FinancialReporting (FR) Flashcards

QuestionBank/ BPP/ Kaplan/ Mock/ Extras

1
Q

(QUESTION BANK)
Heron purchased a property for $2.5 million on 1 October 20X9. The property had a useful life of twenty years. On 1 October 20Y3, the property was revalued to $4 million. Its useful life
remained unchanged. On 30 September 20Y4, the property was sold for $4.5 million.

=> Calculate the profit on disposal that should be included in profit or loss for the year ended 30 September 20Y4.

A

$750,000

=> CV @30.Dec.20Y4= [4m- (4m/16)]
= 3.75m
Sales Proceeds= 4.5m
∴ Profit on Disposal= 0.75m
= $750,000

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2
Q

(QUESTION BANK)
Alton purchased an item of plant for $440,000 on 1 October 20X4. The useful life was anticipated as being eight years and the residual value was estimated as $120,000. Alton depreciates plant on a straight line basis. The residual value was still considered to be $120,000
at 1 October 20X8 but the remaining useful life was reassessed to be five years.

=> Calculate the depreciation charge for the item of plant for the current year to 30 September 20X9

A

$32,000

=> CV @1.Oct.20X8= [440k-(440k-120k/8)*4]
= 280k
∴ Dep. @30.Sep.20X9= (280k-120k/5)
= 32k
= $32,000

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3
Q

(QUESTION BANK)
A cash generating unit (CGU) has assets with the following carrying amounts: (in $000)
Goodwill —————500
Other intangible assets —————250
Property, plant and equipment —————1,750
=2,500

The recoverable amount of the CGU has been assessed at $1,800,000. The other intangible assets have a combined fair value less costs of disposal of $220,000.

=> How much of the impairment loss should be allocated to property, plant and equipment?

A

$175,000

=> [Before, Impairment and After calculation. No change to values since given RA ($220k) is lower then recorded RA ($225k)]

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4
Q

(QUESTION BANK)
On 1 October 20X9 Bamford purchased an office building for $1.4 million. At that date it had an estimated useful life of 25 years. During 20Y1 Bamford began to let the building to a third party, reclassifying it as an investment property and adopting the fair value model. On 1 July 20Y4, Bamford began to use the office block for its own operations again. An independent valuer estimated that useful life of the building was 25 years from 1 July 20Y4 and provided the following additional information:
Fair value of the property: (in $000)
At 1 October 20Y3 —————2,100
At 1 July 20Y4 —————1,900
At 30 September 20Y4 —————1,950
Bamford has adopted the cost model for all other items of property, plant and equipment.

=> What is the total charge to profit or loss in respect of the office building for the year ended 30 September 20Y4?

A

$219,000

=> Total expense in PnL:
+Loss on IP—————-200k
+Depreciation————–19k
TOTAL————————$219k

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5
Q

(QUESTION BANK)
Riley acquired a non-current asset on 1 October 20X9 at a cost of $100,000 which had a useful economic life of ten years and a nil residual value. The asset had been correctly depreciated up to 30 September 20Y4. At that date the asset was damaged and an impairment review was performed. On 30 September 20Y4, the fair value of the asset less costs to sell was $30,000 and
the expected future cash flows were $8,500 per annum for the next five years. The current cost of capital is 10% and a five-year annuity of $1 per annum at 10% would have a present value of
$3.79.

=> What amount would be charged to profit or loss for the impairment of this asset for the year ended 30 September 20Y4?

A

$17,785

=> CV @30.Sep.20Y4= 50k «

  NRV @30.Sep.20Y4= 30k
  Value in Use= 8.5k * 3.79
                        = 33,215 <<

  ∴Impairment (PnL)= 50,000- 33,215     
                                   = $17,785
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6
Q

(QUESTION BANK)
Tibet acquired a new office building on 1 October 20X4. Its initial carrying amount consisted of: (in $000)

Land————— 2,000
Building structure————— 10,000
Air conditioning system————— 4,000
TOTAL—————16,000

The estimated lives of the building structure and air conditioning system are 25 years and 10 years respectively. When the air conditioning system is due for replacement, it is estimated that the old system will be dismantled and sold for $500,000. Depreciation is time apportioned where appropriate.

=> At what amount will the office building be shown in Tibet’s statement of financial position as at 31 March 20X5?

A

$15,625

=> (Time apportion all amounts except land)
2m+ 9.8m+ 3.8m+ 0.025m= $15,625

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7
Q

(QUESTION BANK)
The following trial balance extract elates to a property which is owned by Veeton as at 1 April 20X4: (in $000)
Property at cost (20-year original life)————— 12,000
Accumulated depreciation as at 1 April 20X4————— 3,600
On 1 October 20X4, following a sustained increase in property prices, Veeton revalued its property to $10.8 million.

=> Calculate the depreciation charge in Veeton’s statement of profit or loss for the year ended 31 March 20X5?

A

$700,000

=> Dep. @01.Oct.20X4= (12,000/20)6/12
=$300,000
Dep. from revaluation date to @31.Mar.20X5= (10,800/13.5)
6/12
= $400,000
Total Dep. @31.Mar.20X5= 400k + 300k
= $700,000

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8
Q

(BPP)
Which TWO of the following statements about accounting for government grants are true?

(A) A government grant related to the purchase of an asset must be deducted from the carrying amount of the asset in the statement of financial position

(B) A government grant related to the purchase of an asset should be recognised in profit or loss over the life of the asset

(C) Free marketing advice provided by a government department is excluded from the definition of government grants

(D) Any required repayment of a government grant received in an earlier reporting period is treated as prior period adjustment

A

(B) A government grant related to the purchase of an asset should be recognised in profit or loss over the life of the asset

(C) Free marketing advice provided by a government department is excluded from the definition of government grants

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9
Q

(QUESTION BANK)
An entity measures an asset at the present value of the cash flows expected to derive from its
use and ultimate disposal.

=> What measurement basis does this describe?
(A) Current cost
(B) Fair value
(C) Net realisable value
(D) Value in use

A

(D) Value in use

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10
Q

(QUESTION BANK)
Thompson commenced the development stage of a project to produce a new type of building insulation on 1 February 20X4. On 1 April 20X4 the directors obtained the additional finance without which it would have been impossible to complete the project. Expenditure of $30,000 per month was incurred until the project was completed on 31 August 20X4. The new material went into immediate production on 1 September 20X4 and is expected to be profitable for at least four years. Thompson time-apportions depreciation and ammortisation charges where applicable.

=> What amount will Thompson charge to profit or loss for development costs, including any ammortisation, for the year ended 30 September 20X4?

A

$63,125

=> Feb. to Mar.= 30k2= 60k
Ammortisation (Apr. to Sep.)
= 30k
5*1/12
= 3,125
∴ Total expense to PnL= 60k+ 3,125
= $63,125

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11
Q

(BPP)
Drexler acquired an item of plant on 1 October 20X2 at cost o $500,000. It has a useful life of five years (straight-line depreciation) and an estimated residual value of 10% of its historical cost or current cost as appropriate. As at 30 September 20X4, the manufacturer of the plant still makes the same item of plant and its current price is $600,000.

=> What is the correct carrying amount to be shown in the SOFP of Drexler as at 30 September 20X4 under historical cost and current cost?

A

HC= $320,000
CC= $384,000

=> HC] Depreciation= (500k90%/5)2
= 180k
Carrying amount= 500k- 180k
= $320,000

=> CC] Depreciation= (600k90%/5)2
= 216k
Carrying amount= 500k- 216k
= $384,000

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12
Q

(BPP)
Under current value measurement basis, what is the definition of fulfillment value?

(A) The amount of consideration receive to incur the liability, less transaction costs
(B) The price that would be paid to settle the liability at the measurement date
(C)The consideration that would be received for incurring an equivalent liability at the measurement date
(D) The present value of the estimated cash flows needed to fulfill a liability

A

(A) The amount of consideration receive to incur the liability, less transaction costs

=>(D) The present value of the estimated cash flows needed to fulfill a liability——[MOST PROBABLY]

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13
Q

(EXTRA)
Scold Co reported a profit before tax for the year ending 31 December 20X9 of $118,000.
This was arrived at after charging/crediting the following transactions:

(i) Depreciation on a revalued asset of $15,000 (depreciation based on original cost $10,000)
(ii) An asset previously revalued by $40,000 was sold at a profit of $6,000. The asset was revalued on 31 December 20X8 and sold on 1 January 20X9. Scold Co does not charge any depreciation in the year of disposal.

=> What would the profit before tax have been if Scold Co had followed the cost model in accordance with IAS 16 Property, Plant and Equipment?

A

$163,000

=> Retained profit—————118,000
Additional depreciation —————5,000
Realisation of property revaluations—————40,000
∴ PBT at cost= 118k+ 5k+ 40k
= $163,000

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14
Q

(EXTRA)
Which of the following items could be held at revalued amounts?
(i) Taxi licence
(ii) Airport landing rights
(iii) Specialised plant and equipment
(iv) Drug patent

(A) I and III only
(B) I and II
(C) I, II and III only
(D) All of the above

A

(C) I, II and III only

=> (i), (ii) and (iv) are intangible assets which are likely to have a finite useful life (a set period of time over which they are expected to generate economic benefits).
Therefore, they will be amortised over their useful lives. These intangible assets
should be reviewed on an annual basis to ensure that their carrying amount is
accurate. However, their carrying amounts are also tested for impairment on an annual basis. There is no active market for patents as they are unique, therefore patents are not revalued.
The plant and equipment, which are tangible non-current assets, may be revalued in accordance with IAS 16.
Conversely, if there are signs or indications of impairment, then the carrying amount should be revised to reflect the recoverable amount of the
assets.

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15
Q

(EXTRA)
The following information is available for Judd Co during a year:

(i) Profit for the year—————753,000
(ii) Dividends paid and declared—————27,000
(iii) Fall in value of investment property held under fair value model—————150,000
(iv) Upward revaluation of freehold land and buildings—————68,000
(v) Provision for onerous contracts—————34,000
(vi) Impairment losses on capitalised development costs—————12,000

=> What is the total comprehensive income reported in the statement of profit or loss and other comprehensive income of Judd Co?

A

$821,000

=> Total comprehensive income= 753k+68K= 821,000

(i) This is the total of the profit or loss for the year as per the statement of profit or
loss and other comprehensive income
(ii) Not a gain or loss – equity movement
(iii) Already in (i) [PnL]
(iv) Unrealised gain – recognised in other comprehensive income [OCI]
(v) Already in (i)
(vi) Already in (i)

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16
Q

(EXTRA)
IAS 16 Property, Plant and Equipment requires property, plant and equipment to be depreciated using:

(A) The straight-line method or any similar method
(B) The straight-line or reducing balance method
(C) A method that allocates the cost to match the expected pattern of benefits
(D) A method that allocates the depreciable amount to match the expected pattern of benefits

A

(D) A method that allocates the depreciable amount to match the expected pattern of benefits

=> ‘The depreciable amount of an item of property, plant and equipment should be allocated on a systematic basis over its useful life’ (IAS 16: para. 50).
‘The depreciation method used shall reflect the pattern in which the asset’s future economic benefits are expected to be consumed by the entity’ (IAS 16: para. 60).

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17
Q

(EXTRA)
Which of the following is necessary for the recognition of a liability under the Conceptual Framework for Financial Reporting?

(i) An obligation must exist at the year end
(ii) The potential economic transfer must result in a payment made in cash
(iii) It must be possible to quantify the amount of the liability
(iv) The potential economic transfer must be highly likely to occur

(A) I only
(B) I and IV only
(C) I, II and III only
(D) I, III and IV only

A

(A) I only

=>To recognise a liability, the obligation does not need to be highly likely or certain, ‘it is only necessary that the obligation already exists, and that, in at least one circumstance, it would require the entity to transfer an economic resource’ (Conceptual Framework: para. 4.37).
However, it does need to represent an
obligation that was in place at the year end.
The obligation does not need to be quantified, instead, the entity must recognise the fact that the obligation exists (as a minimum) even when the value cannot be specified exactly. In such cases, there may be a disclosure note to recognise this fact.
The transfer of economic resources need not be in cash, for example it could
represent the transfer of another non-cash asset or provision of a service.

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18
Q

(EXTRA)
Which of the following is NOT TRUE about the standard-setting process?

(A) A Discussion Paper is only issued if considered necessary by the Board
(B) An IFRS Standard becomes effective if approved by a majority of the International Accounting Standards Board (the Board)
(C) The IFRS Interpretations Committee issues IFRIC Interpretations independently from the Board
(D) An Exposure Draft must be issued before a final IFRS Standard can be issued

A

(C) The IFRS Interpretations Committee issues IFRIC Interpretations independently from the Board

=> IFRS Interpretations must be approved by the Board before issue.

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19
Q

(BPP)
At 30 September 20X9, Sandown Co’s trial balance showed a brand at cost of $30 million, less accumulated amoritisation bought forward at 1 October 20X8 of $9 million. Amortisation is based on a 10-year useful life. An impairment review on 1 April 20X9 concluded that the brand hd a value in use of$12 million and a remaining useful life of three years. However, on the same date Sandown Co. received an offer to purchase the brand for $15 million.

=> What should be the carrying amount of the brand in the statement of financial position of Sandown Co. as at 30 September 20X9? (answer to the nearest $’000.)

A

$12,500

=> NRV—————-15m
Depreciation= 15m6/312
= 2.5m
CV= 15m- 2.5m
= 12.5m
= $12,500

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20
Q

(BPP)
Lichen Co. owns a machine that has a carrying amount of $85,000 at the year end of 31 March 20X9. Its market value is $78,000 and cost of disposal are estimated $2,500. A new machine would cost $150,000. Lichen Co. expects it to produce net cash flow of $30,000 per annum for the next three years. The cost of capital of Lichen Co. is 8%.

=> What is the impairment loss on the machine to be recognised in the financial statements at 31 March 20X9? (Answer to the nearest whole $)

A

$7,687

=> NRV= 78k- 2.5k
= 75,700
Value in use= (30k* 3)/ (1+ 8%)^3
= 77,313———-RA
∴ Impairment= CV-RA= 85,000- 77,313
= $7,687

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21
Q

(BPP)
Riley Co. acquires a non-current asset on1 October 20W9 (ten years before 20X9) at a cost of $100,000 which had a useful life of ten years and a nil residual value. The asset had correctly depreciated up to 30 September 20X4. At that date the asset was damaged and an impairment review was performed. On 30 September 20X4, the fair value of the asset less cost of disposal was $30,000 and the expected future cash flows were $8,500 per annum for the next five years. The current cost of capital is 10% and a five-year annuity of $1 per annum at 10% would have a present value of $3.79.

=>What amount would be charged to profit or loss for the impairment of this asset for the year ended 30 September 20X4?

A
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22
Q

(QUESTION BANK)
Only one of the following four statements is true. Identify that statement, and mark the
remaining ones as false.

(A) All intangible assets must be carried at amortised cost or at an
impaired amount; they cannot be revalued upwards
(B) The development of a new process which is not expected to
increase sales revenues may still be recognised as an intangible
asset
(C) Expenditure on the prototype of a new engine cannot be classified
as an intangible asset because the prototype has been assembled
and has physical substance
(D) Impairment losses for a cash generating unit are first applied to
goodwill and then to other intangible assets before being applied to
tangible assets

A

(B) The development of a new process which is not expected to
increase sales revenues may still be recognised as an intangible
asset

=> Development may either increase revenue of decrease cost.

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23
Q

(QUESTION BANK)
Zayn Co spent $500,000 on 1 January 20X6 sending its key staff on a one-day training course which took place at the beginning of the current financial year. Zayn Co is expected to benefit from this training for the next two years.
This training course was partly funded by a government scheme and Zayn Co received $50,000 from the government before the training commenced. The remaining balance of $50,000 is due
to be received on 31 December 20X7. Current circumstances indicate that the receipt of the second instalment is virtually certain.

=> What amount should be charged to Zayn Co’s statement of profit or loss for the year ended 31 December 20X6 to reflect the above transactions?

A

$400,000

=> Training cost is expensed to PnL
Since second installment is virtually certain, total government grant to be offset to PnL is $100,000

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24
Q

(QUESTION BANK)
Wye acquired 100% of the equity share capital of Derwent on 1 July 20X3. For the year ended 30 June 20X4, the cost of sales of Wye was $250,000 and the cost of sales of Derwent was $130,000.
During the year ended 30 June 20X4, Wye sold goods costing $25,000 to Derwent for $35,000. At the year-end, half these goods were still in inventory.
What is the consolidated cost of sales for the year ended 30 June 20X4?

A

$350,000

=> 250,000 + 130,000 – 35,000 sale + PUP of 5,000 ((35,000 – 25,000) × ½)
Remember to DEDUCT the value of sale/purchase and ADD the PUP adjustment to the cost of
sales in the consolidated statement of profit and loss.

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25
Q

(QUESTION BANK)
Hayes Co owns 80% of the equity shares in Smith Co. For the year ended 30 June 20X9 Hayes Co
made a profit of $400,000 and Smith Co made a profit of $250,000.
During the year, Smith Co sold goods to Hayes Co for $180,000. Smith Co makes a mark-up on
cost of 20% on all sales. At the end of the year, half these goods were still in Hayes Co’s
inventory.
What is the profit attributable to the owners of the parent for the year ended 30 June 20X8?

A

$588,000

=> Year ended 30 June 20X9 = 400&250
PUP ((180,000 × 20/120) ÷ 2) = (15)
Smith Co (80% × 235) =188
Subsidiary= 235
Parent = 400+ 188= 588

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26
Q

(QUESTION BANK)
Paprika Co purchased 75% of the equity share capital of Salt Co on 30 April 20X4. Non controlling
interests are measured at fair value.

The cost of sales of both companies for the year ended 30 April 20X6 are as follows:
Paprika= 60,000
Salt= 100,000

The following additional information is provided:
1. Salt Co had machinery included in its net assets at acquisition with a carrying amount of
$120,000 but a fair value of $200,000. The machinery had a remaining useful life of eight
years at the date of acquisition. All depreciation is charged to cost of sales.
2. During the year, Salt Co sold some goods to Paprika Co for $32,000 at a margin of 25%.
Three-quarters of these goods remained in inventory at the year end.
What is the cost of sales in Paprika Co’s consolidated statement of profit or loss for the year
ended 30 April 20X6?

A

$144,000

=> Paprika= 60,000
Salt= 100,000
Additional depreciation (FV adjustment)= (200,000 – 120,000)/8= 10,000
Intra-group purchases= (32,000)
URP in inventory= (32,000 × 25% x 3/4)= 6,000
TOTAL COS= 144

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27
Q

(QUESTION BANK)
On 1 July 20X5, Pull Co acquired 80% of the equity of Sat Co. At the date of acquisition, goodwill
was valued at $10,000 and the non-controlling interest was measured at fair value. In
conducting the fair value exercise on Sat Co’s net assets at acquisition, Pull Co concluded that
property, plant and equipment with a remaining life of ten years had a fair value of $300,000 in
excess of its carrying amount. Sat Co had not incorporated this fair value adjustment into its
individual financial statements. At the reporting date of 31 December 20X5, the goodwill was
fully impaired. For the year ended 31 December 20X5, Sat Co reported a profit for the year of
$200,000.
What is the Pull Group profit for the year ended 31 December 20X5 that is attributable to
non-controlling interests?

A

$15,000

=> Subsidiary profits= ($200,000 × 6/12)= 100,000
Write-off of goodwill= (10,000)
Additional depreciation= (300,000/10 × 6/12)= (15,000)
TOTAL PROFIT= 75,000
NCI @ 20%= 15,000

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28
Q

(QUESTION BANK)
On 1 January 20X4 Howe purchased an asset for $30,000. It had a useful life of 5 years and was
depreciated on a straight-line basis. On 31 December 20X5 an impairment review showed that
the recoverable amount of the asset was $12,000. Its useful life was unchanged.
On 31 December 20X6, a further review showed that the recoverable amount of the asset had
increased to $15,000.
What is the credit to profit or loss following the reversal of the impairment?

A

$4,000

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29
Q

(QUESTION BANK)
As at 30 September 20X3 Dune’s property in its statement of financial position was:
Property at cost (useful life 15 years) $45 million
Accumulated depreciation $6 million
On 1 April 20X4, Dune decided to sell the property. The property is being marketed by a
property agent at a price of $42 million, which was considered a reasonably achievable price at
that date. The expected costs to sell have been agreed at $1 million. Recent market transactions
suggest that actual selling prices achieved for this type of property in the current market
conditions are 10% less than the price at which they are marketed.
At 30 September 20X4 the property has not been sold.
At what amount should the property be reported in Dune’s statement of financial position as
at 30 September 20X4?

A

$36.8 million

=> CV= 35.7m
NRV= (42m*90%)-1m
= $36.8 million
∴Record= NRV

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30
Q

(QUESTION BANK)
Oriel Co acquired a property on 1 January 20X4. The property cost $5.5m of which $2.2m
related to land. On 1 January 20X9, the property was revalued to $7.6m of which $3.1m related
to land. On 1 January 20X4 the property had a useful life of 25 years and this did not change as a
result of the revaluation.

=> What is the depreciation charge for the year ended 31 December 20X9?

A

$225,000

=> Cost= 7.6m- 3.1m= 4.5m
∴ Depreciation= 4.5m/ 20 years
= $225,000

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31
Q

(QUESTION BANK)
MN obtained a government licence to operate a mine from 1 April 20X7. The licence requires
that, at the end of the mine’s useful life, all buildings must be removed from the site and the
site landscaped. MN estimates that the cost of this decommissioning work will be $1,000,000 in
ten years’ time (present value at 1 April 20X7 $463,000) using a discount factor of 8%.
Calculate the amount that MN should include in provisions in its statement of financial
position as at 31 March 20X8.

A

$500,000

=> @1.Apr.20X7= 463k
Unwinding = 463k * 8%
= 37k
∴ @1Apr.20X8= 463k + 37k
= 500k

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32
Q

(QUESTION BANK)
Flute Co undertakes drilling activities and has a widely publicised environmental policy stating
that it will incur costs to restore land to its original condition once drilling activities have been
completed.
Drilling commenced on a particular piece of land on 1 July 20X8. At this time, Flute Co estimated
that it would cost $3m to restore the land when drilling was completed in five years’ time. Flute
Co’s cost of capital is 7% and the appropriate present value factor is 0.713.

At what amount will the provision for restoration costs be measured in Flute Co’s statement
of financial position as at 31 December 20X8?

A

$2.21m

=>@1.July.20X8 [initial]= 3m * 0.713
= 2.139m
Unwinding= 2.139m * 7%
= 0.075m
∴ @31.Dec.20X8 [y/e]= 2.139m + 0.075m
= 2.214m
= $2.21m

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33
Q

(BPP)
Leclerc Co. has borrowed $2.4 million to finance the building of a factory. The construction is expected to take 2 years. The loan was draw down on 1 January 20X9 and work began on 1 March 20X9. $1 million of the loan was not utilised until 1 July 20X9 so Leclerc was able to invest it until needed.
Leclerc is paying 8% on the loan and can invest the surplus funds at 6%.

=> Calculate the borrowing costs to be capitalised for the year ended 31 December 20X9 in respect of this project.

A

$140,000

=> BC (March-December)= 2.4m * 8% * 10/ 12= 160,000
Investment Income= 1m * 6% * 4/ 12
= 20,000
∴BC @y/e= 160k- 20k= 140k

34
Q

(QUESTION BANK)
An item of equipment cost $60,000 on 1 April 20X5. The equipment is depreciated at 20% per
annum on a reducing balance basis.
Tax depreciation is deductible as follows:
(I) 50% of additions to property, plant and equipment in the accounting period in which
they are recorded;
(II) 25% per year of the written-down value (i.e. cost minus previous allowances) in
subsequent accounting periods except that in which the asset is disposed of.
The income tax rate is 25%.

=> What amount of deferred tax relating to this asset should be recognised in the statement of financial position as at 31 March 20X8?

A

$3,461

=> CA @31.Mar.20X8= 60k* 80%* 80%* 80%= 30,720
TB @31.Mar.20X8= 60k* 50%* 75%* 75%= 16,875
Taxable temp. diff.= 13,845
∴Deferred tax liability= 25%* 13,845
= 3,461

35
Q

(QUESTION BANK)
Which TWO of the following statements regarding deferred taxation are correct?

(A) A gain on the revaluation of an asset only gives rise to a deferred tax liability to the
extent that the entity expects to realise the gain by selling the asset in a future period
(B) A temporary difference arises when the carrying amount of an asset is different from its
value for tax purposes
(C) If an entity makes a tax loss which is carried forward to future periods, it recognises a
deferred tax asset
(D) Non-current deferred tax liabilities cannot be measured at their present value

A

(B) A temporary difference arises when the carrying amount of an asset is different from its value for tax purposes

(D) Non-current deferred tax liabilities cannot be measured at their present value

36
Q

(QUESTION BANK)
A company’s statement of financial position at 31 December 20X4 included land at a cost of
$200,000 and a deferred tax liability of $60,000.
On 1 March 20X5, the land was professionally valued at $250,000. This valuation was
incorporated into the financial statements for the year to 31 December 20X5. No other
non-current assets have been revalued. Other taxable temporary differences increased during
the year to 31 December 20X5 by $40,000. The relevant rate of tax is 20%.

=> What are the balances at 31 December 20X5 on the revaluation surplus and the deferred tax
liability?

A

Revaluation surplus of $40,000 and deferred tax liability of $78,000

=> Rev. Surplus= 50k
Deferred tax of 20% on gain= (10k)
∴ Net amt. to Rev. Surplus= 40k

  DTL op. bal.= 60k
  DTL on rev. gain= 10k
  DT on other temp. def.= 8k ∴ Total DTL= 78k
37
Q

(EXTRA)
Which of the following statements is correct regarding investment properties in accordance with IAS 40 Investment Property?
(1) Transfer of IAS 16 Property to and from an IAS 40. investment property should only be made when there is a change in their use
(2) Transfer from IAS 40 to IAS 16 must be made at the fair value of the investment property at the date of transfer.
(3) An entity should treat any difference between the measurement of an IAS 16 property and the measurement of IAS 40 investment property at the date of transfer as an expense to the profit or loss

(A) Statement 1 only
(B) Both statements 1 & 2
(C) Both statements 2 & 3
(D) Both statements 1 & 3

A

(B) Both statements 1 & 2

=> Difference in measurement when transferring b/w IAS 16 and IAS 40, it must be treated as revaluation.

38
Q

(EXTRA)
Identify whether the following statment is true or false in accordance with IAS 40 Investment Property?

=> If an investment property is held at fair value, this must be applied to all entity’s investment properties.

A

TRUE

39
Q

(EXTRA)
Which 2 of the following statements regarding the reversal of impairment losses are correct?

(A) The reversal of goodwill impairment should be recognised in OCI
(B) The reversal of impairment losses on revalued assets should be recognised in OCI
(C) An impairment loss can only be reversed if there is a change in the estimates used to determine the recoverable amount of the impaired assets
(D) Only impairment losses on NCA can be reversed

A

(B) The reversal of impairment losses on revalued assets should be recognised in OCI

(C) An impairment loss can only be reversed if there is a change in the estimates used to determine the recoverable amount of the impaired assets

=> Goodwill cannot be reversed.
Although Inventory cannot be reversed, reversal on CA is not dead set on the stone to not be reversed

40
Q

(QUESTION BANK)
The following information has been extracted from the financial statements of Coleshill:

Statement of profit or loss for the year ended 31 March
(20X4 & 20X3)
Revenue:
Cash= 10,200 & 21,500
Credit= 63,000 & 34,500
Total in PnL= 73,200 & 56,000

Statement of financial position as at 31 March
(20X4 & 20X3)
Trade receivables= 9,300 & 3,400

During the year, Coleshill has increased its credit period to its customers in the hope of
encouraging higher sales. However, the directors are now concerned that this policy has had an
adverse effect on the company’s cash flow.

=> By what amount would the company’s bank balance have increased if Coleshill’s trade
receivables collection period had remained the same as for the previous year?

A

$3,104,000

=> Trade receivables collection period in 20X3:
3,400/34,500 × 365 = 35.9 days
Applying the 35.9 days collection period to the credit sales made in 20X4, receivables in 20X4
should be X, where:
X/63,000 × 365 = 35.9 days
Therefore X = 63,000 × 35.9/365
X = 6,196. So receivables in 20X4 should be 6,196.
Actual receivables are 9,300. Therefore, the company’s bank balance would increase by
3,104 if these “extra” receivables paid.

41
Q

(QUESTION BANK)
Which of the following statements about a not-for-profit entity is valid?
(A) There is no requirement to calculate an earnings per share figure as it is not likely to have
shareholders who need to assess its earnings performance
(B) The current value of its property, plant and equipment is not relevant as it is not a
commercial entity
(C) Interpretation of its financial performance using ratio analysis is meaningless
(D) Its financial statements will not be closely scrutinised as it does not have any investors

A

(A) There is no requirement to calculate an earnings per share figure as it is not likely to have shareholders who need to assess its earnings performance

=> A not-for-profit entity is not likely to have shareholders or ‘earnings’.

42
Q

(QUESTION BANK)
Which of the following current year events would explain a fall in a company’s operating profit
margin compared to the previous year?

(A) An increase in gearing leading to higher interest costs
(B) A reduction in the allowance for uncollectible receivables
(C) A decision to value inventory on the average cost basis from the first in first out (FIFO) basis. Unit prices of inventory had risen during the current year
(D) A change from the amortisation of development costs being included in cost of sales to
being included in administrative expenses

A

(C) A decision to value inventory on the average cost basis from the first in first out (FIFO) basis. Unit prices of inventory had risen during the current year

=> Is correct as use of average cost gives a higher cost of sales (and in turn lower operating profit) than FIFO during rising prices.

43
Q

(QUESTION BANK)
The following is an extract from the financial statements of SJ for the year to 31 December 20X3: (in $m)
EQUITY AND LIABILITIES (20X3 & 20X2)

Equity:
Share capital= 400 & 200
Share premium= 100 & 150
Revaluation surplus= 140 & 150
Retained earnings= 500 & 450
Total equity= 1,140 & 950

Non-current liabilities
Long-term borrowings= 550 & 600

Which TWO of the following statements about the changes in the capital structure of SJ could
be realistically concluded from the extract provided above?

(A) Gearing in SJ has decreased due to the increase in total equity
(B) Property, plant and equipment has suffered an impairment of $10 million during the year
(C) SJ must have made a profit of $50 million for the year
(D) SJ has repaid long term borrowings of $50 million during the year
(E) There may have been a bonus issue of shares during the year

A

(A) Gearing in SJ has decreased due to the increase in total equity
(E) There may have been a bonus issue of shares during the year

=>The revaluation surplus has decreased, so it is possible that there has been an impairment loss,
but the movement could also have been caused by a disposal of a previously revalued asset, or
by a transfer of excess depreciation to retained earnings.

Retained earnings have increased, so SJ almost certainly did make a profit for the year, but it
was not necessarily a profit of $50 million. SJ may have paid a dividend (which would come out
of retained earnings) and there may have been other transfers to or from the retained earnings
reserve.

Long-term borrowings have fallen, so overall the company has less debt, but it is not possible to
know for certain whether $50 million has actually been repaid. If long-term borrowings include
debt instruments that are measured at amortised cost, the fall of $50 million will be the net of
the finance cost for the year and the actual cash paid.

44
Q

(QUESTION BANK)
Place the following tokens into the highlighted boxes in the table below to correctly reflect the
formulae used to calculate BOTH price earnings (P/E) ratio and dividend cover.

Dividend per share
Dividend yield
Earnings per share
Profit for the year attributable to equity shareholders
Share price

A

Price earnings (P/E) ratio= Share price/ Earnings per share

Dividend cover= Earnings per share/ Dividends per share

45
Q

(QUESTION BANK)
Vista Co is considering the purchase of a 100% subsidiary, Vantage Co. Extracts from the
statement of profit or loss for Vantage Co for the year ended 31 December 20X7 are shown
below: (in $000)

Revenue= 9,400
Cost of sales (including management fees)= (5,800)
Gross profit= 3,600

Vista Co expects that Vantage’s revenue and cost of sales for the year ended 31 December 20X8
will be very similar to those for 20X7 except for the effects of the following changes which will
be made as a result of the acquisition:
(i) Vista Co will supply Vantage Co with goods which Vista Co will sell at a mark up of 20% on
cost. These goods will cost Vantage Co $3 million and will replace identical goods that it
has previously purchased from another supplier at a mark up of 40%.
(ii) Vantage Co will pay an annual management fee of $400,000 to Vista Co.

=> Based on the figures above adjusted for the expected changes as a result of the acquisition,
what is the estimated gross profit margin for Vantage Co for the year ended 31 December
20X8?

A

39.4%

=> (in $000)
Gross profit per question= 3,600
Less goods from Vantage= (3,000)
Add back goods that would have been purchased from previous supplier (W)= 3,500
Less management fee= (400)
Adjusted gross profit= 3,700

GP%: 3,700/9,400 = 39.4%

Working: goods purchased from previous supplier:
Cost to Vista/previous supplier is $2.5m ($3m × 100/120)
Therefore Vantage would have purchased goods from its previous supplier at $3.5 m ($2.5m ×
140/100)

46
Q

(QUESTION BANK)
Fifer Co has a current ratio of 1.2:1 which is below the industry average. Fifer Co wants to
increase its current ratio by the year end.
Which of the following actions, taken before the year end, would lead to an increase in the
current ratio?

(A) Return some inventory which had been purchased for cash and obtain a full refund on
the cost
(B) Make a bulk purchase of inventory for cash to obtain a large discount
(C) Make an early payment to suppliers, even though the amount is not due
(D) Offer early payment discounts in order to collect receivables more quickly

A

(C) Make an early payment to suppliers, even though the amount is not due

=> The lack of numbers in the question was deliberate as it meant that candidates were
required to think of how the ratio was constructed and the way in which transactions can
influence it.
Making an early payment to suppliers would cause an equivalent decrease in both current assets and liabilities, so numerous candidates discounted this thinking it would therefore have no impact on the ratio. By applying simple figures to this, candidates could have seen that it had decreased. For example, if current assets were $120,000 and current liabilities were $100,000, this would give the original current ratio of 1.2:1. If an entity paid $20,000 to
suppliers, this would make current assets $100,000 and current liabilities $80,000, giving a current ratio of 1.25:1.
Many candidates opted for ‘make a bulk purchase of inventory’ here, thinking that the discount would affect things. This would lead to an increase in inventory but equivalent
decrease in cash, meaning that current assets (and therefore the current ratio) was unchanged.
Returning inventory would cause an equivalent movement in inventory and cash, again leaving current assets unchanged.
Offering early payment discounts would actually cause a decrease in the current ratio, as the receivables would decrease more than the cash would increase due to the discount being
offered.

47
Q

(QUESTION BANK)
Which of the following ratios are likely to DECREASE due to a significant revaluation gain on a
depreciating asset at the start of the year?
(1) Return on capital employed (ROCE)
(2) Gearing (debt/equity)
(3) Operating profit margin
(4) Net asset turnover

(A) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(B) 1, 2 and 3 only
(C) 2, 3 and 4 only
(D) 1 and 4 only

A

(A) The correct answer is 1, 2, 3 and 4,

=> The revaluation of a significant asset will cause all 4 ratios to decrease. The revaluation is at the beginning of the year and will affect the depreciation for
the year and therefore operating profit:
ROCE – increased depreciation will reduce profit and capital employed will increase due to the
revaluation surplus but the denominator (including the revaluation surplus) will increase more.
Gearing – increase in equity due to the revaluation surplus will decrease the ratio as debt will
not be affected.
Operating profit margin – reduction in profit due to increased depreciation.
Asset turnover – increase in assets (PPE) due to revaluation even if the asset has one year’s
worth of depreciation.

48
Q

(QUESTION BANK)
Cross issued 200,000 $10 redeemable 5% preference shares at par on 1 April 20X7. Issue costs
amounted to $193,000. The effective rate of interest is 10%. The preference shares are
measured at amortised cost.

What is the carrying amount of the preference shares at 31 March 20X8?

A

$1,888,000

=> (in $000)
Initial cost (200 × $10)= 2,000
Less transaction costs= (193)
Carrying amount at 1 April 20X7= 1,807
Finance cost (10%)= 181
Cash (2,000 × 5%)= (100)
Carrying amount at 31 March 20X8= 1,888

For an amortised cost working remember to ADD the effective interest to and DEDUCT the coupon rate x principal amount to the b/f liability to arrive at the c/f liability.
For financial assets and liabilities held for the long term remember to add transaction costs to the asset and deduct from the liability.

49
Q

(BPP)
Elite Leisure Co is a private limited liability company that operates a single cruise ship. The ship
was acquired on 1 October 20W6 (ten years before 20X6). Details of the cost of the ship’s components and the basis on which they are depreciated is as follows:

(Original cost & Depreciation basis
(in $m))
Ship’s fabric (hull, decks etc)= 300 & 25years straight-line
Cabins and entertainment area fittings= 150& 12years straight-line
Propulsion system= 100 & Useful life of 40,000hours

At 30 September 20X4 no further capital expenditure had been incurred on the ship.
The propulsion system has been used for 30,000 hours at 30 September 20X4. Due to the
unreliability of the engines, a decision was taken in early October 20X4 to replace the whole of
the propulsion system at a cost of $140 million. The useful life of the new propulsion system was
50,000 hours and in the year ended 30 September 20X5 the ship had used the system for
5,000 hours.
At the same time as the propulsion system replacement, Elite Leisure Co took the opportunity to
do a limited upgrade to the facilities at a cost of $60 million and repaint the ship’s fabric at a cost
of $20 million. After the upgrade of the facilities it was estimated that their remaining useful life
was five years (from the date of the upgrade). For the purpose of calculating depreciation, all the
work on the ship can be assumed to have been completed on 1 October 20X4. All residual values
can be taken as nil.

Apart from depreciation, what is the charge to profit or loss for the year ended 30 September 20X5?

A

$45m

=> Repainting+ Loss on disposal=$20m+ $25m

50
Q

(BPP)
State whether each of the following items should be capitalised as an intangible asset or recognised as an expense?

(1) Patent for the new drug
(2) Licence for the new vaccine
(3) Specialist training courses undertaken by Dexterity staff
(4) Temerity Co’s patent on the existing drug currently licenced for use

A

(1) Patent for the new drug= Capitalise
(2)Licence for the new vaccine= Capitalise
(3)Specialist training courses undertaken by Dexterity staff= Expense
(4)Temerity Co’s patent on the existing drug currently licenced for use= Capitalise

51
Q

(BPP)
Dexterity Co is a public listed company. It has been considering the accounting treatment of its
intangible assets and how the matters below should be treated in its financial statements for the
year to 31 March 20X4.
1. On 1 October 20X3 Dexterity Co acquired Temerity Co, a small company that specialises in
pharmaceutical drug research and development. The purchase consideration was by way
of a share exchange and valued at $35 million. The fair value of Temerity Co’s net assets
was $15 million (excluding any items referred to below). Temerity Co owns a patent for an
established successful drug that has a remaining life of eight years. A firm of specialist
advisors, Leadbrand Co, has estimated the current value of this patent to be $10 million,
however the company is awaiting the outcome of clinical trials where the drug has been
tested to treat a different illness. If the trials are successful, the value of the drug is then
estimated to be $15 million. Also included in the company’s statement of financial position
is $2 million for medical research that has been conducted on behalf of a client.
2. Dexterity Co has developed and patented a new drug which has been approved for clinical
use. The costs of developing the drug were $12 million. Based on early assessments of its
sales success, Leadbrand Co have estimated its market value at $20 million, which can be
taken as a reliable measurement.
3. Dexterity Co’s manufacturing facilities have recently received a favourable inspection by
government medical scientists. As a result of this the company has been granted an
exclusive five-year licence to manufacture and distribute a new vaccine. Although the
licence had no direct cost to Dexterity Co, its directors feel its granting is a reflection of the
company’s standing and have asked Leadbrand Co to value the licence. Accordingly, they
have placed a value of $10 million on it.
4. In the current accounting period, Dexterity Co has spent $3 million sending its staff on
specialist training courses. While these courses have been expensive, they have led to a
marked improvement in production quality and staff now need less supervision. This in turn
has led to an increase in revenue and cost reductions. The directors of Dexterity Co believe
these benefits will continue for at least three years and wish to treat the training costs as
an asset.

At what amount should the patent acquired from Temerity Co be valued at
31 March 20X4?

A

$9,375,000

=> $10m – (($10m/8) * 6/12)

52
Q

(QUESTION BANK)
During the year ended 30 September 20X4 Hyper entered into two lease transactions:
On 1 October 20X3, a payment of $90,000 being the first of five equal annual payments in
advance of a lease for an item of plant. The lease has an implicit interest rate of 10%. On 1
October 20X3 (at the beginning of the lease) the present value of the future amount payable
was $285,300.
On 1 January 20X4, a payment of $18,000 for a one-year lease of an item of excavation
equipment. The lease does not contain an option to purchase the equipment.
What amount in total would be charged to Hyper’s statement of profit or loss for the year
ended 30 September 20X4 in respect of the above transactions?

A

$117,090

=> Rental of excavation equipment $13,500 (18 × 9/12)
Depreciation of leased plant $75,060 (375,300/5 years) *
Finance cost $28,530 (285,300 × 10%)
Total $117,090

*Note: asset value = 285,300 + 90,000 = 375,000

53
Q

(QUESTION BANK)
Cornet Co entered into an eight year lease agreement on 1 July 20X4. The lease requires annual
payments of $750,000 in arrears. The present value of the lease payments at 1 July 20X4,
discounted at a rate of 6% is $4,657,500. Additionally, Cornet Co paid directly attributable costs
of $37,500 on 1 July 20X4.
What is the total charge to the statement of profit or loss for the year ended 30 June 20X5 in
respect of the right-of-use asset?

A

$866,325

=> Notice here that the question asks for the total charge to profit or loss. This is made up of
two elements:
(i) depreciation of the asset; and
(ii) a finance charge relating to the lease liability

Depreciation (4,657,500 + 37,500) ÷8years= 586,875
Finance charge (6% × 4,657,500)= 279,450
Total expense in SOPL= 866,325

The amount recognised as a right-to-use asset includes any initial direct costs (directly attributable costs/incremental costs of obtaining the lease).

54
Q

(QUESTION BANK)
Jetsam Co entered into a lease for an item of plant on 1 April 20X0 which required payments of
$15,000 to be made annually in arrears. The present value of the lease payments was estimated
to be $100,650 at the inception of the lease and the rate of interest implicit in the lease was 8%.
Both the lease term and the plant’s estimated useful life was ten years.
What is the total amount that should be charged to profit or loss for the right-of-use asset for
the year ended 31 December 20X0?

A

$13,588

=> Depreciation for the year: $100,650/10 = $10,065
Finance cost for the year: $100,650 × 8% = $8,052
Total charge for the year: $10,065 + $8,052 = $18,117
1 April – 31 December 20X0 = 9 mths so 9/12 × $18,117 = $13,588

55
Q

(QUESTION BANK)
Melia Co enters into a factoring arrangement for a receivable balance of $15m. The agreement
states that Melia Co will receive cash from the factor equal to 90% of the value of the
receivable. The remaining 10% (minus an administration fee) will be received when the
customer settles the balance.
If the receivable remains unpaid after 6 months, Melia Co will have to return the cash advance
and pay the administration fee.
Which of the following statements is correct in respect of the above agreement?

(A) Melia Co should not recognise any administration fee until is it paid.
(B) Melia Co has transferred control of the receivables balance as soon as the cash is
received from the factor.
(C) The initial double entry to record this transaction would be:
Dr Cash $13.5m
Cr Liability $13.5m
(D) An initial expense of $1.5m would be recognised

A

(C) The initial double entry to record this transaction would be
Dr Cash $13.5m
Cr Liability $13.5m

=> The factor is able to recover the cash advance if the customer does not pay after 6 months
(factoring arrangement with recourse). This means that Melia Co has not transferred the risks
and rewards of ownership and should not remove the receivable from its statement of financial
position.
The cash advance should be recognised as a liability as the substance of the arrangement is akin
to a loan secured on the receivables balance. The administration fee is a cost to Melia Co and
should be recognised as an expense.

56
Q

(QUESTION BANK)
Which TWO of the following types of financial instrument should normally be measured at
amortised cost after initial recognition?

(A) Financial assets held within a business model whose objective is to collect contractual cash
flows
(B) Financial liabilities at fair value through profit or loss
(C) Financial liabilities other than those held for trading
(D) Financial assets that are equity investments in other entities
(E) Financial assets held in order to realise a short-term gain

A

(A) Financial assets held within a business model whose objective is to collect contractual cash
flows

(C) Financial liabilities other than those held for trading

57
Q

(QUESTION BANK)
On 1 April 20X6 Pingway acquired a financial asset debt instrument at its nominal value of $12 million.
The instrument carries a fixed coupon interest rate of 7%, which is receivable annually in arrears.
Transaction costs associated with the acquisition were $240,000.

In respect of the financial asset debt instrument, what is the correct adjustment to record the
instrument on initial recognition?

(A) DR Financial asset $11,760,000
CR Bank $11,760,000

(B) DR Financial asset $12,000,000
DR Profit or loss $240,000
CR Bank $12,240,000

(C) DR Financial asset $12,240,000
CR Bank $12,240,000

(D) DR Financial asset $11,760,000
DR Profit or loss $240,000
CR Bank $12,000,000

A

(C) DR Financial asset $12,240,000
CR Bank $12,240,000

=> Initial cost = Price paid + Acquisition costs = $12,000,000 + $240,000 = $12,240,000

58
Q

(QUESTION BANK)
On 28 September 20X4, GY received an order from a new customer, ZZ, for products with a
sales value of $750,000. ZZ enclosed a deposit with the order of $75,000.
On 30 September 20X4, GY had not completed the credit referencing of ZZ and had not
despatched any goods.
Which of the following will correctly record this transaction in GY’s financial statements for
the year ended 30 September 20X4?
(A) Debit Cash $75,000; Credit Revenue $75,000
(B) Debit Cash $75,000; Debit Trade receivables $675,000; Credit Revenue $750,000
(C) Debit Cash $75,000; Credit Deferred revenue $75,000
(D) Debit Trade receivables $750,000; Credit Revenue $750,000

A

(C) Debit Cash $75,000; Credit Deferred revenue $75,000

=> At 30 September 20X4, GY had not yet delivered the goods to the customer (i.e. GY had not yet
satisfied its performance obligation under the contract). Therefore, no sales revenue should be
recognised.

59
Q

(QUESTION BANK)
CF, a contract cleaning entity, signed a contract to provide 12 months’ cleaning of an office
block. The contract for $12,000 commenced on 1 June 20X4. The terms of the contract provided
for payment six monthly in advance on 1 June and 1 December 20X4. CF received $6,000 and
started work on 1 June 20X4.
How should CF account for the contract in its financial statements for the year ended 30 June
20X4?

(A) Debit Cash $6,000; credit Revenue $6,000
(B) Debit Cash $6,000; credit Revenue $1,000 and credit Deferred income $5,000
(C) Debit Cash $6,000, debit Receivables $6,000; credit Revenue $12,000
(D) Debit Cash $6,000; credit Deferred income $6,000

A

(B) Debit Cash $6,000; credit Revenue $1,000 and credit Deferred income $5,000

=> Under this contract, the performance obligation is satisfied over time. The customer
simultaneously receives and consumes the benefits as the performance takes place. CF has only
provided services for one month, therefore only $1,000 can be recognised as revenue.

60
Q

(QUESTION BANK)
On 1 April 20X5, Winchmore, a telecommunications company, entered into a contract to supply
internet services to Horniman, for two years from that date. On 1 April 20X5, Winchmore also
supplied Horniman with routers and other equipment. The charge for internet services is $6,000
per month. The equipment was supplied at no extra charge. Horniman can receive the internet
services using its existing equipment, which has been supplied by another company.
The normal selling price of the equipment supplied to Horniman would be $20,000, if it had
been supplied separately. The standard charge for internet services without any additional
equipment is also $6,000 per month.
What amount of revenue should Winchmore recognise in respect of this contract for the year
ended 31 December 20X5?

A

$64,976

=> Revenue for year ended 31 December 20X5:
Equipment (144,000 × 20,000/164,000)= 17,561
Internet services ((144,000 × 144,000/164,000) × 9/24)= 47,415
∴ TOTAL= 64,976

Stand-alone selling prices:
Equipment 20,000
Internet services (24 × $6,000) 144,000
∴TOTAL= 164,000

61
Q

(QUESTION BANK)
On 1 January 20X5 Mechanic entered into a contract to manufacture a machine and some spare
parts for the same machine. The selling price of the machine was $1.2 million and the selling
price of the spare parts was $650,000. On 1 February 20X5, the customer paid a deposit of
$120,000, 10% of the selling price of the machine.
On 30 September 20X5 the customer paid the balance of the amount due for the machine and
for the spare parts in full. The machine was installed on its premises on the same date. The
customer inspected the spare parts and obtained legal title to them, but asked Mechanic to
store them until they were needed.
Between 1 October 20X5 and 30 June 20X6, the spare parts were kept in Mechanic’s stores, in a
specially designated area that was completely separate from Mechanic’s own inventories. The
spare parts have been specially manufactured for the specific model of the machine and it is
extremely unlikely that Mechanic could sell them to another customer.
What amounts should Mechanic recognise as revenue in respect of this contract?

(A) Year ended 30 April 20X5 $Nil; Year ended 30 April 20X6 $1,850,000
(B) Year ended 30 April 20X5 $120,000; Year ended 30 April 20X6; $1,730,000
(C) Year ended 30 April 20X5 $Nil; Year ended 30 April 20X6 $1,200,000; Year ended 30 April
20X7 $650,000
(D) Year ended 30 April 20X5 $120,000; Year ended 30 April 20X6 $1,080,000; Year ended 30 April 20X7 $650,000

A

(A) Year ended 30 April 20X5 $Nil; Year ended 30 April 20X6 $1,850,000

=> This is a bill-and-hold arrangement. Mechanic recognises revenue for the machine and the
spare parts on 30 September 20X5, the date on which it has performed its obligations under the
contract and on which control of both the machine and the spare parts passes to the customer.

62
Q

(QUESTION BANK)
On 31 December 20X4, Barnard won a contract to supply services to a customer. In order to
obtain this contract, it incurred the following costs:
(in $000)
External legal fees= 12,000
Employee costs= 15,000
TOTAL= 27,000
Barnard would have incurred the legal fees even if it had not won the contract. The employee costs are bonuses that are payable as a reward for winning the contract. Barnard expects to
recover the employee costs through fees for the services that it will provide to the customer.
What amount should be recognised as a contract asset as at 31 December 20X4?

A

$15,000

=> An entity should recognise the incremental costs of obtaining a contract as a contract asset if it
expects to recover those costs. Incremental costs are costs that would not have been incurred if the
entity had not won the contract. The legal fees are not incremental costs.

63
Q

(QUESTION BANK)
Which of the following costs of fulfilling a contract with a customer should be recognised as a contract asset?

(A) Cost of computer hardware that will not be transferred to the customer, but which will
be used to provide services to the customer
(B) General and administrative costs
(C) Initial costs of designing a product that the entity does not expect to recover.
(D) Travel expenses that are rechargeable to the customer under the terms of the contract

A

(D) Travel expenses that are rechargeable to the customer under the terms of the contract.

General and administrative costs should normally be recognised as expenses when they are
incurred. The cost of computer hardware is recognised as property, plant and equipment and
depreciated. The initial design costs cannot be recognised as a contract asset because the entity
does not expect to recover them.

64
Q

(QUESTION BANK)
Repro, a company which sells photocopying equipment, has prepared its draft financial
statements for the year ended 30 September 20X4. It has included the following transactions in
revenue at the stated amounts below.
Which of these has been correctly included in revenue?

(A) Agency sales of $250,000 on which Repro is entitled to a commission
(B) Sale proceeds of $20,000 for motor vehicles which were no longer required by Repro
(C) Sales of $150,000 on 30 September 20X4. The amount invoiced to and received from the
customer was $180,000, which includes $30,000 for ongoing servicing work to be done
by Repro over the next two years
(D) Sales of $200,000 on 1 October 20X3 to an established customer which (with the agreement of Repro) will be paid in full on 30 September 20X5. Repro has a cost of capital of 10%

A

(C) Sales of $150,000 on 30 September 20X4. The amount invoiced to and received from the customer was $180,000, which includes $30,000 for ongoing servicing work to be done
by Repro over the next two years.

=> Although the invoiced amount is $180,000, $30,000 of this has not yet been earned and must
be deferred until the servicing work has been completed.
Agency sales: only the commission should be included in revenue.
Proceeds from the sale of motor vehicles is not included in revenue because it does not arise
from the ordinary activities of the entity.
Sales of $200,000 to an established customer: the fair value of the amount receivable is less
than $200,000 because the consideration is deferred (the amount receivable should be
discounted to its present value).

65
Q

(QUESTION BANK)
Yling entered into a contract with a customer on 1 January 20X4 which is expected to last
24 months. The performance obligations under the contract are satisfied over time. The agreed
price for the contract is $5 million. At 30 September 20X4, the costs incurred on the contract
were $1.6 million and the estimated remaining costs to complete were $2.4 million. On
20 September 20X4, Yling received a payment from the customer of $1.8 million which was
equal to the full amount invoiced to date. Yling calculates the stage of completion of the
contract on the basis of costs incurred to date as a proportion of total contract costs.
Calculate the amount that would be reported in Yling’s statement of financial position as at
30 September 20X4 for the contract asset (the amount due from the customer) for the above
contract.

A

$200,000

=> The contract is 40% complete (1,600/(1,600 + 2,400)).
At 30 September 20X4 the revenue recognised would be $2,000 (5,000 × 40%).
Therefore the contract asset (amount due from the customer) would be:
(in $000)
Revenue recognised to date= 2,000
Less amounts invoiced to date= (1,800)
∴ Contract asset= 200

66
Q

(QUESTION BANK)
On 30 September 20X4, Razor’s closing inventory was counted and valued at its cost of
$1 million. Some items of inventory which had cost $210,000 had been damaged in a flood (on
15 September 20X4) and are not expected to achieve their normal selling price which is
calculated to achieve a gross profit margin of 30%. The sale of these goods will be handled by an
agent who sells them at 80% of the normal selling price and charges Razor a commission of 25%.
At what value will the closing inventory of Razor be reported in its statement of financial
position as at 30 September 20X4?

A

$970,000

=> The normal selling price of damaged inventory is $300,000 (210/70%).
This will now sell for $240,000 (300,000 × 80%), and have a NRV of $180,000 (240 – (240 ×
25%)). The expected loss on the inventory is $30,000 (210 cost – 180 NRV) and therefore the
inventory should be valued at $970,000 (1,000 – 30).

67
Q

(QUESTION BANK)
Inventory may be measured on a first in, first out (FIFO) or a weighted average cost (WAC) basis.
For property, plant and equipment (PPE) the choice is between the cost and revaluation models.
In a period of rising prices, which of the following combinations would lead to higher
profitability ratios?

(A) Inventory FIFO/PPE Revaluation model
(B) Inventory FIFO/PPE Cost model
(C) Inventory WAC/PPE Revaluation model
(D) Inventory WAC/PPE Cost model

A

(B) Inventory FIFO/PPE Cost model

=>FIFO would give a lower cost of sales than WAC and therefore higher profits and profitability
ratios (such as gross and operating profit margins).
The PPE cost model would give lower depreciation charges than the revaluation model and
therefore higher profits and lower capital employed (both combining to give a higher return
on capital employed)

68
Q

(QUESTION BANK)
At 31 December 20X4, Litch Co had, in inventory, 100 items of work in progress which had cost
$14,900 to produce. It estimated that the work in progress would cost $13 per unit to complete,
and that each unit would then sell for $166.
Direct selling costs are estimated at 2% of revenue.
In accordance with IAS 2 Inventories, what is the correct value of Litch Co’s inventory as at
31 December 20X4?

A

$14,900

=> The correct answer is calculated as follows:
Cost (given in question)= $14,900.
NRV = Realisable value (selling price) less costs of completion less costs to make the sale= 100 units × ($166 – $13 – ($166 × 2% = $3.32)) = $14,968.

Therefore, cost is lower and the correct answer is $14,900.

69
Q

(QUESTION BANK)
On 1 January an entity purchased goods from a foreign country for B$24,300. On 10 March the
goods were paid in full.
The exchange rates were: 1 January $1=B$4.9 and 10 March $1=B$5.2
What is the exchange difference to be included in profit or loss?

A

$286.10 profit

=> At 1 January (24,300/4.9)= 4,959.18
At 10 March (24,300/5.2)= 4,673.08
Exchange gain (profit)= 286.10

70
Q

(QUESTION BANK)
On 1 June 20X4 XL purchased some goods for resale from a foreign entity for H$60,000. The
goods were not sold to third parties until 20 August 20X4. Exchange rates were:
1 June 20X4 $1=H$9.3
30 June 20X4 $1=H$9.6
20 August 20X4 $1=H$9.9
At what amount should the goods be included in inventories in the statement of financial
position as at 30 June 20X4 (to the nearest $)?

A

$6452

=> Translated at date of purchase (60,000/9.3)= 6,451.61
Inventories are non-monetary assets and therefore are not retranslated at the period end.

71
Q

(EXTRA)
Flute Co undertakes drilling activities and has a widely publicised environmental policy
stating that it will incur costs to restore land to its original condition once drilling activities
have been completed.
Drilling commenced on a particular piece of land on 1 July 20X8. At this time, Flute Co
estimated that it would cost $3 million to restore the land when drilling was completed in
five years’ time. Flute Co’s cost of capital is 7% and the appropriate present value factor
is 0.713.
At what amount will the provision for restoration costs be measured in Flute Co’s
statement of financial position as at 31 December 20X8?

A

$2.21m

=> Provision at 1 July 20X8 = ($3m  0.713) =$2,139,000
Interest to 31 Dec 20X8 = 7%  $2.139m  6/12 = $74,865
Provision at 31 Dec 20X8 = $2,139,000 + $74,865 = $2,213,865 rounded to $2.21m
$2.14m is the initial carrying amount at 1 July 20X8. $2.29m is based on unwinding
the discount for 12 months instead of 6 months. $3m is the undiscounted amount.

72
Q

(EXTRA)
Identify whether the following statement is true or false in accordance with IAS 37 Provisions, Contingent Liabilities and Contingent Assets?

A restructuring provision must include the estimated costs of
retraining or relocating continuing staff

A

False

73
Q

(EXTRA)
Which TWO of the following events which occur after the reporting date of a company
but before the financial statements are authorised for issue are classified as ADJUSTING
events in accordance with IAS 10 Events After the Reporting Period?

(A) A change in tax rate announced after the reporting date, but affecting the current
tax liability
(B) The discovery of a fraud which had occurred during the year
(C) The determination of the sale proceeds of an item of plant sold before the year end
(D) The destruction of a factory by fire

A

(B) The discovery of a fraud which occurred during the year
(C) The determination of the sale proceeds of an item of plant sold before the year end

These both provide evidence of conditions that existed at the end of the reporting period. The
other options refer to conditions which arose after the reporting period and are therefore nonadjusting
events according to IAS 10 Events After the Reporting Period.

74
Q

(QUESTION BANK)
Faringdon made a profit after tax of $20 million for the year ended 30 September 20X4.
At 30 September 20X4, Faringdon had in issue 50 million equity shares and a $15 million
convertible loan note. The loan note will mature in 20X6 and will be redeemed at par or
converted to equity shares on the basis of 25 shares for each $100 of loan note at the loan-note
holders’ option. The effective rate of interest on the loan note is 8%. Faringdon’s income tax
rate is 25%.
Calculate Faringdon’s diluted earnings per share for the year ended 30 September 20X4.

A

38.9 cents

=> Basic EPS for the year ended 30 September 20X4
($20 million/50 million × 100)= 40.0 cents
Diluted EPS for the year ended 30 September 20X4
($20.9 million/53.75 million × 100)= 38.9 cents
Adjusted earnings= 20 million basic earnings + (15 million × 8% × 75% after tax)= $20.9 million
Adjusted number of shares= 50 million basic no. of shares + (15 million × 25/100)= 53.75 million

75
Q

(QUESTION BANK)
Many commentators believe that the trend of earnings per share (EPS) is a more reliable
indicator of underlying performance than the trend of the net profit for the year.
Which of the following statements supports this view?

(A) Net profit can be manipulated by the choice of accounting policies but EPS cannot be
manipulated in this way
(B) EPS takes into account the additional resources made available to earn profit when new
shares are issued for cash, whereas net profit does not
(C) The disclosure of a diluted EPS figure is a forecast of the future trend of profit
(D) The comparative EPS is restated where a change in accounting policy affects the previous
year’s profits

A

(B) EPS takes into account the additional resources made available to earn profit when new
shares are issued for cash, whereas net profit does not.

76
Q

(QUESTION BANK)
Hayes Co owns 80% of the equity shares in Smith Co. For the year ended 30 June 20X9 Hayes Co
made a profit of $400,000 and Smith Co made a profit of $250,000.
During the year, Smith Co sold goods to Hayes Co for $180,000. Smith Co makes a mark-up on
cost of 20% on all sales. At the end of the year, half these goods were still in Hayes Co’s
inventory.
What is the profit attributable to the owners of the parent for the year ended 30 June 20X8?

A

$588,000

=> Year ended 30 June 20X9
Hayes= 400
Smith= 250
PUP for Smith ((180,000 × 20/120) ÷ 2)
= (15)
Smith’s Profit for Hayes (80% × 235)= 188
∴ Hayes profit @ y/e20X8= 588

77
Q

(QUESTION BANK)
On 1 July 20X5, Pull Co acquired 80% of the equity of Sat Co. At the date of acquisition, goodwill
was valued at $10,000 and the non-controlling interest was measured at fair value. In
conducting the fair value exercise on Sat Co’s net assets at acquisition, Pull Co concluded that
property, plant and equipment with a remaining life of ten years had a fair value of $300,000 in
excess of its carrying amount. Sat Co had not incorporated this fair value adjustment into its
individual financial statements. At the reporting date of 31 December 20X5, the goodwill was
fully impaired. For the year ended 31 December 20X5, Sat Co reported a profit for the year of
$200,000.
What is the Pull Group profit for the year ended 31 December 20X5 that is attributable to
non-controlling interests?

A

$15,000

=> Subsidiary profits ($200,000 × 6/12)= 100,000
Write-off of goodwill= (10,000)
Additional depreciation (300,000/10 × 6/12)= (15,000)
TOTAL PROFIT= 75,000
∴ NCI @ 20%= 15,000

78
Q

(QUESTION BANK)
Partridge Co acquired 75% of the equity of Snipe Co on 1 January 20X1. The consolidated
statement of profit or loss and other comprehensive income of the Partridge Group shows the
following information for the year ended 31 December 20X1:
$000
Profit attributable to the owners of the parent 284,000
Profit attributable to non-controlling interests 7,800
Profit for the year 291,800
During the year, Partridge Co had other comprehensive income of $4.3 million and Snipe Co had
other comprehensive income of $3.6 million.
Calculate the total comprehensive income attributable to the owners of the parent that will
be presented in the consolidated statement of profit or loss and other comprehensive
income.

A

$291,000

=> Profit attributable to the owners of the parent= 284,000
Other comprehensive income: parent= 4,300
Other comprehensive income: subsidiary (75% × 3,600)= 2,700
∴ Total comprehensive income attributable to the owners of the parent= 291,000

79
Q

(QUESTION BANK)
On 1 February 20X8, Penge, a company with subsidiaries, acquired 25% of the equity shares of
Anerley.
Anerley had retained earnings of $19.5 million as at 1 October 20X7and made a profit of
$2.4 million for the year ended 30 September 20X8.
Impairment tests were carried out on 30 September 20X8 which concluded that the value of the
investment in Anerley was impaired by $500,000.
What is the NET effect of the investment in Anerley on the consolidated retained earnings of
the Penge group for the year ended 30 September 20X8?
(A) Decrease of $100,000
(B) Increase of $100,000
(C) Increase of $275,000
(D) Increase of $400,000

A

(A) Decrease of $100,000

=> 4

80
Q

(QUESTION BANK)
The following balances were extracted from N’s financial statements:
Statement of financial position (extract)
As at
31 December
20X7
As at
31 December
20X6
$000 $000
Non-current liabilities
Deferred tax 38 27
Current liabilities
Current tax payable 119 106
Statement of profit or loss for the year ended 31 December 20X7 (extract)
$000
Income tax expense 122
What amount for tax paid should be included in N’s statement of cash flows for the year
ended 31 December 20X7?

A

98,000