Financial Reporting Flashcards

50-75%

1
Q

Which of the following statements regarding not-for-profit financial statements is true?

a)

The terms used to describe the financial statements of a not-for-profit organization (NPO) are the same as the terms used in profit-oriented financial statements.

b)

The statement of cash flows for an NPO is similar to the statement of financial position for a profit-oriented company.

c)

The statement of financial position for an NPO is similar to the income statement for a profit-oriented company.

d)

The statement of changes in net assets or fund balances for an NPO is similar to the statement of retained earnings for a profit-oriented company.

A

D - the statement of changes in net assets or fund balances for an NPO is similar to the statement of retained earnings for a profit-oriented company.

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2
Q

Nickel Mining Co. (NMC) has just secured a loan from the bank to help finance a development project at its newest nickel mine. The bank has requested that 30% of the value of the mine’s annual production be hedged to protect against volatility in the price of nickel. NMC expects to mine and sell about 500,000 pounds of nickel annually.

NMC has decided to use a forward contract to hedge the price of nickel on 30% of its sales. Currently, the spot price is $6 per pound. NMC will settle the contract on July 31, 20X6. The company has entered into a forward contract to deliver 150,000 pounds of nickel on July 31, 20X6, at a forward price of $7 per pound.

Which of the following statements BEST describes what this contract means for NMC?

a)

NMC will purchase 150,000 pounds of nickel on July 31, 20X6, and will have to pay $1,050,000.

b)

NMC will deliver 150,000 pounds of nickel on July 31, 20X6, and receive cash of $900,000 on delivery.

c)

NMC will deliver 150,000 pounds of nickel on July 31, 20X6, and receive the higher of the $7 per pound or the spot price per pound.

d)

NMC will deliver 150,000 pounds of nickel on July 31, 20X6, and receive $1,050,000 on delivery.

A

D - A forward contract requires each party to perform, so delivery must be made and NMC will receive cash on delivery of $1,050,000 (= 150,000 × $7).

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3
Q

Amtrek Inc. is planning to dispose of a collection of assets. Amtrek has designated these assets as a disposal group. The carrying amount of these assets immediately before classification as held for sale was $20 million. Upon being classified as held for sale, the assets were revalued to their fair value of $18 million. Amtrek has estimated that it will cost $1 million to sell the group of assets.
What is the carrying amount of the disposal group after it is classified as held for sale?

a)

$20 million

b)

$18 million

c)

$17 million

d)

$19 million

A

C - When the disposal group is classified as held for sale, the disposal group is remeasured to the lower of its carrying value ($20 million) and its fair value ($18 million) less the costs to sell ($1 million).

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4
Q

Ninja Frog Inc., a publicly traded company, has seven operating segments all producing different products with the following results:

Segments	Sales	Profit (Loss)	Assets
Orange	$100	$50	$500
Yellow	15	(50)	60
Purple	200	25	100
Blue	125	10	10
Red	65	15	5
Pink	200	50	100
White	65	20	50
$770	$120	$825

Based on the quantitative thresholds, how many reportable segments are there?

a)

3

b)

4

c)

5

d)

6

A

D - The orange, yellow, purple, blue, pink and white segments are all reportable. Proof:
Note: Greater of absolute profit or absolute loss= total profit (170) or total loss (50) = $170.

Segments	Sales	Profit (Loss)	Assets	Reportable?
Orange	13%	29%	61%	Y
Yellow	2%	(23%)	7%	Y
Purple	26%	15%	12%	Y
Blue	16%	3%	1%	Y
Red	8%	9%	1%	N
Pink	26%	29%	12%	Y
White	8%	12%	6%	Y
100%	N/A	100%
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5
Q

Brown Inc. (BI) reports an investment in bonds using the amortized cost method. The bonds have a face value of $1,000,000 and were purchased on January 1, 20X7. The market interest rate is 8% and the bonds pay interest at a rate of 6%. Interest payments are made every June 30 and December 31. The bonds mature 10 years from the date of purchase, on December 31.
What journal entry records the acquisition of the bonds on January 1, 20X7?

a)

Dr. Investment in bonds $864,100
Cr. Cash $864,100

b)

Dr. Cash $864,100
Cr. Bonds payable $864,100

c)

Dr. Investment in bonds $1,000,000
Cr. Cash $1,000,000

d)

Dr. Investment in bonds

$664,496

 Cr. Cash

$664,496

A

A - $1,000,000 × (P/F 4%, 20) = $1,000,000 × 0.45639 = $456,390
$30,000 interest × (P/A 4%
, 20) = $30,000 × 13.59033 = $407,710
Issuance price (fair value) = $456,390 + $407,710 = $864,100
*4% = 8% / 2 to reflect 20 half-year periods

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6
Q

Jaden Enterprises Ltd. has recently completed their year ended May 31, Year 2. They are now preparing interim statements for their first quarter and have just acquired a new company, Kaden Inc., effective September 15, Year 2. Which of the following is LEAST likely to be included in the interim statements?

a)

A statement of comprehensive income, statement of changes in equity, and statement of cash flows for the three months ended August 31, Year 1 and Year 2.

b)

A statement of financial position for the three months as at August 31, Year 1 and Year 2.

c)

The most recent set of annual audited financial statements.

d)

Information regarding subsequent events.

A

B - Annual audited financial statements are required in the preparation of the interim statements to ensure interim policies follow the same policies as the annual audited statements. While they are not included in the interim financial statements, they are required for reference when preparing the interim statements. Answer b) is correct. The statement of financial position is not required for the three months as at August 31, Year 1 and Year 2. Per IAS 34.20(a), the statement of financial position is required as at the end of the current interim period and a comparative statement as at the end of the immediately preceding financial year is also required. In this case, the statement of financial position is required as at August 31, Year 2 with comparatives as at May 31, Year 2.

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7
Q

Which of the following statements is false?

a)

Consolidated ending retained earnings is impacted by amortization to date of fair value differentials that arose at acquisition.

b)

Consolidated retained earnings is impacted by unrealized profit in closing inventory on intercompany inventory sales.

c)

Consolidated retained earnings is impacted by intercompany management fees recognized in the current year.

d)

Consolidated retained earnings is impacted by an unrealized loss on an intercompany sale of equipment.

A

C - This statement is false. One of the companies will have reported management fee revenue while the other company will have reported an expense in the same amount. The net impact on net income and retained earnings is nil.

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8
Q

Leroy Corp. started a defined contribution plan in 20X2. In 20X3, the company amended the plan. To pay for the plan amendments, the company agreed to contribute $100,000 for each of the years 20X4, 20X5, and 20X6.

What will be the journal entry required to record the last payment in 20X6, assuming a discount rate of 4%?

a)

Dr. Pension payable $104,000; Cr. Pension expense $4,000; Cr. Cash $100,000

b)

Dr. Pension expense $96,154; Dr. Interest expense $$3,846; Cr. Cash $100,000

c)

Dr. Prepaid past service costs $96,154; Dr. Interest expense $3,846; Cr. Cash $100,000

d)

Dr. Pension payable $96,154; Dr. Interest expense $3,846; Cr. Cash $100,000

A

D - because the remaining pension payable amount prior to the final payment would be $100,000 discounted for one year at 4%: $100,000 / 1.04 = $96,154. The difference between the payment and the payable is interest expense.

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9
Q

Company A has significant influence over Company B. Under IFRS, which one of the following factors could cause Company A’s investment account to decrease?

a)

Purchase price
Incorrect Response
b)

Goodwill

c)

Net income
Correct Answer
d)

Unrealized profit in inventory

A

D - Goodwill and negative goodwill do not impact equity income; rather, it is an account created from the acquisition differential after any fair value differentials. Answer d) is correct because, until the inventory has been sold to a third party, profit in inventory is considered to be unrealized and needs to be reduced from equity income.

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10
Q

An employee of Riker Goods Ltd. (Riker) is suing the company for termination without cause.

· The employee is suing for $2,700,000 for severance and defamation of character.
· Riker’s lawyers estimate that the company will be held liable with an 80% probability.
· Counsel estimates that there is a 35% probability that the court would award $1,500,000, a 35% probability that $1,000,000 would be awarded, and a 30% probability that $800,000 would be awarded.
· Riker follows IFRS.

Which of the following is the proper accounting treatment for this lawsuit?

a)

Record a provision for $800,000 and disclose the nature of the lawsuit.

b)

Record a provision for $1,115,000 and disclose the nature of the lawsuit.

c)

Record a provision for $1,500,00 and disclose the nature of the lawsuit.

d)

Record a provision for $2,700,000 and disclose the nature of the lawsuit.

A

B - Since it is probable (the probability being greater than 50%) that Riker will have to pay, a provision is recorded equal to the weighted average of the expected outcomes. The provision is calculated as: (35% × $1,500,000) + (35% × $1,000,000) + (30% × $800,000) = $1,115,000.

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11
Q

Which of the following items would not be required in the note disclosure on the acquisition of a business?

a)

Gross proceeds paid

b)

Values assigned to assets acquired

c)

Details of contingent payments

d)

Prior-period income of the acquired business

A

D - Prior-period income of the acquired business is not required in the note disclosure on the acquisition of a business. Disclosure is required for the period in which the income of the acquired company is included in the income statement. However, no information is required to be disclosed on the past results.

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12
Q

Quencor Inc. started a new defined contribution plan this year. During the year, the company paid $250,000 into this pension plan. At the end of the year, the current service cost was determined to be $210,000, lower than expected. Any excess payment can be used to reduce next year’s payment. What is the journal entry required to recognize the current service cost and the payment made during the year?

a)

Dr. Pension expense $210,000; Dr. Prepaid asset $40,000; Cr. Cash $250,000

b)

Dr. Pension expense $250,000; Cr. Cash $250,000

c)

Dr. Pension expense $210,000; Dr. Net defined pension liability $40,000; Cr. Cash $250,000

d)

Dr. Pension plan assets $250,000; Dr. Pension expense $210,000; Cr. Pension benefit obligation $210,000; Cr. Cash $250,000

A

A - Since the payment made was greater than the amount required, and any excess can be applied to next year’s payment, a prepaid is set up for the overpayment. The pension expense is equal to the current service cost for the year.

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13
Q

Which of the following statements regarding functional currency is true?

a)

It is the currency that a company reports its financial results in.

b)

It is the currency that a company primarily uses in its daily operations.

c)

It is the currency that a company’s key management receives remuneration in.

d)

It is the currency that a company primarily invests in.

A

B - Functional currency is the currency that a company primarily uses in its daily operations.

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14
Q

<p>Which of the following represents the correct order of the four stages of a financial statement audit?

a) Client acceptance and continuance; planning; execution; reporting
b) Planning; client acceptance and continuance; execution; reporting
c) Client acceptance and continuance; planning; reporting; execution
d) Planning; client acceptance and continuance; reporting; execution</p>

A

<p>A</p>

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15
Q

Chance and Risk Inc. (CRI) needs a calculation of basic and diluted EPS performed for its Year 1 fiscal year-end financial statements.
Information related to CRI is as follows:

Year 1 net income $565,000
Number of common shares issued and outstanding on January 1, Year 1 150,000
Number of common shares issued on September 1, Year 1 30,000
Number of cumulative preferred shares outstanding throughout Year 1 10,000

CRI had:
• 12,000 written call options outstanding during Year 1, exercise price of $10 and
• average market price of CRI’s common shares during the year was $13.33.
• no options were exercised during the year.
• On December 1, Year 1, a 20% common stock dividend was issued.
• The preferred shares have an annual dividend entitlement of $5 per share; this was declared and paid in Year 1.
What are CRI’s basic and diluted EPS for Year 1, respectively?

a)

$2.68 and $2.68

b)

$3.16 and $3.16

c)

$3.16 and $3.10

d)

$2.68 and $2.63

A

D - Proof of correct answer:
Basic:
= ($565,000 – $50,000) / 192,000*
= $2.68

*Calculation of WACSO:

Dates

Shares outstanding

Fraction of year

Restatement due to stock dividend

Weighting

Jan. 1 - Aug. 31

150,000

8/12 months

1.2

120,000

Sept. 1 - Nov. 30

180,000

3/12 months

1.2

54,000

Dec. 1-31

216,000

1/12 months

18,000

192,000*

Diluted:

Proceeds from exercise of 12,000 options:

$120,000

Shares issued from exercise

12,000 common shares

Treasury shares acquired with proceeds

9,002 ($120,000 / $13.33)

Incremental earnings

$0

Incremental common shares

2,998

Taking stock split into account

3,598 (2,998 × 1.2)

Incremental EPS

$0

= ($565,000 – $50,000) / (192,000 + 3,598)
= $2.63

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16
Q

<p>A compilation engagement:

a) Is also known as a Notice to Reader engagement
b) Has specific documentation requirements per the CPA Handbook – Assurance
c) Requires a practitioner to gain an understanding of the client’s business
d) Is costly and time consuming to produce</p>

A

<p>A</p>

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17
Q

On February 22 of Year 1, an NPO with a March 31 year end is given $200,000 cash to buy land. At the end of Year 1, it had revenues of $1,000,000. The NPO uses the cash to purchase land on April 2 of Year 2. The NPO has a depreciation policy where long-lived assets greater than $50,000 in value are amortized evenly over 10 years.

The NPO uses the deferral method to account for contributions.

One of the journal entries required for April 2 of Year 2 is: Dr. Deferred contribution 200,000; Cr. Cash 200,000. What is the other entry required for April 2 of Year 2?

a)

Dr. Land 200,000; Cr. Deferred capital assets 200,000

b)

Dr. Land 200,000; Cr. Net assets 200,000

c)

Dr. Net assets 200,000; Cr. Land 200,000

d)

Dr. Deferred capital assets 200.000; Cr. Net assets 200,000

A

B - The entries required to record the asset when it is purchased are:
Dr. Deferred contribution 200,000; Cr. Cash 200,000
Dr. Land 200,000; Cr. Net assets 200,000

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18
Q

Which of the following is considered to be a non-monetary item?

a)

Accounts payable

b)

Customer list

c)

Foreign exchange gain/loss

d)

Sales

A

B - A customer list is an intangible asset and is considered to be a non-monetary item.

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19
Q

You, CPA, are teaching your firm’s co-op student about passive investments. You decide to compare how ASPE and IFRS account for passive investments. Which of the following statements is true?

a)

IFRS reports all passive investments at fair value, and ASPE reports passive investments at any of cost, fair value, or amortized cost.

b)

Under both ASPE and IFRS, investments adjusted to fair value at each reporting date require the changes in fair value to be reported in net income.

c)

For amortized cost investments, IFRS requires the use of the effective interest method, and ASPE permits a choice between the straight-line and effective interest methods.

d)

Accounting is the same under IFRS and ASPE for passive investments.

A

C - IFRS does not permit this choice, but ASPE does.

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20
Q

When booking annual depreciation on a decommissioning obligation, the debit side of the entry would be:

a)

A fixed asset

b)

A decommissioning obligation

c)

An accretion expense

d)

A depreciation expense

A

D

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21
Q

<p>Cheeky’s Coconuts Inc. (Cheeky’s) purchased equipment for a total cost of $180,000. Management believes that the machine will have a residual value of $30,000. Over the life of the machine, management believes that the machine will produce 300,000 units.

The expected number of units produced each year are as follows:

~~~
Year Units
1 25,000
2 75,000
3 75,000
4 75,000
5 50,000
Total 300,000
~~~

What is the ending closing carrying amount of the equipment in Year 2?

a) $130,000
b) $120,000
c) $167,500
d) $80,000</p>

A

<p>A - The calculation of the per-unit depreciation rate is as follows:

$180,000 – $30,000 = = $0.50 per unit
300,000 units </p>

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22
Q

On November 1 of the current year, Bait Co. sold inventory to its wholly owned subsidiary, Tackle Ltd.; 80% of these goods were then sold by Tackle to customers of Tackle prior to the December 31 year end. What are all of the adjustments required for the preparation of the consolidated financial statements related to this transaction? (Ignore the effects of income taxes.)

a)

Decrease sales and cost of sales by the intercompany selling price, and increase cost of sales and decrease inventory by the unrealized profit in ending inventory.

b)

Decrease cost of sales by the unrealized profit in ending inventory and increase inventory by the same amount.

c)

Increase cost of sales by the unrealized profit in ending inventory and decrease inventory by the same amount.

d)

Decrease sales and cost of sales by the intercompany selling price of the inventory.

A

A - Sales are overstated by the full intercompany selling price.

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23
Q

<p>Nuts and Bolts Inc. (NBI) reports its financial statements in accordance with ASPE. Manufacturing equipment used to manufacture products that have not been selling as well as expected has been identified as potentially impaired. Relevant information to assist management in accounting for the equipment properly is as follows:

Cost of equipment $200,000
Accumulated depreciation — equipment $40,000
Undiscounted future net cash flows associated with the equipment (estimated) $120,000
Fair value of equipment $100,000

What is the impairment loss to be reported by NBI with respect to this equipment?

a) $40,000
b) $60,000
c) $80,000
d) $100,000</p>

A

<p>B - the loss of $60,000 should be calculated as follows, per ASPE 3063.05-.06: “The carrying amount of a long-lived asset is not recoverable if the carrying amount exceeds the sum of the undiscounted cash flows expected to result from its use and eventual disposition. This assessment is based on the carrying amount of the asset at the date it is tested for recoverability, whether it is in use or under development. An impairment loss shall be measured as the amount by which the carrying amount of a long-lived asset exceeds its fair value.”</p>

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24
Q

Charli Confectionary Co. (Charli) is a Canadian specialty bakery. It recently acquired PieGo, a manufacturing facility in Southeast Asia that will ship frozen treats to Charli’s customers worldwide. After the acquisition:

· The cost to manufacture products was reduced by 60%.
· There was no change to the ordering process; customers order from Charli’s website.
· The Canadian Food Inspection Agency required Charli to undergo a third-party certification to ensure goods complied with Canadian standards.
· Charli increased its prices to help cover increased shipping fees.
· Charli started to lease out equipment contributing to excess capacity.

Which of the following factors is the LEAST important when determining Charli’s functional currency?

a)

Funds required for manufacturing inputs

b)

Funds required to undergo third-party certification

c)

Funds received from the sale of Charli’s goods

d)

Funds received from leased assets

A

D - Funds received from leased assets are considered financing funds, a secondary factor when determining functional currency. All of the other options are primary factors, which makes funds received from leased assets the least important factor when determining functional currency.

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25
Q

Judy is preparing the cash flow statement for a client, AAA Moving and Storage. The company has several trucks as well as its own warehouse. The balance for property, plant, and equipment (PP&E) is as follows:

20X6 20X5

PP&E, net of accumulated amortization $825,000 $756,000
Other information available:

Amortization expense is $79,000.
A delivery van with a cost of $64,000 and accumulated amortization of $40,000 was sold. The sale took place halfway through the year.
What are the additions for PP&E for the year?

a)

$ 69,000

b)

$ 93,000

c)

$148,000

d)

$172,000

A

D - PP&E, beginning of the year ($756,000) – amortization expense for the year ($79,000) – cost of the delivery van sold ($64,000) + accumulated amortization of the van sold ($40,000) – PP&E, end of the year ($825,000) = $172,000.

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26
Q

Cardstock.com Inc.’s year end long term debt and shareholders’ equity at December 31, Year 5 consisted of:

  • Common shares: 10,000,000 issued: $50,000,000
  • Preferred shares: 5.75% cumulative; 500,000 issued; no dividends in arrears: $20,000,000
  • Retained earnings: $5,500,000
  • Convertible bonds: 6.5% coupon; issued at par January 1, Year 2; maturing January 1, Year 12 (each $1,000 bond is convertible into 200 common shares): $18,000,000

In Year 5, Cardstock.com Inc.:
• reported net income after taxes of $8,000,000.
• a common dividend of $0.12 per share was declared and paid.

What is Cardstock.com Inc.’s basic earnings per share for Year 5 (rounded to the nearest cent)? Assume a 40% tax rate. Cardstock.com Inc. is a publicly traded company.

a)

$0.73

b)

$0.69

c)

$0.80

d)

$0.59

A

B - Basic EPS is calculated as (net income after taxes – dividends on preferred stock) / weighted average number of common shares outstanding. [$8,000,000 – (5.75% x $20,000,000)] = $6,850,000 / 10,000,000 = $0.685 (rounded to $0.69).

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27
Q

<p>Which of the following is a required disclosure under IFRS but not ASPE?

a) Transactions
b) Amounts
c) Key management compensation
d) Obligations</p>

A

<p>C</p>

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28
Q

During the year, the holders of all of MEM’s convertible bonds opted to convert their bonds into shares. On the date of conversion, just prior to recording the conversion, the balances in the accounts related to the convertible bonds were as follows:

Convertible bonds payable $2,031,000
Contributed surplus — common share conversion rights 125,000
The bonds were converted into 30,000 common shares. On the date of conversion, the shares were trading at $80 per share.

In MEM’s statement of cash flows, how is this transaction reported?

a)

A financing activity cash inflow for issuance of common shares of $2,400,000 and a cash outflow for repayment of debt of $2,031,000

b)

A financing activity cash inflow for issuance of common shares of $2,156,000 and a cash outflow for repayment of loan of $2,156,000

c)

A financing activity cash inflow for issuance of common shares of $2,031,000 and a cash outflow for repayment of loan of $2,031,000

d)

The transaction is not reported on the statement of cash flows, but is disclosed in the notes

A

D - The current share price is irrelevant and, since there are no cash flows arising from this event, the transaction is not reported on the statement of cash flows. Answer d) is correct. All non-cash transactions must be disclosed in the notes.

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29
Q

Which of the following best describes the purpose of management discussion and analysis (MD&A)?

a)

To provide additional information about historical operations of an entity to enhance user understanding of the annual financial statements, including financial statement elements and notes to the financial statements

b)

To provide both historical information as well as a discussion of how management has been operating the entity and its plans to continue operations in the future

c)

To provide management’s opinion of projections for future performance of the entity to support management efforts to maximize the entity’s share price

d)

To provide management with an opportunity to provide non-financial information to the stock market to allow users of the financial statements to better predict future share prices for the entity

A

B

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30
Q

<p>Red Rocket Inc. had a beginning inventory on January 1 of 300 boxes of fuses at a cost of $9 per box. During the year, the following transactions occurred:

~~~
Transaction Boxes Cost
February 10 Purchase 700 $7
March 20 Sale 500
October 30 Purchase 100 $12
November 15 Sale 400
~~~

Determine ending inventory using the FIFO (first in, first out) cost formula.

a) $1,900
b) $1,800
c) $1,666
d) $1,600</p>

A

<p>A</p>

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31
Q

Snow Outfitters Ltd. (Snow) has incurred a series of costs over the past year. The CFO of Snow, Tim Parsons, would like to know which one of the following costs can be capitalized as an intangible asset.

a)

Construction of a research facility (a three-storey, 80,000-square-foot building) for use in current and future projects

b)

Marketing research related to the promotion of Zynex, a new waterproof, breathable fabric membrane used in all-weather clothing

c)

Purchase of materials to be used in current and future research

d)

Costs incurred in testing the prototype of and design modifications made to Zynex

A

D - The costs incurred to test the prototype of and design modifications made to Zynex should be capitalized as an intangible asset if the development criteria are met. If the development criteria aren’t met, these costs should be expensed.

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32
Q

<p>On January 1, 20X6, Beatty Inc. entered into a lease to acquire some machinery. Beatty reports under ASPE and is the lessee. The terms of the lease are as follows:
· Lease payments of $25,000 are made annually on the first day of the year for five years.
· Included in the annual lease payments are maintenance fees of $2,000 per year.
· The machinery reverts to the lessor at the end of the lease and the lease contains no renewal option.
· The machinery has a fair value of $100,000 on January 1, 20X6, and has an estimated economic life of five years with no residual value.
· Beatty’s incremental borrowing rate is 11% per year.
· The lease’s implicit interest rate is 10%.
What is the balance of the lease obligation at January 1, 20X7, assuming that the lease is a capital lease?

a) $62,175
b) $72,910
c) $56,143
d) $57,201</p>

A

<p>C</p>

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33
Q

XYZ Ltd. is a public company with the following results:

Segments	Sales	Profits	Assets
A	$60	$20	$1,000
B	10	3	55
C	11	4	20
D	55	35	900
E	5	2	60
F	10	5	65
G	15	2	100
$166	$71	$2,200

Based on the quantitative thresholds, how many reportable segments are there?

a)

2

b)

3

c)

4

d)

5

A

B - Segments A, D and G are all reportable. Proof:
Note: A minimum of 75% of total sales must be disclosed separately. Segments A and D, which are greater than 10% of total sales only make up 69% of total sales, which is why the next largest segment, G, is also a reportable segment.

Segments	Sales	Profits	Assets	Reportable?
A	36%	28%	45%	Y
B	6%	4%	3%	N
C	7%	6%	1%	N
D	33%	49%	41%	Y
E	3%	3%	3%	N
F	6%	7%	3%	N
G	9%	3%	5%	Y
100%	100%	100%
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34
Q

Which of the following describes a change in an estimate?

a)

A company changes the presentation of operating expenses from “by function” to “by nature.”

b)

An enterprise switches from the gross method to the net method of presenting government grants.

c)

A temporary difference was treated as a permanent difference when calculating deferred taxes (IFRS)/future taxes (ASPE).

d)

The useful life of a building was originally estimated to be 20 years but, based on new information available, it was changed to 15 years as at the beginning of the year.

A

D - A change in the useful life of an asset as a result of new information is a change in an estimate.

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35
Q

At the beginning of the year, Ellis Construction (Ellis) built a storage facility on leased land. Note the following:
· The lease agreement requires Ellis to return the land to its original state at the end of the 10-year lease by dismantling the building.
· Engineering reports commissioned by Ellis show that the best estimate of costs to settle the obligation in 10 years will equal $40,000.
· Any amount greater than $5,000 is material to Ellis.
· The company’s discount rate is 8%.
How would Ellis record the decommissioning asset and liability upon entering into the lease at the beginning of Year 1, and the interest expense at the end of Year 1?

a) Beginning of Year 1: debit decommissioning asset (storage facility asset) and credit decommissioning liability for $40,000; end of Year 1: interest expense of $4,000
b) Beginning of Year 1: debit decommissioning asset (storage facility asset) and credit decommissioning liability for $18,520; end of Year 1: interest expense of $4,000
c) Beginning of Year 1: Debit decommissioning asset (storage facility asset) and credit decommissioning liability for $18,520; end of Year 1: interest expense of $1,482
d) Beginning of Year 1: debit decommissioning asset (storage facility asset) and credit decommissioning liability for $20,000; end of Year 1: interest expense of $1,600

A

C - The decommissioning asset and the decommissioning liability are correctly calculated using the 8% discount rate: 0.463 × $40,000 = $18,520 (per paragraph 45 of IAS 37 Provisions, Contingent Liabilities and Contingent Assets). The interest expense has been correctly calculated based on the increase in the liability at the company’s discount rate: 8% × $18,520 = $1,482.

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36
Q

<p>Easten Co. leased a new forklift on January 1. This has been determined to be a finance lease with the following details:
· The lease agreement is for 10 years.
· The annual payment of $5,000 is due at the beginning of each year.
· Easten has the option to buy the forklift at the end of the lease for $1.
· At the end of the lease Easten may choose to return the forklift with no penalty.
· This forklift sells for $35,000.
· The interest rate on January 1 of Year 1 was 7%.
What is the interest expense to be recorded for Year 1?

a) 3,150
b) 2,630
c) 3,382
d) 3,430</p>

A

<p>A</p>

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37
Q

You, CPA, are employed as the chief accountant for Draw Pro Inc. (Draw), a computer software company. Over the past year, Draw has been developing a new software program called Graphics Tool. At the end of the year, Draw’s director of research estimated that $1 million was spent during the year on the Graphics Tool program. The director of research has asked you to reduce Draw’s expenses for the year by capitalizing the $1 million spent on the development of Graphics Tool as development costs.

Which of the following questions would NOT need to be considered when determining whether the development costs can be capitalized under IFRS?

a)

Has a future market for the Graphics Tool been clearly defined?

b)

Is the Graphics Tool program technologically feasible?

c)

Are the costs related to research activities or development activities?

d)

How soon will the Graphics Tool program be ready to begin marketing?

A

D - An analysis of the timeline to eventual marketing of the asset is not a criterion considered when determining whether costs can be capitalized as development costs per IAS 38.57.

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38
Q

Catherine, your audit manager, has asked you to explain to your client, Michael, the difference between a cash flow statement prepared using the indirect method and a cash flow statement prepared using the direct method. How would you explain this to him?

a)

The presentation and the amount of net cash flow from the operations section is different under both methods. The presentation and the amount of net cash flow from the investing and the financing sections is the same under both methods.

b)

The presentation and the amount of net cash flow from the operations and investing sections are different under each method. The presentation and the amount of net cash flow from the financing section is the same under both methods.

c)

The presentation of the operations, investing, and financing sections are different under both methods but the amount of net cash flow from the operations, investing, and financing sections under both methods are the same.

d)

The amount of net cash flow from the operations, investing, and financing sections is the same under both methods. The presentation of the operations section is different under both methods. The presentation of the investing and financing sections is the same under both methods.

A

D - The presentation of the operations section is different under both methods but the amount of net cash flow from the operations section is the same under both methods. The presentation and the amount of net cash flow from the investing and financing sections is the same under both methods.

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39
Q

<p>The following case facts pertain to Bok Choy Inc. (BCI) and a grant received from the Ontario government:
• On day 1 of the 20X7 fiscal year, BCI received a grant for $5,000,000 toward the construction of a new building.
• The total construction cost of the building, which was completed on day 1 of the 20X7 fiscal year, was $25,000,000.
• The building is to be depreciated on a straight-line basis over the useful life of the building, which is expected to be 25 years.
• The grant does not have to be repaid unless BCI fails to meet certain conditions imposed by the Ontario government.
• Management has assessed that it is likely that BCI will meet all conditions of the grant.
What is the impact on income in 20X7 as a result of the above transaction?

a) Income will increase by $200,000.
b) Income will decrease by $800,000.
c) Income will decrease by $1,000,000.
d) It is not possible to calculate the impact on income without knowing which method BCI will use to account for the grant.</p>

A

<p>B - (25,000,000 - 5,000,000) / 25 years</p>

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40
Q

At the beginning of the year (Year 1), Bambi’s Barbells (Bambi) built a CrossFit gym on leased property. Note the following:
· The lease agreement requires Bambi to return the leased property to its original state at the end of the five-year lease by dismantling the gym.
· Engineering reports commissioned by Bambi show that the best estimate of costs to settle the obligation in five years will equal $5,000.
· Any amount greater than $50 is material to Bambi.
· The company’s risk-adjusted market discount rate is 12%.
· The market risk-free rate is 3%.
What is the accretion expense for Year 3?

a)

$340

b)

$427

c)

$478

d)

$381

A

B - The PV of the $5,000 future remediation is $2,837 (I = 0.12, N = 5, PMT = 0, FV = 5,000). At the end of Year 3, the decommissioning obligation is $3,986 and accretion expense is $427.

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41
Q

Angela’s Artwork Inc. (Angela’s) recently entered into a contract to supply artwork to a U.S. company. The controller of Angela’s is not experienced with translation of foreign currency transactions and has made the following entries to record sales to the U.S. company without factoring in the impact of foreign currency on the transactions:

To record sales in USD:
DR Accounts receivable $156,000
CR Sales $156,000

To record the collection of a portion of the receivable:

DR	 	Cash (USD)	$90,000	 
 	CR	Accounts receivable	 	$90,000

To record the conversion of a portion of USD cash to CDN cash:

DR	 	Cash (CDN)	$78,000	 
 	CR	Sales	 	$18,000
 	CR	Cash (USD)	 	$60,000

Sales were made evenly over a period when the exchange rate was US$1.00 = C$1.33, and the exchange rate at the end of the fiscal year was US$1.00 = C$1.25.

What is the correct adjustment to accounts receivable?

a)

$39,000 debit to accounts receivable

b)

$16,500 debit to accounts receivable

c)

$16,500 credit to accounts receivable

d)

$39,000 credit to accounts receivable

A

B - [($156,000 – $90,000) × 1.25] – ($156,000 – $90,000) = $16,500 credit. This calculation is correct, but the adjustment is incorrect. The adjustment should increase the accounts receivables balance since a U.S. dollar is worth more than a Canadian dollar.

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42
Q

Dust Corp. purchased 100% of the shares of Bunny Inc. on January 1,Year 1, for $250,000 cash. Dust incurred total direct costs of acquisition of $6,000. On the date of acquisition, Bunny’s common shares and retained earnings were $50,000 and $150,000, respectively.

The following assets and liabilities had fair values different from book values:

Fair value Book value

Inventory 25,000 15,000
Land 50,000 25,000
Long-term debt 100,000 75,000

Both corporations have a 25% tax rate. What is the amount of goodwill on this purchase?

a)

$42,500

b)

$39,375

c)

$1,875

d)

$45,375

A

B - Goodwill was correctly calculated as:

 	 	Deferred income tax
Purchase price	250,000 	
Net book value	(200,000)	
Purchase premium	50,000 	 
Inventory	(10,000)	10,000 
Land	(25,000)	12,500 
Long-term debt	25,000 	(25,000)
Temporary differences		(2,500)
Tax rate		     25% 
Deferred income tax	      (625)	(625)
Goodwill	  39,375
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43
Q

When deciding whether the functional currency of a foreign subsidiary is the Canadian dollar, which of the following is a primary factor that should be considered?

a)

Source of financing

b)

Location of inputs

c)

Use of the parent company’s management

d)

Percentage of ownership by the parent

A

B - The location of the inputs influences input costs, which is a primary factor when determining the functional currency.

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44
Q

Which of the following is an accounting error?

a)

A company changes from the gross method to the net method of recording cash discounts.

b)

A private corporation previously using ASPE chooses to adopt IFRS.

c)

Costs not related to the construction of a building were included in the building cost.

d)

A patent was expected to provide protection of intellectual property for the full legal life of 20 years, but technological advances made the patent obsolete after only 12 years.

A

C- If costs that are not related to the construction of a building are included in the cost of the building, it results in an accounting error.

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45
Q

Sports Clothing Inc. (SCI), a Canadian company reporting in Canadian dollars, is a wholesale sports clothing distributor selling to retail outlets across North America. It recently opened up an office and warehouse in the United States, and borrowed funds in U.S. dollars to fund the expansion. The loan has a fixed rate of 5% per annum.

The company will sell items in U.S. dollars and incur costs in Canadian and U.S. dollars. Based on projections, the company expects sales in U.S. dollars to be greater than its U.S. dollar costs.

Which of the following statements best describes the risks facing this company?

a)

The company is incurring interest rate risk by selecting the U.S. dollar loan rather than a Canadian dollar loan.

b)

The company is exposed to foreign exchange risk on the net amount of its sales and costs that are denominated in U.S. dollars. The U.S. dollar loan is a natural hedge of this risk.

c)

The company has interest rate risk on its sales and costs that are incurred in U.S. dollars.

d)

The company has interest rate risk on its loan.

A

B - The cost of servicing the U.S. dollar loan will change, in Canadian dollar terms, to offset the changes in the value of the U.S. dollar net cash flows if the exchange rate changes unexpectedly.

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46
Q

For a decommissioning provision, the present obligation condition is met when:

a) An obligating event can be measured
b) An obligating event occurs
c) An obligating event has been budgeted for
d) Both a) and b) above

A

B - for a decommissioning provision, the present obligation condition is met when an obligating event occurs.

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47
Q

<p>Which of the following statements is FALSE?

a) A financial statement audit requires an understanding of the internal controls of an organization, whereas a financial statement review does not.
b) Financial statement audits will often require confirmation of balances and attendance at inventory counts, while financial statement reviews primarily focus on inquiry, analytical procedures, and discussion.
c) A financial statement audit and a financial statement review both require the practitioner to be independent.
d) A financial statement audit and a financial statement review both offer a positive opinion.</p>

A

<p>D</p>

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48
Q

Jeff has just joined a company that provides a defined contribution pension plan as a benefit for its employees. Jeff has come to you, CPA, to understand this pension plan and the obligations of the employer and employee.

Which of the following statements represents a defined contribution pension plan?

a)

The employer has an obligation to ensure that the plan assets are sufficient to pay for the employee’s pension benefit.

b)

The pension expense includes the current service cost, interest costs, and any returns on the plan assets.

c)

Annually, the employer pays fixed amounts that have been defined by the plan.

d)

The employer guarantees a set amount to be paid on the employee’s retirement.

A

C - The plan defines the amount of current service cost and past service costs that must be paid annually by the employer.

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49
Q

<p>In 20X7, the federal government provided land to Bomb Inc. (BI) to use in its business operations into the foreseeable future. The land had a fair market value of $55,000 and BI paid $0 to the federal government for the land use. BI uses IFRS to prepare its financial statements.
Which of the following is the best description of how to account for this grant?

a) The land was received for free by BI so a transaction is not recorded. However, note disclosure is required.
b) BI has the option of recording the grant and related asset at fair value or assigning a nominal amount to the grant and related asset.
c) BI records a deferred grant at fair value and recognizes the grant over the expected period of usage of the land.
d) BI must obtain an appraisal for the land and record the grant and related asset at fair value.</p>

A

<p>B</p>

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50
Q

<p>Which of the following is true regarding an engagement letter?

a) It describes the responsibilities of management, but does not describe the responsibilities of the practitioner.
b) It identifies the applicable financial reporting framework for the preparation of the financial statements.
c) It outlines any new or emerging risks that could have an impact on the engagement.
d) It is prepared by the auditor prior to the start of the audit and is acknowledged by the client at the end of the audit.</p>

A

<p>B</p>

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51
Q

Which of the following factors would not be considered in making the determination between control and significant influence?

a)

The voting rights of the investor

b)

The investor’s right to elect directors to the investee’s Board of Directors

c)

The length of time that the investor has held the shares of the investee

d)

The existence of a large number of other non-controlling shareholders.

A

C - This factor would not be considered when making the determination between control and significant influence, as an investor may exert significant influence over a number of years but may never control the investee.

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52
Q

<p>Under IFRS, which of the following can be capitalized to the cost of land?

a) CEO’s salary
b) Construction materials
c) Utilities
d) Title search</p>

A

<p>D - Costs to perform a title search can be capitalized to the cost of the land.</p>

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53
Q

<p>Kima Inc. had credit sales of $600,000 and cash collections of $450,000 last year. The ending balance in accounts receivable was $175,000. The allowance for doubtful accounts has a balance of $2,600. Bad debt expense is estimated at 1% of credit sales.
What was the bad debt expense for the year?

a) $1,500
b) $1,750
c) $6,000
d) $8,600</p>

A

<p>C</p>

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54
Q

The disposal of Cinnamon Inc.’s (CI) packaging division qualifies as a discontinued operation in accordance with IFRS 5 Non-current Assets Held for Sale and Discontinued Operations. Pertinent information for the most recent fiscal year end is as follows:
· Income up to the date that CI’s Board of Directors voted on disposal of the division: $3,000,000
· Income between the date of the board’s decision and the fiscal year end: $500,000
· Carrying value of net assets of the division: $600,000
· Fair value of net assets of the division: $500,000
· Sales commission to be incurred related to the disposal: 5% of proceeds
· Estimated income from the division during the three months between the fiscal year end and when the disposition is expected to take place: $200,000
Assuming CI’s effective tax rate is 40%, what amount will be reported for discontinued operations in the statement of comprehensive income for the recent fiscal year end?

a) $2,025,000
b) $225,000
c) $2,100,000
d) $2,145,000

A

A - Proof of correct answer:
= $3,000,000 (income up to the date of the decision to discontinue) + $500,000 (income between the date of the decision to discontinue and the fiscal year end) – $125,000 (write-down to fair value less selling costs)
= $3,375,000 × (1 – 40%)
= $2,025,000

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55
Q

<p>Which of the following statements regarding inventory is true?

a) Under IFRS, companies must capitalize borrowing costs, whereas ASPE allows companies to choose whether to capitalize or expense them.
b) There are no differences between IFRS and ASPE.
c) Under IFRS, companies must capitalize shipping costs, whereas ASPE allows companies to choose whether to capitalize or expense them.
d) Under IFRS, companies must capitalize manufacturing overhead, whereas ASPE allows companies to choose whether to capitalize or expense them.</p>

A

<p>A</p>

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56
Q

<p>Which of the following is considered restricted cash?

Question 4 options:

a) Foreign currency where there is a limited market for exchange into the company’s operating currency
b) Minimum balance requirements in bank accounts
c) Donations provided for a specific purpose in a not-for-profit organization
d) Both b) and c)</p>

A

<p>D</p>

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57
Q

Under ASNPO, when a donated item is used in the normal course of operations and would have been purchased otherwise, the NPO:

a)

Will have an increase to its net assets

b)

Must record the donation if its fair value can be reliably measured

c)

Has a choice whether or not to record the donation

d)

Both a) and b) above

A

C - an NPO has a choice whether or not to recognize a donated good or service, even if its value is reasonably estimated, it is used in the normal course of operations, and it would have been purchased otherwise.

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58
Q

Recently, Claries Clothing Inc. (CCI), a Canadian company, received an order to sell to a new customer in the United States. The invoice is for US$300,000. The customer has agreed to pay on October 15, 20X6, two months from the date of sale and shipment.

It is now the date of sale and shipment, and the exchange rate is US$1 = C$1.20. The company has taken no action to offset its foreign exchange risk at this point.
Which of the following statements BEST describes possible outcomes related to this sale?

a)

If the customer pays the invoice immediately, at the date of sale, there is foreign exchange risk associated with the amount of the sale and an exchange gain of $60,000 is recorded [$300,000 × ($1.00 – $1.20)].

b)

If CCI enters into a forward contract on the date of sale and shipment, based on a two-month forward rate of US$1 = C$1.23, CCI will record an exchange loss of $9,000 on the date the customer pays.

c)

If the customer pays in two months, and if the exchange rate is US$1 = C$1.25 at that time, CCI will realize an exchange loss of $15,000.

d)

If the customer pays in two months, and if the exchange rate is US$1 = C$1.25 at that time, CCI will realize an exchange gain of $15,000.

A

D - The company will realize an exchange gain of $15,000 [$300,000 × ($1.25 – $1.20)].

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59
Q

Cheong Inc. (CI) reports under ASPE. In fiscal 20X7, it acquired shares of $45,000 in a large, public company. How should the measurement of CI’s investment in these shares be classified?

a)

Fair value through profit or loss (FVTPL) or fair value through other comprehensive income (FVTOCI)

b)

FVTPL or cost

c)

Cost

d)

FVTPL

A

D - ASPE requires FVTPL classification when shares are traded in an active market. There is no other valid option for these shares.

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60
Q

<p>Which one of the following would be separated into individual components for purposes of depreciation?

a) Canadian pipelines
b) Laptop computer
c) Airplane fuselage
d) Building roof</p>

A

<p>A - Canadian pipelines need to be separated into individual components as the useful life of each pipeline segment would differ depending on the geography and weather it has been subjected to.</p>

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61
Q

<p>On April 15, 20X6, SFC Inc. consigned 80 units of Product A to HGL Inc. Each unit cost SFC $450 to produce, and it cost $1,000 to ship all the consigned units to HGL. On December 31, 20X6, HGL reported that it had sold 40 units for $800 each, and remitted to SFC the proceeds of sales, less a 15% commission and $850 in delivery costs to customers.

What profit on the consigned sales will SFC report for 20X6?

a) $7,350
b) $7,850
c) $13,500
d) $26,350</p>

A

<p>B</p>

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62
Q

<p>Based on the following information, calculate the ending balance in inventory.

~~~
Opening inventory $415,875
Purchases — lumber $350,750
Purchases — nails $16,250
Purchases — tools and equipment $125,350
Total sales $750,825
Mark up on goods 30%
~~~

a) $330,667
b) $257,298
c) $205,317
d) $782,875</p>

A

<p>C - Markup on goods calculated as $750,825 / 1.3</p>

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63
Q

<p>Which of the following statements is true?

a) The execution stage consists of the practitioner performing either tests of controls and detailed substantive tests or detailed substantive tests alone.
b) The reporting stage consists of the practitioner evaluating the audit evidence. Analytical procedures are not performed at this stage.
c) The planning stage consists of the practitioner assessing the client’s integrity to determine whether there are any factors to prevent the practitioner from continuing with an existing client.
d) The client acceptance and continuance stage consists of the practitioner preparing the management letter based on the practitioner’s understanding of the client.</p>

A

<p>A</p>

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64
Q

<p>The units of production method of depreciation:

a) Assumes that the benefit derived from the asset is higher in its initial years
b) Is the cost of the asset, net of the residual value, divided by the estimated useful life
c) Is based on allocating the cost in proportion to the fraction of capacity used
d) Is the book value of the asset multiplied by the depreciation rate</p>

A

<p>C - The units of production method of depreciation is based on allocating the cost in proportion to the fraction of capacity used.</p>

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65
Q

<p>The following accounts were taken from Blue Monkey Inc.’s unadjusted trial balance at December 31, 20X6:

Accounts receivable $850,000
Opening allowance for doubtful accounts (AFDA) January 1, 20X6 ($11,000)
Net credit sales $2,950,000

Blue Monkey estimates that 1.5% of the gross accounts receivable will become uncollectable. At December 31, 20X6, AFDA should have a credit balance of what?

a) $1,750
b) $11,000
c) $12,750
d) $44,250</p>

A

<p>C</p>

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66
Q

You are the controller of Alka Co., a ten year old company that has just gone public. The president comments:
“I know that we now need to supply audited annual financial statements, but the regulators also want timely reports periodically during the year.”
Which of the following statements is true?

a)

We do not have to provide any note disclosures in the interim financial statements.

b)

We are required to provide the same note disclosure in the interim financial statements as is contained in the annual financial statements.

c)

The note disclosure in the itermin financial statements is typically much less detailed than those containted in the annual financial statements..

d)

Estimates will need to be made for annual revenues and expenses so that allocations to interim periods can be made with minimal fluctuations between periods.

A

C - Per IAS 34.8, a minimum component of the interim financial statements includes selected explanatory notes. Per IAS 34.15, interim financial statements should include explanations of events and transactions that are significant to an understanding of the changes in financial position and performance of the entity since the last annual reporting period. Interim financial statements should include additional notes if their omission would make the condensed interim financial statements misleading (i.e. changes in significant judgements and assumptions made by management).

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67
Q

<p>Under IFRS, which of the following statements regarding losses caused by the revaluation method is true?

a) It is recorded to other comprehensive income (OCI), up to the amount of gains that were previously recorded.
b) It is recorded to the income statement, up to the amount of gains previously recorded.
c) It is recorded to the income statement, after all previous gains have been depleted from OCI.
d) Both a) and c) above.</p>

A

<p>D - Both a) and c) are correct because, when the asset is written down to fair market value under the revaluation method, it is first recognized by reducing any previously recognized gains in OCI, then the remaining loss is recognized in net income.</p>

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68
Q

Which of the following are included in consolidated common shares?

a)

100% of the parent’s common shares plus 100% of the subsidiary’s common shares.

b)

100% of the parent’s common shares only

c)

100% of the parent’s common shares plus the parent’s share of the subsidiary’s common shares

d)

100% of the parent’s common shares plus the non-controlling interest’s share of the subsidiary’s common shares

A

B - Only the parent’s common shares are included in consolidated common shares.

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69
Q

<p>Which of the following statements is true when evaluating whether a lease is a finance lease or an operating lease under IFRS?

a) A lease is classified as an operating lease if the lease term is for the major part of the economic life of the asset.
b) A leased asset is classified as an operating lease if the leased asset is specialized.
c) A leased asset could be classified as an operating lease if there is no bargain purchase option (BPO) in the lease.
d) A leased asset is classified as an operating lease if the present value of the minimum lease payments is substantially all of the fair value of the leased asset.</p>

A

<p>C</p>

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70
Q

<p>Which of the following is true regarding the client acceptance and continuance stage?

a) It is the second stage of the audit process.
b) It is the stage where the auditor plans the audit to reduce audit risk to an acceptably low level.
c) It is the stage where the auditor must review the threats to independence and ensure that safeguards are in place to reduce or remove those threats.
d) It is the stage where the auditor tests in detail the controls, transactions, and balances of the client.</p>

A

<p>C</p>

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71
Q

At the beginning of the year (Year 1), Bambi’s Barbells (Bambi) built a CrossFit gym on leased property. Note the following:
· The lease agreement requires Bambi to return the leased property to its original state at the end of the five-year lease by dismantling the gym.
· Engineering reports commissioned by Bambi show that the best estimate of costs to settle the obligation in five years will equal $5,000.
· Any amount greater than $50 is material to Bambi.
· The company’s risk-adjusted market discount rate is 12%.
· The market risk-free rate is 3%.
What is Bambi’s depreciation expense for the decommissioning obligation in Year 1?

a)

There is no depreciation expense, only accretion expense

b)

$1,000

c)

$567

d)

$340

A

C - The asset is capitalized at the present value of the $5,000 future remediation, or $2,837 (I = 0.12, N = 5, PMT = 0, FV = 5,000). $2,837 / 5 years = $567 depreciation per year.

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72
Q

Jayco Incorporated prepares its financial statements in accordance with IFRS. During its third quarter, it purchased shares in Crown Canada for a total cost of $40,000 and classified the shares as fair value through other comprehensive income. At year end, the shares had a fair value of $55,000.

Jayco is subject to a tax rate of 45%. Which of the following entries shows all required adjustments at year end?

a)

Dr. Investment in Crown shares

$15,000

 Cr. Deferred taxes (liability)

$15,000

b)

Dr. Investment in Crown shares

$3,375

 Cr. OCI — Unrealized gains

$3,375

c)

Dr. Investment in Crown shares

$15,000

 Cr. OCI — Unrealized gains

$11,625

 Cr. Deferred taxes (liability)

$3,375

d)

Dr. Investment in Crown shares

$15,000

 Cr. Other income

$11,625

 Cr. Deferred taxes (liability)

$3,375

A

C - The investment is revalued to fair value, and the unrealized gain, net of tax, is recorded into other comprehensive income (OCI). A debit of $15,000 is recorded to the investment account ($55,000 – $40,000). Deferred taxes are calculated at 45% of this increase in fair value, then multiplied by 50% to recognize the capital gains treatment ($15,000 × 45% × 50% = $3,375). OCI unrealized gains are the difference between the fair market value and cost, less the deferred taxes {($55,000 – $40,000) – [($55,000 – $40,000) × 0.45 × 0.50]} = $15,000 – $3,375 = $11,625, per paragraph 61A of IAS 12 Income Taxes.

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73
Q

On October 1, Alberta Camp Services Ltd. (ACSL) purchased 100% of the shares of Wholesale Foods Inc. (WFI) for $3,100,000. On October 1, WFI reported share capital of $150,000 and retained earnings of $2,600,000. All assets and liabilities had fair values equal to book values, except for inventory and buildings. Inventory had a fair value of $360,000 and a book value of $280,000. Buildings that originally cost $2,500,000 had a book value of $1,875,000 and a fair value of $1,775,000. ACSL’s tax rate is 30%.

What is the amount of goodwill on this purchase?

a)

$336,000

b)

$364,000

c)

$370,000

d)

$376,000

A

B - Goodwill is calculated as:

 	 	Deferred income tax
Purchase price	$ 3,100,000 	 
Book value of net assets	  (2,750,000)	 
Purchase premium	350,000 	 
Fair value differentials:	 	 
  Inventory	(80,000)	80,000 
  Buildings	100,000 	(100,000)
 	 	(20,000)
Income tax rate	 	       30% 
Deferred income tax	        (6,000)	    (6,000)
Goodwill	$   364,000
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74
Q

Which of the following circumstances requires prospective treatment?

a)

Your client amortizes computer hardware over four years and computer software over two years. While preparing the current-year financial statements, it is discovered that all computer hardware and software were amortized over two years.

b)

Your client purchased some new equipment last year and determined that it should be amortized over five years. In the current year, a new model of the equipment was announced and your client plans on replacing the equipment next year. Your client has revised the amortization period of the existing equipment to the two remaining years.

c)

In the current period, your client decided to switch from a straight-line method to a declining-balance method of amortization for a building your client owns because it determined that a competitor uses the declining-balance method of amortization for its buildings.

d)

In reviewing the amortization schedule for last year, an adding error was found, which resulted in an overstatement of prior-year amortization expense of $10,000.

A

B - A change in the useful life of an asset as a result of new information is a change in an estimate, requiring prospective treatment.

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75
Q

<p>Reed Construction Ltd. (RCL) uses the percentage of completion method under ASPE on its long-term construction contracts. In 20X4, RCL agreed to build an apartment building for a total contract price of $250 million. The percentage of completion is most reliably measured through costs. The job was completed with the following information:

~~~
(in millions) 20X4 20X5 20X6
Costs incurred to date $ 80 $165 $240
Estimated costs to complete 150 70 —
Billings to date 90 180 250
Collections during the year 80 95 75
What amount should be recognized as revenue in 20X5?
~~~

a) $88.5 million
b) $90 million
c) $95 million
d) $175.5 million</p>

A

<p>A</p>

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76
Q

On February 22 of Year 1, an NPO with a March 31 year end is given $200,000 cash to buy land. At the end of Year 1, it had revenues of $1,000,000. The NPO uses the cash to purchase land on April 2 of Year 2. The NPO has a depreciation policy where long-lived assets greater than $50,000 in value are amortized evenly over 10 years.

The NPO uses the deferral method to account for contributions.

What is the journal entry required for February 22 of Year 1?

a)

Dr. Cash 200,000; Cr. Deferred contribution 200,000

b)

Dr. Cash 200,000; Cr. Net assets 200,000

c)

Dr. Net assets 200,000; Cr. Capital assets (land) 200,000

d)

No journal entry is required

A

A - When the NPO receives the cash restricted for buying land on February 22 of Year 1, the appropriate journal entry to record the transaction is: Dr. Cash 200,000; Cr. Deferred contribution 200,000

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77
Q

On January 1, Year 1, ABC Inc. bought and received equipment from a U.S. supplier for US$100,000, payable on March 1, Year 1. On January 1, immediately after receiving the supplier’s invoice, ABC entered into a contract to purchase US$100,000 for C$105,000 for delivery on March 1.

Spot exchange rates:

January 1 US$1.00 = C$1.04
March 1 US$1.00 = C$1.06

Average exchange rate

January 1 to January 31, Year 1 US$1.00 = C$1.05
January 1 to March 1, Year 1 US$1.00 = C$1.09

Assume that no depreciation had been taken on the equipment. The March 1 book value of the equipment would be:

a)

C$104,000

b)

C$105,000

c)

C$106,000

d)

C$109,000

A

A - The equipment is non-monetary; therefore, it should be valued at its historical cost of $104,000. US$1.00 = C$1.04 x $100,000 = $104,000.

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78
Q

<p>Amaris Corp. manufactures and installs air conditioning systems. It recently signed a contract with Barkley Inc. to provide 10 custom-built air conditioning units, including installation, for total consideration of $250,000. Of this amount, $50,000 is non-refundable and is due in advance; the balance is due after all 10 units have been installed. The units will be manufactured and shipped over a one-month period, and the full installation will occur the following month. Amaris also sells air conditioning units without installation because several of its customers hire independent installers that they have used for other projects.

Which of the following statements is true?

a) Amaris should recognize $250,000 as revenue only when all installations are complete.
b) The non-refundable deposit should be recognized in revenue at the beginning of the contract.
c) The revenue related to the sale of air conditioning units cannot be recognized separately because the Barkley contract specifies that the installation must be completed.
d) The revenue related to the installation of air conditioning units can be recognized separately because there is evidence of a fair market value for the air conditioners.</p>

A

<p>D</p>

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79
Q

When discussing an integrated operation, which of the following statements is true?

a)

Its functional currency is the same as in a self-sustaining operation.

b)

Its functional currency can vary depending on the presentation currency

c)

Its functional currency is the Canadian dollar.

d)

Its functional currency can vary depending on the company’s reporting framework.

A

C - because the functional currency of an integrated operation is the Canadian dollar.

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80
Q

On February 22 of Year 1, an NPO with a March 31 year end is given $200,000 cash to buy land. At the end of Year 1, it had revenues of $1,000,000. The NPO uses the cash to purchase land on April 2 of Year 2. The NPO has a depreciation policy where long-lived assets greater than $50,000 in value are amortized evenly over 10 years.
The NPO uses the deferral method to account for contributions.

What is the journal entry required for March 31 of Year 2?

a)

Dr. Amortization expense 20,000; Cr. Accumulated amortization 20,000

b)

Dr. Amortization expense 20,000 Cr. Contribution revenue 20,000

c)

Dr. Net assets 20,000; Cr. Contribution revenue 20,000

d)

No journal entry is required

A

D - Land is a non-depreciable asset, therefore, no entry is required as at March 31 of Year 2.

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81
Q

<p>Depreciation should be calculated on a leased asset when:

a) It is classified as an operating lease.
b) It is classified as a finance lease.
c) It is accounted for from a lessor’s point of view.
d) Both b) and c) above.</p>

A

<p>B</p>

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82
Q

You, CPA, are working on the deferred tax section for Underhill Ltd., a publicly listed company, and its June 30, 20X6, year end. You have gathered the following information:

· NBV of capital assets at year end: $40,000 at June 30, 20X6; $30,000 at June 30, 20X5
· UCC of assets at year end: $30,000 at June 30, 20X6; $38,000 at June 30, 20X5
· Accrued warranty liability (current): $0 at June 30, 20X6; $20,000 at June 30, 20X5

The effective tax rate used for the June 30, 20X5, fiscal year was 20%. Corporate tax rates decreased, and at June 30, 20X6, the effective tax rate was 18%. There is strong speculation that the tax rate will fall to 16% by June 30, 20X7.

Assume that Underhill has recorded its deferred tax entries correctly in the past. Which one of the following entries is needed to record deferred taxes for the fiscal year ended June 30, 20X6?

a)

Dr. Retained earnings, opening $560, Dr. Deferred tax provision $6,840; Cr. Deferred tax (liability) $7,400

b)

Dr. Deferred tax provision $7,200; Cr. Deferred tax (liability) $7,200

c)

Dr. Deferred tax provision $7,400; Cr. Deferred tax (liability) $7,400

d)

Dr. Deferred tax provision $7,400; Cr. Deferred taxes, short term (liability) $1,600, Cr. Deferred taxes, long term (liability) $5,800

A

C - calculation of the deferred tax liability is:

Opening deferred tax asset = $5,600 ($1,600 difference in capital assets [$8,000 × 20%] + $4,000 difference in warranty [$20,000 × 20%]).

Closing deferred tax liability = $1,800 ($1,800 difference in capital assets [$10,000 × 18%] + $0 difference in warranty [no timing difference]).

Paragraph 74 of IAS 12 Income Taxes permits deferred tax assets and liabilities to be netted.

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83
Q

Under ASNPO:

a)

The deferral method facilitates tracking externally restricted contributions.

b)

The NPO may have one bank account that includes the balances of several funds.

c)

The statement of operations helps users understand which funds are available for use.

d)

The fund method tracks all contributions separately in their own fund.

A

B - under ASNPO, the NPO may have one bank account that includes the balances of several funds.

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84
Q

Which of the following statements about functional currency is true?

a)

Primary factors include funds retained from operations.

b)

Primary factors contribute to the determination of presentation currency.

c)

Secondary factors should be considered concurrently with primary factors.

d)

Secondary factors should be considered if primary factors cannot be determined.

A

D - When determining functional currency, secondary factors should be considered if primary factors cannot be determined.

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85
Q

Academy Vending Machines Inc. (Academy), along with several other parties, is being sued for $500,000 by a man who was badly burned when he spilled a cup of hot chocolate on himself at a skating rink.

Academy sold the hot chocolate machine to the rink during the year. At year end, Academy’s lawyer and management team were unable to estimate the probability of a loss or the amount of the loss.

If Academy reports in accordance with ASPE, what is the appropriate treatment for the lawsuit in Academy’s financial statements?

a)

Accrue $500,000 and disclose that the outcome of the lawsuit is not determinable.

b)

Disclose $500,000 and that the occurrence of the future event is unlikely.

c)

Accrue only a portion of the $500,000, based on management’s best estimate.

d)

Disclose $500,000 and indicate that the result of the lawsuit is not determinable.

A

D - Because the outcome is not determinable and the amount of the loss is not estimable, disclosure is appropriate.

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86
Q

<p>During the year, MNR Ltd. entered into a contract to provide monthly consulting services to XYZ Inc. The contract is expected to last for 12 months. It commenced on March 1 and MNR’s year end is October 31. The total value of the contract is $120,000. XYZ paid the full amount on July 11.

Which of the following statements is correct with respect to MNR’s October 31 financial statements?

a) MNR should record $40,000 as deferred revenue because the contract is not complete.
b) MNR should record $80,000 as deferred revenue because that is the amount earned.
c) MNR should record $120,000 as deferred revenue because the contract is not complete.
d) MNR should record $120,000 as revenue because that is the amount of cash received.</p>

A

<p>A</p>

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87
Q

<p>Which of the following describes audit risk?

a) The risk that the practitioner accepts a client but later determines that, due to a lack of sufficient staffing resources, it is not possible to complete the engagement
b) The risk that audit evidence is not scrutinized using professional judgment by the practitioner’s undesignated staff
c) The risk that an unmodified audit opinion is issued on materially misstated financial statements
d) The risk that insufficient analytical procedures are performed during the planning stage of the audit</p>

A

<p>C</p>

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88
Q

<p>Determine whether an entity is a related party to the reporting entity using IAS 24
Flowers International Ltd. (Flowers), a wholesaler of plants, is a subsidiary of Blooms Inc. Flowers has a 25% ownership interest in Blooms Inc. Blooms Inc. sells floral bouquets nationwide and applies ASPE.
Which one of the following parties would be a related party to Blooms Inc.?

a) The sister to the spouse of Blooms’ CEO
b) National Delivery Service, a company owned 15% by Flowers
c) CostGo, the largest customer of Blooms Inc.
d) The minority shareholder of Bloom, who accounts for the investment using the equity method</p>

A

<p>D - As per IAS 24.9(a)(ii), a person who has significant influence over the reporting entity is a related party. Since the minority shareholder accounts for its investment in Blooms Inc. using the equity method, this implies that the minority shareholder has significant influence and qualifies as a related party to Blooms Inc.</p>

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89
Q

<p>KR Ltd. has agreed to lease a piece of equipment with the following terms:
· Payments are $15,000 per year over seven years, with the first payment due January 1, 20X6.
· The economic life of the equipment is eight years.
· The interest rate implicit in the lease contract is 4%.
· The fair value of the equipment on January 1, 20X6, is $99,000.
What asset amount should KR Ltd. record on the balance sheet for this lease at January 1, 20X6?

a) $99,000
b) $90,000
c) $93,600
d) $0, because this is an operating lease</p>

A

<p>C</p>

90
Q

With respect to the differences between a forward contract and options when used to hedge, which of the following statements is correct?

a)

One drawback of a forward contract is that there is very little flexibility in the amounts that can be agreed upon for the notional amount of currency to be contracted.

b)

One advantage of an option is that the company is not obligated to fulfil the contract.

c)

One disadvantage of an option is that there is a margin account that must be maintained with the broker and settled with cash on a daily basis.

d)

One advantage of a forward contract is that there is counterparty risk requiring each party to comply with the contract.

A

B - The company has the right, but not the obligation, to fulfil the contract by the expiry date.

91
Q

Which of the following statements is true regarding elimination entries used to prepare consolidated financial statements?

a)

Elimination entries are recorded in the parent’s legal entity books and require the elimination of the investment account.

b)

Elimination entries are recorded in the subsidiary’s legal entity books to adjust the book values recorded in the subsidiary’s financial statements to fair values.

c)

Elimination entries are recorded in either the parent’s or the subsidiary’s legal entity books, depending on the specifics of the situation.

d)

Elimination entries are recorded in the consolidation worksheet to adjust the subsidiary’s assets and liabilities to reflect fair values, and to remove the investment account and pre-acquisition equity of the subsidiary.

A

D - The parent and subsidiary’s legal entity financial statement accounts are included in the consolidation worksheet, and elimination entries are then posted to the consolidation worksheet to determine the consolidated balance sheet.

92
Q

On May 31, Arabus Inc. purchased 100% of the shares of Desmond Ltd. for $3,375,000. The information for Desmond is below:

Financial statement item	Book value
Cash	$     80,500
Accounts receivable	92,000
Inventory	46,000
Property, plant, and equipment (PP&amp;E)	7,024,900
Goodwill	50,600
Accounts payable	275,000
Vehicle loans	3,035,000
Bonds payable	1,725,000
Share capital	100,000
Retained earnings	2,159,000

The tax rate for Arabus is 25%.

Fair value differentials:
· Inventory: Fair value is greater than book value.
· PP&E: Fair value is less than book value.
· Bonds payable: Fair value is less than book value.

Which of the following statements is false with respect to the elimination entry to consolidate the opening balance sheet?

a)

A debit will be required to set up goodwill associated with the acquisition, and a credit to goodwill will be required to adjust for the existing goodwill on the books of the subsidiary.

b)

If the fair value of the subsidiary’s net assets is greater than the book value of the net assets, a credit will be required to a deferred income tax liability account to set up deferred income taxes on the fair value differential.

c)

A debit will be required for the fair value differential on the inventory; credits will be required for the fair value differentials on the PP&E and the bonds payable.

d)

Debits are required to eliminate the subsidiary’s share capital and retained earnings, and a credit is required to eliminate the parent’s investment account.

A

C - This statement is false. It is true that a debit will be required for the fair value differential on the inventory and a credit will be required for the fair value differential on the PP&E. However, as the fair value of the bonds payable is less than the book value, a debit is required for the fair value differential on the bonds payable.

93
Q

<p>Why might management prefer compiled financial statements over audited financial statements?

a) A compilation engagement provides management with reasonable assurance that the financial statements are not materially misstated.
b) Management is cost sensitive.
c) A compilation engagement takes longer to complete than a financial statement audit.
d) The accountant does not have to be independent, and disclosure is not required in a compilation engagement when the accountant lacks independence.</p>

A

<p>B</p>

94
Q

<p>Which of the following is a difference in impairment between IFRS and ASPE?

a) IFRS requires an assessment of indicators of impairment at least every reporting date, while ASPE requires assessment only when events or a change in circumstances require it.
b) Reversals of impairment losses are permitted under ASPE up to the original cost of the asset, while reversals are not permitted under IFRS.
c) ASPE uses discounted cash flows in assessing the recoverable amount, while IFRS uses the undiscounted cash flows.
d) Recognition of impairment under the ASPE model compares the carrying amount to the higher of the value in use and the fair value less costs to sell. The IFRS model compares the carrying amount to the undiscounted future net cash flows from use and disposal.</p>

A

<p>A - Paragraph 9 of IAS 36 Impairment of Assets: “An entity shall assess at the end of each reporting period whether there is any indication that an asset may be impaired. If any such indication exists, the entity shall estimate the recoverable amount of the asset.” Paragraph 9 of ASPE Section 3063 Impairment of Long-Lived Assets: “A long-lived asset shall be tested for recoverability whenever events or changes in circumstances indicate that its carrying amount may not be recoverable.”</p>

95
Q

You, CPA, are the senior auditor assigned to the Truestar Ltd. audit file. You are reviewing Truestar’s financial statements and note that the only items included on Truestar’s balance sheet that have temporary differences for future income taxes are: intangible assets relating to deferred development of $20,000, a leased asset of $80,000, and a lease obligation of $69,000. Truestar’s tax rate is 20% and the company uses the future income tax method to account for income taxes. At the end of last year, Truestar’s future income tax liability was $7,000. Calculate Truestar’s future tax expense/recovery.

a)

$13,000 expense

b)

$6,200 expense

c)

$4,800 recovery

d)

$800 recovery

A

D - Answer d) is correct.

Accounting basis $ Tax basis $ Temporary difference deductible (taxable) $ Tax rate Deferred tax balance $

Opening balance (7,000)
Closing balance
Deferred development costs 20,000 0 (20,000)
Finance lease 11,000 0 (11,000)
Total (31,000) 20% (6,200)
Deferred tax recovery 800

96
Q

<p>Joe’s Cycling Shop (Joe’s), a private company selling both road and leisure bicycles, held a year-end sale. On December 31, Joe’s year end, a customer wanted to purchase a road bike with a cost of $3,000 and a sales price of $3,500. The customer decided to pay $200 to put the bike on hold under the agreement that he could walk away from the purchase within seven days and still have his money refunded. The accountant for Joe’s recorded the following entry to recognize the arrangement on December 31:

Dr. Cash $200
Dr. Accounts receivable $3,300
Cr. Sales $3,500

You are performing the review engagement of Joe’s. What adjusting entry, if any, would be required to properly account for this arrangement?

a) Dr. Cost of goods sold $3,000; Cr. Inventory $3,000
b) Dr. Sales $3,300; Cr. Accounts receivable $3,300
c) Dr. Sales $3,500; Cr. Accounts receivable $3,300, Cr. Deferred revenue $200
d) Dr. Sales $200; Cr. Deferred revenue $200</p>

A

<p>C</p>

97
Q

<p>Kingsmere Properties (Kingsmere) has just commenced construction on a multi-unit townhome development. Although construction will not be completed for another 12 months, some units have been pre-sold, and the future homeowners have made a down payment for homes in this popular new development. Payments are refundable if the development is not completed. The homes are a standard construction, and the future homeowners are not involved in the decision-making. Kingsmere is anxious to record this revenue as soon as possible in order to secure the necessary financing.

What would be the most appropriate accounting policy recommendation?

a) Recognize revenue when the home is completed and legal title transfers, because the performance obligation will not be satisfied until this time.
b) Recognize revenue when payments are received, because the amount to be recognized is measurable and collectable, and the performance obligation has been satisfied.
c) Recognize payments into revenue when the related operating expenses are recorded, because this will ensure that revenues match their related expenses.
d) Recognize revenue for the payments in accordance with the owners’ wishes, because there appears to be uncertainty and, as such, the policy can match user objectives.</p>

A

<p>A</p>

98
Q

Saanich Yogurt Ltd. (SYL) is a publicly traded Canadian company with a year end of December 31. You have been provided with the following information:

Income before income taxes $6,000,000
Income taxes $1,800,000
Shares outstanding, beginning of year 1,500,000
Shares issued, April 1 1,000,000

  • $10,000,000 convertible bonds were issued on October 1, bearing interest at 6%
  • The bonds are convertible to 1,000,000 common shares.

Assume a tax rate of 30%. What would be the dilutive effect of the convertible bonds?

a)

Increase the numerator by $105,000 and increase the denominator by 250,000.

b)

Increase the numerator by $420,000 and increase the denominator by 1,000,000.

c)

Increase the numerator by $420,000 and increase the denominator by 250,000.

d)

Increase the numerator by $600,000 and increase the denominator by 1,000,000.

A

A - The numerator is increased by the prorated interest on the bonds less tax: ($10,000,000 x 6% x .25) x (1 –.30). The denominator increases by the weighted average of the dilutive potential ordinary shares (October to December): (1,000,000 x .25).

99
Q

<p>A company sells clothes wholesale from its factories overseas to department stores in Canada. The shipping terms are FOB Shipping. Under ASPE, at what point are revenues generally recognized in the financial statements?

a) When the return period has expired
b) When the clothes are shipped to the customer
c) When future benefits of an asset expire
d) When contracts/invoices are prepared</p>

A

<p>B</p>

100
Q

Under ASNPO, an NPO makes a policy choice as to how it will account for contributions. Which of the following statements regarding contributions is true?

a)

A contribution is made up of restricted and government contributions.

b)

Restricted contributions are recognized in revenue when the donation is pledged.

c)

The method to account for contributions must be used for all contributions.

d)

Endowment contributions are recognized in revenue when the related expenses are incurred.

A

C - Per ASNPO, the method selected must be used for all contributions.

101
Q

If available, an entity must disclose which of the following geographical information?

a)

A deferred tax asset

b)

Property, plant and equipment

c)

Cost of goods sold

d)

A bond with a 3-year term

A

B - Expenses are not required to be reported when geographical information is available. Answer b) is correct. Most non-current assets, including property, plant and equipment, are required to be disclosed geographically.

102
Q

Which of the following statements is true with respect to accounting for income taxes?

a)

Under IFRS, companies may choose to use either the deferred method or the future income tax method.

b)

Under ASPE, companies must use the taxes payable method.

c)

Under IFRS, the deferred income tax asset and the deferred income tax liability accounts are classified as current or noncurrent, according to the type of asset or liability that created them.

d)

Under ASPE, companies choosing to use the future income tax method are not allowed to discount future income tax assets and liabilities.

A

D - Under ASPE, discounting of future income tax assets and liabilities is not allowed (paragraph 52 of ASPE Section 3465 Income Taxes).

103
Q

You are preparing to give a presentation on interim reporting to junior staff members. In reviewing the presentation used in the prior year, you come across the following points.
Which of the following statements is true?

a)

Measurement objectives for interim reporting are different than those for annual reporting.

b)

Condensed financial statements require fewer statements to be presented than what a complete set of financial statements requires.

c)

Basic and diluted net earnings per share (EPS) are required on the interim financial statements, following the same requirements as year end.

d)

Costs that are incurred unevenly within a financial year should be deferred or anticipated at management’s discretion.

A

C - This statement is true. Basic and diluted net earnings per share (EPS) are required on the interim financial statements, following the same requirements as year end.

104
Q

<p>Kaltech manufactures toolboxes for trucks in Sudbury, and maintains a head office in Toronto. The toolboxes are painted in a paint booth that requires Kaltech to adhere to strict safety standards, including always having a safety supervisor on site. Kaltech has a manufacturing facility and a separate sales and administration building.
Which of the following would be included in the value of finished goods inventory?

a) Safety supervisor’s wages
b) Amortization on the corporate headquarters
c) Storage costs, once production is complete
d) CEO’s wages</p>

A

<p>A</p>

105
Q

At acquisition, the fair value of the subsidiary’s property, plant, and equipment (PP&E) was greater than book value. In the last year, the subsidiary sold equipment (with a remaining useful life of eight years) to the parent at a loss. In preparing consolidated financial statements for the current year, which of the following statements is true with respect to the determination of consolidated PP&E?

a)

Consolidated PP&E will equal:

100% of the book value of the parent’s PP&E $ XXXX
Parent’s share of the book value of the subsidiary’s PP&E XXXX
Parent’s share of the unamortized fair value differential on the subsidiary’s PP&E from acquisition XXXX
100% of the unrealized loss on the intercompany sale of PP&E by the subsidiary to the parent XXXX
Consolidated PP&E $ XXXX

b)

Consolidated PP&E will equal:

100% of the book value of the parent’s PP&E $ XXXX
100% of the book value of the subsidiary’s PP&E XXXX
Parent’s share of the unamortized fair value differential on the subsidiary’s PP&E from acquisition XXXX
100% of the unrealized loss on the intercompany sale of PP&E by the subsidiary to the parent XXXX
Consolidated PP&E $ XXXX

c)

Consolidated PP&E will equal:

100% of the book value of the parent’s PP&E $ XXXX
100% of the book value of the subsidiary’s PP&E XXXX
100% of the unamortized fair value differential on the subsidiary’s PP&E from acquisition XXXX
100% of the unrealized loss on the intercompany sale of PP&E by the subsidiary to the parent XXXX
Consolidated PP&E $ XXXX

d)

Consolidated PP&E will equal:

100% of the book value of the parent’s PP&E $ XXXX
100% of the book value of the subsidiary’s PP&E XXXX
100% of the unamortized fair value differential on the subsidiary’s PP&E from acquisition XXXX
Parent’s share of the unrealized loss on the intercompany sale of PP&E by the subsidiary to the parent XXXX
Consolidated PP&E

A

C - On consolidation, 100% of the book value of the assets and liabilities of the parent and the book value of the assets and liabilities of the subsidiary are added together. These are adjusted for 100% of unamortized fair value differentials. Since the fair value of the PP&E was greater than the book value of the PP&E, the unamortized fair value differential is added. 100% of unrealized losses on intercompany sales of PP&E are added back because the loss results in PP&E being understated on the books of the purchaser.

106
Q

Under IFRS, intangible assets that may be capitalized include:

a)

Internally generated goodwill

b)

Internally developed brands

c)

Overhead costs directly related to development activities

d)

Borrowing costs related to research activities

A

C - Overhead costs directly related to development activities of preparing the asset for use are eligible for capitalization. These costs have a future benefit, they can be distinguished from other costs, and they can be appropriately measured (IAS 38.66).

107
Q

<p>Spare parts that have a lifespan of less than one year:

a) Include items such as a spare engine
b) Require an assessment to determine whether depreciation should commence
c) Are also known as standby equipment
d) Are classified as inventory</p>

A

<p>D - Equipment that would otherwise be referred to as “standby equipment” which has a lifespan of less than one year, is classified as inventory.</p>

108
Q

Carson Inc. spent $25,000 to redesign the layout of its offices to improve efficiency. No new equipment or other expenditures were incurred. Carson Inc.’s CFO, Jim Peltice, reviewed all costs and noted no research amounts. Jim believes that all costs incurred are development costs per IAS 38 Intangible Assets.

How should Carson Inc. record the $25,000 redesign cost?

a)

Add the $25,000 redesign cost to the cost of the office building as a betterment and amortize it over the remaining life of the building.

b)

Record the $25,000 redesign cost as a specifically identifiable intangible asset if future benefit is likely and amortize it over the estimated period of benefit.

c)

Expense the $25,000 redesign cost as a period cost.

d)

Record the $25,000 redesign cost as goodwill since it improves the efficiency of the business.

A

B - The specifically identifiable intangible asset should be amortized over the estimated period of benefit; however, in reality, it may be difficult to estimate the period of future benefit.

109
Q

Which of the following is a required disclosure under IAS 21 The Effects of Changes in Foreign Exchange Rates?

a)

Derecognized assets during the reporting period

b)

Amount of foreign exchange gain or loss in the balance sheet

c)

Functional currency

d)

Non-monetary assets or liabilities

A

C - Functional currency is a required disclosure under IAS 21.

110
Q

<p>On January 1, 20X6, Lessor Corp. entered into a contract to lease equipment to Lessee Co. with the following terms:
· The lease term is five years, with payments due on the first day of the year.
· The first payment is due on January 1, 20X6
· The equipment has a fair market value of $300,000 on January 1, 20X6.
· Lessee Co. has an incremental borrowing rate of 9% and Lessee Co. is aware of Lessor Corp.’s rate of 10%.
· The equipment has an estimated useful life of six years.
· Both the lessor and the lessee use straight-line amortization.
· The annual lease payment equals $70,733, which includes a $4,000 reimbursement to Lessor Corp. for insurance costs paid by the lessor to the insurance company.
· Both Lessor Corp. and Lessee Co. report under ASPE.
What is the present value of the minimum lease payments for this lease?

a) $299,900
b) $282,900
c) $294,900
d) $278,300</p>

A

<p>B</p>

111
Q

An entity’s functional currency is the dollar (or equivalent) in the environment:

a)

Where the largest purchases occurred

b)

In which its CEO resides

c)

Where it has disclosed in the notes at the end of the year

d)

In which it operates day to day

A

D- An entity’s functional currency is the dollar (or equivalent) that it primarily uses in day-to-day operations.

112
Q

<p>As a result of a water leak during July, a portion of XYZ Ltd.’s inventory was damaged. After assessing the damaged goods, the following values were determined on July 31:

Item Units Cost per unit Net realizable value (NRV) per unit
A 5,000 $25 $15
B 3,000 35 30
C 2,000 80 85

What inventory value should be reported at July 31?

a) $400,000
b) $335,000
c) $390,000
d) $325,000</p>

A

<p>D</p>

113
Q

You, CPA, are the controller of Flagship Inc., a company that has elected to use the future income tax method of accounting for income taxes under ASPE. You are reviewing Flagship’s accounts.

Which of the following will create a temporary difference?

a)

Dividends received on Canadian investments

b)

Political contributions

c)

Membership dues to a country club at which clients are entertained

d)

Provision for warranty repairs

A

D - Provisions for warranty repairs are not deductible for tax purposes. Only costs actually incurred for warranty repairs during the year are deductible for tax purposes. A provision for future repair costs will create a timing difference whereby non-deductible expenses in one year will be deductible in a future year when the actual expenditure is incurred.

114
Q

<p>Max, a CPA, works for Hydrostone Inc., a real-estate development firm that recently completed a downtown condo building. Of the four RPTs listed below, which one is in the normal course of operations?

a) Hydrostone Inc. sold a condo to the daughter of its majority shareholder. Terms and conditions of the sale were consistent with those of sales to unrelated parties.
b) Hydrostone Inc. sold furniture from its head office to a member of its Board of Directors. The furniture, which did not match the newly painted head office, was sold at market price to the director.
c) Hydrostone Inc. repaid a shareholder loan that had been outstanding for two years.
d) Hydrostone Inc. issued preferred shares to a related party to finance a large condo development.</p>

A

<p>A - think about what the company's business is</p>

115
Q

Kevin, an audit associate at your firm, Stanford and Poor LLP, is reviewing accounting changes. Which of the following statements is correct?

a)

If a company decides to change the amortization period of kitchen equipment from three years to five years because the equipment is lasting longer than originally intended, this change should be accounted for retrospectively.

b)

If a company changes any of its accounting policies, it should include a note to the financial statements indicating the effect of the change on the current period and prior periods, but a description of the change is not required.

c)

A company can account for changes in accounting policies prospectively if the change is required by a primary source of GAAP that permits or requires prospective application.

d)

Under ASPE, a company may account for a change in its revenue recognition policy prospectively if the financial data needed to determine the impact on previous periods is readily available.

A

C - This statement is true. Where a change to the company’s accounting policies is required by a primary source of GAAP that permits or requires prospective application, the company can account for the policy change prospectively. Changes made to existing standards and new standards will provide transitional guidance.

116
Q

<p>Whirlwind Inc. (WI) received a grant from the Canadian government in the current fiscal year. The grant of $200,000 was paid to WI before the December 31, 20X7, year end to offset salary costs to be incurred in fiscal 20X8. WI will be entitled to this grant if it employs a specified number of students during 20X8. WI management is certain that the required student employment threshold will be met. WI applies IFRS.
What is the appropriate journal entry for WI to record in fiscal 20X7 with respect to the government grant?

a) Dr. Cash $200,000

Cr. Salary expense $200,000

b) Dr. Cash $200,000
Cr. Grant revenue $200,000

c) Dr. Cash $200,000
Cr. Deferred grant revenue $200,000

d) No journal entry is to be recorded until 20X8</p>

A

<p>C</p>

117
Q

How should acquisition-related costs, such as due diligence and legal costs, be accounted for?

a)

Expensed as incurred

b)

As part of the total consideration

c)

As a reduction in equity

d)

As a deferred asset

A

A - Paragraph 53 of IFRS 3 Business Combinations states that the acquirer shall account for acquisition-related costs as expenses in the periods in which the costs are incurred and the services are received. The same treatment is required under paragraph 55 of ASPE Section 1582 Business Combinations.

118
Q

Steven is preparing the cash flow statement for Light Fixtures Inc. (LFI). Below is an extract of selected information from the company’s balance sheet and income statement.

 	20X6	20X5
Current portion of long-term debt	$30,000	$60,000
Long-term debt	790,000	850,000
Common shares	140,000	160,000
Preferred shares	35,000	—
Retained earnings	1,431,000	1,205,000
Other information available:

Interest paid was $48,000.
During the year, LFI repurchased common shares for $29,000.
Net profit for the year was $275,000.
LFI follows IFRS and reports interest paid and dividends paid as financing activities.
What is the total cash flow related to financing activities for the year?

a)

($181,000)

b)

($172,000)

c)

($163,000)

d)

($142,000)

A

B - Cash flow from financing activities is calculated as follows:

Repayment on long-term debt ($60,000 + $850,000) – ($30,000 + $790,000) $(90,000)
Repurchase of common shares (29,000)
Issue of preferred shares 35,000
Dividends paid Closing retained earnings – net income + excess of share repurchase price over book value – opening retained earnings = $1,431,000 – $275,000 + ($29,000 – $20,000) – $1,205,000 (40,000)
Interest paid (48,000)
Cash flow used in financing activities (172,000)

119
Q

Under IFRS, which of the following is not
a factor that would be considered in determining whether the investor has the power to control an investee?

a)

Potential voting rights of the investee associated with existing options, warrants, and convertible securities owned by the investor

b)

The right to appoint, reassign, or remove key management personnel

c)

The right to direct the investee to enter into transactions for the benefit of the investor

d)

The right to appoint three of seven board members to the Board of Directors

A

D - The right to appoint three of seven board members does not result in control of 50% of the board.

120
Q

<p>Which of the following statements is true?

Question 3 options:

a) Under IFRS, publicly traded bonds with a maturity less than or equal to three months are considered to be cash and cash equivalents.
b) There are no significant differences between IFRS and ASPE in the treatment of cash and cash equivalents.
c) Under ASPE, publicly traded bonds with a maturity less than or equal to three months are considered to be cash and cash equivalents.
d) Under ASPE, minimum balance requirements in bank accounts are considered to be cash and cash equivalents.</p>

A

<p>B</p>

121
Q

HIJ Ltd., a publicly traded company, has five operating segments all producing different products with the following results:

Segments	Sales	Profits	Assets
Q	$50	$4	$100
R	50	3	75
S	160	10	350
T	270	25	500
U	40	2	125
Total	$570	$44	$1,150

Based on the quantitative thresholds, which of the above are reportable segments?

a)

T only.

b)

S and T only.

c)

S, T and U only.

d)

Q, R and U only.

A

C - S and T both exceed the minimum 10% for combined revenue, operating profits and total assets. U also exceeds the minimum 10% of combined assets and so must be separately reported. Proof:

Segments	Sales	Profits	Assets	Reportable?
Q	9%	9%	9%	N
R	9%	7%	7%	N
S	28%	23%	30%	Y
T	47%	57%	43%	Y
U	7%	5%	11%	Y
Total	100%	100%	100%
122
Q

Which of the following items should be included in a company’s management discussion and analysis (MD&A)?

a)

A description of the company’s accounting policies

b)

Explanations of uncertainties and contingencies in accordance with the requirements of IAS 37 Provisions, Contingent Liabilities and Contingent Assets

c)

Industry and economic factors affecting the business

d)

The auditor’s view on future performance

A

C

123
Q

<p>J1 Inc. (J1) received a government grant of $100,000 in fiscal 20X7. The purpose of the grant was to enable J1 to replace manufacturing equipment with “greener” options. The new equipment cost $800,000 and has an estimated useful life of five years. J1 applies IFRS. Which of the following is true about how to account for the government grant?

a) It must be recognized in income on a systematic basis over the life of the manufacturing equipment.
b) It must be recognized in income evenly over the life of the manufacturing equipment, which equals $20,000 per year.
c) It must be deducted from the cost of the manufacturing equipment in calculating the carrying amount of the asset, which equals a net carrying amount of $700,000.
d) It must be recognized as deferred income and recognized on a systematic basis over the useful life of the asset.</p>

A

<p>A</p>

124
Q

During the year, Gothry Gasoline Ltd. built a service station in Moncton, New Brunswick. Current engineering estimates show that the best estimate of the cost to decommission the service station after its expected useful life of 20 years is $55,000.
How should Gothry Gasoline Ltd. record the decommissioning costs?

a)

Decommissioning costs of $55,000 should be discounted and added to the cost of the service station asset. An equal decommissioning provision should be recorded as a liability in the current year.

b)

Decommissioning costs of $55,000 should be added to the cost of the service station asset and an equal decommissioning provision should be recorded as a liability in the current year.

c)

Decommissioning costs should be recorded as an asset and an equal decommissioning provision should be recorded as a liability when an estimate of the fair value of the liability is known.

d)

Decommissioning costs of $55,000 should be expensed and an equal decommissioning provision should be recorded as a liability in the current year.

A

A

125
Q

Per ASNPO’s deferral method of accounting for contributions, if a restricted contribution’s related expense will occur in the beginning of Year 2, which credit account will the contribution be recorded to when it is received in Year 1?

a)

Contribution revenue

b)

Cash

c)

Net assets

d)

Deferred contributions

A

D - A restricted contribution that is received in Year 1, for which the related expense is not incurred until Year 2, will be recorded as:

Dr. Cash XXXXX; Cr. Deferred contributions XXXXX

126
Q

ABC Co. is a privately owned company that reports under ASPE. For the year ending December 31, 20X6, the company reported earnings before tax of $100,000. The following additional information is available:

Depreciation $20,000
Meals and entertainment $2,000
Maximum possible capital cost allowance (CCA) claim $25,000
Applicable tax rate 20%

What is the journal entry to record the total income tax expense for the year, assuming the company uses the taxes payable method and wishes to minimize taxes?

a)

Dr. Income tax expense $20,000; Cr. Income taxes payable $20,000

b)

Dr. Income tax expense $19,200; Cr. Income taxes payable $19,200

c)

Dr. Income tax expense $20,200; Cr. Income taxes payable $19,200, Cr. Future income tax liability $1,000

d)

Dr. Income tax expense $19,000, Cr. Income taxes payable $19,000

A

B - The $19,200 debit to income tax expense is calculated as follows:

Net income before tax	$100,000
Add back depreciation	 20,000
Add back non-deductible portion of meals and entertainment	 1,000
Less CCA	 (25,000)
Net income and taxable income	 96,000
Tax rate	 20%
Income tax expense	$ 19,200
127
Q

Which of the following statements is true with respect to the non-controlling interest (NCI) balance sheet account at the end of each year subsequent to acquisition?

a)

The NCI balance sheet account is impacted by the NCI’s share of unamortized fair value differentials and the NCI’s share of unrealized gains or losses on downstream intercompany transactions.

b)

The NCI balance sheet account is impacted by the NCI’s share of unamortized fair value differentials and the NCI’s share of unrealized gains or losses on upstream and downstream intercompany transactions.

c)

The NCI balance sheet account is impacted by the NCI’s share of unamortized fair value differentials and the NCI’s share of unrealized gains or losses on upstream intercompany transactions.

d)

The NCI balance sheet account is impacted by the NCI’s share of amortization to date of fair value differentials and the NCI’s share of unrealized gains or losses on upstream intercompany transactions

A

D - The NCI balance sheet account is impacted by the NCI’s share of amortization to date of fair value differentials (all amortization of fair value differentials recognized in consolidated net income since acquisition) and the NCI’s share of unrealized gains or losses on upstream intercompany transactions (subsidiary sales to parent).

128
Q

<p>Which of the following statements about other common engagements is true?

a) Reasonable assurance is provided during reviews of compliance with agreements and regulations (Section 8600).
b) No assurance is provided by compliance audits to determine whether an organization has adhered to applicable rules, policies, procedures, laws, and regulatory guidelines (Section 5815).
c) No assurance is provided from the results of applying specified auditing procedures to financial information other than financial statements (Section 9100).
d) Limited assurance is provided by operational audits that determine the effectiveness, efficiency, and economy of an organization’s operations.</p>

A

<p>C</p>

129
Q

Which of the following statements about management discussion and analysis (MD&A) is true?

a)

MD&A must follow the standards included in IFRS.

b)

MD&A must be complete and contain verifiable information.

c)

MD&A represents a more relevant but less reliable view of the company for users who are interested in future performance.

d)

CPA Canada legislates the requirements for MD&A.

A

C

130
Q

You, CPA, are a senior accountant with Barnes and Barnes LLP, a mid-size public accounting firm. You are analyzing the banana hook inventory of Banana Ltd. (Banana), a long-time client of Barnes and Barnes with a December 31 year end. Your analysis indicates that Banana’s ending inventory of banana hooks was overstated by $15,000 at December 31, 20X6, due to an inventory count error. The banana hook inventory at January 31, 20X7, was correctly calculated.

Which of the following statements is true?

a)

Because the ending banana hook inventory was overstated at December 31, 20X6, the cost of goods sold will be understated for 20X6.

b)

If the error had been detected before the 20X6 books were closed, the correcting entry would be a debit to retained earnings of $15,000 and credit to inventory of $15,000.

c)

Because the ending banana hook inventory was overstated at December 31, 20X6, cost of goods sold will be understated for 20X7.

d)

If the error was detected after the 20X6 books were closed, the correcting entry would be a debit to cost of sales $15,000 and credit to inventory of $15,000.

A

A - The ending banana hook inventory was overstated at December 31, 20X6, resulting in a corresponding understatement of cost of goods sold for 20X6.

131
Q

On February 22 of Year 1, an NPO with a March 31 year end is given $200,000 cash to buy land. At the end of Year 1, it had revenues of $1,000,000. The NPO uses the cash to purchase land on April 2 of Year 2. The NPO has a depreciation policy where long-lived assets greater than $50,000 in value are amortized evenly over 10 years.

The NPO uses the restricted fund method to account for contributions.

What is the appropriate credit account for the transaction on February 22 of Year 1?

a)

Deferred contribution (capital asset fund)

b)

Contribution revenue (capital asset fund)

c)

Contribution revenue (endowment fund)

d)

Net assets

A

D - The contribution is recognized as revenue in the statement of operations of the capital asset fund in the period received.

132
Q

At the beginning of the year (Year 1), Spicy and Saucy Company (S&S Co.) built a hot sauce factory in the middle of British Columbia’s semi-arid region. Note the following:
· British Columbian regulators have provided S&S Co. with a 20-year production licence.
· As a requirement of the licence, at the end of the licensing period, S&S Co. must close the factory and return the land to its original state.
· Engineering reports commissioned by S&S Co. show that the best estimate of costs to settle the obligation in 20 years will equal $100,000.
· Any amount greater than $2,000 is material to S&S Co.
· The company’s risk-adjusted market discount rate is 4%.
At the end of Year 20, what is the balance in each of the asset and liability accounts, respectively, for the decommissioning obligation of S&S Co.?

a)

$0 asset, $100,000 liability

b)

$45,639 asset, $45,639 liability

c)

$100,000 asset, $100,000 liability

d)

$45,639 asset, $0 liability

A

A - At the end of the 20 years, when it is time to remediate the land, the asset balance will be $0 (because it will be fully depreciated) and the liability will be equal to the expected costs to bring the land back to its original state, $100,000.

133
Q

<p>Your client, Jay, runs an autobody shop. In Jay’s business, he extends credit to some of his customers. Jay uses the allowance method and is concerned about how bad debts will be reported in his financial statements. When should he write off his accounts receivable (AR)?

a) An account receivable should be written off as soon as it is known to be uncollectable.
b) An account receivable should be written off only when a customer has become bankrupt or entered into receivership.
c) An account receivable should be written off once it is overdue by 91 days.
d) An account receivable should be written off only when the client has determined it is beneficial for tax reasons.</p>

A

<p>A</p>

134
Q

You are an audit senior. Your client, Fundmuch Inc., has developed a new software program to enable online donations/pledges. The client wants to capitalize the expenses to date. After reviewing the criteria, you determine that Fundmuch can capitalize its internally generated intangible asset. Fundmuch’s controller provides you with the following expense detail:

Description	Expense
Legal fees	$  2,000
General advertising and promotional costs	10,000
General administration and overhead	3,000
Staff software training	20,000
Cost of materials	25,000
Fees to register legal rights	5,000
Research phase	10,000
Total	$75,000

What is the total amount that is eligible to be capitalized?

A

D - The total amount that is eligible to be capitalized is correctly calculated as: legal fees ($2,000) + cost of materials ($25,000) + fees to register legal rights ($5,000).

135
Q

Which of the following describes a change in accounting policy?

a)

Inventory was sold below its carrying amount even though the inventory had been previously written down to what was believed to be the net realizable value.

b)

A public company changes from the cost model to the revaluation model for measuring the value of land.

c)

Development costs were capitalized when only five of six criteria for capitalization had been satisfied.

d)

The company miscalculated the weighted average number of ordinary shares outstanding because it used the wrong date for a share issuance.

A

B - A change from the cost model to the revaluation model for measuring the value of land is an acceptable change in accounting policy under IFRS.

136
Q

<p>The following details relate to a piece of equipment owned by BPL Ltd.:
· BPL purchased the equipment on January 1, Year 5, for $500,000.
· On January 1, Year 8, the equipment had a carrying value of $171,000.
· BPL has determined that there were indications that the equipment may be impaired.
· BPL has estimated that the equipment could be sold on the market for $150,000 net of selling costs.
· The cash flow generated by the asset in each of the next five years is $34,000, with no salvage value at the end of Year 12.
· The appropriate discount factor is 6%.
According to IAS 36, the reassessment would result in:

a) An impairment loss of $21,000
b) An impairment loss of $1,000
c) An impairment loss of $27,800
d) No impairment loss, because the recoverable amount is higher than the carrying value</p>

A

<p>A - The carrying value of the asset exceeds its recoverable amount. The impairment loss was correctly calculated as follows: Carrying value = $171,000. The recoverable amount is the higher of i) the value in use [$34,000 (PVIFA 6%, 5)] = $143,220 and ii) the fair value less selling costs = $150,000. Since carrying value > recoverable value, there is an impairment loss of $171,000 – $150,000 = $21,000.</p>

137
Q

<p>Which of the following is considered part of cash and cash equivalents?

Question 1 options:

a) Publicly traded shares
b) U.S. currency bank account
c) A 180-day term deposit
d) Cash in a bank account for minimum balance requirements</p>

A

<p>B</p>

138
Q

The IFRS criteria to determine whether development costs can be capitalized include which of the following?

a)

The intangible asset is likely feasible.

b)

There is a desire to use or sell the intangible asset.

c)

Expenditures are reliable and measurable.

d)

There are adequate and available resources to launch the development.

A

C - The entity must be able to reliably measure the costs associated with, and attributed to, the intangible asset during its development.

139
Q

<p>Susy Q’s Cheesecake Outlet Ltd. (Susy Q’s) makes gourmet cheesecakes and other desserts. Susy supported a fundraiser for a local charity by donating 20 cheesecakes that would normally sell for $25 each with a gross margin of 20% of the selling price. Susy was given a charitable receipt for $500. Susy Q’s follows ASPE.

What journal entry should Susy Q’s record for this transaction?

a) Dr. Donations $400; Cr. Sales $400
b) Dr. Donations $500; Cr. Inventory $500
c) Dr. Donations $500; Cr. Sales $500
d) No entry is necessary</p>

A

<p>C</p>

140
Q

You, CPA, are helping your client, Kitchen Direct (KD), with a new legal issue:
· Earlier in the year, a customer was using a stove supplied by KD when it exploded.
· The customer was severely burned and unable to work.
· The customer has initiated legal action of $25,000,000 against KD.
· KD’s lawyer estimates that the lawsuit will likely cost KD $100,000 to settle.

Jake, KD’s controller, has asked what the effect will be on KD’s financial statements. KD follows ASPE.

Which one of the following statements is correct?

a)

KD must disclose the existence of the lawsuit, naming the lawyer and his estimate, and state that the company could lose $25,000,000.

b)

KD must disclose the existence of the lawsuit and record the lawyer’s estimate of $100,000 as a liability.

c)

KD must disclose the existence of the lawsuit and state that the company could lose between $100,000 and $25,000,000.

d)

KD must disclose the existence of the lawsuit and state that the company is likely to lose $100,000.

A

B - The liability should be recorded at the loss amount that can be reasonably estimated. Disclosure should include information about the nature of the contingency, the estimated amount of the contingent loss, and the extent of exposure to losses in excess of the amount that has been recognized.

141
Q

Isla Inc.’s controller is new and is preparing interim financial statements for the first time. At the year-end date, she spends a significant amount of time updating estimates for items like allowance for doubtful accounts. She is wondering about the work required to complete the interim statements, and has asked you, CPA, for guidance.

Which of the following statements is true?

a)

The allowance for doubtful accounts remains the same as it will be updated at year end.

b)

The allowance for doubtful accounts should be updated based on the same bad debt rates as the prior year.

c)

The allowance for doubtful accounts should follow the same policies as at year end and be updated to reflect the appropriate measurement of accounts receivable.

d)

The allowance for doubtful accounts is NOT disclosed in the interim financial statements; therefore, an adjustment is unnecessary.

A

C - Measurement objectives for interim reporting are the same as those for annual reporting, meaning that they shall be made on a year-to-date basis.

142
Q

Assets are considered to be held for sale when several criteria have been met. Which of the following criteria must be met in order to define an asset as held for sale?

a)

The asset is available for immediate sale in its present condition.

b)

There is an authorized plan to sell the asset.

c)

The asset is actively marketed and expected to be sold within two years.

d)

Both a) and b) above.

A

D - because the asset being available for immediate sale in its present condition and there being an authorized plan to sell the asset are both criteria that must be met in order to define an asset as held for sale.

143
Q

<p>Bill, CPA, is a sole practitioner based in Vancouver. He is considering accepting Golden Minerals Inc. as a new audit engagement client. Golden is a small, private company engaged in the exploration for gold and other minerals in Alaska. Golden’s office and staff are located in Vancouver.

Which of the following is the most significant factor that Bill must consider in deciding whether to accept the client?

a) Why Golden requires audited financial statements
b) Whether Bill has an office in Alaska
c) Whether Bill has other clients in the same industry
d) The quality of Golden’s internal controls</p>

A

<p>A</p>

144
Q

For each decommissioning obligation, at the end of each reporting period:

a)

The provision should be updated to the current best estimate

b)

depreciation is recorded on the corresponding asset

c)

Interest is recorded straight-line to the income statement

d)

Both a) and b) above

A

D

145
Q

On January 1 of the current year, Ocean Ltd. sold a piece of equipment to its wholly owned subsidiary at a gain. At the time of the intercompany sale, the equipment had a remaining useful life of five years. What pre-tax adjustments are required to prepare the current-year December 31 consolidated financial statements?

a)

Increase the net book value of equipment by the full amount of the gain on sale, and increase the gain on sale of equipment by the same amount.

b)

Decrease the net book value of equipment by the gain on sale, and decrease the gain on sale by the same amount. Reduce amortization expense by gain realization in the year (intercompany gain / remaining useful life of the equipment), and decrease the net book value of the equipment by the same amount.

c)

Decrease the net book value of the equipment by the intercompany gain net of the current-year required adjustment to amortization expense, and decrease the gain on sale of equipment by the same amount.

d)

There are no consolidation adjustments required related to this transaction.

A

B - First, the impact of the gain on sale is eliminated from the financial statements through a decrease in the net book value of the equipment and elimination of the reported gain on sale from the income statement. Next, the overstatement of amortization expense that arises as a result of the net book value of the equipment being overstated in the books of the subsidiary is corrected through a reduction in amortization expense and an increase in net book value.

146
Q

Sammy Ltd. is a public company. Sammy is preparing its statement of comprehensive income for quarter 2, which ended on June 30, Year 2. What periods must be presented on the statement of comprehensive income?

a)

Quarter 2, Year 2, and quarter 2, Year 1

b)

Quarter 2, Year 2, quarter 2, Year 1, year-to-date, Year 2, and year-to-date, Year 1

c)

Quarter 2, Year 2, and year-to-date Year 2

d)

Quarter 2, Year 2, year-to-date Year 2, and year-to-date Year 1

A

B - The statement of comprehensive income must show the current interim period, cumulatively for the current financial year and comparatives for both the interim period and year-to-date of the preceding financial year.

147
Q

On January 1, R&T Trucks Inc. (R&T) purchased 100% of the shares of Murphy Trucking Ltd. (Murphy) for $2,657,400. At that time, Murphy’s reported common stock and retained earnings of $100,000 and $2,159,000, respectively. The fair value of Murphy’s inventory was $144,000 greater than book value, and the fair value of Murphy’s equipment was $133,000 less than book value. In addition, Murphy’s balance sheet included goodwill with a book value of $56,000 from the direct acquisition of assets of another company. The tax rate for both Murphy and R&T is 25%.

What amount of goodwill is associated with R&T’s purchase of Murphy’s shares?

a)

$446,150

b)

$432,150

c)

$390,150

d)

$334,150

A

A - Goodwill on the purchase is calculated as:

 	 	Deferred income tax
Price paid	2,657,400 	 
Book value of net assets acquired		 
    Share capital	(100,000)	 
    Retained earnings	(2,159,000)	 
    Purchase premium	398,400 	 
    Fair value differentials:		 
        Inventory	(144,000)	144,000 
        Equipment	133,000 	(133,000)
        Goodwill	56,000 	 
 	 	11,000 
        Income tax rate	 	       25% 
        Deferred income taxes	       2,750  	2,750 
Goodwill	446,150
148
Q

When the entity reports under IFRS, which of the following statements regarding foreign currency disclosures is true?

a)

The functional currency and amount of foreign exchange (FX) gain/loss in the income statement must always be disclosed.

b)

The amount of FX gain/loss in the income statement must be disclosed only if there was a change in functional currency during the year.

c)

The rationale supporting the functional currency must always be disclosed.

d)

A schedule reconciling monetary and non-monetary FX gain/loss

A

A - The functional currency and amount of FX gain/loss in the income statement must always be disclosed.

149
Q

A decommissioning provision typically requires:

a)

No discount rate

b)

An after-tax discount rate

c)

A pre-tax discount rate

d)

A risk-free discount rate

A

C

150
Q

Which of the following best represents a valid difference between IFRS and ASPE in regards to the reporting of held-for-sale (HSF) assets?

a)

Under IFRS, held-for-sale (HFS) assets can be written back up if their value recovers. Under ASPE, no subsequent increase in value can be recognized.

b)

Under ASPE, long-lived HFS assets that have been written down for an impairment loss can have the loss reversed, but only to the extent that the write-down occurred after the HFS classification. Under IFRS, impairment losses prior to the HFS classification may also be reversed.

c)

There is no difference; the reporting of HFS assets is the same under IFRS and ASPE.

d)

Under IFRS, HFS assets are no longer depreciated. Under ASPE, HFS assets are depreciated over their remaining useful life.

A

B - Under IFRS, if the fair value less costs to sell of the HFS asset subsequently increases, the asset can be written up to the extent of any previous impairment losses taken (as a result of either the HFS classification or prior impairment losses). A gain is recognized for this reversal. Under ASPE, the loss can only be reversed to the extent that the write-down occurred once the asset was classified as HFS.

151
Q

Saanich Yogurt Ltd. (SYL) is a publicly traded Canadian company with a year end of December 31. You have been provided with the following information:

Income before income taxes $6,000,000
Income taxes $1,800,000
Shares outstanding, beginning of year 1,500,000
Shares issued, April 1 1,000,000

  • $10,000,000 convertible bonds were issued on October 1, bearing interest at 6%
  • The bonds are convertible to 1,000,000 common shares.

Assume a tax rate of 30%. What should SYL report as basic earnings per share?

a)

$2.40

b)

$2.67

c)

$1.68

d)

$1.87

A

D - [($6,000,000 – $1,800,000) / ((1,500,000 + 1,000,000) x .75 + (1,500,000 x .25)] = $1.87 (rounded). Basic EPS is calculated as (net income – after tax amount of dividends on preferred stock) / weighted average number of common shares outstanding. 1,500,000 shares were outstanding for 25% of the year (January to March) and 2,500,000 shares were outstanding for 75% of the year (April to December).

152
Q

A bank’s loan officer is reading the management discussion and analysis (MD&A) section of a client’s annual report. What is the client’s MD&A intended to provide?

a)

Management’s representations on the financial statements

b)

Management’s statement of responsibility for forward-looking information

c)

Management’s assertions on social responsibility

d)

Management’s analysis of the past and future of the company

A

D

153
Q

Which of the following best describes possible sources of cash for the year?

a)

Redemption of term deposits, an increase in accounts payable, and advances from related parties

b)

Redemption of term deposits, a decrease in accounts payable, and advances from related parties

c)

Purchase of term deposits, an increase in accounts payable, and advances from related parties

d)

Redemption of term deposits, an increase in accounts payable, and advances to related parties

A

A - The redemption of term deposits, an increase in accounts payable, and advances from related parties are all sources of cash.

154
Q

Performance Sportswear Ltd. (PSI) is a large wholesaler of sporting goods. On January 1, it purchased 180,000 shares, representing 75%, of Sport Shop Ltd. (Sport) common shares for $576,000 cash. Sport’s shares were trading at $3.10 per share in the week following the acquisition. Both companies have December 31 year ends and effective tax rates of 30%.

The book value of shareholder’s equity at January 1 was $550,000.

Fair value differentials on Sport’s assets were as follows:

Fair value

differential
Inventory 40,000 fair value > book value
Equipment 70,000 fair value < book value

Determine the amount of goodwill to be reported on PSI’s consolidated balance sheet at acquisition, assuming that PSI accounts for the non-controlling interest (NCI) using the best measure of fair value.

a)

$226,000

b)

$233,000

c)

$179,250

d)

$242,000

A

B - goodwill is calculated as:

Deferred income tax

Price paid by parent 576,000
Imputed price for NCI: [(180,000 / 0.75) – 180,000] × 3.10 186,000
Total purchase price: 100% interest 762,000
Book value of net assets acquired (550,000)
Purchase premium 212,000
Fair value differentials:
Inventory (40,000) 40,000
Equipment 70,000 (70,000)
Temporary differences (30,000)
Income tax rate 30%
Deferred income taxes (9,000) (9,000)
Goodwill 233,000

The imputed price for the NCI is based on the trading price of the subsidiary’s shares in the week following acquisition. The trading price of the subsidiary’s shares should be used to determine the purchase price attributable to the NCI, as it more accurately represents the fair value.

155
Q

Which of the following is a correct difference between IFRS and ASPE treatment of decommissioning obligations?

a)

IFRS requires the asset portion of the obligation to be depreciated over the life of the asset; ASPE does not require it to be depreciated.

b)

IFRS considers the increase in carrying value over time to be a borrowing cost; ASPE considers it to be an operating cost.

c)

IFRS uses the pre-tax rate to increase the carrying value over time; ASPE uses the rate after-tax.

d)

IFRS recognizes the decommissioning obligation only when there is a legal requirement to be recognized; ASPE requires the liability to be recorded when it is legally required or there is a constructive obligation.

A

B

156
Q

<p>Which one of the following methods would be most effective to assess a potential new client’s character and integrity?

a) Request information from the client on what business organizations it belongs to, and a detailed explanation of the nature of its association with these business organizations.
b) Ask the client about its history with the Canada Revenue Agency and whether it has been assessed penalties and fines.
c) Inquire of references such as relatives and in-laws.
d) Ask the prospective client’s banker for his or her opinion of the client.</p>

A

<p>D</p>

157
Q

Amtrek Inc. is planning to dispose of a collection of assets. Amtrek has designated these assets as a disposal group. The carrying amount of these assets immediately before classification as held for sale was $20 million. Upon being classified as held for sale, the assets were revalued to their fair value of $18 million. Amtrek has estimated that it will cost $1 million to sell the group of assets.
How should Amtrek recognize changes to the value of the disposal group upon classification as held for sale?

a)

Amtrek recognizes a loss of $2 million immediately before classification as held for sale, and recognizes an impairment loss of $1 million when the disposal group has been classified as held for sale.

b)

Amtrek recognizes an impairment loss of $3 million when the disposal group is classified as held for sale.

c)

Amtrek recognizes an impairment loss of $2 million when the disposal group is classified as held for sale.

d)

Amtrek recognizes a loss of $2 million immediately before classifying the disposal group as held for sale.

A

B - When the disposal group is classified as held for sale, it is remeasured to the lower of its carrying value ($20 million) and its fair value ($18 million) less the costs to sell ($1 million). The $3 million reduction in value from the $20 million in carrying value to the $17 million in fair value less costs to sell is recorded as an impairment charge on the income statement (as part of income from continuing operations and pre-tax).

158
Q

Angela’s Artwork Inc. (Angela’s) recently entered into a contract to supply artwork to a U.S. company. The controller of Angela’s is not experienced with translation of foreign currency transactions and has made the following entries to record sales to the U.S. company without factoring in the impact of foreign currency on the transactions:

To record sales in USD dollars:

DR Accounts receivable $156,000
CR Sales $156,000

To record the collection of a portion of the receivable:

DR	 	Cash (USD)	$90,000	 
 	CR	Accounts receivable	 	$90,000

To record the conversion of a portion of USD cash to CDN cash:

DR	 	Cash (CDN)	$78,000	 
 	CR	Sales	 	$18,000
 	CR	Cash (USD)	 	$60,000

Sales were made evenly over a period when the exchange rate was US$1.00 = C$1.33, and the exchange rate at the end of the fiscal year was US$1.00 = C$1.25.

The foreign exchange gain or loss to be reported on these transactions is determined as follows:

a)

By comparing translated year-end receivables to translated sales

b)

By comparing the sum of Canadian cash, translated year-end receivables, and translated U.S. cash to translated sales

c)

By comparing the sum of translated year-end receivables and translated U.S. cash to translated sales.

d)

There would be no foreign exchange gain or loss because the difference is an adjustment to sales

A

B - Answer b) is correct because all balance sheet accounts related to the sale are compared to the translated sales.

159
Q

When booking annual accretion on a decommissioning obligation, the debit side of the entry would be:

a)

A fixed asset

b)

A decommissioning obligation

c)

An accretion expense

d)

A depreciation expense

A

C

160
Q

<p>Non-refundable taxes are:

a) Items such as GST
b) Items such as HST
c) Capitalized to the related equipment purchase
d) Expensed to the income statement when incurred</p>

A

<p>C - Taxes that are not refundable are added to the cost basis of the purchased assets.</p>

161
Q

Abbott Inc. spent $175,000 to change the layout of its plant, improving efficiency by 3% over the remaining life of the facility. No new equipment or other expenditures were incurred. The CFO reviewed all costs and noted no research amounts. The CFO believes all costs are development costs per IAS 38.

How should Abbott record the $175,000?

a)

Add it to the cost of the building as a betterment and amortize it over the remaining life of the building.

b)

Record it as a specifically identifiable intangible asset if future benefit is likely and amortize it over the estimated period of benefit.

c)

Expense it as a period cost.

d)

Record it as goodwill since it improves the efficiency of the business

A

B - The expenditure was successful in improving efficiency and the amount is reliably measurable. However, in reality, it may be difficult to estimate the period of future benefit.

162
Q

<p>The entry to write off a previously allowed-for uncollectable account does which of the following?

a) It increases the allowance for doubtful accounts (AFDA).
b) It has no effect on the allowance for doubtful accounts (AFDA).
c) It has no effect on net income.
d) It decreases net income.</p>

A

<p>C</p>

163
Q

<p>A company that reports under IFRS elects to use the revaluation method. Under the elimination method:

a) Both the cost and accumulated depreciation are increased.
b) The accumulated depreciation is reset back to zero.
c) The carrying amount stays the same.
d) The carrying amount is eliminated.</p>

A

<p>B - Under the elimination method, the accumulated depreciation is first reset back to zero.</p>

164
Q

<p>Bill’s Balloons (Bill’s) offers terms of 3/10 net 45 on all its sales. Following are the details of its latest sale:

· Fred ordered $1,000 of birthday balloons on February 1, 20X7.
· Fred received the invoice and the balloons immediately upon sale.
· Fred paid the full amount due on February 5, 20X7.

What is the credit entry that Bill’s will record for Fred’s payment, assuming Bill’s uses the gross method of accounting for cash discounts?

a) Accounts receivable 1,000
b) Cash 970 and Sales 30
c) Sales revenue 1,000
d) Discount expense 30</p>

A

<p>A</p>

165
Q

On October 1, Alberta Camp Services Ltd. (ACSL) purchased 100% of the shares of Wholesale Foods Inc. (WFI) for $3,100,000. On October 1, WFI reported share capital of $150,000 and retained earnings of $2,600,000. All assets and liabilities had fair values equal to book values, except for WFI’s inventory and buildings. Inventory had a fair value of $360,000 and a book value of $280,000. Buildings that originally cost $2,500,000 had a book value of $1,875,000 and a fair value of $1,775,000. ACSL’s tax rate is 30%.

The elimination entry needed to consolidate the balance sheet on October 1 will include which of the following related to fair value differentials?

a)

Cr. Inventory $80,000; Dr. Buildings $100,000

b)

Dr. Inventory $80,000; Cr. Buildings $100,000; Dr. Deferred income tax liability $6,000

c)

Dr. Inventory $56,000; Cr. Buildings $70,000

d)

Dr. Inventory $80,000; Cr. Buildings $100,000; Cr. Deferred income tax liability $6,000

A

B - The adjustments to inventory and buildings are correct, but a debit of $6,000 is required to the deferred income tax liability, not a credit. Answer b) is correct. The fair value of inventory was greater than the book value of inventory, and the fair value of the buildings was less than the book value of the buildings. Accordingly, a debit is required for the fair value differential on the inventory and a credit is required for the fair value differential on the buildings.

166
Q

Under accounting standards for not-for-profit organizations (ASPNO), fund accounting is:

a)

A self-balancing set of accounts for each fund

b)

Required for each fund

c)

Typically shown as a row for each fund in the financial statements

d)

Made up of net asset funds

A

A - Fund accounting works as a self-balancing set of accounts for each fund.

167
Q

A customer of Soltike Manufacturing Ltd. (Soltike) is suing the company for breach of contract. Soltike’s legal counsel estimates that likelihood of success is about 40%, and that, if successful, there is an 80% chance that the customer will be awarded $1,200,000. Soltike reports under IFRS.

Which of the following is the proper accounting treatment for this lawsuit?

a)

Record a provision for $1,200,000 and disclose the nature of the lawsuit.

b)

Record a provision for $960,000 and disclose the nature of the lawsuit.

c)

Record no provision and disclose the lawsuit along with the estimate.

d)

Record no provision, and no disclosure is required.

A

C - Since the lawsuit is only 40% likely to succeed, then it is not probable and no provision is recognized. However, because it is possible for a loss to occur, disclosure of the nature of the lawsuit and the estimate is required.

168
Q

Each reportable segment must have which of the following disclosed?

a)

Net earnings

b)

Gross revenues

c)

Related parties

d)

Earnings per share

A

A - Profit or loss is required to be disclosed by each reportable segment.

169
Q

<p>A property assessment of Company A’s building is lower than its carrying value. Company A is using the building and has no agreement in place to sell it. Given its specific use, this building is more valuable to Company A than to any other party. How would the recoverable amount be most appropriately determined in order to calculate the impairment entry, assuming Company A applies IFRS?

a) Calculate the present value of future cash flows associated with the building to estimate the value in use.
b) Query the neighbouring buildings’ owners to determine a fair selling price to estimate the fair market value.
c) Use the property assessment value to estimate the fair market value.
d) Determine the replacement cost of the building to estimate the fair market value.</p>

A

<p>A - The recoverable amount is the greater of the value in use and the fair value less costs to sell. In the absence of a binding sales agreement, the greater of these two amounts is the value in use. It can be estimated as the net cash flows from use and eventual disposal per IAS 36.22, with an applicable discount rate applied to the cash flows (IAS 36.30).</p>

170
Q

Willow Inc. has a defined contribution plan. Based on the current services provided by the employees during 20X1, Willow has agreed to pay the following instalments: $80,000 in 20X1, $70,000 in 20X3, and $40,000 in 20X4.

What is the pension expense for the year ending 20X1, assuming a discount rate of 5%?

a)

$80,000

b)

$98,046

c)

$178,046

d)

$190,000

A

C - The current service cost is the discounted amount of the total payments to be made: $80,000 + $70,000 / (1.05)2 + $40,000 / (1.05)3 = $80,000 + $63,492 + $34,554 = $178,046.

171
Q

<p>You are discussing the classification of leases with Howie, a fellow associate at Burns and Pickle LLP. Which one of Howie’s statements regarding leases for a company reporting under ASPE is correct?

a) A lease is a capital lease if the present value of the minimum lease payments is 75% or more of the fair market value of the property at the inception of the lease.
b) If a lease has no bargain purchase option, it must be classified as an operating lease.
c) From a lessee’s perspective, when determining the present value of the minimum lease payments, you only include annual lease payments.
d) When calculating the interest rate implicit in the lease, you include the minimum lease payments plus the unguaranteed residual value of the leased property.</p>

A

<p>D</p>

172
Q

On January 1, 20X6, depreciable assets with a book value of $920,000 and a historical cost of $1,000,000 were recorded on GHI Inc.’s books. CCA totalling $100,000 had been taken on these assets.

During 20X6, GHI recorded depreciation of $80,000 and CCA of $20,000. The 20X6 current and future tax rate is 35%. GHI has a December 31 year end.

For 20X6, the temporary differences arising from GHI’s depreciable assets would result in which of the following?

a)

A decrease to GHI’s income tax expense of $21,000

b)

An increase to income tax expense of $7,000

c)

A decrease to income tax expense of $7,000

d)

A decrease to income tax expense of $14,000.

A

A - Answer a) is correct.

Accounting basis $ Tax basis $ Temporary difference deductible (taxable) $ Tax rate Deferred tax balance $

January 1, 20X6
Depreciable asset 920,000 900,000 (20,000) 35% (7,000)

December 31, 20X6
Depreciable asset
$920,000 – $80,000 840,000
$900,000 – $20,000 880,000 40,000 35% 14,000

Deferred tax recovery 21,000

173
Q

Company A is a public company. They have:
• a total of 100,000 common shares outstanding.
• Six months before year end, Company A issued 20,000 debentures that are convertible into a total of 10,000 common shares.
• All of these debentures are outstanding at year end.

In computing diluted earnings per share calculation, the following would apply:

a)

The common shares arising from the convertible debenture issued during the period would be included from the date the current fiscal period began.

b)

Only the current common shares outstanding would be included in the denominator of the calculation.

c)

The common shares arising from the dilutive convertible debenture issued during the period would be included from the date of issuance of the debenture.

d)

The common shares arising from the convertible debenture issued during the period would only be included once converted.

A

C - In accordance with the IAS 33.36, potential common shares arising from a dilutive convertible security issued during the period are included from the date of issuance of the dilutive security. Therefore, they must be weighted for the period the convertible debentures were outstanding.

174
Q

Nickel Mining Co. (NMC) has just secured a loan from the bank to help finance a development project at its newest nickel mine. The bank has requested that 30% of the value of the mine’s annual production be hedged to protect against volatility in the price of nickel. NMC expects to mine and sell about 500,000 pounds of nickel annually.
Which of the following statements is true?

a)

If NMC purchases an option to sell nickel, it will have to deliver the nickel on the expiry date of the option.

b)

If NMC enters into a forward contract to deliver the nickel at a future date, the spot price will be received at the time of delivery.

c)

If NMC enters into a futures contract on credit, the purchase of the goods is recorded when the goods are received.

d)

A futures contract has counterparty risk and, therefore, is more speculative than a forward contract.

A

C - If NMC enters into a futures contract on credit, the purchase of the goods is recorded when the goods are received.

175
Q

You, CPA, are the audit senior on the Louise’s Landscaping (Louise’s) file. in The year-end financial statements of Louise’s were prepared in accordance with ASPE. Which of the following items has been reported correctly?

a)

Louise’s has been sued by a customer to whom Louise inadvertently sold poison ivy instead of Virginia creeper. The lawsuit is for $500,000. A liability for $500,000 has been recognized. Louise’s legal counsel believes that Louise’s is liable, but is unable to estimate the amount.

b)

Louise’s has been sued by a supplier for a disputed payment of $280,000. Louise’s legal counsel believes that there is a 55% probability that she will have to pay. There is no liability recognized on the statements, but a description of the lawsuit and an estimate of the amount of loss is disclosed.

c)

Louise’s has sued Bruce’s Manure, a supplier of bovine manure, for defamation. Louise’s legal counsel has advised that Louise’s is 95% certain to win the lawsuit and estimates the amount of the proceeds to be between $300,000 and $350,000. A receivable for $300,000 has been recognized.

d)

Louise’s has sued Rimmer’s Reeds, a supplier of water flowers for $400,000. Louise’s legal counsel has advised that Louise’s is 90% certain to win, but cannot accurately estimate the amount that Louise’s will collect. A receivable for $400,000 has been recognized.

A

B - Because the probability of loss is less than 70%, there is no accrual required. Disclosure of the nature and estimate of the amount of the contingent loss is required.

176
Q

An NPO had revenues at the end of Year 1 of $200,000 and was appropriately expensing tangible capital assets per ASNPO. At the end of Year 2, the NPO’s revenues increased to $600,000. As a result:

a)

Tangible assets will continue to be expensed as incurred.

b)

Tangible assets previously expensed need to be capitalized and depreciated retrospectively.

c)

New tangible assets need to be capitalized and depreciated as they are purchased.

d)

Both b) and c) above.

A

C - Once an organization exceeds $500,000 in annual revenues, new tangible assets need to be capitalized and depreciated as they are purchased.

177
Q

<p>Projack Services Ltd. (Projack) manufactures portable power-generating plants to specifications for several industrial customers. Its policy is to recognize revenue on a percentage of completion basis under ASPE. The following projects were underway over the current year end:

Project Costs incurred to year end Estimated costs to complete at year end % complete at year end Total contract fee
Belford plant $40,000 $65,000 38% $135,000
Gotham plant 15,000 28,000 35% 49,000
Markham plant 17,000 96,000 15% 145,000
Vickon plant 21,000 5,000 81% 33,000
On a percentage of completion basis, how much gross contract fee revenue should Projack recognize at the current year end?

a) $52,950
b) $73,050
c) $86,700
d) $116,930</p>

A

<p>D</p>

178
Q

A future income tax liability is an amount of income tax arising from:

a)

Deductible temporary differences

b)

The current taxes after deducting instalments paid

c)

Taxable temporary differences

d)

The carryforward of unused income tax reductions

A

C - When determining taxable income of future periods, taxable temporary differences result in taxable amounts.

179
Q

The indirect method was used to prepare the cash flow statement of Paulin Exterminators, as follows:

Net income $230,000
Gain on sale of capital assets (25,000)
Provision for future income taxes 52,000

Change in non-cash working capital accounts:	 
Decrease in prepaid expenses	 21,000
Increase in accounts receivable	(32,000)
Decrease in inventory	 43,000
Decrease in accounts payable	(14,000)
Increase in unearned revenue	 25,000
Cash from operations	$300,000

Additional information:
Sales $2,323,000
Cost of sales 1,394,000
Paulin Exterminators would like to see what the cash flow statement would look like if it was prepared using the direct method.

Under the direct method, what amount would be reported as cash collected from customers?

a)

$2,291,000

b)

$2,330,000

c)

$2,316,000

d)

$2,355,000

A

C - Sales ($2,323,000) + increase in unearned revenue ($25,000) – increase in accounts receivable ($32,000) = $2,316,000.

180
Q

<p>Under IFRS, depreciation:

a) Should be equal to the government’s capital cost allowance rate.
b) Matches the cost of the asset with the benefit it derives
c) Takes half depreciation in the year of acquisition
d) Continues after the item is derecognized</p>

A

<p>B - Depreciation matches the cost of the asset with the benefit it derives.</p>

181
Q

Marc and Mohinder Inc. (MMI) reports under IFRS. Details of the investments held by MMI are as follows:

Investment Classification Fair value
Sept. 30, 20X7 Fair value
Dec. 31, 20X7
Shares in Laos Inc. FVTPL $34,500 $30,000
Shares in Sintra Inc. FVTOCI $16,000 $16,500
Shares in Faro Inc. FVTOCI $10,000 $4,000
Shares in Algarve Inc. FVTOCI $5,000 N/A*

  • The shares in Algarve Inc. were sold for $6,000 on November 1, 20X7. These shares were acquired for $4,000 in fiscal 20X5.
    Journal entries relating to the above investments were last recorded for the September 30, 20X7, quarter-end financial statements. For the December 31, 20X7, year-end financial statements, the amount reported as “passive investments” on the statement of financial position is $50,500.
    What is the impact on profit and loss from any share transactions and year-end adjustments?

a)

A net loss of $15,000

b)

A net loss of $4,500

c)

A net loss of $2,500

d)

A net loss of $3,500

A

B - Only one investment (shares in Laos Inc.) is classified as FVTPL, so only the unrealized loss relating to the change in fair value of this investment ($4,500) will be reported in profit and loss.

182
Q

<p>Which of the following statements regarding testing is true?

a) Tests of controls are always performed.
b) Test of controls and substantive tests are always performed.
c) Test of controls and analytics are always performed.
d) Detailed substantive tests are always performed.</p>

A

<p>D</p>

183
Q

<p>Zig Zag Inc. (ZZI) reported an impairment loss on land in fiscal 20X6. Information pertaining to this land in 20X7 to assist management in accounting for it properly is as follows:

Original cost of land $550,000
Impairment loss reported in 20X6 on land $150,000
Carrying value on 20X6 statement of financial position $400,000
20X7 — value in use of land (estimated) $500,000
20X7 — fair value of land (estimated) $485,000
20X7 — disposal costs (estimated) $45,000

ZZI reports using IFRS. What journal entry should be recorded in the 20X7 financial statements, if any, with respect to impairment for ZZI’s land?

a) No journal entry should be recorded.

b) Dr. Land $100,000
Cr. Recovery of impairment loss $100,000

c) Dr. Land $150,000
Cr. Recovery of impairment loss $150,000

d) Dr. Land $40,000
Cr. Recovery of impairment loss $40,000
</p>

A

<p>B - Since the recoverable amount has increased, the impairment loss from 20X6 can be reversed up to the lower of the recoverable amount and the original carrying value, as per IAS 36.114. The recoverable amount is now $500,000 (higher of value in use and fair value less costs to sell), so a recovery of $100,000 can be recorded.</p>

184
Q

Under ASPE Section 1591 Subsidiaries, when one company (the parent) controls another company (the subsidiary), and the subsidiary’s shares trade in active markets, the parent has a choice of methods for accounting for its investment in the subsidiary. Which of the following is false with respect to an accounting policy choice under ASPE 1591?

a)

Mark the investment to market using quoted market prices.

b)

Account for the investment using the cost method.

c)

Account for the investment using the acquisition method.

d)

Account for the investment using the equity method.

A

B - If subsidiary shares are traded in active markets, the cost method may not be used to account for the investment in the subsidiary.

185
Q

<p>Which of the following is a difference between IFRS and ASPE for the accounting of property, plant, and equipment?

a) Whether or not to capitalize land transfer tax
b) Whether or not to capitalize borrowing costs
c) Whether or not to capitalize construction costs
d) Whether or not to capitalize management supervision costs</p>

A

<p>B - IFRS requires borrowing costs to be capitalized, whereas ASPE allows for a choice to capitalize or expense borrowing costs.</p>

186
Q

Bedford Inc. (BI) acquired 25% of the shares of Red Inc. (RI) in the current fiscal year for $150,000 with no fair value differentials. It was determined that BI’s investment in RI should be accounted for using the equity method.
During the year:
· RI paid $100,000 in dividends.
· RI reported net income of $500,000, which included $20,000 (in profits) that resulted from sales of inventory to BI.
BI has yet to process the inventory it purchased from RI. This inventory will be processed next year and the resulting product will be sold to one of BI’s customers.
What should be reported as “investment in RI” on BI’s current-year statement of financial position? Ignore any potential tax consequences.

a)

$150,000

b)

$170,000

c)

$245,000

d)

$250,000

A

C - The $150,000 investment cost less 25% of $100,000 in dividends paid, plus 25% of $500,000 of current-year profits, less 25% of unrealized profit of $20,000 = $150,000 – $25,000 + $125,000 – $5,000 = $245,000.

187
Q

<p>In 20X7, Seawalk Scoops Inc. (SSI) celebrated the fifth anniversary of its program that employs ex-convicts who are being reintegrated into society. At this time, to recognize SSI’s success with this program, the Prince Edward Island government provided a grant that covered 10% of SSI’s salary costs associated with the employees in the program from the prior five fiscal years. The P.E.I. government hopes that this will encourage other companies to employ ex-convicts.
Which of the following is the best description of how to account for this grant?

a) The grant should be recognized in income evenly over the next five years.
b) The entire grant should be recognized in 20X7 since it relates to costs incurred in prior periods.
c) The grant should be recognized in the periods to which it relates. Financial statements would need to be restated for the prior five years if the grant is material.
d) The grant relates to paid expenses so it must be netted against these costs. The grant must be netted against 20X7 payroll expenses; if the grant exceeds 20X7 payroll expenses, the remaining grant money should be deferred to 20X8 and netted against 20X8 payroll costs.</p>

A

<p>B - A government grant that becomes receivable as compensation for expenses or losses already incurred or for the purpose of giving immediate financial support to the entity with no future related costs shall be recognized in profit or loss of the period in which it becomes receivable.</p>

188
Q

<p>Which of the following is an indicator of impairment?

a) An engineering report increases the expected life of a copper mine from 10 years to 25 years.
b) In a food processing factory, the health department declares the meat grinder unsafe due to leaking hydraulic fluid, and the company needs to replace it.
c) Due to temporary road closures, a seaside hotel experiences slightly higher than normal vacancy rates for the first time since opening.
d) Both a) and b) above.</p>

A

<p>B - An
adverse action by a regulator has caused the meat grinder to be unusable, thus it can no longer contribute cash flows.</p>

189
Q

<p>In which of the following situations might a bank be satisfied with a financial statement review instead of a financial statement audit?

a) The business is considering issuing more shares to private investors to attract more capital.
b) The business is expanding and wants to borrow more money to purchase additional facilities.
c) The business’s industry is starting to decline and the company has had some trouble meeting its loan payments.
d) Inventory and accounts receivable have increased significantly, and loan balances are a function of these two accounts.</p>

A

<p>A</p>

190
Q

You, CPA, are preparing the financial statements for Bob’s Valet Services Ltd. and note that the balance sheet includes marketable securities with a book value of $65,000 and a fair value of $110,000. Assuming these securities are classified as fair value through other comprehensive income, how should the securities be treated in order to comply with IFRS 9 Financial Instruments?

a)

The marketable securities should be reported on the balance sheet at book value and the fair value should be reported in the notes to the financial statements.

b)

The marketable securities should be reflected on the balance sheet at fair value and the increase in value should be included in net income for the year.

c)

The marketable securities should be reported on the balance sheet at book value and the increase in value, net of taxes, should be disclosed in the notes to the financial statements.

d)

The marketable securities should be reflected on the balance sheet at fair value and the increase in value, net of taxes, should be reflected on the statement of other comprehensive income.

A

D - At each reporting date, the carrying amount of the securities is adjusted to the current fair value of the securities. The change in fair value, net of taxes, is recognized in other comprehensive income.

191
Q

<p>Sunnyside Manufacturing (Sunnyside), a publicly traded company, has entered into an agreement with FP Inc. to lease a specialized piece of production equipment. Significant modifications would be required to make this equipment available to others after the lease has expired. The terms of the lease are as follows:
· The lease term is five years.
· The expected life of the equipment is eight years.
· The implicit interest rate is 8%.
· Sunnyside’s borrowing rate is 6%.
· The annual lease payment is $60,000 (made at the beginning of the year).
· The fair value of the equipment is $400,000.
· The leased asset reverts to the lessor at the end of the lease.
In the first year of the lease, Sunnyside would account for the production equipment as:

a) An operating lease of $60,000
b) A finance lease of $258,700
c) A finance lease of $400,000
d) A finance lease of $268,200</p>

A

<p>B</p>

192
Q

<p>Which of the following is considered part of cash?

Question 5 options:

a) Bank overdrafts
b) Investments in money market funds
c) Legal tender on hand on business premises
d) Both a) and b)</p>

A

<p>C</p>

193
Q

Maple Leaf Inc. purchased inventory from an Australian supplier, Aussie Inc., on December 16, Year 1. Maple Leaf’s year end is December 31 and the inventory was purchased for A$100,000.

Exchange rates:

December 16, Year 1 A$1.00 = C$1.30
December 31, Year 1 A$1.00 = C$1.21

What is the appropriate journal entry required to record the purchase?

a)

Dr. Inventory $100,000, Dr. Foreign exchange expense $30,000; Cr. Accounts payable $130,000

b)

Dr. Inventory $100,000, Dr. Foreign exchange expense $21,000; Cr. Accounts payable $121,000

c)

Dr. Inventory $121,000; Cr. Accounts payable $121,000

d)

Dr. Inventory $130,000; Cr. Accounts payable $130,000

A

D - The purchase is translated using the spot rate at December 16, Year 1: A$100,000 × C$1.30 = $130,000.

194
Q

In fiscal 20X5 and 20X6, Bronco Inc.’s tax rate was 38%. Bronco reports income taxes using the future income tax method.

Included in Bronco’s income was warranty expense of $20,000. Bronco made warranty payments of $30,000 during 20X6. The balance in warranty payable at the end of 20X6 was $15,000.

During 20X6, amortization of $30,000 for accounting purposes was expensed and CCA of $40,000 was claimed. There were no additions or disposals of capital assets. The net book value (NBV) of capital assets for the 20X5 year end was $130,000, with a corresponding undepreciated capital cost (UCC) balance of $80,000.

Bronco does not own any land and has not capitalized any leased assets.

What is Bronco’s 20X6 future income tax expense or recovery?

a)

$3,800 future income tax expense

b)

$7,600 future income tax expense

c)

$7,600 recovery of future income taxes

d)

$17,100 future income tax expense

A

B - Answer b) is correct.

Accounting basis $ Tax basis $ Temporary difference deductible (taxable) $ Note

December 31, 20X5
Depreciable asset 130,000 80,000 (50,000)
Warranty liability (25,000) — 25,000 1
Total (25,000)

December 31, 20X6
Depreciable asset 100,000 40,000 (60,000) 2, 3
Warranty liability (15,000) — 15,000
Total (45,000)
Net change from 20X5 to 20X6 (20,000)
Future income taxes at 38% 7,600 4

Note 1: The warranty payable balance as at December 30, 20X5, is $25,000 (20X6 opening warranty balance of $25,000 plus 20X6 accrual of $20,000 less 20X6 payment of $30,000 equals the stated 20X6 closing balance of $15,000).

Note 2: 20X6 ending NBV is $100,000 (20X5 closing NBV of $130,000 less 20X6 amortization of $30,000).

Note 3: The ending UCC is $40,000 (20X5 closing UCC of $80,000 less 20X6 CCA of $40,000).

Note 4: When the tax rate of 38% is applied, future income tax expense is $7,600.

195
Q

Stampede Inc. (SI) is a public company.
On January 1, Year 1, 65,000 common shares were issued and outstanding. During the year:
• 15,000 additional common shares were issued on April 1
• 20,000 preferred shares were issued on June 1
• these shares are non-cumulative and carry an annual dividend entitlement of $2 per share.
• no dividends were declared
• net income was $2,000,000

What is the basic EPS for SI for its fiscal Year 1 year end?

a)

$24.50

b)

$25

c)

$25.70

d)

$26.23

A

D - = Income available to common shareholders / WACSO
= $2,000,000 / [(65,000 × ¼) + (80,000 × ¾)]
= $2,000,000 / 76,250
= $26.23

196
Q

A bargain purchase arises when the price paid to acquire a controlling interest in another company is less than the acquirer’s share of the fair value of net assets of the company being acquired. At the end of your preliminary analysis, you believe that a business combination results in a bargain purchase. What is your next step?

a)

Recognize an immediate gain in the consolidated statement of profit and loss without any further analysis.

b)

Recognize a liability in the consolidated balance sheet.

c)

Contact the acquiree to confirm its intention.

d)

Reassess each step of your analysis to confirm your finding.

A

D - Under paragraph 36 of IFRS 3 Business Combinations, the acquirer is required to reassess whether it has correctly identified all of the assets acquired and all of the liabilities assumed, and shall recognize any additional assets or liabilities that are identified in that review. In addition, the acquirer must then review the fair values assigned to individual assets and liabilities of the subsidiary company to determine whether any of the fair values have been incorrectly measured.

197
Q

<p>Which of the following statements about audits is true?

a) A compliance audit is conducted to provide assurance that an entity’s governance, internal control, and risk management processes are operating effectively.
b) An audit on controls at a service organization is conducted by an entity’s employees to provide assurance over various aspects of an organization’s activities.
c) An audit of special purpose financial statements is conducted to ensure financial reporting compliance with specific laws, policies, procedures, and regulations.
d) An operational audit determines whether an entity’s activities are efficient, effective, and economic.</p>

A

<p>D</p>

198
Q

<p>Nuts and Bolts Inc. (NBI) reports its financial statements in accordance with ASPE. Manufacturing equipment used to manufacture products that have not been selling as well as expected was written down in fiscal 20X6, as it was determined to be impaired. Management re-evaluated the equipment in 20X7 to ensure it was accounted for properly. Relevant information to assist management in accounting for the equipment properly in fiscal 20X7 is as follows:

Original cost of equipment $200,000
Impairment loss reported in 20X6 on equipment $60,000
Carrying value on 20X6 statement of financial position $100,000
Undiscounted future cash flows associated with the equipment
(estimated in 20X7) $125,000
Fair value of equipment 20X7 $105,000

What journal entry should be recorded in the 20X7 financial statements, if any, with respect to impairment for NBI?

a) No journal entry should be recorded.

b) Dr. Equipment $5,000
Cr. Recovery of impairment loss $5,000

c) Dr. Equipment $25,000
Cr. Recovery of impairment loss $25,000

d) Dr. Equipment $60,000
Cr. Recovery of impairment loss $60,000</p>

A

<p>A - Impairment losses are not reversed when the asset makes a recovery in value, as per ASPE 3063.06.</p>

199
Q

Which of the following statements regarding the derecognition of an asset is true?

a)

Assets and liabilities are only derecognized when a company is sold or wound up.

b)

Monetary assets and liabilities require a complicated derecognition process with several steps.

c)

Monetary assets and liabilities are first revalued using the spot exchange rate on the recognition date.

d)

Monetary assets and liabilities are not a part of the recognition process.

A

C - Derecognition of assets acquired or liabilities incurred in a foreign currency transaction does not pose any special challenges. Monetary assets and liabilities are first revalued using the spot exchange rate on the derecognition date and then derecognized in the normal course.

200
Q

In order to qualify for separate presentation on the income statement, a discontinued operation must be considered a component of an entity.
Which of the following would be considered a component of an entity?

a)

A hotel in a hotel chain

b)

The administration building of a large manufacturing company

c)

A truck stop for a national trucking company

d)

The warehouse of a communications company

A

A - A hotel in a hotel chain is considered to be a component of an entity because it is a group of assets directly generating cash flows that are clearly distinguishable from the rest of the entity.

201
Q

Assume ABC Company has a December 31 year-end and prepares interim financial reports on a quarterly basis. Which of the following is the BEST answer regarding interim financial reports for fiscal Year 2?

a)

The interim financial reports would include a statement of comprehensive income for the quarter ended September 30, Year 2, as well as, for the nine months ended September 30, Year 2.

b)

The interim financial reports would include a statement of financial position as at September 30, Year 2 and September 30, Year 1.

c)

The interim financial reports would include a cash flow statement for the quarters ended March 31, Year 2, June 30, Year 2, and September 30, Year 2.

d)

Both options a) and b) above.

A

A - As per IAS 34.20(b), a statement of comprehensive income is required for the current interim period and cumulatively for the current financial year to date. Comparative statements for the same periods of the prior year would also be required.

202
Q

<p>You, a CPA, are assisting your firm’s co-op student in learning about related-party transactions (RPTs). You decide to compare how ASPE and IFRS account for RPTs. Which of the statements below is true?

a) IFRS and ASPE standards are completely converged in terms of RPTs; there are no differences.
b) IFRS requires RPTs to be reported at the exchange amount of the transaction while ASPE requires RPTs to be reported at the carrying amount.
c) IFRS does not provide guidance on measurement of RPTs but ASPE does.
d) IFRS does not provide guidance on disclosure of RPTs but ASPE does.</p>

A

<p>C - IFRS does not provide guidance on measurement of RPTs but ASPE does.</p>

203
Q

Judith, CPA, works as an accountant for Amara’s Cosmetics Inc. She is currently making the year-end adjustments for the fiscal year ending February 28, 20X5. One of the adjusting journal entries required is the amortization on a trademark that was purchased in April 20X4 for $67,000. Following is relevant information:

· Amara has the legal right to use the trademark for 10 years.
· The trademark will be used on products for the next six years; at the end of this period, it will have an estimated residual value of $2,000.
· Amara amortizes on a straight-line basis starting in the month of purchase.

What is the amortization to be recorded for the year ending February 20X5?

a)

$5,583

b)

$9,028

c)

$9,306

d)

$11,167

A

C - The useful life is six years, since this is the period over which Amara expects to use the trademark on its products. The residual value for intangible assets is nil since the company has no third-party commitment to buy the asset at the end of its useful life and trademarks are not actively traded. The calculation is: $67,000 / 6 × 10/12 months = $9,306.

204
Q

<p>Management has decided to use the revaluation method under IFRS for some newly purchased land. This land is the only land on the balance sheet.

The land was originally purchased for $2,000,000. At the end of the first and second years, management had appraisals completed, and the land’s fair market value was reliably estimated to be $1,500,000 and $1,800,000, respectively.

What journal entries are required to adjust the value of the land under the revaluation model for Year 2?

a) Dr. Loss on revaluation of land (income statement) $200,000
Cr. Land $200,000

b) Dr. Land $300,000
Cr. OCI — revaluation surplus $300,000

c) Dr. Land $300,000
Cr. Gain on revaluation of land (income statement) $300,000

d) OCI — revaluation surplus $200,000
Cr. Land $200,000</p>

A

<p>C - when there is an increase in the asset (from $1,500,000 in Year 1 to $1,800,000 in Year 2), the gain is first recorded to net income, up to the amount of losses previously recorded to net income as a result of previous revaluations. The appropriate journal entry in Year 2 is:

Dr. Land $300,000
Cr. Gain on revaluation of land (income statement) $300,000</p>

205
Q

Under ASNPO, which of the following statements regarding disclosures is true?

a)

Amounts and descriptions of unrestricted deferred contributions must be disclosed under the deferral method of accounting.

b)

Amounts and descriptions of recognized restricted contributions must be disclosed under the restricted fund method of accounting.

c)

There is no difference in disclosures required under the restricted fund and deferral methods of accounting.

d)

Financial statement disclosures are not required under ASNPO.

A

C - Under ASNPO, there is no difference in the disclosures required under the restricted fund and deferral methods of accounting.

206
Q

<p>A client tells you that a business associate advised him of the following differences between a review engagement and a compilation engagement. Which of the following statements is FALSE?

a) A review is intended to provide limited assurance and a compilation provides no assurance.
b) The practitioner must be independent for both a review engagement and a compilation engagement.
c) In a review engagement, the financial statements must comply with ASPE or IFRS, while financial statements prepared under a compilation are not required to comply.
d) Both review and compilation engagements require the accountant to ensure that the financial statements are not false or misleading.</p>

A

<p>B</p>

207
Q

Which of the following statements regarding monetary items is true?

a)

Gains or losses on these items are recognized in other comprehensive income in the period in which they occur.

b)

They are translated using the closing rate on the balance sheet date.

c)

Gains or losses on these items are first netted against previous gains or losses, and any difference is then recognized in the income statement.

d)

They are translated using the average rate during the period.

A

B - Monetary items are translated using the closing rate on the balance sheet date.

208
Q

Which of the following statements is true regarding the correction of an error from prior periods?

a)

The correct information was available at the time the error was made.

b)

The correct information was not available at the time the error was made.

c)

One should use hindsight to judge whether there is an accounting error that requires correction.

d)

An example of a correction of an error is the difference between the amount of the allowance for doubtful accounts and the actual amount of bad debts.

A

A - Management had the information available to correctly report the transaction at the time it occurred.

209
Q

Dirty Boots Inc. (DBI) had:
• net income before tax of $2,400,000 in fiscal Year 1.
• effective tax rate is 20%.
• weighted average number of common shares outstanding of 3,000,000.
• 100,000 cumulative preferred shares issued and outstanding throughout Year 1
• dividend rate is $3 per share; no dividend was declared for Year 1
• each preferred share is convertible to two common shares at the option of the shareholder; no conversions happened during Year 1.
What are DBI’s basic and diluted EPS for Year 1, respectively?

a)

$0.54 and $0.54

b)

$0.54 and $0.60

c)

$0.70 and $0.75

d)

$0.54 and $0.62

A
A - Proof of correct answer: 
Basic:
= [($2,400,000 × 80%) – $300,000] / 3,000,000
= $1,620,000 / 3,000,000
= $0.54

Incremental:
= $300,000 / 200,000
= $1.50
Since this is higher than basic EPS, the preferred shares are antidilutive.

210
Q

Buffet Limited (BL) is a Canadian public company. It is now January 20, Year 2, and you, CPA, are about to calculate basic EPS for BL for its December 31, Year 1, year end. The financial statements need to be issued by February 1, Year 2.
Information for the Year 1 year end is as follows:
• Net income: $1,000,000
• Common shares: 750,000 issued and outstanding
• Preferred shares, cumulative: 100,000 shares issued and outstanding
• The annual dividend entitlement for the preferred shares is $6 per share.
• No dividends were declared during Year 1.
• 600,000 common shares were outstanding on January 1
• An additional 150,000 common shares were issued on July 1, Year 1.
• On January 15, Year 2, BL split its shares 2:1.
What is basic EPS for BL for its fiscal Year 1 year end?

a)

$0.30

b)

$0.59

c)

$0.74

d)

$1.48

A

A - Even though the stock split happened after year end, it must be reflected in the Year 1 EPS calculation. Answer a) is correct.
Proof of correct answer:
= Income available to common shareholders / WACSO
= ($1,000,000 – $600,000) / 2 × [(600,000 × ½) + (750,000 × ½)]
= $400,000 / 1,350,000
= $0.30

211
Q

<p>A sale should not be recognized as revenue by the seller at the time of sale in which of the following situations?

a) The buyer has a right to return the goods, and the amount of the future returns cannot be reasonably estimated.
b) The selling price of the goods is less than the normal selling price.
c) Payment was made by cheque.
d) The buyer has an outstanding account balance with the seller, but has a history of timely payments.</p>

A

<p>A</p>

212
Q

At the beginning of the year (Year 1), Packer’s Pizza (Packer) built a pizzeria in a leased property in a strip mall. Note the following:
· The lease agreement requires Packer to leave the strip mall store in its original state at the end of the five-year lease by dismantling the Pizzeria.
· Engineering reports commissioned by Packer show that the best estimate of costs to settle the obligation in five years will equal $40,000.
· Any amount greater than $1,000 is material to Packer.
· The company’s risk-adjusted market discount rate is 9%.
· The market risk-free rate is 5%.
What is the balance of the asset retirement obligation at the end of Year 2?

a) $28,337
b) 35,554
c) $25,997
d) $30,887

A

D - The initial asset retirement obligation at the beginning of year 1 would be is $25,997 (I = 0.09, N = 5, PMT = 0, FV = 40,000. At the end of year 2 it would therefore be $30,887 ($25,997 × (1.09)2).

213
Q

<p>During which stage does the practitioner form an opinion on the fair presentation of the financial statements?

a) Client acceptance and continuance
b) Planning
c) Execution
d) Reporting</p>

A

<p>C</p>

214
Q

<p>Which of the following would an auditor NOT consider in accepting a new client?

a) The client’s reputation with the local chamber of commerce
b) The owner-manager’s knowledge of computers
c) The client’s reporting requirement expected by the bank
d) Whether adequate records exist for the current year</p>

A

<p>B</p>

215
Q

<p>Which of the following is considered part of cash and cash equivalents?

Question 2 options:

a) 100 ounces of silver
b) An investment in shares of a blue-chip company
c) A term deposit maturing in one year
d) A 30-day government T-bill</p>

A

<p>D</p>

216
Q

<p>Genette Inc. (GI) reports under ASPE. The controller of GI is about to record a journal entry to account for a related-party transaction. The transaction in question was not in the normal course of operations for GI and resulted in no substantive change in ownership interests. How should the controller account for this transaction?

a) Measure the transaction at the carrying amount and record any gain or loss in income.
b) Measure the transaction at the carrying amount and record any gain or loss in equity.
c) Measure the transaction at the exchange amount and record any gain or loss in income.
d) Measure the transaction at the exchange amount and record any gain or loss in equity.</p>

A

<p>B </p>

217
Q

<p>On January 1, 20X6, Beatty Inc. entered into a five-year lease to acquire some machinery. Beatty reports under ASPE and is the lessee. The terms of the lease are as follows:
· Lease payments of $25,000 are made annually on the first day of the year.
· Included in the annual lease payments are maintenance fees of $2,000 per year.
· The machinery reverts to the lessor at the end of the lease and the lease contains no renewal options.
· Beatty uses straight-line depreciation for the machinery that it owns.
· The machinery has a fair value of $100,000 on January 1, 20X6, and has an estimated economic life of five years with no residual value.
· Beatty’s incremental borrowing rate is 11% per year.
· The lease’s implicit interest rate is 10%.
What is the present value of the minimum lease payments?

a) $95,907
b) $94,356
c) $104,247
d) $102,561</p>

A

<p>A</p>

218
Q

FR210 Moderate: Significant influence — equity
Pick Up Ltd. (PUL) holds 18% of the common shares of Vines Inc. (VI). PUL is able to appoint three members of VI’s Board of Directors and is VI’s main supplier of raw materials. The remaining 82% of VI’s common shares are widely held. Assuming PUL reports under ASPE, what are the reporting options for its investment in VI?

a)

Equity method

b)

Equity method or cost

c)

Equity method, cost, or consolidation

d)

Fair value through profit or loss (FVTPL) or cost

A

B

219
Q

<p>In a review engagement:

a) The practitioner determines whether the financial statements present fairly, in all material respects.
b) The practitioner is required to gain an understanding of the client’s industry.
c) The practitioner may issue an opinion on the financial statements.
d) The practitioner must obtain an understanding of the client’s internal controls and assess control risk.</p>

A

<p>B</p>

220
Q

Savon Inc. has a defined contribution plan. During 20X6, its current service cost was $350,000 and Savon paid this amount by the end of 20X6.

In 20X5, Savon had amended its plan for past services. The amendment required $890,000 to be paid into the plan. Savon paid this amount in two equal instalments of $445,000 in 20X5 and $445,000 in 20X6. The plan amendment related to past services provided by employees in 20X2, 20X3, and 20X4.

What is the amount of the pension expense for 20X6?

a)

$350,000

b)

$528,000

c)

$795,000

d)

$1,240,000

A

A - because the past service cost is expensed in the year the amendment is made, which was 20X5. Only the current service cost for 20X6 is recognized in the pension expense for 20X6.