Financial Management & Capital Budgeting Flash Cards

1
Q

Which of the following is not a strategy through which a financial institution (or any business) could manage the risk that it cannot obtain funding in the short run (or roll over its obligations)?

A.Purchase credit default swaps.

B.Reduce the mismatch between the maturities of their assets and liabilities.

C.Maintain a large cushion of cash and short-term securities.

D.Maintain a variety of long, secure lines of credit.

A

Choice A (Correct): Credit default swaps protect lenders against default by its borrowers but does not assure the availability of debt in the future.

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2
Q

Bander Co. is determining how to finance some long-term projects. Bander has decided it prefers the benefits of no fixed charges, no fixed maturity date and an increase in the credit-worthiness of the company. Which of the following would best meet Bander’s financing requirements?

A.Bonds.

B.Common stock.

C.Long-term debt.

D.Short-term debt.

A

Choice B (Correct) and Choices A, C, D (Incorrect): Generally all debt, including bonds, long-term debt, and short-term debt involves fixed charges and fixed maturity dates. In addition, the more debt financing a company has, the lower its credit worthiness. As a result, common stock would be the best alternative to meet the financing objectives.

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3
Q

A lender and a borrower signed a contract for a $1,000 loan for one year. The lender asked the borrower to pay 3% interest. Inflation occurred and prices rose by 2% over the next year. The borrower repaid $1,030. What is the amount worth in real terms, after inflation?

A.$1,060.90

B.$1,050.60

C.$1,019.80

D.$1,009.80

A

Choice D (Correct) and Choices A, B, C (Incorrect): At a rate of inflation of 2%, $102 dollars at the end of the period are equivalent to $100 at the beginning. As a result, $1,030 at the end of the year would be equivalent to $1,030 x 100/102 or $1009.89.

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4
Q

What would be the primary reason for a company to agree to a debt covenant limiting the percentage of its long-term debt?

A.To cause the price of the company’s stock to rise.

B.To lower the company’s bond rating.

C.To reduce the risk for existing bondholders.

D.To reduce the interest rate on the bonds being sold

A

Choice D (Correct): A company with a lower debt to equity ratio is generally considered to entail a lower risk and, as a result, will generally enable the company to borrow at lower interest rates. By agreeing to a debt covenant limiting long-term debt, the company is providing assurance to lenders that the ratio will not get too high, keeping the cost of borrowing lower for the company.

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5
Q

The economic order quantity formula assumes that:

A.Periodic demand for the good is known

B.Carrying costs per unit vary with quantity ordered

C.Costs of placing an order vary with quantity ordered

D.Purchase costs per unit differ due to quantity discounts

A

Choice A (Correct): The economic order quantity is calculated by taking the square root of 2AP/S where A is the periodic demand in units, P is the cost of placing an order and S is the cost of maintaining a unit in inventory for an entire period. The periodic demand must be known or estimable in order to calculate the economic order quantity.

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6
Q

When estimating cash flow for use in capital budgeting, depreciation is

A.Included as a cash or other cost. [

B.Excluded for all purposes in the computation.

C.Utilized to estimate the salvage value of an investment.

D.Utilized in determining the tax costs or benefit.

A

Choice D (Correct) and Choices A, B, C (Incorrect): Since depreciation does not involve the payment of cash, it is not included as an expense when calculating cash flows associated with an investment alternative. Depreciation is tax deductible, however, and the tax effect is taken into consideration.

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7
Q

A company has several long-term floating-rate bonds outstanding. The company’s cash flows have stabilized, and the company is considering hedging interest rate risk. Which of the following derivative instruments is recommended for this purpose?

A.Structured short-term note.

B.Forward contract on a commodity.

C.Futures contract on a stock.

D.Swap agreement.

A

Choice D (Correct): A swap agreement is a form of derivative under which one party is entitled to an amount from the counterparty that is calculated by applying a variable rate of interest to a principal balance while being liable to the counterparty for an amount calculated by applying a fixed rate to the same balance. When entered into as a means of hedging interest rate risk, a swap enables an entity to essentially convert a variable rate liability into a fixed rate obligation, making cash flows predictable.

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8
Q

Which of the following assumptions is associated with the economic order quantity formula?

A.The carrying cost per unit will vary with quantity ordered.

B.The cost of placing an order will vary with quantity ordered.

C.Periodic demand is known.

D.The purchase cost per unit will vary based on quantity discounts.

A

Choice C (Correct) and Choices A, B, D (Incorrect): Economic order quantity, the formula used to determine the optimum amount of inventory to purchase with each order to minimize the total of carrying and ordering costs, assumes that the cost of carrying a unit in inventory for one period and the cost of placing an order will remain constant. It also assumes that demand for the period can be estimated. The cost of inventory is not a consideration.

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9
Q

Roger’s Appliance Warehouse has an inventory conversion period of 60 days, an accounts receivable collection period of 25 days and an accounts payable deferral period of 29 days. How long is Roger’s cash conversion cycle?

A.54 days

B.56 days

C.64 days

D.85 days

A

Choice B (Correct) and Choices A, C, D (Incorrect): The cash conversion cycle measures the number of days from when a business pays for its inputs, to when the business collects cash from the resulting sales of finished goods. It is the calculation of the inventory conversion period + the accounts receivable collection period – the accounts payable deferral period. In this situation the calculation is 60 + 25 – 29 = 56 days.

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10
Q

Roger’s Appliance Warehouse has an inventory conversion period of 60 days, an accounts receivable collection period of 25 days and an accounts payable deferral period of 29 days. How long is Roger’s cash conversion cycle?

A.54 days

B.56 days

C.64 days

D.85 days

A

Choice B (Correct) and Choices A, C, D (Incorrect): The cash conversion cycle measures the number of days from when a business pays for its inputs, to when the business collects cash from the resulting sales of finished goods. It is the calculation of the inventory conversion period + the accounts receivable collection period – the accounts payable deferral period. In this situation the calculation is 60 + 25 – 29 = 56 days.

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11
Q

Which of the following rates is most commonly compared to the internal rate of return to evaluate whether to make an investment?

A.Short-term rate on U.S. Treasury bonds.

B.Prime rate of interest.

C.Weighted-average cost of capital.

D.Long-term rate on U.S. Treasury bonds.

A

Choice C (Correct): When determining whether or not to make an investment, the internal rate of return will be compared to a benchmark that is meaningful for the company. This will frequently be the company’s weighted average cost of capital since it will indicate whether the investment will provide a greater return to its shareholders, when the return is greater, or will reduce it, when the return is lower. The short-term rate on US Treasury bonds, the prime rate of interest, or the long-term rate on U.S. Treasury bonds would only be appropriate if the company could borrow at one of those rates.

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12
Q

In capital budgeting, which of the following items is included in the payback model calculation?

A.The total amount of the initial outlay for the project.

B.The present value of the future cash flows of the project.

C.The present value of the estimated salvage value of the project.

D.The amount of depreciation over the life of the project.

A

Choice A (Correct) and Choices B, C, D (Incorrect): The payback model calculation divides the total initial outlay for a project by its undiscounted after-tax annual net cash inflows. Neither depreciation nor the time value of money are included in the calculation.

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13
Q

A company is considering acquiring a derivative to hedge a risk associated with an investment it is currently holding. Which of the following coefficients of variation would indicate that the hedge will be effective?

A.+0.91

B.+0.19

C.-0.19

D.-0.91

A

Choice D (Correct) and Choices A, B, C (Incorrect): In order for a hedge to be effective in offsetting a risk associated with an investment, it should respond to market conditions in the opposite way that the hedged investment acts. The closer a coefficient of variation is to 0, the less of a relationship there is between the two items. A coefficient of +1 indicates the two act in pretty much precisely the same manner and a coefficient of -1 indicates that they act in an opposite manner. A coefficient of -0.91 would indicate a strong inverse relationship and a potentially effective hedge.

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14
Q

Which of the following is a risk taken by a lender that the value of the loan will decline as a result of a general economic decline?

A.Market risk.

B.Credit risk.

C.Concentration of credit risk.

D.Economy risk.

A

Choice A (Correct): Market risk is the risk that the value of a bond or loan will decline due to a decline in the aggregate value of all the assets in the economy.

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15
Q

Which of the following methods should be used if capital rationing needs to be considered when comparing capital projects?

A.Net present value.

B.Internal rate of return.

C.Return on investment.

D.Profitability index.

A

Choice D (Correct): The profitability index divides net present value of an investment by the initial net investment and can be used to compare the relative profitability of investments. When resources are scarce, those with the highest profitability index will be selected since they represent the highest rate of return relative to the amount invested. Although the net present value method allows a comparison of which investments are most profitable, in terms of the present value of dollars, it does not take into account that a slightly larger net present value may require a substantially greater initial investment, an important factor when resources are scarce. Although both the internal rate of return approach and the return on investment approach allow for the determination of which investments will provide the highest return, neither takes into account the size of investment that may be required to earn the higher investment.

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16
Q

Which of the following metrics equates the present value of a project’s expected cash inflows to the present value of the project’s expected costs?

A.Net present value.

B.Return on assets.

C.Internal rate of return.

D.Economic value added.

A

C is correct.
The internal rate of return (IRR) is the discount rate at which the net present value equals zero (ie, the project’s breakeven point). Alternatively, the IRR is the rate of interest that equates the present value of the project’s cost and the present value of net cash inflow

17
Q

The discount rate (hurdle rate of return) must be determined in advance for the

A.Payback period method.

B.Time adjusted rate of return method.

C.Net present value method.

D.Internal rate of return method.

A

Choice C (Correct) and Choices A, B, D (Incorrect): A rate of return is neither used nor calculated under the payback method. Under both the time-adjusted rate of return method and the internal rate of return method, a rate of return is calculated and compared to a hurdle rate of return, which can be determined either before or after the calculated return. Under the net present value method, the present value of net cash flows is calculated using the hurdle rate of return, which is determined in advance.

18
Q

Which of the following statements about investment decision models is true?

A.
The discounted payback rate takes into account cash flows for all periods. [12%]

B.
The payback rule ignores all cash flows after the end of the payback period. [58%]

C.
The net present value model says to accept investment opportunities when their rates of return exceed the company’s incremental borrowing rate. [19%]

D.
The internal rate of return rule is to accept the investment if the opportunity cost of capital is greater than the internal rate of return. [9%]

A

Choice B (Correct): The payback method measures the length of time it requires to recover an investment. It does not take into consideration whether or not there are cash flows once the investment has been recovered and, if there are, they are not considered. The discounted payback method measures the recovery period using discounted future cash flows but does not consider cash flows after the investment has been recovered. The net present value and internal rate of return methods indicate whether or not the return on an investment at least equals a predetermined rate but does not indicate which investment to make when more than one have returns in excess of that threshold.

19
Q

Which of the following is an advantage of net present value modeling?

A.
It is measured in time, not dollars. [12%]

B.
It uses accrual basis, not cash basis accounting for a project. [7%]

C.
It uses the accounting rate of return. [15%]

D.
It accounts for compounding of returns.

A

Choice D (Correct): Net present value is the excess of the present value of the cash inflows over cash outflows (investment today), discounted using the time value of money in the investment. An advantage of this approach is that it accounts for compounding of returns when cash flows are reinvested at the discount rate (known as the hurdle rate of return

20
Q

An increase in which of the following should cause management to reduce the average inventory?

A.
The cost of placing an order. [2%]

B.
The cost of carrying inventory. [81%]

C.
The annual demand for the product. [10%]

D.
The lead time needed to acquire inventory.

A

Choice B (Correct): An increase in the cost of carrying inventory means that larger quantities of inventory will be more expensive to maintain, causing management to reduce inventory. An increase in the cost of placing an order will cause management to decrease the number of orders placed, requiring larger orders and larger quantities of inventory on hand. An increase in the annual demand for the product will cause management to increase the average inventory in order to prevent running out of stock. An increase in the lead time needed to acquire inventory will cause management to order inventory earlier than they would otherwise, indicating more inventory on hand when orders are placed, increasing the average inventory.

21
Q

Lin Co. is buying machinery it expects will increase average annual operating income by $40,000. The initial increase in the required investment is $60,000, and the average increase in required investment is $30,000. To calculate the accrual accounting rate of return, what amount should be used as the numerator in the ratio?

A.
$20,000 [0%]

B.
$30,000 [11%]

C.
$40,000 [70%]

D.
$60,000

A

Accounting rate of return = average annual profit / average investment

The accounting rate of return (ARR) is a capital budgeting technique generally used as a comparison tool between multiple projects. ARR calculates the anticipated rate of return for a given project and is the average annual profit divided by the average investment for the project. The numerator is calculated as the project’s average annual income less the project’s depreciation expense (if given) and any other related expenses.

22
Q

Company management completes event identification and analyzes the risks. The company wishes to assess its risk after management’s response to the risk. According to COSO, which of the following types of risk does this situation represent?

A.
Inherent risk. [11%]

B.
Residual risk. [67%]

C.
Event risk. [8%]

D.
Detection risk.

A

Choice B (Correct): The risk still remaining after taking into account management’s response to the risk is called residual risk. Inherent risk is the risk associated with an item before management has responded to some aspect of risk. Event risk would the overall risk associated with the event occurring. Detection risk is the risk that an error or fraud will not be detected despite controls in place.

23
Q

How would the following ratios or measures be affected if a company issued additional capital stock for cash?

Total debt to total assets Working capital

A.
Increase Increase
[8%]

B.
Increase Decrease
[7%]

C.
Decrease Increase
[79%]

D.
Decrease Decrease

A

Common stock can be issued at par value (ie, cash paid equals certificate value) or above par. The issue price of the stock is almost always greater than the par value; this excess is credited to additional paid-in capital (APIC). The issuance of common stock above par value would affect the following balance sheet accounts as follows:

The increase in cash increases total assets, which in turn decreases the total debt to total asset ratio. The increase in cash also increases current assets and working capital. The increases in the two equity accounts do not affect either item.

Things to remember:
The issuance of common stock (whether at par or above par) increases cash and equity. As a result of the increase in cash, working capital increases and the total debt to total asset ratio decreases.

24
Q

An entity is examining potential investments and notes that 1-year maturity yields are higher than those for 10-year maturities. Which of the following explanations for this occurrence is best?

A.
The short-term investments have higher liquidity and therefore carry a higher rate of interest. [15%]

B.
The short-term investments carry a more immediate default risk premium resulting in higher rates of return. [32%]

C.
The long-term instruments provide a longer stream of investment income and therefore carry a lower rate of return. [15%]

D.
Investors are expecting reduced inflation in the future as reflected in the lower long-term returns

A

Choice D (Correct): Typically, long-term yields are greater than short-term yields due to a maturity premium. If investors expect low inflation in the future, the reduced or eliminated inflation premium may offset the maturity premium. Investments with higher liquidity typically carry a lower rate of return than investments with low liquidity. Long-term investments can have immediate default risk. Long-term investments typically have a higher rate of return to compensate the investor for tying up the funds for longer than short-term investments.

25
Q

Which of the following inventory management approaches orders at the point where carrying costs equate nearest to restocking costs in order to minimize total inventory cost?

A.
Economic order quantity. [35%]

B.
Just-in-time. [60%]

C.
Materials requirements planning. [3%]

D.
ABC. [0

A

Choice A (Correct): The economic order quantity is the amount of inventory that should be ordered each time the company places an order so that the total of the cost of carrying inventory and the cost of placing orders for inventory is minimized.

26
Q

A financial institution looking to assess its investment portfolio’s exposure to price changes most likely would use which of the following techniques?

A.
Market value at risk analysis. [80%]

B.
Cash flow at risk analysis. [8%]

C.
Earnings at risk analysis. [10%]

D.
Back testing analysis

A

Value at risk (VaR) is a statistical analysis of an investment portfolio’s exposure to price changes. VaR computes how much and how likely a portfolio may lose in market value over a specific time period (generally short term).

For example, VaR analysis might conclude “There is a 95% probability that the bank will lose no more than $10 million on any one day.” Based on these results, financial institutions adjust their cash reserves to ensure that the loss can be covered.