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Oral Boards > First > Flashcards

First Flashcards

1
Q

What are the medications for acute angle closure glaucoma?

A

Apraclonidine
Timolol
Mannitol or acetazolamide)
Pilocarpine

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2
Q

How often should you check response to the medications for acute angle closure glaucoma?

A

q60 minutes

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3
Q

What level of iron is systemically toxic?

A

500-1000 mcg/dL

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4
Q

What is the treatment for an acute ingestion of Fe?

A

Whole bowel irrigation with NGT placement
Deferoxamine

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5
Q

What is the role of TIBC with acute iron overdoses?

A

Little to no value

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6
Q

What is the pediatric dose of bicarb?

A

1 Meq/kg

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7
Q

What is the pediatric dose of calcium gluconate?

A

60 mg/kg

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8
Q

What is the pediatric dose of calcium chloride?

A

20 mg/kg

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9
Q

FAT RN

A

Fever
Anemia
Thrombocytopenia
Renal failure
Neurologic deficits/confusion

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10
Q

What is the reversal agent for lovenox and heparin?

A

Protamine

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11
Q

What is the treatment for HUS? TTP? ITP?

A

HUS: supportive or plasmapheresis
TTP: Plasmapheresis
ITP: Steroids, IVIG

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12
Q

At what level are platelets indicated for everyone without bleeding? Anticoagulated?

A

Everyone gets platelets under 10,000
If AC, 50,000

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13
Q

What are the lab findings indicative of cyanide poisoning?

A

Refractory Lactic acidosis
large AG

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14
Q

What are the dimensions of an esophageal FB that require removal?

A

5 cm x 2 cm

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15
Q

What is the treatment for a cecal volvulus? Sigmoid?

A

Cecal = surgery
Sigmoid + NG tube and rectal tube

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16
Q

What are the s/sx of a black widow envenomation? Treament?

A

Abdominal pain
Myalgias
Diaphoresis

Benzos, GSC

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17
Q

What is the typical mechanism of a boutonniere deformity of the finger? Treatment?

A

Jammed finger causes rupture of the central slip of the extensor tendon
Splint PIP in extension

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18
Q

What is the typical mechanism of a mallet deformity of the finger? Treatment?

A

Forced flexion of the DIP (direct blow to finger)
Extensor tendon rupture
Splint distal tip in extension

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19
Q

What is the typical mechanism of a jersey deformity of the finger? Treatment?

A

Avulsion of the FDP at the DIP joint ( can’t fully flex the distal tip
Splint with flexion

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20
Q

What is the splint for a gamekeeper’s thumb?

A

Thumb spica

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21
Q

What type of heart block occurs with an anterior MI? Inferior?

A

Anterior = Mobitz II or complete
Inferior = First degree

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22
Q

Chest pain + new onset pulmonary edema + murmur + inferior MI on EKG =?

A

Papillary muscle rupture

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23
Q

What are the only absolute contraindications to cooling post rosc?

A

Bleeding/coagulopathy
Pregnancy
Severe sepsis

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24
Q

How do you treat a patient in v tach/fib when they have an LVAD?

A

Shock as you normally would

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25
Q

How will a clot present in a patient with an LVAD?

A

Low flow warning, increased energy demand

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26
Q

What are the indications for treatment with digibind?

A

K over 5 MeQ/L
Ingestion over 10 mg (5 mg for children)

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27
Q

What is eczema herpeticum?

A

Eczema that get secondarily infected with herpes

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28
Q

Erythematous plaques with silver scales and nail pitting = ?

A

Psoriasis

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29
Q

Where on the body is psoriasis usually seen?

A

Extensor surfaces

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30
Q

What rash has the characteristic Christmas tree pattern, and how is it treated?

A

Pityriasis Rosea
Antihistamines

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31
Q

What lab will be low in cases of acute angioedema?

A

C4 levels

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32
Q

What is the specific drug used to treat angioedema?

A

Icatibant (FFP can also be used)

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33
Q

How does giving FFP treat angioedema?

A

has a kinase that degrades excess bradykinin

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34
Q

What is the treatment for erysipelas?

A

Dicloxacillin or erythromicin

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35
Q

Erythematous nodules on the shin = ?

A

Erythema nodosum

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36
Q

Inflammatory pustule that progresses to a painful ulcer = ? What type of diseases is this associated with?

A

Pyoderma gangrenosum
Chronic inflammatory conditions (IBDs)

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37
Q

Small area of edema progressing to painless nodular lesions with central hemorrhage and necrosis = ?

A

Ecthyma gangrenosum

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38
Q

What is the difference between erythema multiforme minor vs major?

A

Major = mucosal involvement

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39
Q

How long after giving amoxicillin to a pt with mono can the rash present?

A

day to a week

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40
Q

Besides admitting to a burn unit, what consultant should be involved with SJS/TEN patients?

A

Ophthalmology

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41
Q

Which has a positive Nikolsky sign: bullous pemphigoid or pemphigus vulgaris?

A

Pemphigus vulgaris

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42
Q

What type of tinea must be treated with oral antifungals?

A

Tinea capitis

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43
Q

What is the treatment for tinea versicolor?

A

Selenium sulfide shampoo

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44
Q

What is the classic rash of gonococcemia?

A

Pinpoint petechial macules that progress to vesicles or bullae

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45
Q

What is the treatment for sporotrichosis?

A

KI

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46
Q

What is the treatment for RMSF in pregnant women and children?

A

Doxycycline

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47
Q

What is the difference in the timing of the rash in chicken pox vs smallpox?

A

Chicken pox = different stages of healing
Small pox = all in the same stage.

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48
Q

What is the specific “antidote” for sulfonylurea overdoses?

A

Octreotide

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49
Q

What are the ages for the rule of 50?

A

1-8

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50
Q

What is the pediatric dose of glucagon?

A

0.03 mg/kg

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51
Q

Why does alcoholic ketoacidosis have an AG, but usually normal-ish pH?

A

Compensation and/or concomitant vomiting

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52
Q

What is the equation for osmolality?

A

2Na + glucose/18 + BUN/2.8 + Etoh/3.7

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53
Q

When in pregnancy does thyrotoxicosis of pregnancy typically resolve?

A

20 weeks

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54
Q

Why should you not give ASA to patients with thyroid storm?

A

Precipitates conversion of T4 to T3

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55
Q

What is the order for medications to treat thyroid storm?

A

Propranolol
PTU
Iodine
Steroids

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56
Q

What is the treatment for myxedema coma?

A

Levothyroxine

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57
Q

What is the steroid of choice for adrenal issues?

A

Hydrocortisone

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58
Q

What is the treatment for hyponatremic seizures?

A

100 cc of 3% given over *10 minutes

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59
Q

What is the formula for correcting [Ca] for albumin levels?

A

[Ca] + 0.8(4-[albumin])

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60
Q

What is the treatment for hypermagnesmia?

A

Calcium

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61
Q

What are the components of the MUDPILERS mnemonic?

A

Methanol
Uremia
DKA
Paraldehyde
INH/Iron
Lactic acidosis
Ethylene glycol
Rhabdomyolysis
Salicylates

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62
Q

Metabolic acidosis + hypokalemia = ?

A

Diarrhea

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63
Q

Metabolic acidosis + hyperkalemia = ?

A

Renal failure

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64
Q

Metabolic alkalosis + hypokalemia = ?

A

Vomiting

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65
Q

Hematomas can generally be aspirated/drained within how many hours?

A

48

66
Q

What is the difference between vestibular neuritis vs labyrinthitis?

A

Labyrinthitis has hearing loss, while vestibular neuritis does not

67
Q

Diabetic patient with think, black mucoid sinus discharge = what disease?

A

Mucormycosis

68
Q

What defines le fort fractures I - III?

A

I = hard palate
II = Extends to orbital floor
III - Zygoma

69
Q

What is the predominant fatal rhythm found in drowning victims?

A

Asystole

70
Q

True or false: significant electrolyte imbalances generally do not occur with drowning

A

True

71
Q

What is the primary factor in determining survival with drowning?

A

Time of immersion

72
Q

Diver losing consciousness when surfacing = ?

A

Air embolism

73
Q

What is the goal temperature of cooling a patient with hyperthermia? What is the temperature of water you should use to warm a hypothermic patient?

A

39 C

74
Q

What is the parkland formula?

A

4(kg)*(%BSA).

75
Q

What is the goal urine output for a burn patient?

A

0.5 cc/kg/hr

76
Q

48 hour lymphocyte count above (___) after radiation is a good prognosis sign? Bad?

A

Good = 1200
less than 300 is bad

77
Q

True or false: you should immobilize a snake bitten body part

A

True, it reduces the movement of the venom, but do NOT put a tourniquet around it

78
Q

What are the s/sx of a scorpion bite?

A

Pancreatitis
Neuroexcitation

79
Q

What is the treatment for a sea urchin sting, or a jellyfish envenomation?

A

Hot water and vinegar

80
Q

A platelet count of less than what is an indication for platelet transfusion with ITP? What if they’re bleeding?

A

less than 30,000
less than 50,000

81
Q

What type of casts are seen with RPGN? What is the treatment?

A

RBC casts
Steroids

82
Q

What type of casts are seen with Acute interstitial nephritis? What is the treatment?

A

WBC casts, eosinophiluria
Remove offending agent

83
Q

What type of casts are seen with ATN? What is the treatment?

A

Muddy brown granular and epithelial cell casts
IVFs, correct underlying pathology

84
Q

Hyaline casts generally indicate prerenal, renal, or postrenal pathology?

A

Pre or postrenal

85
Q

What are the components of the I-STUMBLED mnemonic for ingestions that can be dialyzed off?

A

Iron/INH
Salicylates
Theophylline
Uremia
Methanol
Barbiturates
Lithium
Ethylene glycol
Depakote

86
Q

What bedside test can be performed to assess if a new AV fistula is causing high-output HF?

A

Occluding the fistula will cause bradycardia

87
Q

What should not be seen on UA in a patient with prostatitis?

A

RBCs

88
Q

True or false: patients with tertiary syphilis are not longer infectious

A

True

89
Q

STD with painless, herpes like ulcer and inguinal LAD = ?

A

LGV

90
Q

STD presenting with tender papule progressing to a painful ulcer = ?

A

Chancroid

91
Q

What are the abx of choice for the treatment of neonatal meningitis?

A

Gentamicin + ampicillin

92
Q

What abx is used for PEP for Neisseria meningitidis?

A

Single dose of oral cipro
Single dose of ceftriaxone
Two doses of rifampin

93
Q

What are the three classic symptoms of optic neuritis?

A

Painful EOM
Vision loss
Red color blindness

94
Q

What is the treatment for Guillain-Barre syndrome?

A

IVIG

95
Q

What are the 3 components of treatment for a myasthenic crisis?

A

IVIG
Plasmapheresis
Steroids

96
Q

What is the classic triad of symptoms for Wernicke’s encephalopathy?

A

Ophthalmoplegia
Ataxia
Encephalopathy

97
Q

True or false: there is usually sensory loss in patients with ALS

A

False, sensation is usually spared

98
Q

What are the classic s/sx of syringomyelia?

A

Progressive loss of pain/temp in hands
Loss of sensation in cape-like distribution

99
Q

Where is the lesion with Wallenberg syndrome, and what are the general s/sx?

A

Blockage in the PICA or vertebral artery
Ipsilateral CN deficits, with contralateral pain/temp loss

100
Q

What is the target BP for a hemorrhagic stroke?

A

Less than 140 mmHg

101
Q

What is the order of US findings for a pregnancy?

A

Gestational sac
Yolk sac
Fetal pole

102
Q

Any patient with vaginal bleeding after what gestational age should have an US done prior to pelvic exam to r/o placenta previa

A

24 weeks

103
Q

What are the findings of Acute fatty live of pregnancy?

A

Hypoglycemia
High NH3
Coag abnormalities

104
Q

All pregnant trauma patients over how many weeks gestation need fetal monitoring

A

23 weeks

105
Q

Where anatomically is an episiotomy performed?

A

Oblique, not midline

106
Q

What is blepharitis, and what is the treatment?

A

Chronic infection of the eyelid margin
Warm compresses and topical abx

107
Q

What are the three components of Horner’s syndrome?

A

Ptosis
Miosis
Anhydrosis

108
Q

How can you confirm a lacrimal system injury?

A

Fluorescein staining

109
Q

What is dacrocystitis and what is the treatment?

A

Infection of the draining sac.
Warm compresses and oral abx

110
Q

What is a chalazion? Treatment?

A

Chronic, painless inflammation of the meibomian gland
Warm compresses, no abx

111
Q

What is the treatment for a stye (hordeolum)?

A

Warm compresses and topical abx

112
Q

What is the usual etiology of neonatal conjunctivitis at:
-24-48 hours postpartum
-3-5 days postpartum
-5-14 days postpartum

A

-24-48 hours = chemical
-3-5 days = gonorrhea
-5-14 days = chlamydia

113
Q

What is the difference between episcleritis and scleritis

A

Episcleritis is superficial vessels only sudden, mild eye pain and redness
Scleritis with severe pain, photophobia, blurry vision. NEEDS OPHTHO

114
Q

What are the components of the STAMP mnemonic for the treatment of acute angle closure glaucoma?

A

Supine position
Timolol
Acetazolamide
Mannitol
Pilocarpine

115
Q

Neonatal jaundice within how many hours of birth or after how may weeks is ALWAYS pathologic?

A

Less than 24 hours or persists longer than 2 weeks

116
Q

When does physiologic neonatal jaundice tyically develop?

A

After the first 24 hours of birth, but within the first week

117
Q

When does physiologic neonatal jaundice tyically develop?

A

After the first 24 hours of birth, but within the first week

118
Q

What is the most common cause of neonatal jaundice?

A

Liver immaturity

119
Q

When does malrotation with volvulus usually present?

A

age 3-7 days

120
Q

Pyloric stenosis is rarely present after what age?

A

3 months

121
Q

What are the metabolic derangements that are typically seens with pyloric stenosis?

A

Hypochloremic hypokalemic, metabolic alkalosis

122
Q

What is the risk of untreated Hirschprung’s disease?

A

Toxic megacolon

123
Q

What is the test to perform on neonatal stool to tell the difference between blood from mother vs necrotizing enterocolitis fetal blood?

A

APt test

124
Q

Painless rectal bleeding in an otherwise well appearing infant = ?

A

Meckel’s diverticulum

125
Q

Whare are the s/sx of Rey’es syndrome?

A

Rash
Vomiting
Encephalopathy
cirrhosis

126
Q

What is the treatment for mild omphalitis?

A

IV abx and admission, discuss with peds surgery

127
Q

Which type of hallucinations are more associated with a medical cause of psychosis, rather than an organic one: visual vs auditory?

A

Visual = medical cause

128
Q

What is somatiation disorder?

A

Patient has physical complaints as a result of an underlying psychological condition

129
Q

What is the “antidote” for serotonin syndrome?

A

Cyproheptadine

130
Q

What is the “antidote” to NMS?

A

Dantrolene

131
Q

What are the components of the DOPE mnemonic for troubleshooting a vent?

A

Dislodgement
Obstruction
PTX
Equipment failure

132
Q

True or false: legionella is not spread person to person

A

True

133
Q

Pneumonia with GI s/sx =?

A

Legionnaire’s disease

134
Q

Is anthrax contagious?

A

Only the cutaneous form

135
Q

What are the CXR findings associated with Anthrax?

A

Widened mediastinum

136
Q

What are the components of the INH mnemonic for the side effects of INH?

A

Injures Neurons and Hepatocytes

137
Q

What three labs findings are commonly found with sarcoidosis?

A

Anemia
Elevated ACE
Hypercalcemia

138
Q

What is the equation for the A-a gradient?

A

[150 -(1.25 x pCO2)] - pO2

139
Q

In an acute respiratory acidosis, every 10 mmHg change in CO2 leads to a pH change of what?

A

0.8

140
Q

What is the antidote for: barbiturates

A

Alkaline diuresis, dialysis

141
Q

What is the antidote for: Benzos

A

Flumazenil

142
Q

What is the antidote for: CYanide

A

Hydroxycobalamin + sodium thiosulfate

143
Q

What is the antidote for: ethylene glycol

A

Fomipizole

144
Q

What is the antidote for: Pb

A

Succimer

145
Q

What is the antidote for: Hg

A

DMSA

146
Q

What is the antidote for: methanol

A

fomipizole

147
Q

What is the antidote for: organophosphates

A

Atropine 2PAM

148
Q

What is the treatment for a wide QRS complex caused by anticolinergics?

A

Sodium bicarb

149
Q

What is the end point of titrating atropine for organophosphate poisonings?

A

Drying of secretions

150
Q

What is the alcohol found in antifreeze?

A

Ethylene glycol

151
Q

Which causes hypoglycemia BB or CCB?

A

BB

152
Q

What is the treatment for hydrogen sulfide toxicity?

A

Amyl nitrate

153
Q

Over what serum Fe level is deferoxamine indicated?

A

500

154
Q

When is dialysis indicated for Li overdoses?

A

AMS, seizures
Level over 5 (4 if CKD)

155
Q

Vomiting early in (___) ingestion is a good sign, but bad in a (___) ingestion

A

Early is good for mushrooms, bad for Fe

156
Q

What is the dose of bicarb for ASA ingestions?

A

3 amps in D5 running at 2-3 mlkg/hr
bolus of 1-2 mEq/kg

157
Q

Overdose of what medication causes hyperammoniemia with normal LFTs?

A

Valproic acid

158
Q

Chest tubes should be placed how many levels high in a pregnant patient?

A

1-2 levels

159
Q

What is the most sensitive test for detecting placental abruption after trauma?

A

Continuous fetal monitoring

160
Q

How much blood in the chest is needed for a hemothorax to appear on a CXR?

A

300 mL

161
Q

What are the indications for a surgical thoracotomy in a hemothorax?

A

More than 1500 cc out, or 200 cc/hr

162
Q

What is the treatment for chest wall rigidity from fentanyl?

A

Naloxone

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