Firecracker Questions Flashcards
Hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg) Positive
Hepatitis B surface antibody (anti-HBs) Negative
Hepatitis B core immunoglobulin M (IgM anti-HBc) Negative
Hepatitis B total core antibody (anti-HBc) Positive
What is the interpretation of the patient’s HBV serologic testing?
A. Chronic HBV infection
B. Susceptibility to HBV infection
C. Immunity from HBV vaccination
D. Acute HBV infection
E. Immunity from natural HBV infection
A. Chronic HBV infection
The umbilicus, an embryological structure, normally gives rise to what adult structure?
A. Medial umbilical ligament B. Falciform ligament C. Lateral umbilical ligament D. Median umbilical ligament E. Ligamentum teres (round ligament of the liver)
D. Median umbilical ligament
A patient has a large acute pulmonary embolism what is the most likely anatomical origin of this embolism? A. Cephalic vein B. Lesser saphenous vein C. Saphenous vein D. Femoral vein E. Jugular vein
D. Femoral vein
Which of the following abnormalities in glucose homeostasis is present in a long-standing type II diabetic?
A. Impaired GLUT2 function
B. Decreased insulin production
C. Elevated Ca2+ in pancreatic β-cells
D. Increased activity in the MAPK pathway
E. Decreased activity of the phosphoinositide-3 kinase (PI-3 kinase) pathway
E. Decreased activity of the phosphoinositide-3 kinase (PI-3 kinase) pathway
The patient is referred for an urgent MRI of the brain, which reveals a small subacute infarct in the left ventral posterolateral nucleus of the thalamus.
Which of the following is the most important risk factor for this type of stroke?
A. Chronic hypertension
B. Temporal (giant cell) arteritis
C. Angina pectoris
D. Atrial fibrillation
E. Chronic hyperlipidemia
A. Chronic hypertension
Injury to this results in weakness with arm abduction and decreased sensation over a small ovoid-shaped region over the lateral shoulder. A. Suprascapular nerve injury B. Rotator cuff injury C. Axillary nerve injury D. Brachial plexus injury E. C5 nerve root injury
C. Axillary nerve injury
Overdose of this causes a blurry yellow vision, arrhythmias, and hyperkalemia. It slows conduction through the AV node, accounting for the prolonged PR interval. A. Beta-blocker overdose B. Digoxin overdose C. ACE inhibitor overdose D. Furosemide overdose E. Calcium channel blocker overdose
B. Digoxin overdose
Which of the following characteristics do both citalopram and bupropion share?
A. Increased serotonin levels
B. Precipitation of mania in bipolar patients
C. Impotence
D. Decreased seizure threshold
E. Smoking cessation aid
B. Precipitation of mania in bipolar patients
*all antidepressants can precipitate mania
A 17-year-old man undergoes general anesthesia at the start of a rotator cuff repair. Shortly after induction, the patient is noted to be rigid and stiff. His body temperature is measured by rectal probe to be 40.6ºC (105ºF).
What is the treatment for this condition?
A. Benzodiazepine
B. Non-depolarizing neuromuscular blockade
C. Dantrolene
D. Dialysis
E. Propofol
C. Dantrolene
A 48-year-old man with type II diabetes takes a medication that improves insulin sensitivity by binding to the peroxisome proliferator activating receptor (PPAR), leading to increased insulin sensitivity. His brother, also a type II diabetic, was advised to stop taking this medication after he was diagnosed with congestive heart failure.
What class of medications is this patient most likely taking?
A. Sulfonylureas
B. Biguanides
C. Alpha-glucosidase inhibitors
D. Meglitinides
E. Thiazolidinediones
E. Thiazolidinediones (rosiglitazone and pioglitazone)
increase the insulin-sensitivity of muscle, adipose, and hepatic tissue by binding to the peroxisome proliferator-activated receptors (PPARs). Because they increase insulin sensitivity without directly increasing insulin secretion, they are less likely than sulfonylureas or meglitinides to cause hypoglycemia. The most common side effects of this class of medications are weight gain and fluid retention, which can exacerbate congestive heart failure in some patients. Additional side effects include hepatotoxicity and an increased risk of fractures.
Furosemide is used to manage congestive heart failure. Loop diuretics are commonly used in the treatment of congestive heart failure and act:
A. Thin descending limb of the Loop of Henle
B. Proximal convoluted tubule
C. Collecting duct
D. Thick ascending limb of the Loop of Henle
E. Distal convoluted tubule
D. Thick ascending limb of the Loop of Henle
By what mechanism does reserpine prevent hypertension?
A. Inhibition of tyrosinase
B. Inhibition of presynaptic vesicular release of norepinephrine
C. Inhibition of vesicular monoamine transporter (VMAT)
D. Tyrosine hydroxylase antagonist
E. Blockage of BH4
C. Inhibition of vesicular monoamine transporter (VMAT)
Which of the following best describes the anatomy of the prostate?
A. The portion of the urethra surrounded by the prostate is approximately 2 cm below the bladder
B. The prostate gland is posterior to the paired seminal vesicles
C. The prostate gland is supported by the levator ani muscles inferolaterally
D. The ducts of the bulbourethral glands pass through the posterior aspect of the prostate, opening into the prostatic urethra
E. The prostate lies anterior to the rectum and pubic symphysis
C. The prostate gland is supported by the levator ani muscles inferolaterally
Improper development of what structure causes a prominent midline mass in the anterior upper neck? A. Hyoid bone B. Thyroglossal duct C. Respiratory diverticulum D. Inferior parathyroid glands E. Pharyngeal membrane
B. Thyroglossal duct
Which of the following describes the major extracellular buffer of acid in the human body?
A. It is reabsorbed at the diluting segment of the nephron
B. It is secreted at the level of the distal convoluted tubule
C. Its levels are primarily regulated in the lungs
D. Its secretion is enhanced by the activity of aldosterone
E. Its reabsorption is inhibited by acetazolamide
E. Its reabsorption is inhibited by acetazolamide
