle weakness in boys

A

Becker’s musclar dystroph (X-linked missense mutation in dystrophin; less severe than Duchenne’s)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

Small, irregular red spots on buccal/lingual mucosa with blue-white centers

A

Koplik spots (measles; rubeola virus)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

Smooth, flat, moist, painless with lesions on genitals

A

Condyloma lata (secondary syphilis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

Splinter hemorrhages in fingernails

A

bacterial endocarditis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

Strawberry tongue

A

Scarlet fever, Kawasaki disease, toxic shock syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

Streak ovaries, congenital heart diease, horseshoe kidnye, cystic hygroma at birth, chort stature, webbed neck, lymphedema

A

Turner syndrome (45, XO)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

Sudden swollen/painful big toe joint, tophi

A

Gout/podagra (hyperuricemia)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

Swollen gums, mucosal bleeding, poor wound healing, spots on skin

A

Scurvy (Vit. C deficiency: can’t hydroxylate proline/lysine for collagen synthesis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

Swollen, Hard, painful finger joints

A

Osteoarthritis (osteophytes on PIP [Bouchard’s nodes], DIP [Heberden’s nodes])

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

Systolic ejection murmur (crescendo-decrescendo)

A

Aortic valve stenosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

Thryoid medullary caricnoma, parathyroid tumors, pheochromocytomas

A

MEN2A (autosomal dominant ret mutation)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

Thyroid tumor, pheochromocytoma, ganglioneuromatosis

A

MEN2B (autosomal dominant ret mutation)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

Toe extension/ fanning upon plantar scrape

A

Babinksi sign (UMN lesion)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

Unilateral facial drooping involvingforehead

A

Facial nerve (LMN CN VII palsy)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

Urethritis, conjunctivitis, arthritis in a male

A

reactive arthritis associated with HLA-B27

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

Vascular birthmark (port-wine stain)

A

Hemangioma (benign, but associated with Sturge-Weber syndrome)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

Vomitting Blood following gastroesophageal lacerations

A

Mallory-Weiss syndrome (alcoholic and bulimic patients)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

Weight loss, diarrhea, arthritis, fever, adenopathy

A

Whipple disease (Tropheryma whipplei)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

Worst Headache of My Life

A

Subarachnoid hemorrhage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

Anticentromere antibodies

A

Scleroderma (CREST)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

Antidesmoglein (epithelial) antibodies

A

Pemphigus vulgaris (blistering)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

Anti-glomerular basement membrane antibodies

A

Goodpasture’s syndrome (glomerulonephritis and hemoptysis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

Antihistone antibodies

A

Drug-induced SLE (hydralazine, isoniazid, phenytoin, procainamide)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

Anti-IgG antibodies

A

Rheumatoid arthritis (systemic inflammation, joint pannus, boutonniere deformity)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

Antimitochondrial antibodies (AMAs)

A

1° biliary cirrhosis (female, cholestasis, portal hypertension)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

Antineutrophil cytoplasmic antibodies (ANCAs)

A

Vasculitis (c-ANCA: granulomatosis with polyangiitis [Wegener’s]; p-ANCA: microscopic polyangiitis, Churg-Strauss syndrome)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

Antinuclear antibodies (ANAs: anti-Smith and anti-dsDNA)

A

SLE (type III hypersensitivity)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

Antiplatelet antibodies

A

Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

Anti-topoisomerase antibodies

A

Diffuse systemic scleroderma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

Anti-transglutaminase/anti-gliadin/anti-endomysial antibodies

A

Celiac disease (diarrhea, distention, weight loss)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

Apple core lesion on abdominal x-ray

A

Colorectal cancer (usually left-sided)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

Azurophilic peroxidase-positive granular inclusions in granulocytes and myeloblasts

A

Auer rods (acute myelogenous leukemia, especially the promyelocytic [M3] type)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

Bacitracin response

A

Sensitive: Streptococcus pyogenes (group A); resistant: Streptococcus agalactiae (group B)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

Bamboo spine on x-ray

A

Ankylosing spondylitis (chronic inflammatory arthritis: HLA-B27)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

Basophilic nuclear remnants in RBCs

A

Howell-Jolly bodies (due to splenectomy or nonfunctional spleen)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

Basophilic stippling of RBCs

A

Lead poisoning or sideroblastic anemia (Seen in AML)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

Bloody tap on LP

A

Subarachnoid hemorrhage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

Boot shaped heart on x-ray

A

Tetralogy of Fallot, RVH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

Branching gram-positive rods with sulfur granules

A

Actinomyces israelii

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

Bronchogenic apical lung tumor on imaging

A

Pancoast tumor (can compress sympathetic ganglion and cause Homer’s syndrome)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

Brown tumor of bone

A

Hyperparathyroidism or osteitis fibrosa cystica (deposited hemosiderin from hemorrhage gives brown color)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

Cardiomegaly with apical atrophy

A

Chagas’ disease (Trypanosoma cruzi)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

Cellular crescents in Bowman’s capsule

A

Rapidly progressive crescentic glomerulonephritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

Chocolate cyst of ovary

A

Endometriosis (frequently involves both ovaries)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

Circular grouping of dark tumor cells surrounding pale neurofibrils

A

Homer-Wright rosettes (neuroblastoma, medulloblastoma, retinoblastoma)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

Colonies of mucoid Pseudomonas in lungs

A

Cystic fibrosis (autosomal-recessive mutation in CFTR resulting in fat-soluble vitamin deficiency and mucous plugs)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

Increased α-fetoprotein in amniotic fluid/maternal serum

A

Down syndrome or other chromosomal abnormality

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

Degeneration of dorsal column nerves

A

Tabes dorsalis (3° syphilis), subacute combined degeneration (dorsal columns and lateral corticospinal tracts affected)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

Depigmentation of neurons in substantia nigra

A

Parkinson’s disease (basal ganglia disorder: rigidity, resting tremor, bradykinesia)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

Desquamated epithelium casts in sputum

A

Curschmann’s spirals (bronchial asthma; can result in whorled mucous plugs)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q

Disarrayed granulosa cells in eosinophilic fluid

A

Call-Exner bodies (granulosa-theca cell tumor of the ovary)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
148
Q

Dysplastic squamous cervical cells with nuclear enlargement and hyperchromasia

A

Koilocytes (HPV: predisposes to cervical cancer)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
149
Q

Enlarged cells with intranuclear inclusion bodies

A

Owl’s eye appearance of CMV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
150
Q

Enlarged thyroid cells with ground-glass nuclei

A

Orphan Annie’s eyes nuclei (papillary carcinoma of the thyroid)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
151
Q

Eosinophilic cytoplasmic inclusion in liver cell

A

Mallory bodies (alcoholic liver disease)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
152
Q

Eosinophilic cytoplasmic inclusion in nerve cell

A

Lewy body (Parkinson’s disease)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
153
Q

Eosinophilic globule in liver

A

Councilman body (toxic or viral hepatitis, often yellow fever)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
154
Q

Eosinophilic inclusion bodies in cytoplasm of hippocampal nerve cells

A

Negri bodies of rabies (Lyssavirus)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
155
Q

Extracellular amyloid deposition in gray matter of brain

A

Senile plaques (Alzheimer’s disease)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
156
Q

Giant B cells with bilobed nuclei with prominent inclusions (“owl’s eye”

A

Reed-Sternberg cells (Hodgkin’s lymphoma)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
157
Q

Glomerulus-like structure surrounding vessel in germ cells

A

Schiller-Duval bodies (yolk sac tumor)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
158
Q

Hair on end (crew-cut) appearance on x-ray

A

β-thalassemia, sickle cell anemia (marrow expansion)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
159
Q

hCG elevated

A

Choriocarcinoma, hydatidiform mole (occurs with and without embryo)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
160
Q

Heart nodules (granulomatous)

A

Aschoff bodies (rheumatic fever)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
161
Q

Heterophile antibodies

A

Infectious mononucleosis (EBV)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
162
Q

Hexagonal, double-pointed, needle-like crystals in bronchial secretions

A

Bronchial asthma (Charcot-Leyden crystals: eosinophilic granules)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
163
Q

High level of D-dimers

A

DVT, pulmonary embolism, DIG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
164
Q

Hilar lymphadenopathy, peripheral granulomatous lesion in middle or lower lung lobes (can calcify)

A

Ghon complex (1° TB: Mycobacterium bacilli)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
165
Q

Honeycomb lung on x-ray or CT

A

Interstitial pulmonary fibrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
166
Q

Hypercoagulability (leading to migrating DVTs and vasculitis)

A

Trousseau’s syndrome (adenocarcinoma of pancreas or lung)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
167
Q

Hypersegmented neutrophils

A

Megaloblastic anemia (Bp deficiency: neurologic symptoms; folate deficiency: no neurologic symptoms)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
168
Q

Hypertension, hypokalemia, metabolic alkalosis

A

Conn’s syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
169
Q

Hypochromic, microcytic anemia

A

Iron deficiency anemia, lead poisoning, thalassemia (fetal hemoglobin sometimes present)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
170
Q

Increased α-fetoprotein in amniotic fluid/maternal serum

A

Dating error, anencephaly, spina bifida (neural tube defects)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
171
Q

Increased uric acid levels

A

Gout, Lesch-Nyhan syndrome, tumor lysis syndrome, loop and thiazide diuretics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
172
Q

Intranuclear eosinophilic droplet-like bodies

A

Cowdry type A bodies (HSV or CMV)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
173
Q

Iron-containing nodules in alveolar septum

A

Ferruginous bodies (asbestosis: ↑ chance of mesothelioma)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
174
Q

Keratin pearls on a skin biopsy

A

Squamous cell carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
175
Q

Large lysosomal vesicles in phagocytes, immunodeficiency

A

Chediak-Higashi disease (congenital failure of phagolysosome formation)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
176
Q

Lead pipe appearance of colon on barium enema x-ray

A

Ulcerative colitis (loss of haustra)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
177
Q

Linear appearance of IgG deposition on glomerular basement membrane

A

Goodpasture’s syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
178
Q

Low serum ceruloplasmin

A

Wilson’s disease (hepatolenticular degeneration)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
179
Q

Lump- bump appearance of glomeruli on immunofluorescence

A

Poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis (immune complex deposition of IgG and C3b)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
180
Q

Lytic (“hole punched”) bone lesions on x-ray

A

Multiple myeloma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
181
Q

Mammary gland (“blue domed”) cyst

A

Fibrocystic change of the breast

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
182
Q

Monoclonal antibody spike

A

• Multiple myeloma (usually IgG or IgA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
183
Q

Mucin-filled cell with peripheral nucleus

A

Signet ring (gastric carcinoma)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
184
Q

Narrowing of bowel lumen on barium x-ray

A

String sign (Crohn’s disease)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
185
Q

Necrotizing vasculitis (lungs) and necrotizing glornerulonephritis

A

Granulomatosis with polyangiitis (Wegener’s; c-ANCA positive) and Goodpasture’s syndrome (anti-basement membrane antibodies)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
186
Q

Needle-shaped, negatively birefringent crystals

A

Gout (monosodium urate crystals)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
187
Q

Nodular hyaline deposits in glomeruli

A

Kimmelstein-Wilson nodules (diabetic neuropathy)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
188
Q

Novobiocin response

A

Sensitive: Staphylococcus epidermidis; resistant: Staphylococcus saprophyticus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
189
Q

Nutmeg appearance of liver

A

Chronic passive congestion of liver due to right heart failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
190
Q

Onion skin periosteal reaction

A

Ewing’s sarcoma (malignant round-cell tumor)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
191
Q

Optochin response

A

Sensitive: Streptococcus pneumoniae; resistant: Viridans streptococcus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
192
Q

Periosteum raised from bone, creating triangular area

A

Codman’s triangle on x-ray (osteosarcoma, Ewing’s sarcoma, pyogenic osteomyelitis)

193
Q

Podocyte fusion or “effacement” on electron microscopy

A

Minimal change disease (child with nephrotic syndrome)

194
Q

Polished, “ivory like” appearance of bone at cartilage erosion

A

Eburnation (osteoarthritis resulting in bony sclerosis)

195
Q

Protein aggregates in neurons from hyperphosphorylation of protein tau

A

Neurofibrillary tangles (Alzheimer’s disease) and Pick’s bodies (Pick’s disease)

196
Q

Psammoma bodies

A

Meningiomas, papillary thyroid carcinoma, mesothelioma, papillary serous carcinoma of the endometrium and ovary

197
Q

Pseudopalisading tumor cells on brain biopsv

A

Glioblastorna multiforme

198
Q

RBC casts in urine

A

Acute glomerulonephritis

199
Q

Rectangular, crystal-like, cvtoplasmic inclusions in Leydig cells

A

Reinke crystals (Leydig cell tumor)

200
Q

Renal epithelial casts in urine

A

Acute toxic/viral nephrosis

201
Q

Rhomboid crystals, positively birefringent

A

Pseudogout (calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate crystals)

202
Q

Rib notching (Turner Syndrome)

A

Coarctation of the aorta

203
Q

Ring-enhancing brain lesion in AIDS

A

Toxoplasma gondii, CNS lymphoma

204
Q

Sheets of medium-sized lymphoid cells with scattered pale, tingible body-laden macrophages (“starry sky” histology)

A

Burkitt’s lymphoma (t[8:14] c-myc activation, associated with EBV; “black sky” made up of malignant cells)

205
Q

Silver-staining spherical aggregation of tau proteins in neurons

A

Pick bodies (Pick’s disease: progressive dementia, changes in personality)

206
Q

Soap bubble in femur or tibia on x-ray

A

Giant cell tumor of bone (generally benign)

207
Q

Spikes on basement membrane, “dome like” subepithelial deposits

A

Membranous glomerulonephritis (may progress to nephrotic syndrome)

208
Q

Stacks of RBCs

A

Rouleaux formation (high ESR, multiple myeloma)

209
Q

Stippled vaginal epithelial cells

A

Clue cells (Gardnerella vaginalis)

210
Q

Tennis racket shaped cytoplasmic organelles (EM) in Langerhans cells

A

Birbeck granules (Langerhans cell histiocytosis or histiocytosis X: eosinophilic granuloma)

211
Q

Thrombi made of white/red layers

A

Lines of Zahn (arterial thrombus, layers of platelets/RBCs)

212
Q

Thumb sign on lateral x-ray

A

Epiglottitis (Haemophilus influenzae)

213
Q

Thyroid-like appearance of kidney

A

Chronic bacterial pyelonephritis

214
Q

Tram-track appearance of capillary loops of glomerular basement membranes on light microscopy

A

Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis

215
Q

Triglyceride accumulation in liver cell vacuoles

A

Fatty liver disease (alcoholic or metabolic syndrome)

216
Q

Waxy casts with very low urine flow

A

Chronic end-stage renal disease

217
Q

WBC casts in urine

A

Acute pyelonephritis

218
Q

WBCs that look “smudged”

A

CLL (almost always B cell)

219
Q

Wire loop glomerular capillary appearance on light microscopy

A

Lupus nephropathy

220
Q

Yellowish CSF

A

Xanthochromia (e.g., due to subarachnoid hemorrhage)

221
Q

Absence seizures

A

Ethosuximide

222
Q

Acute gout attack

A

NSAIDs, colchicine

223
Q

Acute promyelocytic leukemia (M3)

A

All-trans retinoic acid

224
Q

ADHD

A

Methylphenidate, amphetamines

225
Q

Alcohol abuse

A

AA + disulfiram for patient and Al-Anon for family

226
Q

Alcohol withdrawal

A

Benzodiazepines

227
Q

Anorexia

A

SSRIs

228
Q

Anticoagulation during pregnancy

A

Heparin

229
Q

Arrhythmia in damaged cardiac tissue

A

Class IB antiarrhythmic (lidocaine, mexiletine, tocainide)

230
Q

B12, deficiency

A

Vitamin B12 supplementation (work up cause with Schilling test)

231
Q

Benign prostatic hyperplasia

A

Tamsulosin, finasteride

232
Q

Bipolar disorder

A

Lithium, valproate, carbamazepine, lamotrigine (mood stabilizers)

233
Q

Breast cancer in postmenopausal woman

A

Aromatase inhibitor (anastrozole)

234
Q

Buerger’s disease

A

Smoking cessation

235
Q

Bulimia

A

SSRIs

236
Q

Candida albicans

A

Amphotericin B (systemic), nystatin (oral thrush, esophagitis)

237
Q

Carcinoid syndrome

A

Octreotide

238
Q

Chlamydia trachomatis

A

Doxycycline (+ ceftriaxone for gonorrhea coinfection), erythromycin eye drops (prophylaxis in infants)

239
Q

Chronic gout

A

Probenecid (underexcretor), allopurinol (overproducer)

240
Q

Chronic hepatitis

A

IFN-α

241
Q

Chronic myelogenous leukemia

A

Imatinib

242
Q

Clostridium botulinum

A

Antitoxin

243
Q

Clostridium difficile

A

Oral metronidazole; if refractory, oral vancomycin

244
Q

Clostridium tetani

A

Antitoxin + vaccine booster + diazepam

245
Q

Crohn’s disease

A

Corticosteroids, infliximab

246
Q

Cryptococcus neoformans

A

Fluconazole (prophylaxis in AIDS patients)

247
Q

Cyclophosphamide-induced hemorrhagic cystitis

A

Mesna

248
Q

Cystic fibrosis

A

N-acetylcysteine + antipseudomonal prophylaxis (tobramycin/ azithromycin)

249
Q

Cytomegalovirus

A

Ganciclovir

250
Q

Depression

A

SSRIs (first-line)

251
Q

Diabetes insipidus

A

Desmopressin (central); hydrochlorothiazide, indomethacin, amiloride (nephrogenic)

252
Q

Diabetes mellitus type 1

A

Dietary intervention (low-sugar) + insulin replacement

253
Q

Diabetes mellitus type 2

A

Dietary intervention, oral hypoglycemics, and insulin (possible)

254
Q

Diabetic ketoacidosis

A

Fluids, insulin, K+

255
Q

Enterococci

A

Vancomycin/ampicillin + aminoglycoside

256
Q

Erectile dysfunction

A

Sildenafil, vardenafil

257
Q

ER-positive breast cancer

A

Tamoxifen

258
Q

Ethylene glycol/methanol intoxication

A

Fomepizole (alcohol dehydrogenase inhibitor)

259
Q

Haemophilus influenzae (B)

A

Rifampin (prophylaxis)

260
Q

Generalized anxiety disorder

A

Buspirone

261
Q

Heparin toxicity (acute)

A

Protamine sulfate

262
Q

HER2/neu-positive breast cancer

A

Trastuzumab

263
Q

Hyperaldosteronism

A

Spironolactone

264
Q

Hypercholesterolemia

A

Statin (first-line)

265
Q

Hypertriglyceridemia

A

Fibrate

266
Q

Immediate anticoagulation

A

Heparin

267
Q

Infertility

A

Leuprolide, GnRH (pulsatile)

268
Q

Influenza

A

Rimantadine, oseltamivir

269
Q

Legionella pneumophila

A

Erythromycin

270
Q

Long-term anticoagulation

A

Warfarin

271
Q

Malaria

A

Chloroquine/mefloquine (for blood schizont), primaquine (for liver hypnozoite)

272
Q

Malignant hyperthermia

A

Dantrolene

273
Q

Medical abortion

A

Mifepristone

274
Q

Migraine

A

Sumatriptan

275
Q

MRSA

A

Vancomycin

276
Q

Multiple sclerosis

A

β-interferon, immunosuppression, natalizumab

277
Q

Mycobacterium tuberculosis

A

RIPE (rifampin, INH, pyrazinamide, ethambutol)

278
Q

Neisseria gonorrhoeae

A

Ceftriaxone (add doxycycline to cover likely concurrent Chlamydia)

279
Q

Neisseria meningitidis

A

Penicillin/ceftriaxone, rifampin (prophylaxis)

280
Q

Neural tube defect prevention

A

Prenatal folic acid

281
Q

Osteomalacia/rickets

A

Vitamin D supplementation

282
Q

Osteoporosis

A

Bisphosphonates; calcium and vitamin D supplementation

283
Q

Patent ductus arteriosus

A

Indomethacin

284
Q

Pheochromocytoma

A

α-antagonists (e.g., phenoxybenzamine)

285
Q

Pneumocystis jirovecii

A

TMP-SMX (prophylaxis in AIDS patient)

286
Q

Prolactinoma

A

Bromocriptine (dopamine agonists)

287
Q

Prostate cancer/uterine fibroids

A

Leuprolide, GnRH (continuous)

288
Q

Prostate carcinoma

A

Flutamide

289
Q

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

A

Antipseudomonal penicillin + aminoglycoside

290
Q

Pulmonary arterial hypertension (idiopathic)

A

Sildenafil, bosentan, epoprostenol

291
Q

Rickettsia rickettsii

A

Doxycycline, chloramphenicol (especially in context of aplastic anemia)

292
Q

Ringworm infections

A

Terbinafine, griseofulvin, imidazole

293
Q

Schizophrenia (negative symptoms)

A

5-HT2A antagonists (e.g., second-generation antipsychotics)

294
Q

Schizophrenia (positive symptoms)

A

D2 receptor antagonists (e.g., first- and second-generation antipsychotics)

295
Q

SIADH

A

Demeclocycline, lithium, vasopressin receptor antagonists

296
Q

Sickle cell anemia

A

Hydroxyurea (↑ fetal hemoglobin)

297
Q

Sporothrix schenckii

A

Oral potassium chloride

298
Q

Stable angina

A

Sublingual nitroglycerin

299
Q

Staphylococcus aureus

A

MSSA: nafcillin, oxacillin, dicloxacillin (antistaphylococcal penicillins); MRSA: vancomycin

300
Q

Streptococcus bovis

A

Penicillin prophylaxis; evaluation for colon cancer if linked to endocarditis

301
Q

Streptococcus pneumoniae

A

Penicillin/cephalosporin (systemic infection, pneumonia), vancomycin (meningitis)

302
Q

Streptococcus pyogenes

A

Penicillin prophylaxis

303
Q

Temporal arteritis

A

High-dose steroids

304
Q

Tonic-clonic seizures

A

Phenytoin, valproate, carbamazepine

305
Q

Toxoplasma gondii

A

Sulfadiazine + pyrimethamine

306
Q

Treponema pallidum

A

Penicillin

307
Q

Trichomonas vaginalis

A

Metronidazole (patient and partner)

308
Q

Ulcerative colitis

A

5-ASA, infliximab

309
Q

UTI prophylaxis

A

TMP-SMX

310
Q

Warfarin toxicity

A

Fresh frozen plasma (acute), vitamin K (chronic)

311
Q

Wegener’s granulomatosis with polyangiitis

A

Cyclophosphamide, corticosteroids

312
Q

Actinic (solar) keratosis

A

Precursor to squamous cell carcinoma

313
Q

Acute gastric ulcer associated with CNS injury

A

Cushing’s ulcer (↑ ICP stimulates vagal gastric secretion)

314
Q

Acute gastric ulcer associated with severe burns

A

Curling’s ulcer (greatly reduced plasma volume results in sloughing of gastric mucosa)

315
Q

Alternating areas of transmural inflammation and normal colon

A

Skip lesions (Crohn’s disease)

316
Q

Aneurysm, dissecting

A

Hypertension

317
Q

Aortic aneurysm, abdominal and descending aorta

A

Atherosclerosis

318
Q

Aortic aneurysm, arch

A

Tertiary syphilis (syphilitic aortitis), vasa vasorum destruction

319
Q

Aortic aneurysm, ascending

A

Marfan’s syndrome (idiopathic cystic medial degeneration)

320
Q

Atrophy of the mammillary bodies

A

Wernicke’s encephalopathy (thiamine deficiency causing ataxia, ophthalmoplegia, and confusion)

321
Q

Autosplenectomy (fibrosis and shrinkage)

A

Sickle cell anemia (hemoglobin S)

322
Q

Bacteria associated with gastritis, peptic ulcer disease, and stomach cancer

A

H. pylori

323
Q

Bacterial meningitis (adults and elderly)

A

Streptococcus pneumonias

324
Q

Bacterial meningitis (newborns and kids)

A

Group B streptococcus (newborns), S. pneumoniae/Neisseria meningitidis (kids)

325
Q

Benign melanocytic nevus

A

Spitz nevus (most common in first two decades)

326
Q

Bleeding disorder with Gplb deficiency

A

Bernard-Soulier syndrome (defect in platelet adhesion to von Willebrand’s factor)

327
Q

Brain tumor (adults)

A

Supratentorial: metastasis > astrocytoma (including glioblastoma multiforme) > meningioma > schwannoma

328
Q

Brain tumor (kids)

A

Infratentorial: medulloblastoma (cerebellum) or supratentorial: craniopharyngioma (cerebrum)

329
Q

Breast cancer

A

Infiltrating ductal carcinoma (in the U.S., 1 in 9 women will develop breast cancer)

330
Q

Breast mass

A

Fibrocystic change, carcinoma (in postmenopausal women)

331
Q

Breast tumor (benign)

A

Fibroadenoma

332
Q

Cardiac 1° tumor (kids)

A

Rhabdomyoma, often seen in tuberous sclerosis

333
Q

Cardiac manifestation of lupus

A

Libman-Sacks endocarditis (nonbacterial, affecting both sides of mitral valve)

334
Q

Cardiac tumor (adults)

A

Metastasis, 1° myxoma (4:1 left to right atrium; “ball and valve”)

335
Q

Cerebellar tonsillar herniation

A

Chiari malformation (often presents with progressive hydrocephalus or syringomyelia)

336
Q

Chronic arrhythmia

A

Atrial fibrillation (associated with high risk of emboli)

337
Q

Chronic atrophic gastritis (autoimmune)

A

Predisposition to gastric carcinoma (can also cause pernicious anemia)

338
Q

Clear cell adenocarcinoma of the vagina

A

DES exposure in utero

339
Q

Compression fracture

A

Osteoporosis (type I: postmenopausal woman; type II: elderly man or woman)

340
Q

Congenital adrenal hyperplasia, hypotension

A

21-hydroxylase deficiency

341
Q

Congenital cardiac anomaly

A

VSD

342
Q

Congenital conjugated hyperbilirubinemia (black liver)

A

Dubin-Johnson syndrome (inability of hepatocytes to secrete conjugated bilirubin into bile)

343
Q

Constrictive pericarditis

A

Tuberculosis (developing world); systemic lupus erythematosus (developed world)

344
Q

Coronary artery involved in thrombosis

A

LAD>RCA>LCA

345
Q

Cretinism

A

Iodine deficit/hypothyroidism

346
Q

Cushing’s syndrome

A

• latrogenic Cushing’s (from corticosteroid therapy)

347
Q

Cyanosis (early; less common)

A

Tetralogy of Fallot, transposition of great vessels, truncus arteriosus

348
Q

Cyanosis (late; more common)

A

VSD, ASD, PDA

349
Q

Death in CML

A

Blast crisis

350
Q

Death in SLE

A

Lupus nephropathy

351
Q

Dementia

A

Alzheimer’s disease, multiple infarcts

352
Q

Demyelinating disease in young women

A

Multiple sclerosis

353
Q

DIG

A

Severe sepsis, obstetric complications, cancer, burns, trauma, major surgery

354
Q

Dietary deficit

A

Iron

355
Q

Diverticulum in pharynx

A

Zenker’s diverticulum (diagnosed by barium swallow)

356
Q

Ejection click

A

Aortic/pulmonic stenosis

357
Q

Esophageal cancer

A

Squamous cell carcinoma (worldwide); adenocarcinoma

358
Q

Food poisoning (exotoxin mediated)

A

S. aureus, B. cereus

359
Q

Glomerulonephritis (adults)

A

Berger’s disease (IgA nephropathy)

360
Q

Gynecologic malignancy

A

Endometrial carcinoma (most common in U.S.); cervical carcinoma (most common worldwide)

361
Q

Heart murmur, congenital

A

Mitral valve prolapse

362
Q

Heart valve in bacterial endocarditis

A

Mitral > aortic (rheumatic fever), tricuspid (IV drug abuse)

363
Q

Helminth infection (U.S.) Hematoma—epidural

A

Enterobius vermicularis, Ascaris lumbricoides

364
Q

Hematoma—subdural

A

Rupture of middle meningeal artery (trauma; lentiform shaped)

365
Q

Hemochrornatosis

A

Multiple blood transfusions or hereditary HFE mutation (can result in CHF, “bronze diabetes,” and T risk of hepatocellular carcinoma)

366
Q

Hepatocellnlar carcinoma

A

Cirrhotic liver (associated with hepatitis B and C and with alcoholism)

367
Q

Hereditary bleeding disorder

A

von Willebrand’s disease

368
Q

Hereditary harmless jaundice

A

Gilbert’s syndrome (benign congenital unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia)

369
Q

HLA-B27

A

Ankylosing spondylitis, Reiter’s syndrome, ulcerative colitis, psoriasis

370
Q

HLA-DR3 or -DR4

A

Diabetes mellitus type 1, rheumatoid arthritis, SLE

371
Q

Holosystolic murmur

A

VSD, tricuspid regurgitation, mitral regurgitation

372
Q

Hypercoagulability, endothelial damage, blood stasis

A

Virchow’s triad (results in venous thrombosis)

373
Q

Hypertension, 2°

A

Renal disease

374
Q

Hypoparathyroidism

A

Accidental excision during thyroidectomy

375
Q

Hypopituitarism

A

Pituitary adenoma (usually benign tumor)

376
Q

Infection 2° to blood transfusion

A

Hepatitis C

377
Q

Infections in chronic granulomatous disease

A

Staphylococcus aureus, E. coli, Aspergillus (catalase positive)

378
Q

Kidney stones

A

• Calcium = radiopaque

379
Q

Late cyanotic shunt (uncorrected left to right becomes right to left)

A

Eisenmenger’s syndrome (caused by ASD, VSD, PDA; results in pulmonary hypertension/polycythemia)

380
Q

Liver disease

A

Alcoholic cirrhosis

381
Q

Lysosomal storage disease

A

Gaucher’s disease

382
Q

Male cancer

A

Prostatic carcinoma

383
Q

Malignancy associated with noninfectious fever

A

Hodgkin’s lymphoma

384
Q

Malignancy (kids)

A

ALL, medulloblastoma (cerebellum)

385
Q

Mental retardation

A

Down syndrome, fragile X syndrome

386
Q

Metastases to bone

A

Prostate, breast > lung > thyroid, testes

387
Q

Metastases to brain

A

Lung > breast > genitourinary > osteosarcoma > melanoma>GI

388
Q

Metastases to liver

A

Colon&raquo_space; stomach, pancreas

389
Q

Mitochondrial inheritance

A

Disease occurs in both males and females, inherited through females only

390
Q

Mitral valve stenosis

A

Rheumatic heart disease

391
Q

Mixed (UMN and LMN) motor neuron disease

A

ALS

392
Q

Myocarditis

A

Coxsackie B

393
Q

Nephrotic syndrome (adults)

A

Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis

394
Q

Nephrotic syndrome (kids)

A

Minimal change disease

395
Q

Neuron migration failure

A

Kallmann syndrome (hypogonadotropic hypogonadism and anosmia)

396
Q

Nosocomial pneumonia

A

Klebsiella, E. coli, Pseudomonas aeruginosa

397
Q

Obstruction of male urinary tract

A

BPH

398
Q

Opening snap

A

Mitral stenosis

399
Q

Opportunistic infection in AIDS

A

Pneumocystis jirovecii (formerly carinii) pneumonia

400
Q

Osteomyelitis

A

S. aureus

401
Q

Osteomyelitis in sickle cell disease

A

Salmonella

402
Q

Osteomyelitis with IV drug use

A

Pseudomonas, S. aureus

403
Q

Ovarian metastasis from gastric carcinoma or breast cancer

A

Krukenberg tumor (mucin-secreting signet-ring cells)

404
Q

Ovarian tumor (benign, bilateral)

A

Serous cystadenoma

405
Q

Ovarian tumor (malignant)

A

Serous cystadenocarcinoma

406
Q

Pancreatitis (acute)

A

Gallstones, alcohol

407
Q

Pancreatitis (chronic)

A

Alcohol (adults), cystic fibrosis (kids)

408
Q

Patient with ALL /CLL /AML /CML

A

ALL: child, CLL: adult > 60, AML: adult - 65, CML: adult 30-60

409
Q

Pelvic inflammatory disease

A

Chlamydia trachomatis, Neisseria gonorrhoeae

410
Q

Philadelphia chromosome t(9;22) (bcr-abl)

A

CML (may sometimes be associated with ALL/AML)

411
Q

Pituitary tumor

A

Prolactinoma, somatotropic “acidophilic” adenoma

412
Q

Primary amenorrhea

A

Turner syndrome (45,XO)

413
Q

Primary bone tumor (adults)

A

Multiple myeloma

414
Q

Primary hyperaldosteronism

A

Adenoma of adrenal cortex

415
Q

Primary hyperparathyroidism

A

Adenomas, hyperplasia, carcinoma

416
Q

Primary liver cancer

A

Hepatocellular carcinoma (chronic hepatitis, cirrhosis, hemochromatosis, α1 antitrypsin deficiency)

417
Q

Pulmonary hypertension

A

COPD

418
Q

Recurrent inflammation/thrombosis of small/medium vessels in extremities

A

Bucrger’s disease (strongly associated with tobacco)

419
Q

Renal tumor

A

Renal cell carcinoma: associated with von Hippel-Lindau and cigarette smoking; paraneoplastic syndromes (EPO, renin, PTH, ACTH)

420
Q

Right heart failure due to a pulmonary cause

A

Cor pulmonale

421
Q

S3 (protodiastolic gallop)

A

↑ ventricular filling (left to right shunt, mitral regurgitation, LV failure [CHF])

422
Q

S4 (presystolic gallop)

A

Stiff/hypertrophic ventricle (aortic stenosis, restrictive cardiomyopathy)

423
Q

Secondary hyperparathyroidism

A

Hypocalcemia of chronic kidney disease

424
Q

Sexually transmitted disease

A

Chlamydia (usually coinfected with gonorrhea)

425
Q

SIADH

A

Small cell carcinoma of the lung

426
Q

Site of diverticula

A

Sigmoid colon

427
Q

Sites of atherosclerosis

A

Abdominal aorta > coronary artery > popliteal artery > carotid arterv.

428
Q

Stomach cancer

A

Adenocarcinoma

429
Q

Stomach ulcerations and high gastrin levels

A

Zollinger-Ellison syndrome (gastrinoma of duodenum or pancreas)

430
Q

t(14;18)

A

Follicular lymphomas (bcl-2 activation)

431
Q

t(8;14)

A

Burkitt’s lymphoma (c-myc activation)

432
Q

t(9;22)

A

Philadelphia chromosome, CML (bcr-abl fusion)

433
Q

Temporal arteritis

A

Risk of ipsilateral blindness due to thrombosis of ophthalmic artery; polymyalgia rheumatica

434
Q

Testicular tumor

A

Seminoma

435
Q

Thyroid cancer

A

Papillary carcinoma

436
Q

Tumor in women

A

Leiomyoma (estrogen dependent, not precancerous)

437
Q

Tumor of infancy

A

Hemangioma (usually regresses spontaneously by childhood)

438
Q

Tumor of the adrenal medulla (adults)

A

Pheochromocytoma (usually benign)

439
Q

Tumor of the adrenal medulla (kids)

A

Neuroblastoma (malignant)

440
Q

Type of Hodgkin’s

A

Nodular sclerosis (vs. mixed cellularity, lymphocytic predominance, lymphocytic depletion)

441
Q

Type of non-Hodgkin’s

A

Diffuse large cell

442
Q

UTI

A

E. coli, Staphvlococcus saprophvticus (young women)

443
Q

Viral encephalitis affecting temporal lobe

A

HSV-1

444
Q

Vitamin deficiency (U.S.)

A

Folate (pregnant women are at high risk; body stores only 3- to 4-month supply; prevents neural tube defects)

445
Q

Sensitivity

A

Sensitivity = TP / (TP + FN)

446
Q

Specificity

A

Specificity = TN / (TN + FP)

447
Q

Positive predictive value

A

PPV = TP / (TP + FP)

448
Q

Negative predictive value

A

NPV = TN / (TN + FN)

449
Q

Relative risk

A

[a/(a+b)]/[c/(c+d)]

450
Q

Attributable risk

A

[a/(a+b)]-[c/(c+d)]

451
Q

Number needed to treat

A

1/absolute risk reduction (ARR)

452
Q

Number needed to harm

A

1/attributable risk increase (ARI)

453
Q

Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium

A

p^2 + 2pq + q^2 = 1

454
Q

Henderson-Hasselbalch equation

A

pH = pKa + log ([HCO3-]/ 0.03 PCO2)

455
Q

Volume of distribution

A

Vd= (amount of drug in the body) / (plasma drug concentration)

456
Q

Clearance

A

CL = (rate of elimination of drug) / (plasma drug concentration)

457
Q

Half-life

A

t1/2 = 0.7 x Vd/CL

458
Q

Loading dose

A

LD = Cp x Vd/F

459
Q

Maintenance dose

A

MD = Cp x CL/F

460
Q

Cardiac output

A

CO = stroke volume * heart rate

461
Q

Mean arterial pressure

A

MAP = cardiac output * total peripheral resistance

462
Q

Stroke volume

A

SV = end diastolic volume - end systolic volume

463
Q

Ejection fraction

A

EF = (stroke volume / end diastolic volume) x 100

464
Q

Resistance

A

R = driving pressure/flow

465
Q

Net filtration pressure

A

Pnet = (Pc - Pi) - (∏c -∏i)

466
Q

Glomerular filtration rate

A

GFR = U inulin x (V/ P inulin) = C inulin

467
Q

Glomerular filtration rate (In terms of hydrostatic & oncontic pressures)

A

GFR = Kf [(P GC - P BS) - (∏ GC - ∏ BS)]

468
Q

Effective renal plasma flow

A

ERPF = U PAH x (V/ P PAH) = C PAH

469
Q

Renal blood flow

A

RBF = RPF / (1 - Hct)

470
Q

Filtration fraction

A

FF = GFR/RPF

471
Q

Physiologic dead space

A

VD = VT x [(PaCO2 - PeCO2) / PaCO2]

472
Q

Renal Clearance

A

C = U x V/P

473
Q

Pulmonary vascular Resistance

A

PVR=[P(pulm artery) - P(L atrium)]/CO

474
Q

Alveolar gas equation

A

PAO2 = PIO2 - PaCO2/R

475
Q

Odds ratio (for case-control studies)

A

Odds ratio = (a/c)/(b/d) = (a x d)/(b x c)

476
Q

BMI - body mass index

A

BMI = weight in kg / (height in meters)^2

477
Q

Alveolar Ventilation

A

Alveolar ventilation = (tidal volume - dead space) x Resp Rate

478
Q

Odds ratio

A

Case - control studies = ad/bc

USMLE (1 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions