FINANCIAL MANAGEMENT VOCABULARY AND THEORY Flashcards

1
Q

Give a brief explanation and history of the Sarbanes-Oxley Act.

A

The Sarbanes-Oxley Act (or SOX Act) is a U.S. federal law that aims to protect investors by making corporate disclosures more reliable and accurate. The Act was spurred by major accounting scandals, such as Enron and WorldCom (today called MCI Inc.), that tricked investors and inflated stock prices. Spearheaded by Senator Paul Sarbanes and Representative Michael Oxley, the Act was signed into law by President George W. Bush on July 30, 2002.

Also known as the SOX Act of 2002 and the Corporate Responsibility Act of 2002, it mandated strict reforms to existing securities regulations and imposed tough new penalties on lawbreakers.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is Financial Management?

A

Financial Management, also called Corporate Finance, focuses on decisions relating to how much and what types of assets to acquire, how to raise the capital needed to purchase assets, and how to run the firm so as to maximize value.

Financial Management means planning, organizing, directing and controlling the financial activities such as procurement and utilization of funds of the enterprise. It means applying general management principles to financial resources of the enterprise.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What does “intrinsic value” of stocks mean?

A

Intrinsic value means an estimate of a stock’s “true” value based on accurate risk and return data. It can be estimated, but not measured precisely.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What does market price of stocks mean?

A

Market price is the stock value based on perceived but possibly incorrect information as seen by the marginal investor.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is a marginal investor?

A

A marginal investor is one whose views determine the actual stock price. It is a representative investor whose actions reflect the beliefs of those people who are currently trading a stock. It is the marginal investor who determines a stock’s price.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is a non-marginal investor?

A

Non marginal investors are investors who generally do not trade on the margin. They are not the investors who determine stock price.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What happens when there is market equilibrium in stocks?

A

Market equilibrium involving stocks occurs when the actual market price equals the intrinsic value, so investors are indifferent between buying or selling a stock.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

T or F

Management’s goal should be to take actions designed to maximize the firm’s market value, not its intrinsic value.

A

False. Management’s goal should be to take actions designed to maximize the firm’s intrinsic value, not its current market price.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is a corporate raider?

A

A corporate raider is an individual who targets a corporation for takeover because it is undervalued.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is hostile takeover?

A

A hostile takeover is the acquisition of a company over the opposition of its management.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the types and classifications of markets?

A
  1. Physical asset markets
  2. Financial asset markets
  3. Spot markets - markets in which assets are sold on the spot
  4. Futures markets - markets in which participants agree to buy and sell at some future date
  5. Money markets - markets in which funds are borrowed or loaned for short periods
  6. Capital markets - markets for stocks and for intermediate and long-term debt
  7. Primary markets - markets in which corporations raise capital by issuing new securities
  8. Secondary markets - markets in which securities are traded among investors after issuance
  9. Private markets - markets in which transactions are worked out directly between two parties
  10. Public markets - markets in which standardized contracts are traded on organized exchanges.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What does “going public” mean?

A

Going public is the act of selling stock to the public at large by a closely held corporation or it principal stockholders.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What does Initial public offering mean?

A

IPO means the market for stocks of companies that are in the process of going public.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is net working capital?

A

Current assets - current liabilities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is net operating working capital?

A

Current assets - non-interest bearing current liabilities

(CA - (CL - Notes Payable)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the concept of “free cash flow”?

A

FCF is defined as the amount of cash that could be withdrawn without harming a firm’s ability to operate and to produce future cash flows.

A positive FCF means that the firm is generating more than enough cash to finance its current investments.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Explain the concept of “Market Value Added”

A

MVA is the excess of the market value of equity over its book value.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Explain the concept of “Economic Value Added”

A

EVA is an estimate of a business’ true economic profit for a given year.

A positive EVA means after tax operating income exceeds cost of capital needed to produce that income.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the purpose of liquidity ratios?

A

Liquidity ratios show the firm’s ability to pay off debts that are maturing within a year and its ability to continue operating.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the purpose of asset management ratios?

A

Asset management ratios show how efficiently the firm is using its assets.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the purpose of debt management ratios?

A

Debt management ratios give an idea on how a firm has financed its assets well as well as the firm’s ability to pay its long-term debt. It shows how risky the firm is and how much of its operating income must be paid to bondholders rather than stockholders.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the purpose of profitability ratios?

A

Profitability ratios show how profitably a firm is operating and utilizing its assets. It combines asset and debt management categories to show their effects on return on equity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the purpose of market value ratios?

A

Market value ratios show what investors think about the firm and its future prospects.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is a liquid asset?

A

An asset that can be converted to cash quickly without having to reduce the asset’s price very much.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What does benchmarking mean?

A

It is the process of comparing a particular company with a set of benchmark companies.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is stand-alone risk?

A

It is the risk an investor would face if he or she held only one asset.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is the expected rate of return?

A

It is the rate of return expected to be realized from an investment; it is the weighted average of the probability distribution of possible results. It is symbolized as r̂ or r-hat.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is standard deviation?

A

In statistics, the standard deviation is a measure of the amount of variation or dispersion of a set of values. A low standard deviation indicates that the values tend to be close to the mean (also called the expected value) of the set, while a high standard deviation indicates that the values are spread out over a wider range.
Its symbol is σ (the Greek letter sigma)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What does a lower standard deviation mean?

A

It means that there is a tighter probability distribution and accordingly, lower risk.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is the coefficient of variation?

A

It is the quotient derived by dividing standard deviation by the r-hat. It is the standardized measure of the risk per unit of return.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is risk premium?

A

Risk premium is the difference between the expected rate of return on a given risky asset and that on a less risky asset.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is the Capital Asset Pricing Model?

A

CAPM is a model based on the proposition that any stock’s required rate of return is equal to the risk-free rate of return plus a risk-premium that reflects only the risk remaining after diversification.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is correlation?

A

It is the tendency of two variables to move together.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is correlation coefficient?

A

It is a measure of the degree of relationship between two variables.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is diversifiable risk?

A

It is the part of a security’s risk associated with random events, which can be eliminated by proper diversification. It is also known as company-specific risk or unsystematic risk.

36
Q

What is market risk?

A

Market risk is the risk that remains in a portfolio after diversification has eliminated all company-specific risk. It is also known as non-diversifiable or systematic or beta risk.

37
Q

What is relevant risk?

A

Relevant risk is the risk that remains once a stock is in a diversified portfolio is its contribution to the portfolio’s market risk. It is measured by the extent to which the stock moves up or down with the market.

38
Q

What is the beta coefficient?

A

It is a metric that shows the extent which a given stock’s return moves up or down with the stock market. It shows how volatile a stock fluctuates. It measures market risk.

A higher beta coefficient means a stock fluctuates greatly, and therefore has a higher risk.

A beta coefficient of 1.0 is of average risk.

39
Q

What is market-risk premium?

A

It is the additional return over the risk-free rate of return needed to compensate investors for assuming an average amount of risk.

It is computed by subtracting the risk-free rate of return from required rate of return.

40
Q

What is the risk-free rate of return based on?

A

It is usually based and measured by the return on government treasury bills.

41
Q

Explain the Security Market Line Equation.

A

It is an equation that shows the relationship between risk as measured by beta and the required rates of return on individual securities.

Required rate of return = risk-free return + ((Stock’s beta) x Market Risk Premium))

42
Q

What is a proxy fight?

A

Proxy fight is an attempt by a person or group to gain control of a firm by getting its stock-holders to grant that person or group the authority to vote its shares to replace the current management.

43
Q

What is a proxy?

A

A document giving one person the authority to act for another.

44
Q

What is a takeover?

A

It is an action whereby a person or group succeeds in ousting a firm’s management and taking control of a company.

45
Q

What is a pre-emptive right?

A

It is a provision in the corporation charter or bylaws that gives common stock holders the right to purchase on a pro-rata basis new issues of common stock.

46
Q

What is the required rate of return?

A

The required rate of return is the minimum return an investor will accept for owning a company’s stock, as compensation for a given level of risk associated with holding the stock. The RRR is also used in corporate finance to analyze the profitability of potential investment projects.

47
Q

What is a coupon rate?

A

Coupon rate is the rate of interest paid by bond issuers on the bond’s face value. It is the periodic rate of interest paid by bond issuers to its purchasers. The coupon rate is calculated on the bond’s face value (or par value), not on the issue price or market value. For example, if you have a 10-year- 2,000 bond with a coupon rate of 10 per cent, you will get 200 every year for 10 years, no matter what happens to the bond price in the market.

48
Q

What is the par value of bonds?

A

It is the stated face value of the bond, usually in multiples of 1,000. It represents the amount of money that a firm borrows and promises to pay on maturity date.

49
Q

What is the coupon interest rate of bonds?

A

It is the stated annual interest rate on a bond.

50
Q

What are fixed-rate bonds?

A

Bonds whose interest rate is fixed for its entire life.

51
Q

What are floating-rate bonds?

A

Bonds whose interest fluctuates with shifts in the general level of interest rates.

52
Q

What are zero-coupon bonds?

A

These are bonds with no coupon rate, but are sold at a discount below par, which compensates investors.

53
Q

What is a call provision?

A

It is a provision in a bond that gives the issuer the right to redeem bonds under specified terms prior to the normal maturity date.

54
Q

What is a sinking fund provision?

A

It is a provision that requires the issuer to retire a portion of the bond issue each year.

55
Q

What is a putable bond?

A

It is a bond with a provision that allows its investors to sell it back to the company prior to maturity at a prearranged price.

56
Q

What is yield to maturity in bonds?

A

It is the rate of return earned on a bond if it is held to maturity.

57
Q

What are flotation costs?

A

Flotation costs are incurred by a publicly-traded company when it issues new securities and incurs expenses, such as underwriting fees, legal fees, and registration fees.

Simply put, it is the cost of issuing new shares. It shall only be included when computing using the dividend yield and growth model when there will be actual issuance of new shares.

58
Q

T or F

Tax benefit is applicable when computing both cost of equity and cost of debt.

A

False. Tax benefit is applicable only when computing the cost of debt.

59
Q

What is market risk premium?

A

MRP is the difference between required market return (or market rate) and the risk-free rate. The market risk premium is equal to the slope of the security market line (SML), a graphical representation of the capital asset pricing model (CAPM).

Market risk premium describes the relationship between returns from an equity market portfolio and treasury bond yields.

It is the additional return over risk free-rate needed to compensate investors for assuming ang average amount of risk.

60
Q

What is the retained earnings breakpoint?

A

The Retained Earnings Breakpoint determines the amount of new capital that can be raised before the target capital structure changes. If the company exceeds the breakpoint, it will have to raise additional equity.

It is the total amount of capital that can be raised before new stocks must be issued, because “DOLLARS RAISED BY SELLING NEW STOCK MUST WORK HARDER BECAUSE OF ITS HIGHER COST” as
compared to dollars raised by using retained earnings.

It is computed by dividing retained earnings by the % weight of RE and OS.

Example
The dividend policy of Total S.E. Inc. has set a dividend payout ratio of 32%. The target capital structure is represented by 40% of equity and 60% of debt. The net profit reported in the last quarter amounted to $2,500,000.

We should use the formula above to find the retained earnings breakpoint for Total S.E. Inc.

Retained Earnings = $2,500,000 × (1 - 0.32) = $1,700,000

Retained Earnings Breakpoint = $1,700,000 = $4,250,000
0.40
Thus, the management of Total S.E. Inc. is able to raise additional capital of $4,250,000 without issuing new common stock. If the need for additional capital would exceed $4,250,000, management would have two options: (1) issue new common stock and keep the target capital structure unchanged or (2) raise debt financing and violate capital structure, but both options would result in an increase in the weighted average cost of capital.

61
Q

What is the criteria for accepting new projects considering WACC and returns?

A

New projects will be accepted only when the project’s return is greater than the WACC.

62
Q

In capital budgeting, what are the general categories and classification of potential projects?

A
  1. Replacement (needed to continue operations)
  2. Replacement (cost reduction)
  3. Expansion (of existing products)
  4. Expansion (into new markets or products)
  5. Safety/environmental projects
  6. Mergers
  7. Others.
63
Q

What are the different criteria used for screening projects in capital budgeting?

A
  1. Net Present Value
  2. Internal Rate of Return
  3. Modified Internal Rate of Return
  4. Regular Payback
  5. Discounted Payback
64
Q

What is the NPV method in capital budgeting?

A

NPV method consists of ranking investment proposals using the NPV, which is equal to the present value of the project’s free cash flows discounted at the cost of capital. Projects with a NPV greater than 0 are passable.

65
Q

What are independent projects?

A

These are projects with cash flows that are not affected by the acceptance or non-acceptance of other projects.

66
Q

What are mutually exclusive projects?

A

These are projects where only one can be accepted.

67
Q

What is the Internal Rate of Return?

A

It is the discount rate that forces a project’s NPV to equal zero.

If the project’s IRR calculated is greater than the cost of capital, then it provides an “additional return” and therefore the project should be accepted. IRR must be greater than WACC to be passable.

68
Q

What is the Multiple Internal Rate of Return?

A

It is a situation in where a project has two or more IRRs, caused by having outflows of cash.

69
Q

What is the Modified Internal Rate of Return?

A

It is the discount rate at which the PV of a project’s cost is equal to the PV of its terminal value, where the terminal value is found as the sum of the future values of the cash inflows, compounded at the firm’s cost of capital.

70
Q

What is the crossover rate?

A

It is the cost of capital at which the NPV profiles of two projects cross and thus, at which the project’s NPV are equal.

71
Q

What is the Payback Period?

A

It is the length of time required for an investment’s cash flows to cover its cost.

72
Q

What is the Discounted Payback Period?

A

It is the length of time required for an investment’s cash flows, discounted at the investment’s cost of capital, to cover its cost.

73
Q

What is the Scenario analysis?

A

It is a risk analysis technique in which bad and good sets of financial circumstances are compared with a most likely, or base case situation.

74
Q

What is a base-case scenario?

A

It is an analysis in which all of the input variables are set at their most likely values.

75
Q

What is the Monte Carlo Simulation?

A

It is a risk analysis technique in which probable future events are simulated on a computer, generating estimated rates of return and risk indexes.

76
Q

What is operating leverage?

A

It is the extent to which fixed costs are used in a firm’s operations.

77
Q

What is the cash conversion cycle?

A

It is the length of time funds are tied up in working capital, or the length of time between paying for working capital and collecting cash from the sale of the working capital.

78
Q

What is the Inventory conversion period?

A

It is the average time required to convert raw materials into finished goods and then to sell them.

79
Q

What is the average collection period?

A

It is the average length of time required to convert and collect receivables.

80
Q

What is the Payables deferral period?

A

It is the average length of time between the purchase of materials and labor and the payment of cash for them.

81
Q

T or F

If a project’s NPV is positive, then its IRR is greater than its WACC.

A

True.

82
Q

T or F

Net income is used in finding a project’s payback period.

A

False. Net cash inflow is used in payback period.

83
Q

T or F
If a project involving the purchase of an equipment is paid in installments, such yearly installments are factored in in computing the projects cash flows and its NPV.

A

False. See Bobadilla page 473 #25.

84
Q

T or F

Cost of long term debt is generally lower than that of short term debt.

A

False. Short term debt is generally cheaper than Long term debt.

85
Q

T or F

Long term debt is generally riskier than short term debt.

A

False. Short term debt is generally riskier than Long term debt.

86
Q

What is the cash conversion cycle?

A

It is the length of time funds are tied up in working capital, or the length of time between paying for working capital and collecting cash from sale of working capital.

It is computer as:
Inventory conversion period + Average collection period - Payables deferral period