Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

First Aid & Firecracker > First Aid: Pharmacology > Flashcards

First Aid: Pharmacology Flashcards

1
Q

Formula for loading dose

A

Cp x Vd / F

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Formula for maintenance dose

A

Cp x CL x T / F

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Which drugs have zero order elimination?

A

PEA = Phenytoin, Ethanol and Aspirin(at high dosages)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the acid base equation?

A 
KA  = [H][A-]/[HA]
pKa = pH + log([HA]/[A-])
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What type of reactions constitute Phase I metabolism? Who looses it?

A

Reduction, Oxidation, Hydrolysis with Cyt P450. Old people loose it.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What type of reactions constitute Phase II metabolism?

A

Conjugation: Glucoronidation, Acetylation, Sulfation. Old people have GAS. Slow acetylators have more side effects from drugs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Efficacy versus Potency

A 
Efficacy = Maximal Effect
Potency = Less concentration needed to achieve the same effect.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the mechanism of action of ketamine?

A

Non-competitive NMDA antagonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the therapeutic index?

A

TD50/ED50 Where TD50 equals the median dose at which people had toxic effects and ED 50 equals the median dose at which people had therapeutic effects.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

The entire sympathetic nervous system is innervated by adrenergic neurons except…

A

the adrenal medulla and sweat glands which are innervated by cholinergic neurons and have M receptors.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the two nicotinic receptor subtypes and where are they found?

A

N_N found in autonomic ganglia and N_M found in NMJs. Both are Na channels.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What G protein subclass are alpha1 receptors and what is their function?

A

Gq

Vasoconstriction, Mydriasis, Sphincter contraction (GI & GU)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What G protein subclass are alpha2 receptors and what is their function?

A

Gi

Presynaptic receptor that decreases sympathetic tone. Decrease insulin and lipolysis. Increase platelet aggregation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What G protein subclass are beta1 receptors and what is their function?

A

Gs

Increase HR, heart contraction, renin release, and lipolysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What G protein subclass are beta2 receptors and what is their function?

A

Gs
Bronchodilation, vasodilation, increase HR, contractility, lipolysis, insulin release, and decrease uterine tone, promote ciliary muscle relaxation and increase humor production.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What G protein subclass are M1 receptors and what is their function?

A

Gq

CNS and Enteric nervous system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What G protein subclass are M2 receptors and what is their function?

A

Gi

Decrease HR and contractility of atria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What G protein subclass are M3 receptors and what is their function?

A

Gq

Increase exocrine gland secretion, gut peristalsis, bladder contraction, bronchoconstriction, and miosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What G protein subclass are D1 receptors and what is their function?

A

Gs

Relaxes renal vascular smooth muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What G protein subclass are D2 receptors and what is their function?

A

Gi

Modulates transmitter release in the CNS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What G protein subclass are H1 receptors and what is their function?

A

Gq

Increase mucus production and vascular permeability. Bronchocontraction, pruritus and pain.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What G protein subclass are H2 receptors and what is their function?

A

Gs

Gastric acid secretion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What G protein subclass are V1 receptors and what is their function?

A

Gq

Increase vascular tone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What G protein subclass are V2 receptors and what is their function?

A

Gs

Increase H2O permeability for reabsorption in collection ducts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Which receptors belong in the Gq class and what is their downstream signal?

A

HAV 1 M & M (H1, alpha1, V1, M1 & M3)

Gq -> Phospholipase C -> DAG and IP3

DAG-> PKC

IP3 -> Ca -> Smooth muscle contraction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Which receptors belong in the Gs class and what is their downstream signal?

A

beta1, beta2, D1, H2 & V2
Gs -> Adenyl Cyclase -> cAMP -> PKA

PKA -> Ca in the heart
PKA -l Myosin Kinase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Which receptors belong in the Gi class and what is their downstream signal?

A

MAD 2s (M2, alpha2, & D2)
G1 -| Adenyl Cyclase -> cAMP -> PKA
Essentially opposes Gs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is the mechanism of action of vesamicol?

A

Inhibits the uptake of cytosolic ACh into vesicles.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is the mechanism of action of hemicholinium?

A

Inhibits ACh reuptake from synapse.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is the mechanism of action of metyrosine?

A

Inhibits conversion of tyrosine to DOPA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is the mechanism of action of amphetamines?

A

They get into the presynaptic Dopamine vesicles and inhibit the VMAT transporter. They also increase the pH and shut down the H+ transporter allowing Dopamine to diffuse out. In the cytosol they inhibit MOA and they reverse the action of the re-uptake DAT. This ultimately causes dopamine to be released.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Which four drugs inhibit re-uptake in the noradrenergic synapse?

A

SNRI, Amphetamines, TCAs, and Cocaine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What are the four direct cholinomimetics?

A

Bethanechol, Carbachol, Pilocarpine & Methacholine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is bethanechol used for?

A

Ileus (neuro or post-op) and Urinary retention. Bethany call me maybe if you want to activate your bowel and your bladder.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is carbachol used for?

A

Glaucoma & Pupillary Constriction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is pilocarpine used for?

A

Increases sweat, tears and saliva (make your PILO wet). Used for glaucoma.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is methacholine used for?

A

Diagnosis of asthma. (If it gets worst.)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What are the acetylcholine esterase inhibitors?

A

All the drugs that end in -stigmine plus edrophonium, donepezil & galantine.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is neostigmine used for?

A

Ileus, post-op reversal of NMJ block, myasthenia gravis and urinary retention.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is pyridostigmine used for?

A

Myasthenia gravis. (Get RID of MG)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is physostigmine used for?

A

Atropine poisoning. BBB crossing.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is donepezil used for?

A

Alzheimer’s Disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What is edrophonium used for?

A

Myasthenia gravis diagnosis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What are the symptoms of AChE inhibitor poisoning?

A 
DUMBBELLS (Treat with atropine)
D = Diarrhea
U = Urination
M = Miosis
B = Bronchospasm
B = Bradycardia
E = Excitacion of muscle
L = Lacrimation
S = Sweating
S = Salivation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Which muscarinic antagonist is used to treat Parkinson?

A

Benztropine “I Park my Benz”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Which muscarinic antagonist is used to treat motion sickness?

A

Scopolamine, which has CNS activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Which muscarinic antagonist is used to treat COPD or Asthma?

A

Ipratropium (I pray I can breath) & Tiotropium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q 
What are the effects of atropine on the following organs?
Eye
Airway
Stomach
Gut
Bladder
A 
Eye = Mydriasis & Cycloplagia
Airway = Bronchodilation
Stomach = Decrease acid production
Gut = Decrease motility
Bladder = Decrease urgency
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Which muscarinic antagonist is used to treat urinary frequency?

A

Oxybutynin, Darrifenacin or Solifenacin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What is the selection profile of epinephrine and what is it used for?

A

beta > alpha

Anaphylaxis, Open angle glaucoma, asthma and hypotension.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What is the selection profile of Norepinephrine and what is it used for?

A

alpha1 > alpha2 > beta1

Hypotension (beware is decreases renal perfusion)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What is the selection profile of isoproterenol and what is it used for?

A

beta1 = beta2

ECG evaluation or tachyarrythmia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What is the selection profile of dopamine and what is it used for?

A

D1 = D2 > beta > alpha
Low dose to increase renal flow.
High dose dopamine for shock because it faso constricts, it is inotropic and chronotropic. (First line)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What is the selection profile of Fenoldopam and what is it used for?

A

D1 partial agonist only.

So it is used to treat HTN slowly by increasing GFR and decreasing resistance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What is the selection profile of dobutamine and what is it used for?

A

beta1 > beta2 = alpha

Used in heart failure and has mostly inotropic effects.

56
Q

What is the selection profile of phenylephrine and what is it used for?

A

alpha1 > alpha2

Hypotension, rhinitis and optho procedures (mydriasis)

57
Q

What is the selection profile of albuterol and what is it used for?

A

beta2 > beta1

Acute asthma attacks

58
Q

What is the selection profile of metaproterenol and what is it used for?

A

beta2 > beta1

Acute asthma attacks

59
Q

What is the selection profile of salmeterol and what is it used for?

A

beta2 > beta1

Long term asthma or COPD management

60
Q

What is the selection profile of terbutaline and what is it used for?

A

beta2 > beta1

It decreases uterine contractions in premature labor

61
Q

What is the selection profile of ephedrine and what is it used for?

A

alpha = beta (it causes vesicle release)

Nasal decongestion, incontinence and hypotension

62
Q

What is the mechanism of action of cocaine?

A

NE re-uptake inhibitor.

63
Q

Compare the effects on mean arterial pressure and heart rate between NE and Isoproterenol.

A

With NE there is an alpha1 mediated increase in MAP with a reflex bradycardia. With Isoproterenol there is a beta2 vasodilatory effect and a beta1 and beta2 tachycardia.

64
Q

What is the mechanism of action of clonidine and what is used for?

A

alpha2 agonist used for hypertensive urgency, ADHD, Severe pain, EtOH withdrawal, opioid withdrawal.

65
Q

What is the mechanism of action of alpha-methyldoma and what is used for?

A

alpha2 agonist used for gestational hypertension.

66
Q

What is the selection profile of phenoxybenzamine and what is it used for?

A

Non selective alpha blocker used for pheo. Can cause hypotension and reflex tachycardia.

67
Q

What is the selection profile of phentolamine and what is it used for?

A

Non selective alpha blocker used for patients in a hypertensive emergency caused by tyramine ingestion while on MAO inhibitors. Also used for NE extraversion on IV sites.

68
Q

What is the selection profile of prazosin, terazosin, and doxazosin and what is it used for?

A

alpha1 blockers used to relieve BPH symptoms. Prazosin is also used for PTSD. Can treat hypertension. Can cause orthostatic hypotension.

69
Q

What is the selection profile of tamsulosin and what is it used for?

A

alpha1 blocker used to relieve BPH symptoms. Can cause orthostatic hypotension.

70
Q

What is the selection profile of mirtazapine and what is it used for?

A

alpha2 blocker used for depression. Can cause sedation, increase in cholesterol and increased appetite.

71
Q

What type of arrhythmia are beta blockers useful for and how do they work?

A

They decrease AV conduction velocity and can be used for SVTs.

72
Q

What is the effect of beta blockers in the eye and what are they used for?

A

They decrease humor production. Timolol is used for glaucoma.

73
Q

What are the toxicities of beta blockers?

A 
Impotence
Bradycardia
AV block
Seizures
Sedation
Dislipidemia (metoprolol)
Worst asthma or COPD
Unopposed alpha effect on cocaine users.
74
Q

Which beta blockers are beta 1 selective?

A

Acetabutolol (partial agonist), Atenolol, Betaxolol, Esmolol, Metoprolol (all the ones from A to M)

75
Q

Which beta blockers are non-selective?

A

Nadolol, Pindolol (partial agonist), Propanolol, Timolol (all the ones from N to Z on the alphabet)

76
Q

Which drugs are alpha AND beta blockers?

A

Carvedilol and Labetalol (do not ened in “-olol”)

77
Q

Antidote for acetaminophen…

A

N-acetylcysteine (replenishes glutathione)

78
Q

Antidote for AChE inhibitors…

A

Atropine (agonist) followed by pralidoxine (removes AChE blockade)

79
Q

Antidote for Amphetamines…

A

NH4Cl to acidify urine

80
Q

Antidote for anticholinergics…

A

Physostigmine and control of hyperthermia

81
Q

Antidote for benzodiazepines…

A

Flumazenil (GABA_A antagonist)

82
Q

Antidote for beta-blockers…

A

Glucagon

83
Q

Antidote for carbon monoxide…

A

Hyperbaric O2

84
Q

Antidote for copper, arsenic or gold…

A

Penicillamine (chelator)

85
Q

Antidote for cyanide…

A

Nitrite (oxidizes hemoglobin and prevents binding by cyanide) and thiosulfate

86
Q

Antidote for methemoglobin or nitrite…

A

Methylene blue (turns methemoglobin back to hemoglobin)

87
Q

Antidote for digitalis…

A

Anti-dig Fab fragments

88
Q

Antidote for heparine…

A

Protamine sulfate

89
Q

Antidote for Iron…

A

Deferoxamine or Deferasirox

90
Q

Antidote for lead…

A

EDTA, dimercaprol, succiner, penicillamine

91
Q

Antidote for mercury, arsenic or gold…

A

diMERcaprol, succiner

92
Q

Antidote for methanol or ethylene glycol…

A

Fomepizole

93
Q

Antidote for opioids…

A

Naloxone (mu receptor inhibitor)

94
Q

Antidote for salicylates…

A

NaHCO3 to alk the urine

95
Q

Antidote for TCAs…

A

NaHCO3 to alk the plasma

96
Q

Antidote for tPA, streptokinase or urokinase…

A

Aminocaproic acid

97
Q

Antidote for Warfarin…

A

Vitamin K

98
Q

Antibiotics ending in -azole

A

Ergosterol synthesis inhibitors

99
Q

Antibiotics ending in -bendazole

A

Anti helmintic or anti parasitic

100
Q

Antibiotics ending in -cilin

A

Peptidoglycan synthesis inhibitor

101
Q

Antibiotics ending in -cycline

A

Aminoacyl-tRNA binding to 30S inhibition

102
Q

Antibiotics ending in -ivir

A

Neuroaminase inhibitors

103
Q

Antibiotics ending in -navir

A

Protease inhibitors

104
Q

Antibiotics ending in -ovir

A

DNA polymerase inhibitor

105
Q

Antibiotics ending in -thromycin

A

Macrolides that block translocation on 50S

106
Q

CNS drugs that end in -ane

A

Inhaled general anesthetic (ie. halothane)

107
Q

CNS drugs that end in -azine

A

Typical anti-psychotics

108
Q

CNS drugs that end in -barbital

A

Barbiturates

109
Q

CNS drugs that end in -caine

A

Local anesthetic

110
Q

CNS drugs that end in -etine

A

SSRI

111
Q

CNS drugs that end in -ipramine

A

TCA

112
Q

CNS drugs that end in -triptan

A

5-HT_{1B/1D} agonist (ie. sumatriptan)

113
Q

CNS drugs that end in -triptyline

A

TCA

114
Q

CNS drugs that end in -zepam

A

Benzodiazepine

115
Q

CNS drugs that end in -zolam

A

Benzodiazepine

116
Q

Autonomic drugs that end in -chol

A

Cholinergic agonist

117
Q

Autonomic drugs that end in -curium or -curonium

A

Non-depolarizing muscular blocker derived from curare

118
Q

Autonomic drugs that end in -olol

A

Beta blcoker

119
Q

Autonomic drugs that end in -stigmine

A

AChE inhibitor

120
Q

Autonomic drugs that end in -terol

A

Beta2 agonist

121
Q

Autonomic drugs that end in -zosin

A

Alpha1 antagonist

122
Q

Cardiovascular drugs that end in -afil

A

PDE-5 inhibitors

123
Q

Cardiovascular drugs that end in -dipine

A

Dihydropyridine CCB (Ca+ channel blocker of vasculature)

124
Q

Cardiovascular drugs that end in -pril

A

ACE inhibitor

125
Q

Cardiovascular drugs that end in -sartan

A

Angiotensin II receptor blcoker

126
Q

Cardiovascular drugs that end in -statin

A

HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor

127
Q

Drugs ending in -dronate

A

Biphosphonate

128
Q

Drugs ending in -glitazone

A

PPAR-gamma activator (insulin sensitizer)

129
Q

Drugs ending in -prazole

A

Proton Pump Inhibitor

130
Q

Drugs ending in -prost

A

Prostaglandin analog

131
Q

Drugs ending in -tidine

A

H2 antagonist (Cimitedine)

132
Q

Drugs ending in -tropin

A

Pituitary hormone

133
Q

Drugs ending in -ximab

A

These are chimeric monoclonal antibodies

134
Q

Drugs ending in -zumab

A

These are humanized monoclonal antibodies

135
Q

Which drugs can cause gynecomastia?

A 
Spironalactone
Marijuana (dope)
Digitalis
Estrogen
Cimetadine
Alcohol
Heroin
Dopamine
D2 antagonist
Ketoconazole
[Some dope drugs easily cause awkward hairy DD knocker.]

First Aid & Firecracker (7 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions