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First Aid Immunology > First Aid Immunology > Flashcards

First Aid Immunology Flashcards

1
Q

Which area of the lymph node englarges in an extreme immune response

A

paracortex

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2
Q

Which areas of the body are drained by the axillary lymph node

A

upper limb and breast

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3
Q

which areas of the body are drained by the celiac lymph node?

A

stomach

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4
Q

Which lymph node drains the anal canal below

A

superficial inguinal pectinate line

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5
Q

thwat does the Right lymphatic duct drain?

A

right arm and right half of head

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6
Q

what does the thoracic duct drain?

A

everything else, not right arm and right half of head

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7
Q

What happens in the follicle of the lymph node

A

b cell localization and proliferation

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8
Q

which follicles (primary or secondary) have active germinal centers?

A

secondary

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9
Q

What kind of bacteria do macrophages remove from the spleen?

A

encapsulated, S SHiN (salmonella, S.pneumo, H. influ, N. menin

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10
Q

What are the three things you find post splenectomy

A

Howell-Jolly bodies, Target cells, thrombocytosis

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11
Q

What embryologic tissue are lymphcytes derived from

A

mesenchyme

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12
Q

What do you find in the medulla of the thymus?

A

mature t cells, epithelial reticular cells, Hassalls corpuscles

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13
Q

Where do positive and negative selection occur in the thymus?

A

corticomedullary junction

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14
Q

Which kind of immunity is germline encoded?

A

innate

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15
Q

which kind of immunity is characterized by receptors that undergo VDJ recombination?

A

adaptive

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16
Q

Which MHC complex to CD8 cells bind

A

MHC I

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17
Q

Which MHC complex to CD4 cells bind

A

MHC II 4 x 2=8

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18
Q

Where is MHC I expressed, and which HLA molecules code for it

A

all nucleated cells (no RBCs) A, B, C

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19
Q

Where is MHC II expressed and and which HLA molecules codes for it

A

APCs, and DR, DP and DQ

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20
Q

HLA-A3

A

hemochromocytosis

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21
Q

HLA-B27

A

PAIR - psoriasis, ankylosing spondylitis, inflammatory bowel dz, reiter’s syndrome

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22
Q

HLA-B8

A

Graves’ dz

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23
Q

HLA-D2

A

MS, hay fever, SLE, goodpasture’s

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24
Q

HLA-DR3

A

DM type 1

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25
Q

HLA-DR4

A

RA, DM type 1

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26
Q

HLA-DR5

A

Pernicious anemia (to B12 def), hashimotos thyroiditis

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27
Q

HLA-DR7

A

Steroid-responsive nephrotic syndrome

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28
Q

How do NK cells kill?

A

perforins and granzymes to induce apoptosis of virally infected or tumor cells

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29
Q

How are NK cells stimulated?

A

IL-12, IFN-beta. IFN-alpha

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30
Q

Which antibody mediates a type Hypersens rxn?

A

IgE

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31
Q

Which antibody mediates type II and type III hypersens rxn

A

IgG

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32
Q

Which cell mediates the type IV hypersens rxn?

A

CD8 cells

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33
Q

What is the role of CD4 cels

A

help B cells make antibody, secrete IFN gamma to activate macs

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34
Q

Which cytokine induces Th1 cell profile in CD4 cells

A

IL-12

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35
Q

Which cytokine induces Th2 cell profile in CD4 cells

A

Il-4

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36
Q

What are the three APCs

A

Macs, dendritic cell, B cell

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37
Q

How many signals are required for T cell activation or B cell class switching?

A

2

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38
Q

What are the two signals in helper T activation?

A

signal 1 = APC, signal 2 = B7 and CD28

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39
Q

What are the two signals in cytotoxic T cells activation?

A

signal 1 =peptide expressed on MHC I, signal 2 = Il-2

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40
Q

What are the two signals required for B cells class switching?

A

signal 1 = IL-4,5,6 signal 2 = CD40 receptor on b cell binds CD40L on Th cell

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41
Q

Which cytokines to Th1 cells secrete?

A

IL-2 and IFN gamma

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42
Q

Which cytokine inhibits Th1 cells

A

IL-10

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43
Q

What does the Th2 response do?

A

regulates the humoral response

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44
Q

What cytokines to Th2 cells secrete?

A

IL-4, 5 , 10

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45
Q

What inhibits Th2 cells

A

IFN gamma

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46
Q

What are the cytokines involved in macrophage/lymphocyte interaction

A

IFN gamma from lymph activate MAC, IL-1 and TNF alpha from MAC activate lympho

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47
Q

How do CD8 cells kill?

A

perforin, granzyme, granulysin

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48
Q

Which parts of the antibody to heavy chain contribute?

A

Fc and Fab

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49
Q

Which parts of the antibody to light chain contribute

A

Fab

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50
Q

Which portion of the antibody determines the isotype

A

Fc

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51
Q

What are the 3 funxtions of antibodies?

A

Opsonization, neutralization and complement activation

52
Q

Which is the most abundant immunoglobulin in the blood?

A

IgG

53
Q

What do mature B lymphos express on their surface?

A

IgM and IgD

54
Q

Which antibody (IgM or IgG) crosses the placenta?

A

IgG

55
Q

What is the main function of IgA

A

prevents attachment of bacteria and viruses to mucous membranes

56
Q

Which immunoglobulin is found in breast milk, tears, saliva, and mucous

A

IgA

57
Q

Which immunoglobulin is a pentamer

A

IgM

58
Q

Can lipopolysaccharide from cell envelope of of gram neg bacteria induce immunologic memory?

A

No, peptides only can can be presented on MHC molecules

59
Q

Which B T cell interaction allows for immunologic memory and class switching?

A

CD40 and CD40L

60
Q

Which antibodies activate the classic pathway

A

IgG, IgM GM makes classic cars

61
Q

Which complement protein opsonizes bacteria?

A

C3b

62
Q

Which complement proteins make up the MAC

A

C5b-9

63
Q

What does a deficiency in C1 esterase inhibitor lead to?

A

hereditary angioedema

64
Q

What does a deficiency in C3 lead to

A

severe pyogenic sinus and respiratory infections, inc suscept to type III hypersen rxn

65
Q

What does a deficiency in C5-C8 lead to?

A

Neisseria bacteremia

66
Q

Deficiency in DAF

A

complement mediated lysis of RBCs and paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria

67
Q

What does HOT- T-Bone stEAk stand for?

A

IL-1 = fever, IL-2 = T cells, IL-3 = bone marrow, IL-4 = IgE, IL-5 = IgA

68
Q

What does clean up on Aisle 8 stand for?

A

PMNs recruited by IL-8 to clear infxns

69
Q

What interferes with viruses?

A

Interfereon alpha, beta gamma. Alpha/beta inhibit viral protein synthesis, gamma upregulate MHC I and II, all three activate NK cells

70
Q

Cell surface receptors on T cells

A

CD3, CD28, helper t, CD4, CD40L, cyto t CD8

71
Q

Cell surface receptors on B cels

A

Ig, CD19, 20, 21, CD40, MHCII, B7

72
Q

Which is the receptors for EBV?

A

CD21

73
Q

What are the cell surface receptors on MACS

A

MHC II, B7, CD40, CD14, receptors for Fc and C3b

74
Q

what is the unique cell marker for NK cells

A

CD56

75
Q

Which bacteria secrete superantigen

A

S. aureus and S. pyogenes

76
Q

what do superantigens do?

A

uncoordinated release of IFN gamm leading to IL-1, IL 6 and TNF alpha from MACS, via crosslinking of TCR and MHC II

77
Q

Which receptor on MACS to endotoxin directy stimulate?

A

CD14

78
Q

What are the classic example of bacterial antigen variation and the unique mechanims

A

Salmonella, 2 flaggellar variants, Borrelia, relapsing fever, N. gono, pilus protein

79
Q

What is the difference in antigenic variation in viruses

A

major shift minor drift

80
Q

Which parasites exhibit antigenic variation

A

trypanosomes, programmed rearrangement

81
Q

Which infections require administering passive immunity?

A

Tetanus, Botulinum toxin, HBV or Rabies (To Be Healed Rapidly

82
Q

What kind of hypersens rxn in anaphylaxis

A

I

83
Q

Which type of hypersens rxn is antibody mediated?

A

II

84
Q

Which type of hypersens rxn is immune complex mediate

A

III

85
Q

Which type of hypersens rxn is delayed

A

IV

86
Q

Which type of hypersens rxn is serum sickness?

A

III

87
Q

Which type of hypersens rxn is the arthus rxn

A

III

88
Q

What is the clinical picture for serum sickness?

A

caused by drugs mostly, fever, urticaria, arthralgias, proteinuria, lymphadenopathy 5-10 days after exposure

89
Q

What is the arthus rxn?

A

type III hypersens rxn after intradermal rxn with antigen-antibodies in the skin causing edema, necrosis and activation of complement

90
Q

What are the 4 T’s of type IV hypersense

A

T-lymphos, Transplant, TB skin test, Touching (contact dermatitis)

91
Q

ANA

A

SLE, nonspecific

92
Q

Anti ds DNA, anti Smith

A

SLE

93
Q

Antihistone

A

drug induced lupus

94
Q

Anti-IgG (RF)

A

RA

95
Q

Anticentromere

A

Scleroderma CREST

96
Q

Anti Scl 70 (DNA topo I

A

Scleroderma diffuse

97
Q

Antimitochondrial

A

primary biliary cirrohosis

98
Q

antigliadin, antiendomysial

A

ceilac disase

99
Q

anti basement membrane

A

goodpastures

100
Q

antidesmoglein

A

pemphigus vulgaris

101
Q

antimicrosomal, antithyroglobulin

A

hashimotos

102
Q

anti-Jo 1

A

poly/dermato myositis

103
Q

anti SS A/B or anti Ro/La

A

sjorgen’s syndrome

104
Q

anti U1 RNP

A

mixed connective tissue disease

105
Q

antismooth muscle

A

autoimmune hepatitis

106
Q

anti glutamate decarboxylase

A

DM type 1

107
Q

c-ANCA

A

Wegeners granulomatosis

108
Q

p-ANCA

A

other vasculitidies

109
Q

X linked recessive defect in BTK no B cell differentiation

A

Bruton’s agamma

110
Q

Defect in CD40L on helper T

A

Hyper IgM

111
Q

Defectin in isotype switching

A

Selective Ig def, IgA most common

112
Q

Defect in B cell maturation

A

Common variable immunodeficiency (CVID)

113
Q

22q11 deletion, failure of 3rd and 4th pharyngeal arches

A

DiGeorge

114
Q

decreased Th1 response

A

IL-12 def

115
Q

Th cells don’t produce IFN gamma, no PMN response

A

Hyper IgE syndrome (Job’s)

116
Q

T cell dysfunction

A

chronic mucocutaneaous candidiasis

117
Q

X linked IL-2 receptor defect, adenosine deaminase deficiency, failure to synthesize MHC II

A

SCID

118
Q

Defect in DNA repair enzymes

A

Ataxia telangectasia

119
Q

X-linked recessive defect with progessive deletion of B and T cells

A

Wilskott Aldrich (TIE = thrombocytopenia, infections, eczema) high IgE and IgA, low IgM

120
Q

Defect in LFA-1 integrin CD18 protein on phagocytes

A

Leukocyte adhesion deficiency type 1

121
Q

AR, defect in microtubule fxn with decreased phagocytosis

A

Chediak Higashi

122
Q

Lack of NADPH oxidase, decreased in ROS, absetn respiratory burst in PMNs

A

chronic granulomatous disease

123
Q

Transplant rejection: preformed host antibody mediated

A

hyperacute : occlusion, ischemia, necrosis

124
Q

transplant rejection cell mediated due to cytotoxic t cells reacting against foreign MHCs

A

acute: vasculitis of graft vessels and interstitial lymphcytic infiltrate

125
Q

transplant rejection: T cell and antibody mediated vasular damage

A

chronic: fibrosis of graft tissue and blood vessels

126
Q

transplant rejection: grafted immunocompetent T cells from donor proliferate and attack host cells

A

graft versus host: severe organ dysfunction, maculopapular rash, jaundice, hepatosplenomegaly, diarrhea often in bone marrown and liver transplant

First Aid Immunology (1 decks)

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