Finial Flashcards

1
Q

apportionment

A

the process by which seats in the House of Representatives are distributed among the fifty states

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

bicameralism

A

the political process that results from dividing a legislature into two separate assemblies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

bill

A

proposed legislation under consideration by a legislature

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

constituency

A

the body of voters, or constituents, represented by a particular politician

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

enumerated powers

A

the powers given explicitly to the federal government by the Constitution to regulate interstate and foreign commerce, raise and support armies, declare war, coin money, and conduct foreign affairs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

implied powers

A

the powers not specifically detailed in the U.S. Constitution but inferred as necessary to achieve the objectives of the national government

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

inherent powers

A

the powers neither enumerated nor implied but assumed to exist as a direct result of the country’s existence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

oversight

A

the right to review and monitor other bodies such as the executive branch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

The Great Compromise successfully resolved differences between ________.

A

large and small states

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

While each state has two senators, members of the House are apportioned ________.

A

according to the state’s population

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

The process of redistricting can present problems for congressional representation because ________.

A

districts are often drawn to benefit partisan groups

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Briefly explain the benefits and drawbacks of a bicameral system.

A
  • benefit of a bicameral system is the way it demands careful consideration and deliberate action on the part of the legislators
  • drawback is that it is tougher overall to pass legislation and makes it extremely difficult to push through large-scale reforms
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Why does a strong presidency necessarily sap power from Congress?

A

The executive and legislative branches complement and check each other. The purpose of dividing their roles is to prevent either from becoming too powerful. As a result, when one branch assumes more power, it necessarily assumes that power from the other branch.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

surge-and-decline theory

A

a theory proposing that the surge of stimulation occurring during presidential elections subsides during midterm elections, accounting for the differences we observe in turnouts and results

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

The saying “All politics is local” roughly means ________.

A

the local constituents tend to care about things that affect them

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Explain the factors that make it difficult to oust incumbents.

A

they are able to raise more money given that people want to back a winner and that voters know incumbents by name because they won the office in a previous election. The challengers who do take on incumbents typically lose soundly for the same reasons.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

A congressperson who pursued a strict delegate model of representation would seek to ________.

A

legislate in the way he or she believed constituents wanted, regardless of the anticipated outcome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

The increasing value constituents have placed on descriptive representation in Congress has had the effect of ________.

A

increasing the number of minority members in Congress

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What does polling data suggest about the events that trigger exceptionally high congressional approval ratings?

A

that the start of a foreign war is one of the few things that triggers a positive reevaluation of Congress.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

collective representation

A

the relationship between Congress and the United States as a whole, and whether the institution itself represents the American people

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

delegate model of representation

A

a model of representation in which representatives feel compelled to act on the specific stated wishes of their constituents

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

descriptive representation

A

the extent to which a body of representatives represents the descriptive characteristics of their constituencies, such as class, race, ethnicity, and gender

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

politico model of representation

A

a model of representation in which members of Congress act as either trustee or delegate, based on rational political calculations about who is best served, the constituency or the nation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

pork-barrel politics

A

federal spending intended to benefit a particular district or set of constituents

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
representation
an elected leader’s looking out for his or her constituents while carrying out the duties of the office
26
trustee model of representation
a model of representation in which representatives feel at liberty to act in the way they believe is best for their constituents
27
A select committee is different from a standing committee because ________.
a select committee is convened for a specific and temporary purpose, while a standing committee is permanent
28
conference committee`
a special type of joint committee that reconciles different bills passed in the House and Senate so a single bill results
29
joint committee
a legislative committee consisting of members from both chambers that investigates certain topics but lacks bill referral authority
30
majority leader
the leader of the majority party in either the House or Senate; in the House, the majority leader serves under the Speaker of the House, in the Senate, the majority leader is the functional leader and chief spokesperson for the majority party
31
minority leader
the party member who directs the activities of the minority party on the floor of either the House or the Senate
32
president pro tempore
the senator who acts in the absence of the actual president of the Senate, who is also the vice president of the United States; the president pro tempore is usually the most senior senator of the majority party
33
select committee
a small legislative committee created to fulfill a specific purpose and then disbanded; also called an ad hoc, or special, committee
34
Speaker of the House
the presiding officer of the House of Representatives and the leader of the majority party; the Speaker is second in the presidential line of succession, after the vice president
35
standing committee
a permanent legislative committee that meets regularly
36
whip
in the House and in the Senate, a high leadership position whose primary duty is to enforce voting discipline in the chambers and conferences
37
Stopping a filibuster requires that ________.
the chamber votes for cloture
38
Saying a bill is being marked up is just another way to say it is being ________.
amended
39
The key means of advancing modern legislation is now ________.
the budget process
40
cloture
a parliamentary process to end a debate in the Senate, as a measure against the filibuster; invoked when three-fifths of senators vote for the motion
41
filibuster
a parliamentary maneuver used in the Senate to extend debate on a piece of legislation as long as possible, typically with the intended purpose of obstructing or killing it
42
markup
the amending and voting process in a congressional committee
43
Many at the Continental Congress were skeptical of allowing presidents to be directly elected by the legislature because ________.
they feared the opportunities created for corruption
44
How did presidents who served in the decades directly after Washington expand the powers of the presidency?
- expanded the war powers by waging undeclared war - negotiated the purchase of Louisiana from France - took direct control of foreign policymaking when he issued the Monroe Doctrine
45
cabinet
a group of advisors to the president, consisting of the most senior appointed officers of the executive branch who head the fifteen executive departments
46
executive agreement
an international agreement between the president and another country made by the executive branch and without formal consent by the Senate
47
executive order
a rule or order issued by the president without the cooperation of Congress and having the force of law
48
executive privilege
the president’s right to withhold information from Congress, the judiciary, or the public
49
impeachment
the act of charging a government official with serious wrongdoing, which in some cases may lead to the removal of that official from office
50
How did the election of 1824 change the way presidents were selected?
The selection of the candidate with fewer electoral votes triggered the rise of party control over nominations.
51
Which of the following is an unintended consequence of the rise of the primary and caucus system?
Sometimes candidates unpopular with the party leadership reach the top.
52
What problems exist with the Electoral College?
- small states are over-represented in the Electoral College. - the state by state set-up of the college, in the modern era, leads to states that are safe wins for one party, leaving a handful of states that get all the attention - sometimes doesn't agree with the popular vote
53
king caucus
an informal meeting held in the nineteenth century, sometimes called a congressional caucus, made up of legislators in the Congress who met to decide on presidential nominees for their respective parties
54
A very challenging job for new presidents is to ______.
nominate and gain confirmation for their cabinet and hundreds of other officials
55
Office of Management and Budget
an office within the Executive Office of the President charged with producing the president’s budget, overseeing its implementation, and overseeing the executive bureaucracy
56
Executive Office of the President
the administrative organization that reports directly to the president and made up of important offices, units, and staff of the current president and headed by the White House chief of staff
57
President Theodore Roosevelt’s concept of the bully pulpit was the office’s ________.
premier position to pressure through public appeal
58
How were presidents in the eighteenth and nineteenth centuries likely to reach the public? Were these methods effective?
- Presidents of the eighteenth and nineteenth centuries might make speeches or publish letters in newspapers across the country. - effective in there day but not as effective as what president do today
59
bully pulpit
Theodore Roosevelt’s notion of the presidency as a platform from which the president could push an agenda
60
going public
a term for when the president delivers a major television address in the hope that public pressure will result in legislators supporting the president on a major piece of legislation
61
an example of an executive agreement
The president signs legally binding nuclear arms terms with Iran without seeking congressional approval.
62
What strategies can presidents employ to win people over to their way of thinking?
Presidents can use road trips across the country, major speeches, and rewards to people in their camp.
63
line-item veto
a power created through law in 1996 and overturned by the Supreme Court in 1998 that allowed the president to veto specific aspects of bills passed by Congress while signing into law what remained
64
rally around the flag effect
a spike in presidential popularity during international crises
65
signing statement
a statement a president issues with the intent to influence the way a specific bill the president signs should be enforced
66
The Supreme Court’s power of judicial review ________.
enables it to declare acts of the other branches unconstitutional
67
In Federalist No. 78, Alexander Hamilton characterized the judiciary as the ________ branch of government.
least dangerous
68
What do you find most significant about having a common law system?
The judicial branch is involved in the system of law-making in the United States. Through their interpretation of the law, judges are an important part of the legal system and influence the way law is made and interpreted. They don’t just apply the law; they also make it.
69
appellate jurisdiction
the power of a court to hear a case on appeal from a lower court and possibly change the lower court’s decision
70
common law
the pattern of law developed by judges through case decisions largely based on precedent
71
judicial review
the power of the courts to review actions taken by the other branches of government and the states and to rule on whether those actions are constitutional
72
Marbury v. Madison
the 1803 Supreme Court case that established the courts’ power of judicial review and the first time the Supreme Court ruled an act of Congress to be unconstitutiona
73
original jurisdiction
the power of a court to hear a case for the first time
74
Of all the court cases in the United States, the majority are handled ________.
at the state level
75
Both state and federal courts hear matters that involve ________.
both civil and criminal law
76
The existence of the dual court system is an unnecessary duplication to some but beneficial to others. Provide at least one positive and one negative characteristic of having overlapping court systems in the United States.
Overlapping court systems provide each individual with more than just one court to protect his or her rights. A person seeking a wrong to be righted may have alternate places to pursue his or her case. On the other hand, having overlapping court systems opens the door to the possibility of unequal or disparate administration of justice.
77
appellate court
a court that reviews cases already decided by a lower or trial court and that may change the lower court’s decision
78
civil law
a non-criminal law defining private rights and remedies
79
criminal law
a law that prohibits actions that could harm or endanger others, and establishes punishment for those actions
80
dual court system
the division of the courts into two separate systems, one federal and one state, with each of the fifty states having its own courts
81
trial court
the level of court in which a case starts or is first tried
82
circuit courts
the appeals (appellate) courts of the federal court system that review decisions of the lower (district) courts; also called courts of appeals
83
courts of appeals
the appellate courts of the federal court system that review decisions of the lower (district) courts; also called circuit courts
84
district courts
the trial courts of the federal court system where cases are tried, evidence is presented, and witness testimony is heard
85
precedent
the principles or guidelines established by courts in earlier cases that frame the ongoing operation of the courts, steering the direction of the entire system
86
senatorial courtesy
an unwritten custom by which the president consults the senators in the state before nominating a candidate for a federal vacancy there, particularly for court positions
87
stare decisis
the principle by which courts rely on past decisions and their precedents when making decisions in new cases
88
Besides the Supreme Court, there are lower courts in the national system called ________.
district and circuit courts
89
The justices of the Supreme Court are ________.
nominated by the president and confirmed by the Senate
90
The Supreme Court consists of ________.
one chief justice and eight associate justices
91
A case will be placed on the Court’s docket when ________ justices agree to do so.
four
92
The lawyer who represents the federal government and argues cases before the Supreme Court is the ________.
solicitor general
93
amicus curiae
literally a “friend of the court” and used for a brief filed by someone who is interested in but not party to a case
94
associate justice
a member of the Supreme Court who is not the chief justice
95
brief
a written legal argument presented to a court by one of the parties in a case
96
chief justice
the highest-ranking justice on the Supreme Court
97
conference
closed meeting of the justices to discuss cases on the docket and take an initial vote
98
docket
the list of cases pending on a court’s calendar
99
oral argument
words spoken before the Supreme Court (usually by lawyers) explaining the legal reasons behind their position in a case and why it should prevail
100
Rule of Four
a Supreme Court custom in which a case will be heard when four justices decide to do so
101
solicitor general
the lawyer who represents the federal government and argues some cases before the Supreme Court
102
writ of certiorari
an order of the Supreme Court calling up the records of the lower court so a case may be reviewed; sometimes abbreviated cert.
103
concurring opinion
an opinion written by a justice who agrees with the Court’s majority opinion but has different reasons for doing so
104
dissenting opinion
an opinion written by a justice who disagrees with the majority opinion of the Court
105
judicial activism
a judicial philosophy in which a justice is more likely to overturn decisions or rule actions by the other branches unconstitutional, especially in an attempt to broaden individual rights and liberties
106
judicial restraint
a judicial philosophy in which a justice is more likely to let stand the decisions or actions of the other branches of government
107
majority opinion
an opinion of the Court with which more than half the nine justices agree
108
When using judicial restraint, a judge will usually ________.
defer to the decisions of the elected branches of government
109
Which of the following is a check that the legislative branch has over the courts?
- Senate approval is needed for the appointment of justices and federal judges. - Congress may rewrite a law the courts have declared unconstitutional. - Congress may withhold funding needed to implement court decisions.
110
________ dictate the terms and conditions state governments would have to meet in order to qualify for financial assistance in a specific policy area.
Categorical grants
111
true or false Dillon’s Rule gives local governments the freedom and flexibility to make decisions for themselves.
False
112
charter
a document that provides a framework and detailed account of local government responsibilities and areas of authority
113
Dillon’s Rule
a legal principle that holds state power and actions above those of local governments and declares state governments to be sovereign relative to local governments
114
expressed powers
those powers specifically provided to the Congress and the president in the U.S. Constitution
115
home rule
principle that provides local governments some degree of independence from the state government, typically detailed in a charter
116
implied powers
those powers not specifically detailed in the U.S. Constitution but inferred as necessary to achieve the objectives of the national government
117
In a ________ political culture, the government is seen as a mechanism for maintaining the existing social order or status quo.
traditionalistic
118
individualistic political culture
a culture that views the government as a mechanism for addressing issues that matter to individual citizens and for pursuing individual goals
119
moralistic political culture
a culture that views the government as a means to better society and promote the general welfare
120
traditionalistic political culture
a culture that views the government as necessary to maintaining the existing social order or the status quo
121
amendatory veto
a veto that allows a governor to send a bill back to the legislature with a message requesting a specific amendment
122
delegate legislator
a legislator who represents the will of those who elected him or her to office and acts in their expressed interest, even when it goes against a personal belief about what is ultimately in the constituency’s best interest
123
formal powers
those powers a governor may exercise that are specifically outlined in the state constitution or state law
124
line-item veto
a state governor’s ability to strike out a line or individual portions of a bill while letting the remainder pass into law
125
pardon
a governor’s action to absolve someone of blame for a crime and secure his or her release from prison
126
reduction veto
a governor’s authority to reduce the amount budgeted in a piece of legislation
127
trustee
an officeholder who believes he or she was elected to exercise judgment and to know best by virtue of having the time and expertise to study and understand an issue
128
In a ________ legislature, members tend to have low salaries, shorter sessions, and few staff members to assist them with their legislative functions.
citizen
129
Term limits have produced a statistically significant increase in the number of women serving in state legislatures
false
130
consecutive term limits
caps allowing a member of the legislature to serve for only a specified period of time in either the state house or senate and forcing a wait before the member can run again
131
lifetime ban
a rule that members can serve only one time in the state legislature for the number of years allotted and may not run again
132
term limits
rules that restrict the length of time a member can serve in the state legislature
133
Under the mayor-council system, the ________.
legislative and executive responsibilities are separated
134
What are the primary responsibilities of municipal governments?
providing clean water as well as sewage and garbage disposal. They maintain city facilities, such as parks, streetlights, and stadiums. In addition, they address zoning and building regulations, promote economic development, and provide law enforcement, public transportation, and fire protection.
135
commission system
an elected commission that serves as the governing body within a given county
136
council-administrator system
an elected council that appoints an administrator to oversee the operation of the county government
137
council-elected executive system
a county government in which voters elect both the members of the council and the executive
138
council-manager system
a structure of government in which elected members of the city council appoint a city manager to carry out administrative functions
139
mayor-council system
a structure of government in which both city council members and the mayor are elected by voters
140
During George Washington’s administration, there were ________ cabinet positions.
four
141
Two recent periods of large-scale bureaucratic expansion were ________.
the 1930s and the 1960s
142
bureaucracy
an administrative group of nonelected officials charged with carrying out functions connected to a series of policies and programs
143
bureaucrats
the civil servants or political appointees who fill nonelected positions in government and make up the bureaucracy
144
civil servants
the individuals who fill nonelected positions in government and make up the bureaucracy; also known as bureaucrats
145
merit system
a system of filling civil service positions by using competitive examinations to value experience and competence over political loyalties
146
patronage
the use of government positions to reward individuals for their political support
147
public administration
the implementation of public policy as well as the academic study that prepares civil servants to work in government
148
spoils system
a system that rewards political loyalties or party support during elections with bureaucratic appointments after victory
149
The Civil Service Commission was created by the ________.
Pendleton Act of 1883
150
Briefly explain the benefits and drawbacks of a merit system.
A benefit of the merit system is that it helps to ensure the most qualified applicants are given the position. A drawback is that the bureaucracy is less responsive to the will of elected leaders than under patronage.
151
pay schedule
a chart that shows salary ranges for different levels of positions vertically and for different ranks of seniority horizontally
152
Which of the following models of bureaucracy best accounts for the way bureaucracies tend to push Congress for more funding each year?
the acquisitive model
153
An example of a government corporation is ________.
Amtrak
154
government corporation
a corporation that fulfills an important public interest and is therefore overseen by government authorities to a much larger degree than private businesses
155
red tape
the mechanisms, procedures, and rules that must be followed to get something done
156
Briefly explain why government might create a government corporation.
Congress tends to create government corporations to perform services that respond to market forces but are too important to the public to be allowed to fail.
157
negotiated rulemaking
a rulemaking process in which neutral advisors convene a committee of those who have vested interests in the proposed rules and help the committee reach a consensus on them
158
privatization
measures that incorporate the market forces of the private sector into the function of government to varying degrees
159
whistleblower
a person who publicizes misdeeds committed within a bureaucracy or other organization
160
public policy
the broad strategy government uses to do its job; the relatively stable set of purposive governmental behaviors that address matters of concern to some part of society
161
Which type of policy directly benefits the most citizens?
regulatory policy
162
distributive policy
a policy that collect payments or resources broadly but concentrates direct benefits on relatively few
163
free-market economics
a school of thought that believes the forces of supply and demand, working without any government intervention, are the most effective way for markets to operate
164
libertarians
people who believe that government almost always operates less efficiently than the private sector and that its actions should be kept to a minimum
165
redistributive policy
a policy in which costs are born by a relatively small number of groups or individuals, but benefits are expected to be enjoyed by a different group in society
166
regulatory policy
a policy that regulates companies and organizations in a way that protects the public
167
Social Security and Medicare are notable for their assistance to which group?
the elderly
168
entitlement
a program that guarantees benefits to members of a specific group or segment of the population
169
Medicaid
a health insurance program for low-income citizens
170
Medicare
an entitlement health insurance program for older people and retirees who no longer get health insurance through their work
171
safety net
a way to provide for members of society experiencing economic hardship
172
Social Security
a social welfare policy for people who no longer receive an income from employment
173
Policy analysts seek ________.
evidence
174
bottom-up implementation
a strategy in which the federal government allows local areas some flexibility to meet their specific challenges and needs in implementing policy
175
Congressional Budget Office
the congressional office that scores the spending or revenue impact of all proposed legislation to assess its net effect on the budget
176
policy advocates
people who actively work to propose or maintain public policy
177
policy analysts
people who identify all possible choices available to a decision maker and assess the potential impact of each
178
top-down implementation
a strategy in which the federal government dictates the specifics of public policy and each state implements it the same exact way
179
A deficit is ________.
the annual budget shortfall between revenues and expenditures
180
When times are tough economically, what can the government do to get the economy moving again?
A Keynesian approach would recommend deficit spending to stimulate the economy. Supply-side economists would advocate cutting taxes to get more money flowing in the economy.
181
debt
the total amount the government owes across all years
182
deficit
the annual amount by which expenditures are greater than revenues
183
discretionary spending
government spending that Congress must pass legislation to authorize each year
184
excise taxes
taxes applied to specific goods or services as a source of revenue
185
Keynesian economics
an economic policy based on the idea that economic growth is closely tied to the ability of individuals to consume goods
186
laissez-faire
an economic policy that assumes the key to economic growth and development is for the government to allow private markets to operate efficiently without interference
187
mandatory spending
government spending earmarked for entitlement programs guaranteeing support to those who meet certain qualifications
188
progressive tax
a tax that tends to increase the effective tax rate as the wealth or income of the tax payer increases
189
recession
a temporary contraction of the economy in which there is no economic growth for two consecutive quarters
190
regressive tax
a tax applied at a lower overall rate as individuals’ income rises
191
supply-side economics
an economic policy that assumes economic growth is largely a function of a country’s productive capacity
192
Why are foreign policy issues more complicated than domestic policy issues?
The international environment is unpredictable.
193
The goals of U.S. foreign policy include ________.
- keeping the country safe - securing access to foreign markets - protecting human rights
194
balance of power
a situation in which no one nation or region is much more powerful militarily than any other in the world
195
balance of trade
the relationship between a country’s inflow and outflow of goods
196
Cold War
the period from shortly after World War II until approximately 1989–1990 when advanced industrial democracies divided behind the two superpowers (East: Soviet Union, West: United States) and the fear of nuclear war abounded
197
diplomacy
the establishment and maintenance of a formal relationship between countries
198
foreign policy
a government’s goals in dealing with other countries or regions and the strategy used to achieve them
199
free trade
a policy in which a country allows the unfettered flow of goods and services between itself and other countries
200
hard power
the use or threat of military power to influence the behavior of another country
201
North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO)
a cross-national military organization with bases in Belgium and Germany formed to maintain stability in Europe
202
protectionism
a policy in which a country does not permit other countries to sell goods and services within its borders or charges them very high tariffs (import taxes) to do so
203
soft power
nonmilitary tools used to influence another country, such as economic sanctions
204
United Nations (UN)
an international organization of nation-states that seeks to promote peace, international relations, and economic and environmental programs
205
congressional executive agreement
an international agreement that is not a treaty and that is negotiated by the president and approved by a simple majority of the House and Senate
206
sole executive agreement
an international agreement that is not a treaty and that is negotiated and approved by the president acting alone
207
treaty
an international agreement entered by the United States that requires presidential negotiation with other nation(s), consent by two-thirds of the Senate, and final ratification by the president
208
true or false: A sole executive agreement is likely to be in effect longer than is a treaty.
false
209
The War Powers Resolution ________.
strengthened presidential war powers
210
Which types of foreign policy outputs have more impact, broadly conceived ones or sharply focused ones? Why?
Broadly conceived foreign policy outputs tend to have a longer impact overall because of their permanence, though sharply focused foreign policy outputs can have more impact in the short term.
211
two presidencies thesis
the thesis by Wildavsky that there are two distinct presidencies, one for foreign and one for domestic policy, and that presidents are more successful in foreign than domestic policy
212
Why do House members and senators tend to be less active on foreign policy matters than domestic ones?
Constituents are more directly affected by domestic policy topics than foreign ones.
213
containment
the effort by the United States and Western European allies, begun during the Cold War, to prevent the spread of communism
214
isolationism
a foreign policy approach that advocates a nation’s staying out of foreign entanglements and keeping to itself
215
liberal internationalism
a foreign policy approach of becoming proactively engaged in world affairs by cooperating in a community of nations
216
neoconservatism
the belief that, rather than exercising restraint, the United States should aggressively use its might to promote its values and ideals around the world
217
neo-isolationism
a policy of distancing the United States from the United Nations and other international organizations, while still participating in the world economy
218
selective engagement
a policy of retaining a strong military presence and remaining engaged across the world
219
The U.S. policy of containment during the Cold War related to keeping ________.
communism from spreading
220
What are the pros and cons of the neoconservative foreign policy approach followed in recent decades?
The pros are that the United States is less bogged down in international process and can move more quickly to squelch conflict. The cons are that the United States, in acting alone, might offend other countries that would prefer everyone act together, and that the country might decide to go directly to military-based solutions rather than using diplomacy.
221
What was the trigger event in this episode?
A change in the weather that led to the medieval mini ice age
222
Why does the chimney rate such an important mention in this chapter?
The chimney led to deep and long lasting social stratification.
223
Which kind of radiation is blocked by glass?
Infra-Red Radiation
224
What happens to Visible light once it passes through a glass window and enters a closed room?
The light bounces around, gets converted to Infra-red and gets trapped.
225
Which essential idea allows us to explain the change in frequency of light once it bounces?
Light has dual character: it can behave like a particle or a wave. For electromagnetic waves like light, Energy and frequency are directly related.
226
Who invented the steam engine?
No one person can be credited with the invention of the steam engine.
227
How does a Steam Engine work?
The steam condenses in the cylinder creating a vacuum that pulls the piston in.
228
How did the steam engine change humans genetically?
It allowed humans to traverse long distances quickly that allowed them to marry farther from where they lived, mixing the gene pool.
229
Which of the following is a difference between the steam engine and the gasoline engine?
The steam engine is an external combustion and the gasoline engine is an internal combustion engine.
230
Which of the following ideas was used to create the automobile engine?
Voltas' idea of using an electric spark to create an explosion. Using a scent spray to mix fuel with air and spray it into the combustion chamber. Using liquid gasoline as a fuel.
231
Which principle underlies the working of the scent spray and the carburetor?
Bernoulli's Principle
232
Which modern technology does chapter 6 end with?
jet travel
233
What important conclusion may we draw from information about the medieval mini ice age?
Global climate is highly sensitive to very small changes in Earth's global average temperature.
234
What is the difference between 'quartz' and 'glass'?
Quartz has a crystalline structure while glass does not.
235
Since extremely high temperatures are required to melt sand to make glass, can any natural process occur that makes glass without human intervention?
Yes, lightning strikes can create high temperatures making natural glass.
236
The transparent glass window was probably invented by the ______
romans
237
Transparent glass perfected by the Romans was constantly improved in Europe. The author mentions that because the Chinese showed no interest in glass they probably missed out on some interesting inventions that use glass. Which were these inventions?
telescopes
238
Which other fields owe a lot to the invention and perfection of transparent glass making technologies?
Wine and Beer fermentation Chemistry bio
239
The author Mark Miodownik in his book "Stuff Matters", mentions some interesting social and emotional consequences arising out of the widespread use of glass. Which one below did he mention?
The falling cost of mirrors has lead to more narcissistic people in the modern day.
240
What is the difference between an 'element' and a 'compound'?
A compound is formed when two or more elements combine chemically.
241
What is the difference between 'compounds' and 'mixtures'?
If substances are mixed but they do not combine chemically, we call it a mixture, but if the substances combine chemically, it is called a compound.
242
What are valence electrons?
The outermost electrons in an atom.
243
Why do elements form bonds?
To have a completely filled valence shell.
244
What are the two types of chemical bonds?
Ionic and covalent bonds.
245
Which kind of bond does the carbon atom form?
covalent
246
What is a polymer?
A large molecule formed by linking many copies of a single molecule in a chain.
247
Among the many interesting bits of information in this chapter is one that explains what 'copper bottom' means. What does it mean?
A financially safe investment.
248
Why did the phrase 'copper bottom' come to mean a safe investment?
Because ships with hulls covered with copper lasted longer.
249
Which finance related technological innovations have been mentioned in this course so far?
Categorizing risks that allowed the invention of insurance. This allowed entrepreneurs to offload risk on another agency.The idea of sharing costs and also the profits thereby reducing risks on any one entity. The invention of currency as a means of exchange and trade.
250
Which of the following is an example of insurance agencies modifying our market preferences?
Offering much lower insurance rates on automobiles with better safety devices. Increasing insurance rates on drivers with bad driving records. Offering much lower insurance rates on home insurance for homes with fire retardants.
251
One consequence of trying to make tar from coal was the discovery of town gas from coal. What was one positive offshoot of this?
Town gas was used for widespread illumination that led to safer streets and higher literacy.
252
Why were the botanists in England not interested in growing rubber in English colonies?
They were too busy trying to grow the plant from which quinine is extracted.
253
The author mentioned that an Englishman, William Perkins, accidently discovered an artificial dye but Britian did not capitalize on this discovery. As a consequence Britain lost out on being a leader in which important 20th century technology?
chem techologies
254
The author of the video series also mentions an interesting reason why the German chemists had an advantage over the British in commercializing their laboratory inventions and discoveries.
Close collaboration between industries and universities.
255
Why did the German chemists turn their energies from color to making fertilizer?
Germany needed wheat and growing wheat in Germany needs a lot of fertilizer.
256
The discovery that calcium carbide can be used to manufacture inflammable acetylene gas triggered investment in ways to use it to manufacture lighting but it never got off the ground. Why?
Electricity became cheap and was used for lighting instead.
257
The Haber-Bosch process which was invented to make fertilizer was ultimately never used commercially to manufacture fertilizer. Why?
All the leftover calcium carbide from the acetylene process was used as fertilizer.
258
According to the author, why might have WW1 ended in a year?
Germany did not have enough raw material to manufacture more than a year's supply of explosives.
259
Why didn't WW1 actually end in a year?
The Haber-Bosch process gave Germany the ability to manufacture explosives.
260
Should our government fund commercial enterprises conducting novel research even if foreign competitors offer the same products at a cheaper price?
no
261
The author of the book 'Stuff Matters' mentions that he got into an argument with someone over the use of plastics in movie theaters. The author mentioned that the use of plastics was rather fitting in a movie theater. Why did he think that in the context of movies, usage of plastics was quite appropriate?
The technology of moviemaking became simplified after the plastic celluloid was used as the basic material for manufacturing photographic film.
262
In addition to being used for photographic film, the new plastic material was also used as a replacement for which natural material?
ivory
263
According to the author, what was the cause of frequent and rash wars during the medieval period?
The availability of easy credit to the rulers.
264
What was a consequence of these more frequent and rash wars?
Wars became more destructive. There was more 'collateral damage'. The armies became larger and more organized.
265
What was the importance of Chicken Marengo in this story?
Napoleon's realization that feeding his large army was a strategic issue.
266
Why couldn't Napoleon's soldiers just buy their food?
The money they had was not accepted by the locals.
267
According to the author, what provided the impetus for finding solutions to food preservation?
Feeding a large army on the move.
268
What was thought, at the time when it was first discovered, to be the cause of spoiled canned meat?
bad air
269
What is the actual cause of food spoilage?
bacteria
270
Which of the following is an essential idea used in refrigeration?
A substance that expands or evaporates will absorb heat from its surroundings.
271
In a refrigeration system, why is the gas (or the refrigerant) compressed?
So that it may expanded to lower its pressure.
272
In a cooling system, is compression and expansion carried out in the same location?
no
273
In addition to food preservation, what other important use of refrigeration is mentioned by the author?
Liquefying gases.
274
Which modern technology does chapter 8 end with?
Rocket propulsion.
275
What is the difference between using a fuel for rocket propulsion in outer space as opposed to using it for another purpose on Earth?
Rockets in outer space need to carry their fuel and oxidizer while engines on Earth only need fuel as the oxidizer is widely available in the atmosphere.
276
Which of the following was an architectural response to the development of the canon?
bastions
277
How was a canon used to hit targets at different distances?
By changing the angle of the barrel.
278
A bullet is fired horizontally from a gun and just as it exits the barrel, another identical bullet is dropped from the same height as the barrel of the gun. If we ignore air resistance then which bullet will hit the ground first?
Both will reach the ground together.
279
Which of the following happens when the projection angle of a projectile is changed?
Its time of flight changes Its starting horizontal speed changes. Its starting vertical speed changes.
280
Which of the following is a difference between a flying airplane and a satellite orbiting the Earth?
The airplane is held up by a force while the satellite is in free fall.
281
What do we mean by saying an object is weightless?
There is no force supporting the object against falling under gravity.
282
What is the connection between the development of mapmaking and artillery?
Using canons required the use of sophisticated surveying instruments that were also used in making maps.
283
A method commonly used by surveyors to measure far off distances is called
triangulation
284
Which development finally solved the problem of insufficiently bright light?
Light produced by heating limestone.
285
In this chapter the author mentions that the major invention he is talking about had four parts that were put together. One of these was a light source. Which of the following was another?
The idea that viewing pictures in quick succession creates the illusion of motion.
286
How do the explosive Billiard balls tie into this story?
The shell of these billiard balls was used to make celluloid on which pictures were recorded in quick succession.
287
Who put together the modern invention talked about in this chapter?
Thomas Edison.
288
Three of the 4 parts on this invention, that is, a light source, celluloid film and viewing pictures quickly, were already there. What was the fourth part that Edison combined with three that already existed?
Converting sound into electromagnetic signals and recording them.
289
What major invention did Edison put together?
The movie camera.
290
Which major modern invention does chapter 9 end with?
television
291
Thomas Edison gets a very strong mention in this episode. There were four major principles central to Edison's philosophy of innovation. One was to develop products that would have demand. Another was to get financial backing before beginning development. What were the other two?
Advertise the product extensively and put the profits back into developing and improving the product.
292
Ch 6 in the book "Stuff Matters" presents another interesting perspective on the invention of celluloid, and it's association with the movie business. As pointed out in this chapter, Hyatt was sued for patent infringement by someone called Spill from England regarding his development of celluloid. What exactly was that case about?
That the process used by Hyatt to manufacture celluloid had been pioneered by Spill.
293
As mentioned in the book, other people before Hyatt had already invented artificial materials similar to celluloid. What then was so special about celluloid that made it so successful commercially?
Celluloid was the only 'early' plastic that could be molded into various shapes.
294
Which natural material did celluloid replace?
ivory
295
The video presents celluloid as an invention that pertains to the movie business while the book suggests it as a major development in the field of chemistry and plastics. What might we conclude from this divergence of opinions?
No technology, or field of study, develops in straight lines. Products often find use in fields that don't seem to have any connection with it.
296
Movie cameras no longer use celluloid film to capture images, yet the word celluloid, although technically referring to a particular plastic, is associated with the movie business in popular language. Do you think this association of the word celluloid with movies will continue? If so, for how many years?
Yes, but not for long, perhaps 100 years
297
During this course the author has tried to trace the developments that led to 8 'modern' inventions. Which of the following is NOT in his list of 8 modern inventions?
Digital Cameras
298
Which of the following do you think should be added to the list?
internet
299
Which of the following inventions should be deleted from this list?
None of these choices should be deleted.
300
One conclusion that can be drawn from this series is that
every technological change or improvement acts as a trigger for further technological change.
301
Which of the following are NOT considered to be a trigger for change?
Exceptional intelligence
302
Which choice below can be used to illustrate how religion acts as a trigger for technological change?
Development of clocks.
303
What kind of trigger initiated the development of food preservation?
War / Military needs
304
Considering what you were exposed to in this course, what is the best choice to complete the following sentence: 'Technological developments _______ '
are very hard to predict.
305
The author used an interesting metaphor to explain why it is hard to predict how technologies might evolve. What was the metaphor?
Trying to fit a jigsaw puzzle without having all the pieces.
306
How an idea or invention ends up being used is difficult to predict. So, to decide where to put our limited resources is a tough job. Which method below is the best way for us to do this?
Most of the public should try to be knowledgeable about these issues and involve themselves in these decisions.
307
Why did public support and enthusiasm for the Apollo and other space missions decline?
Lack of understanding of scientific goals of these missions.
308
Why does most of the public lack an understanding of basic scientific advances that our society is making?
Excessive use of specialized technical language (jargon) makes understanding these topics difficult.
309
Why do technical fields use so much jargon?
Because they have to be precise.
310
Which factor is important in deciding the pace of change?
communication
311
The author outlines an essential dilemma facing our modern day civilization: On the one hand, developments of new technologies and their greater spread depletes and destroys scarce resources. On the other, without these technologies the standard of living of the common person would not be as high as it is today. Which method below is the best way to resolve this problem?
We should collectively decide which technologies to support.