Financial Management Flashcards

1
Q

Out of present value of single amount or present value of an annuity (if they are for the same amount), which will yield a higher value ?

A

The present value of a single amount has to be less than the present value of a annuity of equal amounts due within the same or less time.

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2
Q

Which will yield the highest value an annuity for 3 years or an annuity for 4 years?

A

If the annuities are for the same amount, the longer the annuity, the higher the present value.

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3
Q

What is the market rate of interest on a one-year U.S. Treasury bill?

A

The market rate of interest on a one-year U.S. Treasury bill would be the risk-free rate plus the inflation premium (for the expected rate of inflation during the life of the security), or 2% + 1% = 3%.

One-year U.S. Treasury bills are considered free of default risk, liquidity risk (because there is a very large and active secondary market for T-bills), and maturity risk (because they are for only one year).

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4
Q

How do you calculate effective interest when compensation balance requirement is involve?

A

The effective interest rate is calculated as the cost of borrowing divided by the funds available for use. In this question, the annual cost of borrowing is $40,000 ($500,000 x .08 = $40,000) and the funds available are $400,000 ($500,000 x [1.0 -.20] = $400,000). Therefore, the effective interest rate is $40,000/$400,000 = .10,

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5
Q

How is real interest computed?

A

The real interest rate is the stated (or nominal) rate of interest for a period less the rate of inflation for that period. If someone earned 2% on the checking account for the year and inflation for the year was 3%, then real interest rate was: 2% - 3% = -1%.

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6
Q

Which U.S. GAAP approach to determining fair value converts future amounts to current amounts?

A

Converting future amounts to current amounts is an income approach to determining fair value under the U.S. GAAP framework. Specifically, the use of discounted cash flows to determine the current value of those flows is an example of the income approach to determining fair value.

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7
Q

Conceptually, which U.S. GAAP approach for determining value is most likely to provide the best evidence of fair value?

A

The market approach to determining value will most likely provide the best evidence of fair value. The market approach is based on using prices or other relevant information generated by actual market transactions for assets or liabilities that are identical or comparable to those being valued.

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8
Q

Which of the following characteristics, if any, should be taken into account in valuing a specific item?

A

Location and condition.

Both location and condition of an item should be taken into account in assigning value to the item.

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9
Q

Under U.S. GAAP requirements, valuation may be based on what?

A

Exit price and not entry price.

Under U.S. GAAP, valuation should be based on an exit price and not on an entry price. An exit price is the price that would be received to sell an asset or be paid to transfer a liability in an orderly transaction between market participants as of the measurement date.

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10
Q

Which of the following types of active markets, if any, would be considered as providing level 1 inputs under the U.S. GAAP hierarchy of inputs for fair value determination?

A

Both the New York Stock Exchange and Over-the-Counter Market are the basis for level 1 inputs under the U.S. GAAP hierarchy of inputs for fair value determination. Both are active markets for the trading of securities.

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11
Q

A graph that plots beta would show the relationship between what?

A

Asset return and benchmark return.

A graph which plots beta would show the relationship between the return of an individual asset and the return of the entire class of that asset, as reflected in a benchmark return for the class.

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12
Q

How do you compute required rate of return for the investment?

A

Required rate = Risk-free rate + Beta(Expected rate - Risk-free rate)

Same as calculating cost of capital by using CAPM=
C=R+B(M-R) : cost of capital=risk free rate+beta(market rate of return-risk free rate).

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13
Q

What is most likely the nominal risk-free rate of return in the U.S.?

A

In the U.S., the rate paid on U.S. Treasury Bonds is considered the risk-free rate of return; that is, the rate of return that is paid for delayed use of funds by investing them, without any risk premium attached to or paid for default risk.

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14
Q

What are the limitations of the capital asset pricing model?

A

(a) It assumes that there are no restrictions on borrowing at the risk-free rate of return. (b) It assumes that no external costs are associated with the investment.(c) It fails to consider risk derived from other than variances from the asset class benchmark.

The time value money is not limitation because does consider the time value of money.

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15
Q
Which one of the following beta values indicates the least volatility?
	A.  	Beta = .5
	B.  	Beta = .8
	C.  	Beta = 1.0
	D.  	Beta = 1.5
A

A beta of .5 indicates that the item to which it relates is one-half as volatile as the benchmark for all comparable items. A beta of .5 is less volatile than any higher beta.

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16
Q

Which one of the following characteristics is not an advantage of the Black-Scholes option pricing model?

A. Incorporates the probability that the price of the stock will pay off within the time to expiration.
B. Incorporates the probability that the option will be exercised.
C. Discounts the exercise price.
D. Accommodates options when the price of the underlying stock changes significantly and rapidly.

A

Accommodates options when the price of the underlying stock changes significantly and rapidly.

The Black-Scholes option pricing model does not accommodate options when the price of the underlying stock changes significantly and rapidly. The Black-Scholes model assumes that the stock for which the option is being valued increases in small increments.

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17
Q
Charles Allen was granted options to buy 100 shares of Dean Company stock. The options expire in one year and have an exercise price of $60.00 per share. An analysis determines that the stock has an 80% probability of selling for $72.50 at the end of the one-year option period and a 20% probability of selling for $65.00 at the end of the year. Dean Company's cost of funds is 10%. Which one of the following is most likely the current value of the 100 stock options?
	A.  	$1,000
	B.  	$1,100
	C.  	$6,875
	D.  	$7,100
A

(A)The stock has an 80% chance of selling at $72.50 at the end of the option period. That is $12.50 above the option price. The stock has a 20% chance of selling at $65.00 at the end of the option period. That is $5.00 above the option price. Therefore, the value of the option is:

[(.80 x $12.50) + (.20 x $ 5.00)]/1.1T, or

[($10.00) + ($1.00)]/1.10, or

$11.00/1.10 = $10.00 x 100 shares = $1,000

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18
Q

Which one of the following is not a limitation of the basic Black-Scholes option pricing model?

A. It fails to consider the probability that the option will be exercised.
B. It assumes the stock does not pay dividends.
C. It assumes the risk-free rate of return used for discounting remains constant during the option period.
D. It assumes the option can be exercised only at the expiration date.

A

A. It fails to consider the probability that the option will be exercised.

Failing to consider the probability that the option will be exercised is not a limitation of the basic Black-Sholes option pricing model. The basic Black-Scholes option pricing model does consider the probability (likelihood) that the option will be exercised.

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19
Q

Which one of the following is not a factor routinely considered in valuing a stock option?
A. Time until expiration date.
B. Risk-free rate of return.
C. Exercise price of the option.
D. Industry classification of the stock.

A

Correct!

The industry classification of the stock is not a factor routinely considered in valuing a stock option.

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20
Q

Which one of the following options, A through D, is most likely to have the greatest value (all other things being equal)?
Expiration Risk-Fre Interest Rate Stock Beta
A 3 Yrs. 3.0% 2.00
B 1 Yr. 4.0% 1.00
C 2 Yrs. 2.0% 1.60
D 8 Yrs. 4.5% 4.00

A

Option D is most likely to have the greatest value. The value of a stock option generally increases the longer the time to expiration, the higher the risk-free interest rate, and the higher the volatility of the stock. Of the options A through D, option D has the longest time to expiration, is in the highest risk-free interest rate environment, and the related stock has the highest beta.

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21
Q
A business with a net book value of $150,000 has an appropriate fair value of $120,000. Charles Harvey, one of three owners, has decided to sell his 10% interest in the business. Which one of the following is most likely the amount at which Harvey can sell his interest?
	A.  	$40,000
	B.  	$15,000
	C.  	$12,000
	D.    less $12,000
A

D. less $12,000

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22
Q

How is the P/E ratio for a share of common computed?

A

Market price/EPS.

The price/earnings (P/E) ratio is computed as the market price of the stock divided by the earnings per share (EPS). Note that both values are on a per share basis and the resulting calculation shows the relationship between the price of a share of stock in the market and the earnings for each share of stock.

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23
Q
Which one of the following is not a major approach for assigning a value to an entire going business?
	A.  	Market approach.
	B.  	Income approach.
	C.  	Cost approach.
	D.  	Asset approach.
A

C. Cost approach.

The cost approach is not a major approach to assigning value to an entire going business. The market approach, the income approach and the asset approach are the major approaches to assigning value to an entire going business.

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24
Q

Current Assets $100,000 current Liabilities =$30,000
Investments =$25,000 Long-term Liabilities 75,000
Fixed Assets 75,000 Common Stock 70,000
_________ Retained Earnings 25,000
Total Assets $200,000 Total L + Equity $200,000

In a common-sized balance sheet, which one of the following percentages would be shown for current liabilities?
	A.  	15.0%
	B.  	17.6%
	C.  	28.5%
	D.  	30.0%
A

In a common-size balance sheet, each item is measured as a percentage of total assets (or total liabilities plus equity). Thus, the calculation would be:

$30,000/$200,000 = 15.0%

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25
Q

Which approach to valuing a business is most likely to be appropriate when the business has been losing money and is going to be sold in a distressed sale?

A

The asset approach

Asset approach values a business by adding (summing) the values of the individual assets that comprise the business. When a business is losing money and is going to be sold in a distressed sale, the value of the individual assets is a better basis for valuing the business than would be other methods of valuation (e.g., market approach or income approach).

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26
Q

When is common-size financial statements are useful in making comparisons?

A

Between Entities and Over Time.

Common-size financial statements are prepared by converting each amount to a percentage of a total amount on each financial statement. For example, revenues and expenses are converted to a percentage of total revenues. Such percentages are useful in comparing financial statements between entities and over time for the same entity.

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27
Q
The land and building that constitute a strip shopping mall were valued using the recent sales price of a comparable strip shopping mall located across the street. The method of valuation would be an example of the
	A.  	Income approach.
	B.  	Market approach.
	C.  	Asset approach.
	D.  	Cost approach.
A

Using the recent sales price of a comparable asset as a basis for valuing another asset is an example of the market approach to business valuation. The market approach values a business by comparing it to other entities with highly comparable characteristics for which the value is readily determinable. For example, the value of a publicly traded entity with a readily determinable value may be used as the basis for establishing the value of a highly comparable private entity.

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28
Q

What is the formula use to compute the basic approach used to capitalize earnings to determine the value of a business?

A

Annual earnings/Required rate of return

Annual earnings is divided by the required rate of return in order to capitalize earnings, and get the value of a business. The amount so determined is the total capital value for which the annual earning would provide the required rate of return.

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29
Q

What are three things to consider when valuing a business?

A

I. Nonpublic entities are likely to be more difficult to value than publicly traded entities.

II. The conditions in the macroeconomic environment should be considered in valuing an entity.

III. The status of the industry in which a business operates should be considered in valuing the entity.

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30
Q
Which one of the following is not an income approach to the valuation of a business?
	A.  	Discounted cash flow.
	B.  	Comparable sales.
	C.  	Earnings multiple.
	D.  	Free cash flow.
A

The use of comparable sales is not an income approach to valuation of a business, it is a market approach. Under the comparable sales approach, the value of a business is determined by comparing it to other entities with comparable characteristics for which the value is more readily determinable.

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31
Q

Which one of the following is least likely to be the reason an entity would seek a valuation of the entity as a going concern?

A. In connection with a planned sale of the entity.
B. In connection with a property tax determination.
C. In connection with developing a buy-sell agreement among the owners.
D. In connection with developing a settlement with the estate of a recently deceased owner

A

An entity would not seek to determine the value of an entity as a going concern in connection with a property tax determination. Valuation for property tax purposes would be concerned only with the value of the separate taxable assets of the entity, not with the value of the entity as a going concern.

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32
Q

Assume the following abbreviated Income Statement:

Revenues 	$100,000
Cost of Goods Sold 	60,000
Gross Profit 	$ 40,000
Operating Expenses 	20,000
Finance Expense 	5,000
Net Income 	$ 15,000
In a common-size income statement, which one of the following percentages would be shown for Finance Expense?
	A.  	33.33%
	B.  	12.50%
	C.  	8.33%
	D.  	5.00%
A

In a common-size income statement, each item is measures as a percentage of total revenues. Thus, the correct calculation is:

$5,000/$100,000 = 5.00%.

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33
Q
Which one of the following is not a qualitative forecasting method?
	A.  	Market research surveys.
	B.  	Time series models.
	C.  	Delphi method.
	D.  	Executive opinion.
A

Time series models are not a qualitative forecasting method. Time series models are quantitative forecasting methods that use patterns in past data to predict future values.

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34
Q

Which one of the following sets best reflects the relationship between the method of forecasting and the nature of forecasting?

A

Qualitative methods are subjective in nature while quantitative methods are objective in nature.

Business forecasting can use either quantitative or qualitative techniques. Quantitative techniques are objective in nature and rely on mathematical calculations and determinations. Qualitative techniques are subjective in nature and rely on judgment and opinion.

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35
Q

Which one of the following sets shows each type of business forecasting in the correct method classification?
Qualitative Methods Quantitative Methods
Delphi method Causal models
Executive Opinion Delphi method
Time series models Causal models
Executive Opinion Market research surveys

A

The Delphi method is a qualitative method and causal models are quantitative methods of business forecasting. The Delphi method is a qualitative forecasting method that involves development of a consensus by a group of experts using a multi-stage process to converge on a forecast. Causal models make forecasts based on relationships between variables.

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36
Q
Which one of the following forecasting methods is based on extrapolation of past data?
	A.  	Delphi method.
	B.  	Causal models.
	C.  	Time series models.
	D.  	Market research.
A

Time series models are based on extrapolation of past data. Specifically, time series models use past values or patterns to predict a future value or values.

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37
Q

Which one of the following sets shows the most likely method appropriate for short-term and long-term forecasting?
Short-term Forecasting Long-term Forecasting
Time series models Market research surveys
Causal models Time series models
Time series models Delphi method
Delphi method Time series models

A

Times series models are most likely appropriate for short-term forecasting and the Delphi method is most likely appropriate for long-term forecasting. Time series models use past values or patterns to predict a future value or values, but the longer the forecasting period, the less likely will the past values or patterns be relevant to those future values. The Delphi method is a qualitative forecasting method that involves a group of experts developing a consensus using a multi-stage process to converge on a forecast, which is a particularly useful approach for long-term forecasting.

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38
Q

Data patterns that reflect an upward movement over a long period of time would describe which one of the following patterns?

A. Cycles.
B. Horizontal.
C. Trend.
D. Random

A

Trend patterns reflect an upward (or downward) movement over a long period of time.

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39
Q
Which one of the following is not a causal model approach to forecasting?
	A.  	Decomposition.
	B.  	Regression analysis.
	C.  	Economic statistical models.
	D.  	Input-output models.
A

Decomposition is not a causal model approach to forecasting. Decomposition is the removal of the effects of various patterns from a set of time series data.

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40
Q

Which one of the following statements describes a difference between the simple moving average and the weighted moving average times series models for forecasting?
A. The weighted moving average model uses more prior time periods in getting an average than does the simple moving average.
B. The simple moving average model is based on using the prior 12 periods for forecasting, whereas the weighted moving average can be based on any number of prior periods.
C. Under the simple moving average model for forecasting, the raw prior values are not adjusted, whereas under the weighted moving average model the prior values are adjusted.
D. The weighted moving average model for forecasting will provide a better forecast than the simple moving average model.

A

Under the simple moving average model for forecasting, the raw prior values are not adjusted, whereas under the weighted moving average model the prior values are adjusted.

The simple moving average uses unadjusted raw prior period values, whereas the weighted moving average uses prior data adjusted by assigning different weights (or emphasis) to some or all prior values.

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41
Q
Each month Fuco, Inc. forecasts its next three months sales using the average of its actual sales for the most recent 12 months. Which one of the following times series models is Fuco using to forecast sales?
	A.  	Naïve.
	B.  	Weighted moving average.
	C.  	Exponential smoothing.
	D.  	Simple moving average.
A

The simple moving average uses an average of a specific number of the most recent periods’ actual values, without adjusting those values, as a forecast for a future period or periods.

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42
Q
Which one of the following would be a time series model for forecasting that reduces random fluctuations in data?
	A.  	Deseasonalized trend.
	B.  	Weighted moving average.
	C.  	Exponential smoothing.
	D.  	Seasonal index.
A

Exponential smoothing is a technique to reduce random fluctuations in time series data with declining weights assigned to data as it becomes older.

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43
Q
Which one of the following is not a time series pattern?
	A.  	Cyclical.
	B.  	Seasonal.
	C.  	Trend.
	D.  	Naïve.
A

Naïve is not a times series pattern, but a simple method of forecasting that uses the immediate prior period’s actual value as a forecast for the next period.

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44
Q

Which of the following statements concerning the discounted payback period method of evaluating capital projects is/are correct?
I. It is useful in evaluating the liquidity of a project.
II. It measures total project profitability.
III. It results in a longer computed payback period than does the undiscounted payback period method.

A.  	I only.
B.  	I and III, only.
C.  	II and III, only.
D.  	I, II and III
A

Statements I and III are correct, but statement II is not correct. The discounted payback period method does not measure the total project profitability, it measures only the period required to recover the initial investment. The total profitability or loss of the project is not assessed.

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45
Q

Which of the following statements concerning the discounted payback period approach to project evaluation is/are correct?

(1) Any project economically acceptable under the payback period approach will be acceptable under the discounted payback period approach.
(2) Any project economically acceptable under the discounted payback period approach will be acceptable under the payback period approach.

A

Correct!
All projects economically acceptable under the discounted payback period approach will be acceptable under the (undiscounted) payback period approach.

The discounted payback period approach takes the time value of money into account by discounting future cash flows. That discounting results in lower current values than the undiscounted cash flows. Thus, a project that would be acceptable under the lower values of the discounted payback period approach would be acceptable under the undiscounted payback period approach.

46
Q

Which one of the following is the capital budgeting evaluation approach that determines the number of periods required for the discounted cash inflows of a project to equal the discounted cash outflows?

    A.  	Payback period approach.
B.  	Discounted payback period approach.
C.  	Discounted return approach.
D.  	Net present value approach.
A

The discounted payback period approach does determine the number of periods required for the discounted cash inflows of a project to equal its discounted cash outflows.

47
Q

A company purchases an item for $43,000. The salvage value of the item is $3,000. The cost of capital is 8%. Pertinent information related to this purchase is as follows:
Net cash flow Present value factor at 8%
Year 1 $10,000 0.926
Year 2 15,000 0.857
Year 3 20,000 0.794
Year 4 27,000 0.735

What is the discounted payback period in years?
	A.  	3.10
	B.  	3.25
	C.  	2.90
	D.  	3.14
A

The discounted payback period method is a variation of
Discounted Payback Period Years = 3.252

the payback period approach that takes the time value of money into account. It does so by discounting the expected future cash flows to their present value and uses the present values to determine the length of time required to recover the initial investment. Therefore, using the given facts the calculation would be:

Initial Investment = $43,000

PV of Expected Cash Flows Years 1 - 3 = 37,995 Years = 3.000 (1 - 3)

An addition amount of $5,005 is needed to fully recover the initial investment ($43,000 − $37,995 = $5,005)

Balance Needed - Year 4 = $ 5,005/$19,845 Year 4 PV the fraction of year 4 needed to recover the remaining $5,005.

Discounted Payback Period Years = 3.252

48
Q

Tam Co. is negotiating for the purchase of equipment that would cost $100,000, with the expectation that $20,000 per year could be saved in after-tax cash costs if the equipment is acquired. The equipment’s estimated useful life is 10 years, with no residual value, and it would be depreciated by the straight-line method. Tam’s predetermined minimum desired rate of return is 12%. Present value of an annuity of 1 at 12% for 10 periods is 5.65. Present value of 1 due in 10 periods at 12% is .322.

Accrual accounting rate of return based on initial investment is
	A.  	30%
	B.  	20%
	C.  	12%
	D.  	10%
A

The accounting rate of return = (Change in) Annual accounting income/Initial Investment. For the facts given, the annual change in accounting income will be $20,000 - ($100,000/10 years) = $10,000. The accounting rate of return would be: $10,000/$100,000 = 10%.

49
Q
Lin Co. is buying machinery it expects will increase average annual operating income by $40,000. The initial increase in the required investment is $60,000, and the average increase in required investment is $30,000. To compute the accrual accounting rate of return, what amount should be used as the numerator in the ratio?
	A.  	$20,000
	B.  	$30,000
	C.  	$40,000
	D.  	$60,000
A

The accounting rate of return (ARR) is calculated as:

ARR = Average annual incremental income/Initial (or Average) investment.
For the facts given, the equation would be: ARR = $40,000/$60,000 (or $30,000). Thus, the numerator is given as $40,000.

This answer ($30,000) is the average investment and occasionally is used as the denominator of accounting rate of return.

50
Q

Which of the following statements concerning the accounting rate of return approach to evaluating capital projects is/are correct?

I. It considers the entire life of a project.

II. It considers the time value of money.

III. It assumes that the incremental net income is the same each year.
	A.  	I only.
	B.  	II only.
	C.  	I and II, only.
	D.  	I and III, only.
A

The accounting rate of return measures the expected annual incremental accounting income from a project as a percent of the initial (or average) investment in the project. It considers the entire life of the project and it assumes that the incremental net income is the same each year, including by using an average (Statements I and III, respectively).

51
Q
Phillips Company is considering the acquisition of a new machine that would cost $66,000, has an expected life of 6 years, and an expected salvage value of $16,000. The company expects the machine to provide annual incremental income before taxes of $7,200. Phillips has a tax rate of 30%. If Phillips uses average values in its calculations, which one of the following will be the average accounting rate of return on the machine?
	A.  	10.08%
	B.  	10.90%
	C.  	12.29%
	D.  	14.40%
A

The (average) accounting rate of return is determined by dividing the average annual after-tax net income by the average cost of the investment. The after-tax income would be $7,200 x .70 = $5,040. The average cost of the investment would be beginning book value ($66,000) + ending book value of ($16,000), or $82,000/2 = $41,000. Therefore, the accounting rate of return is: $5,040/$41,000 = 12.29%.

52
Q

Which of the following is an advantage of net present value modeling?
A. It is measured in time, not dollars.
B. It uses accrual basis, not cash basis accounting for a project.
C. It uses the accounting rate of return.
D. It accounts for compounding of returns.

A

D. It accounts for compounding of returns.

The net present value modeling assesses projects by comparing the present value of the expected cash flows (revenues or savings) of the project with the initial cash investment in the project. The use of present value provides for the compounding of amounts over time.

53
Q

Oak Company bought a machine that they will depreciate on a straight-line basis over an estimated life of seven years. The machine has no salvage value. They expect the machine to generate after-tax net cash inflows from operations of $110,000 in each of the seven years. Oak’s minimum rate of return is 12%. Information on present value factors is as follows:

Present value of $1 at 12% at the end
of 7 periods 0.0452
Present value of an ordinary annuity
of $1 at 12% for 7 periods 4.564

Assuming a positive net present value of $12,000, what was the cost of the machine?
	A.  	$480,000
	B.  	$490,040
	C.  	$502,040
	D.  	$514,040
A

B is correct.
The net present value of a project is determined by subtracting the cost of the investment from the present value of future cash inflows (or savings), using a hurdle rate of return as the discount rate. In this case, the hurdle rate is expressed as Oak’s minimum rate of return, 12%. Thus, the equation for solution would be:

NPV = ($110,000 x PV of an annuity @ 12% for 7 years) - Investment Cost
$12,000 = ($110,000 x 4.564) - Investment Cost
$12,000 = $502,040 - Investment
Investment = $502,040 - $12,000 = $490,040
54
Q

The following information pertains to Krel Co.’s computation of net present value relating to a contemplated project:

Discounted expected cash inflows $1,000,000
Discounted expected cash outflows 700,000

Net present value is:
	A.  	$300,000
	B.  	$700,000
	C.  	$850,000
	D.  	$1,000,000
A

Net present value (NPV) is computed as: NPV = present value of cash inflows - present value of cash outflows.

Using the facts in this question: NPV = $1,000,000 - $700,000 = $300,000.

55
Q

Yarrow Co. is considering the purchase of a new machine that costs $450,000. The new machine will generate net cash flow of $150,000 per year and net income of $100,000 per year for five years. Yarrow’s desired rate of return is 6%. The present value factor for a five-year annuity of $1, discounted at 6%, is 4.212. The present value factor of $1, at compound interest of 6% due in five years, is 0.7473. What is the new machine’s net present value?

A

The net present value of the new machine is determined as the present value of future cash inflows less the present value of the current costs of the machine. Net income is not relevant in computing the net present value. In this question, the cash inflow is $150,000 per year for five years. The present value of that inflow is $150,000 x 4.212 (the present value of an annuity for five years) = $631,800. The present value of the cost of the new machine is $450,000. Thus, the net present value of the machine is $631,800 - $450,000 = $181,800.

56
Q
The discount rate is determined in advance for which of the following capital budgeting techniques?
	A.  	Payback.
	B.  	Accounting rate of return.
	C.  	Net present value.
	D.  	Internal rate of return.
A

The discount rate is determined in advance when using the net present value capital budgeting technique. The net present value technique compares the present value of expected cash inflows with the present value of cash outflows to determine whether or not a capital project is economically feasible. Determining present values requires the use of a predetermined discount rate. Often the firm’s cost of capital is used as the discount rate.

57
Q

Net present value as used in investment decision-making is stated in terms of which of the following options?

A. Net income.
B. Earnings before interest, taxes, and depreciation.
C. Earnings before interest and taxes.
D. Cash flow.

A

D. Cash flow.

Net present value as used in investment decision-making is stated in terms of cash flow; specifically, in terms of the present value of cash flow. If the net present value of cash flow is zero or positive, an investment project is economically feasible.

58
Q

A company is considering two projects, which have the following details:

	Project A 	Project B
Expected sales 	$1,000 	$1,500
Cash operating expense 	400 	700
Depreciation 	150 	250
Tax rate 	30% 	30%

Which project would provide the largest after-tax cash inflow?
A. Project A because after-tax cash inflow equals $465.
B. Project A because after-tax cash inflow equals $315.
C. Project B because after-tax cash inflow equals $635.
D. Project B because after-tax cash inflow equals $385.

A

The project with the largest after-tax [net] cash inflow would be project B, with a net cash inflow of $635. The net cash inflow would be computed as: $1,500 - $700 = $800 x (1 - .30) = $800 x .70 = $560 + ($250 x .30) = $560 + $75 = $635. The ($250 x .30) is the tax savings from the deductibility of the depreciation for tax purposes.

59
Q

The calculation of depreciation is used in the determination of the net present value of an investment for which of the following reasons?

A. The decline in the value of the investment should be reflected in the determination of net present value.
B. Depreciation adjusts the book value of the investment.
C. Depreciation represent cash outflow that must be added back to net income.
D. Depreciation increases cash flow by reducing income taxes.

A

D. Depreciation increases cash flow by reducing income taxes.

Determining the net present value of an investment is done by comparing the present value of the expected cash inflows (revenues or savings) of the project with the initial cash investment in the project (outflows). Since the amount of depreciation expense taken reduces taxes due, it reduces cash outflow by the amount of taxes saved. The present value of that saving enters into the determination of present values for net present value assessment purposes.

60
Q

A project’s net present value, ignoring income tax considerations, is normally affected by the

A. Proceeds from the sale of the asset to be replaced.
B. Carrying amount of the asset to be replaced by the project.
C. Amount of annual depreciation on the asset to be replaced.
D. Amount of annual depreciation on fixed assets used directly on the project.

A

A. Proceeds from the sale of the asset to be replaced.

The net present value approach is based on cash flows. Only the proceeds from sale of the asset to be replaced is a cash flow. The remaining alternatives are not cash flows, and do not cause cash flows to change when income tax effects are ignored. In the equipment replacement decision, the proceeds from the sale of the old asset (not its carrying value) increase the net present value of the replacement alternative.

61
Q
Given a 10% discount rate with cash inflows of $3,000 at the end of each year for five years and an initial investment of $11,000, what is the net present value?
	A.  	($9,500)
	B.  	$370
	C.  	$4,000
	D.  	$11,370
A

Correct!
The net present value is $370. The present value (PV) of expected cash inflows is determined by discounting those flows to their present value using the firm’s discount rate (also called the hurdle rate). The difference between the resulting PV of cash inflows and the initial cost (which is at present value) is the net present value of the project. Cash inflows are $3,000 at the end of each year for five years, which is an ordinary annuity. If (in the absence of a PV table of factors) you know the formula for the PV of an ordinary annuity it can be used. That would be:

PVoa = C x [(1 - (1 / (1 + i)n)) / i]

Where: C = Cash flow per year; i = interest rate; and n = number of years.

Substituting: PV = $3,000 x [(1 - (1/(1 + .10)5))/.10]; PV = $3,000 x 3.79; PV of cash inflows = $11,370 - initial investment $11,000 = $370 net present value.

62
Q
Given a 10% discount rate with cash inflows of $3,000 at the end of each year for five years and an initial investment of $11,000, what is the net present value?
	A.  	($9,500)
        B      $370
	C.  	$4,000
	D.  	$11,370
A

Even if you don’t have PV factors or don’t know the
B. $370

formula for PVoa, you can compute the answer (even easier than using the formula). For each year, discount the $3,000 by the discount rate times the number of years, as follows:

PV of 1 $ 3000/1.10 =$2727
PV of 2 $ 2727/1.10 =$2479
PV of 3 $ 2479/1.10 =$2253
PV of 4 $ 2253/1.10 =$2049
PV of 5$ 2049/1.10 =$1862

Total PV of cash inflows=$11,370

PV$11,370-$11000=NPV $370

63
Q

Which of the following phrases defines the internal rate of return on a project?
A. The number of years it takes to recover the investment.
B. The discount rate at which the net present value of the project equals zero.
C. The discount rate at which the net present value of the project equals one.
D. The weighted-average cost of capital used to finance the project.

A

B. The discount rate at which the net present value of the project equals zero.

The internal rate of return on a project is defined as the discount rate at which the net present value of the project equals zero. Specifically, the internal rate of return assesses a project by determining the discount rate that equates the present value of the project’s future cash inflows with the present value of the project’s future cash outflows.

64
Q

What is an internal rate of return?
A. A net present value.
B. An accounting rate of return.
C. A payback period expected from an investment.
D. A time-adjusted rate of return from an investment.

A

D. A time-adjusted rate of return from an investment.

An internal rate of return is a time-adjusted rate of return from an investment. In capital budgeting an internal rate of return approach (also called a time adjusted rate of return) evaluates a project by determining the discount rate that equates the present value of the project’s future cash inflows with the present value of the project’s cash outflows. The rate so determined is the expected rate of return to be earned by the project.

65
Q

Which of the following limitations is common to the calculations of payback period, discounted cash flow, internal rate of return, and net present value?

A. They do not consider the time value of money.
B. They require multiple trial and error calculations.

  C.  	They require knowledge of a company's cost of capital.
D.  	They rely on the forecasting of future data.
A

D. They rely on the forecasting of future data.

The calculations of payback period and internal rate of return do not require knowledge of a company’s cost of capital. The discounted cash flow and net present value may use the company’s cost of capital as the rate used to discount cash flow and determine net present value. All of the listed calculations rely on the forecasting of future data.

66
Q

Which of the following metrics equates the present value of a project’s expected cash inflows to the present value of the project’s expected costs?
A.

Net present value.
B.

Return on assets.
C.

Internal rate of return.
D.

Economic value-added.

A

The internal rate of return metric equates the present value of a project’s expected cash inflows to the present value of the project’s expected costs. It does so by determining the discount (interest) rate that equates the present value of the project’s future cash inflows with the present value of the project’s cash outflows. The rate so determined is the rate of return earned on the project.

67
Q

How are the following used in the calculation of the internal rate of return of a proposed project? Ignore income tax considerations.

 Residual sales value   	 Depreciation expense  
	A. Exclude 	                 Include 
	 B.Include 	                   Include 
	 C. Exclude 	                Exclude 
	D. Include 	                 Exclude
A

Residual sales value Depreciation expense
D. Include Exclude

The IRR is the rate that equates the present value of net cash inflows with a project’s investment cost. Depreciation expense is not a cash flow and does not affect cash flows when income taxes are ignored; it should be excluded. The residual value of an asset at the end of a project is a cash flow, is discounted, and affects the present value of net cash inflows; it should be included.

68
Q

Which of the following events would decrease the internal rate of return of a proposed asset purchase?
A. Decrease tax credits on the asset.
B. Decrease related working capital requirements.
C. Shorten the payback period.
D. Use accelerated, instead of straight-line depreciation.

A

A. Decrease tax credits on the asset.

The internal rate of return method (also called the time adjusted rate of return) evaluates a project by determining the discount rate that equates the present value of the project’s future cash inflows with the present value of the project’s cash outflows. The first step in the calculation is to divide the initial cost of the project (numerator) by the annual savings of the project (denominator) to get a present value factor. Decreases in the tax credits on an asset, which means that tax savings on the purchase of the asset are reduced, serve to increase the effective initial cost of the asset. Increasing the initial cost of the asset (numerator) results in a higher present value factor and, therefore, a lower discount (interest) rate, which is the internal rate of return.

69
Q

Tam Co. is negotiating for the purchase of equipment that would cost $100,000, with the expectation that $20,000 per year could be saved in after-tax cash costs if the equipment is acquired. The equipment’s estimated useful life is 10 years, with no residual value, and it would be depreciated by the straight-line method. Tam’s predetermined minimum desired rate of return is 12%. Present value of an annuity of 1 at 12% for 10 periods is 5.65. Present value of 1 due in 10 periods at 12% is .322.

In estimating the internal rate of return, the factors in the table of present values of an annuity should be taken from the columns closest to
	A.  	0.65
	B.  	1.30
	C.  	5.00
	D.  	5.65
A

C. 5.00

In estimating the internal rate of return, the factors in t
The IRR is the rate of return that equates the present value of inflows with the present value of outflows. Expressed mathematically it is: Present value of inflows using IRR = present value of outflows using IRR. The calculation for the facts given would be:

$20,000 x (PV of annuity factor for 10 years at IRR percent) = $100,000
Rearranged: (PV of annuity factor for 10 years at IRR percent) = $100,000/$20,000 = 5.00

Using the present value of an annuity table, for n = 10, the factors nearest to 5.00 would be used to determine the IRR.

70
Q

Polo Co. requires higher rates of return for projects with a life span greater than five years. Projects extending beyond five years must earn a higher specified rate of return. Which of the following capital budgeting techniques can readily accommodate this requirement?
Internal rate of return Net present value
Yes No
No Yes
No No
Yes Yes

A

Internal rate of return Net present value
Yes Yes

IRR is the rate that equates the present value of project net cash inflows and the cost of the investment. If the IRR, which is the expected compounded rate of return on a project, exceeds a specified return, the project is accepted. IRR can be compared to any specified rate for the purpose of accepting or rejecting projects. NPV is the difference between the present value of project inflows and the present value of outflows. The interest rate used to compute the present values is the rate that must be achieved. If the NPV is equal to or greater than 0, the project is accepted. NPV can accommodate any specified rate for the purpose of accepting or rejecting projects.

71
Q

Which of the following capital budgeting techniques, if any, implicitly assumes that all cash inflows are immediately reinvested to earn a return for the company?
Net Present Value Internal Rate of Return
Yes Yes
Yes No
No Yes
No No

A

Net Present Value Internal Rate of Return
Yes Yes

Both the net present value method and the internal rate of return method of evaluating capital projects assume that all cash inflows (or savings) that result from the project are immediately reinvested to earn a return for the company.

The earnings from these investments constitute part of the benefit derived by the company from its investment in a project. There is, however, a difference in the rate of return of the reinvestment implicitly assumed under the two methods:

1) The net present value method implicitly assumes that reinvestment of cash inflows earns the hurdle rate of return, the same rate used to discount future cash flows to get present value.
2) The internal rate of return method implicitly assumes that reinvestment of cash inflows earns a rate of return equal to the internal rate of return.

72
Q

If it is determined that a project investment is expected to generate $1.20 in present value for each $1.00 invested, which one of the following was most likely used to reach that conclusion?
A.

Net present value approach.
B.

Profitability index approach
C.

Internal rate of return approach.
D.

Payback period approach.

A

A. Profitability index approach

The profitability index computes the expected return for each dollar invested. It is computed as: Net Present Value/Project Cost.

73
Q
Disco is considering three capital projects that have the following costs and net present values (NPV):
Project 	Cost 	NPV
X 	$40,000 	$60,000
Y 	$60,000 	$75,000
Z 	$50,000 	$30,000

Which one of the projects, if any, is not economically feasible?
A. Project X.
B. Project Y.
C. Project Z.
D. All of the projects are economically feasible.

A

D. All of the projects are economically feasible.

Because all of the projects have a positive net present value, they are all economically feasible. NET present value is the difference between present value of cash inflows and cost of the investment.

74
Q
Disco is considering three capital projects that have the following costs and net present values (NPV):
Project 	Cost 	NPV
X 	$40,000 	$60,000
Y 	$60,000 	$75,000
Z 	$50,000 	$30,000

Using the profitability index, which project, if any, would be ranked as the most desirable?
A. Project X.
B. Project Y.
C. Project Z.
D. None of the projects would be more desirable than the other projects.

A

A. Project X

Project X has a profitability index of 1.50, computed as NPV = $60,000/Cost = $40,000. Project Y has a profitability index of 1.25 and Project Z has an index of .60. Therefore, Project X, with the highest profitability index, would be the most desirable project.

75
Q

Which of the following is a limitation of the profitability index?
A.

It uses free cash flows.
B.

It ignores the time value of money.
C.

It is inconsistent with the goal of shareholder wealth maximization.
D.

It requires detailed long-term forecasts of the project’s cash flows.

A

D. It requires detailed long-term forecasts of the project’s cash flows.

Because the profitability index is based on cash flow and because projects may be of very long duration, the use of the profitability index requires detailed long-term forecasts (i.e., amount and timing) of projects’ cash flows. The longer the projection period, the greater the uncertainty of those cash flows.

76
Q

What is the formula for calculating the profitability index of a project?
A. Subtract actual after-tax net income from the minimum required return in dollars.
B. Divide the present value of the annual after-tax cash flows by the original cash invested in the project.
C. Divide the initial investment for the project by the net annual cash inflows.
D. Multiply net profit margin by asset turnover.

A

B. Divide the present value of the annual after-tax cash flows by the original cash invested in the project.

The profitability index is computed by dividing the present value of annual after-tax cash flows by the original cash invested in the project.

77
Q

Which one of the following represents the formula used to calculate the profitability index for ranking projects?

A.  	Project Cash Flow divided by Project Cost
B.  	Project Cost divided by Project Cash Flow
C.  	Project Net Present Value divided by Project Cost
D.  	Project Cost divided by Project Net Present Value
A

C. Project Net Present Value divided by Project COST

The formula used to calculate the profitability index is project net present value divided by the project cost. The resulting percentage gives a ranking that takes into account both project net present value and initial cost. The higher the percentage, the higher the project rank.

78
Q
Which one of the following methods of evaluating investment projects is most likely to be used to rank projects competing for limited capital investment funds?
	A.  	Payback period method.
	B.  	Net present value method.
	C.  	Internal rate of return method.
	D.  	Profitability index method.
A

D. Profitability index method.

The profitability index method is specifically designed to rank projects by taking into account both the time value of money and the initial cost of the project.

79
Q

Which of the following statements is correct regarding financial decision making?
A. Opportunity cost is recorded as a normal business expense.
B. The accounting rate of return considers the time value of money.
C. A strength of the payback method is that it is based on profitability.
D. Capital budgeting is based on predictions of an uncertain future

A

D. Capital budgeting is based on predictions of an uncertain future

Capital budgeting is the process of measuring, evaluating, and selecting long-term investment opportunities. Inherent in every capital investment opportunity (i.e., capital project) are elements of risk and reward. Risk is the possibility of loss or other unfavorable results that derives from the uncertainty implicit in future outcomes. The time periods, expected costs and savings, and other elements used in capital budgeting are largely estimates or predictions about an uncertain future.

80
Q
Which of the following methods should be used if capital rationing needs to be considered when comparing capital projects?
	A.  	Net present value.
	B.  	Internal rate of return.
	C.  	Return on investment.
	D.  	Profitability index.
A

D. Profitability index.

The profitability index (PI) method of capital project evaluation should be the method used in comparing capital projects when capital rationing needs to be considered. The profitability index method (also called the cost/benefit ratio) is primarily intended for use in ranking projects. It does so by taking into account both the present value and the cost of each project.

81
Q
Which one of the following methods of evaluating investment projects is most likely to be least acceptable for making project ranking decisions?
	A.  	Payback period method.
	B.  	Net present value method.
	C.  	Internal rate of return method.
	D.  	Profitability index method.
A

A. Payback period method.

The payback period method is least likely to be used for ranking projects because of its serious shortcomings, including its failure to use discounted amounts and the fact that it is only concerned with the period required to recover the initial investment, not with the entire life of a project.

82
Q

How is the coefficient of variation ratio computed ?

A

Coefficient of variation (CV) = SD/AR
Where: SD = Standard deviation of investment average return (which is a common measure of how much an investment deviates from its average performance; that is, its volatility.)
AR = Average rate of return of investment

Example:
The common stock of X Company has a 10% average return with a standard deviation of 20%. What is the coefficient of variation (CV) for X’s common stock?
CV = .20/.10
= 2.0

83
Q

What is a Sharpe Ratio?

A

Sharpe Ratio—another measure used to assess the risk-reward relationship (for either short-term or long-term investments) is the Sharpe ratio (or Sharpe index).
1. The Sharpe ratio measures how well the average return on an investment compensates for the risk of the investment; it can be thought of as a measure of the excess return (reward) per unit of risk.

84
Q

How is a Sharpe Ratio computed?

A

Sharpe ratio = (AR − RR)/SD
Where: AR = Average Rate of return of investment
RR = Average Risk-free rate of return
SD = Standard deviation of investment average return (which is a common measure of how much an investment deviates from its average performance; that is, its volatility)

Example:

The common stock of X Company has a 10% average return with a standard deviation of 20%. The current risk-free rate measured by the return on T-Bills is 2%. What is the Sharpe ratio for X’s common stock?

Sharpe ratio = .10 − .02/.20
= .08/.20
= .40

85
Q

Which one of the following is most likely not a major concern when selecting short-term investment opportunities?

    A.  	Safety of principal.
B.  	Rate of return.
    C.  	Price stability.
D.  	Marketability.
A

B. Rate of return.

Correct!
Because funds invested in short-term investments will earn a return for only a short period of time, the rate of return earned is normally not a major concern. More important concerns are safety of principal, price stability, and marketability of the investment.

86
Q

When making short-term investments, which one of the following is the risk associated with the ability to sell an investment in a short period of time without having to make significant price concessions?

    A. Purchasing power risk.
B.  	Interest rate risk.
C.  	Default risk.
D.  	Liquidity risk.
A

D. Liquidity risk.

Correct!

The risk associated with the ability to sell an investment in a short period of time without having to make significant price concessions is liquidity risk. Two possible elements are implied in the risk: (1) the inability to sell for cash in the short term, and (2) the inability to receive fair value in cash in the short term.

87
Q

Which of the following considerations typically would be important in selecting investments for the temporary use of “excess” cash?

Safety of Principal Ready Marketability

A

Safety of Principal Ready Marketability
Yes Yes

Correct!
In selecting short-term investments for “excess” cash, a firm would be concerned with (1) safety of principal, (2) price stability of the investment instrument, and (3) ability to readily convert the investment to cash without undue cost.

88
Q
The overall objective of accounts receivable management is to:
	A.  	Maximize sales.
	B.  	Minimize credit losses.
	C.  	Maximize profits.
	D.  	Minimize uncollectible accounts.
A

C. Maximize profits.

Correct!
The overall objective of accounts receivable management is to maximize profits. A policy that is too loose will grant credit to those who are not creditworthy and result in unnecessary uncollectible accounts and lower profit. A policy that is too strict will result in not making credit sales that would be paid and, thereby, increase profit.

89
Q

Asher Company eased its credit policy by lengthening its discount period from 10 days to 15 days. Which of the following is/are likely reasons for Asher lengthening its discount period?

I. To show a higher average age of accounts on its accounts receivable aging schedule.

II. To meet terms offered by competitors.

III. To seek to stimulate sales.
	A.  	I only.
	B.  	II only.
	C.  	III only.
	D.  	II and III, only.
A

Asher likely lengthened its discount period to meet terms offered by competitors (Statement II), and to seek to stimulate sales (Statement III). It would not have lengthened its discount period to increase the average age of its account receivable (Statement I), but that was an undesirable, but necessary, outcome.

90
Q

Moe’s Boat Service currently does not offer a discount to encourage its customers to pay early for services provided to them. Moe has discussed with his accountant the possibility of offering a 2% discount to improve its cash conversion cycle. Moe’s accountant determined the following:

Credit sales expected to remain unchanged at $1,000,000
The 2% discount is expected to be taken on 40% of accounts receivable balance amounts.
The average accounts receivable would likely decrease by $ 30,000
Moe has an opportunity cost of 15% associated with its use of cash.

Which one of the following is the dollar amount of net benefit or cost that Moe would obtain if the proposed 2% discount plan is implemented?
	A.  	$ 3,500
	B.  	$ 4,500
	C.  	$ 8,000
	D.  	$20,000

Correct!

A

A. $ 3,500

Correct!
The benefits obtained would be the reduction in working capital required for carrying average accounts receivable of $30,000 multiplied by the opportunity cost of .15 = $4,500. The cost of the plan would be the reduced cash collected on accounts receivable of .02 times the 40% expected to take advantage of the discount (.02 x .40 = .008) times the credit sales, or .008 x $1,000,000 = $8,000. So, the net results would be an increase in cost of $4,500 - $8,000 = - $3,500. Although not clearly stated in the problem “facts,” the decrease is intended to be average accounts receivable. As this is an actual AICPA exam question, the wording has been left unchanged.

91
Q

Accounts receivable management is concerned with:
I. Policies related to the recognition of accounts receivable.
II. Policies related to the collection of accounts receivable.

A.  	Both I and II.
B.  	I only.
C.  	II only.
D.  	Neither I or II.
A

A. Both I and II.

Correct!
Accounts receivable management is concerned with policies related both to the recognition and collection of accounts receivable. Policies concerned with the recognition of accounts receivable would include general terms under which credit will be granted and criteria for determining customer eligibility and limits. Policies concerned with the collection of accounts receivable would cover monitoring accounts receivable and plans for collection action.

92
Q

Which one of the following is least likely to enter into a firm’s decision in setting the rate and period of its discount terms for early payment?

A. A firm’s margin of profit.
B. The rate and period offered by competitors.
C. Minimizing the firm’s losses on account receivable.
D. A firm’s cost of financing its accounts receivable.

A

C. Minimizing the firm’s losses on account receivable.

Correct!
A firm will be least likely concerned with minimizing the firm’s losses on accounts receivable in setting the rate and period of its discount terms for early payment. First, the objective in setting account receivable policies is not to minimize losses, but to maximize net income. A firm could minimize its losses on accounts receivable by being a cash only business, but it would lose sales and net income. Secondly, setting the rate and period of discount terms is concerned with accelerating the collection of cash, not with minimizing losses.

93
Q

Which one of the following is not a characteristic of a just-in-time inventory system?

A. Reducing distance and time between related production operations.
B. Establishing close, long-term relationships with suppliers.
C. Decreasing the number of deliveries from suppliers.
D. Reducing raw material safety stock.

A

C. Decreasing the number of deliveries from suppliers.

Under a just-in-time inventory system, a firm reduces its inventory on-hand and relies on suppliers to make more frequent deliveries – deliveries that provide inventory just in time to be input into the production process. Thus, decreasing the number of deliveries from suppliers is not a characteristic of a just-in-time inventory system; rather, such a system increases the number of deliveries.

94
Q
Which of the following inventory management approaches seeks to minimize total inventory costs by considering both the restocking (reordering) cost and the carrying costs?
	A.  	Economic order quantity.
	B.  	Just-in-time.
	C.  	Materials requirements planning.
	D.  	ABC.
A

A. Economic order quantity.

Correct!
The economic order quantity model seeks to determine the order size that will minimize total inventory cost, both order cost and carrying costs.
While the question can be answered quite easily, because the economic order quantity answer choice is the only one that is concerned with minimizing total inventory cost by considering carrying cost and restocking cost (reordering costs), the wording of the question is ambiguous at best. It would have been better worded as “Which of the following inventory management approaches seeks to minimize total inventory costs by considering both the restocking (reordering) cost and the carrying costs?” Because it is an actual AICPA exam question, the wording has been left unchanged.

95
Q

An increase in which of the following should cause management to reduce the average inventory?
A. The cost of placing an order.
B. The cost of carrying inventory.
C. The annual demand for the product.
D. The lead time needed to acquire inventory

A

B. The cost of carrying inventory.

Correct!
An increase in the cost of carrying inventory should cause management to reduce average inventory so as to avoid the increased cost of carrying the inventory (e.g., warehousing cost, insurance costs, etc.).

96
Q

Which of the following assumptions is associated with the economic order quantity formula?

A. The carrying cost per unit will vary with quantity ordered.
B. The cost of placing an order will vary with quantity ordered.
C. Periodic demand is known.
D. The purchase cost per unit will vary based on quantity discounts.

A

C. Periodic demand is known.

Correct!

The economic order quantity determines the order size that will minimize total inventory cost – both order cost and carrying cost. The economic order quantity model (formula) assumes that periodic demand is known and constant during the period. It also assumes that order cost and carrying cost per unit are known and constant during the period.

97
Q

In computing the reorder point for an item of inventory, which of the following factors are used?

I. Cost of inventory.

II. Inventory usage per day.

III. Acquisition lead-time.
	A.  	I and II are correct.
	B.  	II and III are correct.
	C.  	I and III are correct.
	D.  	I, II and III are correct.
A

B. II and III are correct.

Correct!
Determining the level of stock (inventory) at which the inventory should be reordered is a function of the minimum level of inventory to be maintained, referred to as the safety stock, and the length of time it takes to receive inventory after it is ordered, referred to as the lead-time or delivery-time stock. Both the safety stock and the lead-time stock are based on the rate of inventory usage. The calculation of the reorder point would be: Reorder point = safety stock + delivery-time stock The cost of inventory does not enter into the determination of the reorder point (but it does enter into the optimum quantity to reorder).

98
Q

Which of the following inventory management techniques focuses on a set of procedures to determine inventory levels for demand-dependent inventory types such as work-in-process and raw materials?

    A.  	Materials requirements planning.
B.  	Cycle counting.
C.  	Safety stock reorder point.
D.  	Economic order quantity.
A

A. Materials requirements planning.

Correct!
The materials requirement planning approach to manufacturing and inventory management focuses on a set of procedures to determine inventory levels for demand-dependent inventory types such as work-in-process and raw materials. Under this approach, inventories are maintained at every level in the process (as raw materials, work-in-process and finished goods) as buffer against unexpected increases in demand. The alternative approach, just-in-time inventory, seeks to eliminate excess raw material, work-in-process and finished goods inventories.

99
Q
As a consequence of finding a more dependable supplier and adopting just-in-time inventory ordering, Dee Co. reduced its safety stock of raw materials inventory by 80%. Which one of the following would the reduction in safety stock have on Dee's economic order quantity?
	A.  	80% decrease.
	B.  	64% decrease.
	C.  	20% increase.
	D.  	0% change (no effect).
A

D. 0% change (no effect).

A change in safety stock does not affect a firm’s economic order quantity (but does affect its reorder point). The calculation of economic order quantity (EOQ) is:

Thus, the safety stock is not a factor in determining the economic order quantity, and a change (decrease) in safety stock would have no effect on Dee’s economic order quantity.

100
Q

Alpha Company learns that it may have an opportunity to acquire a large quantity of its raw material in the near future at a significant discount. If the opportunity materializes, it would require that Alpha make an immediate decision and that it pay for the inventory at that time. Which one of the following would Alpha most likely employ in anticipation of such an opportunity so that funds would be available when needed?

A. Execute a short-term note.
B. Arrange to issue additional shares of authorized common stock.
C. Arrange a line of credit.
D. Execute documents to enable it to issue bonds.

A

C. Arrange a line of credit

Correct!
Arranging a line of credit would provide “stand-by” financing that could be used if and when the opportunity to acquire the inventory materializes. Such an arrangement would avoid incurring interest cost and other costs unless and until the credit is actually used.

101
Q

In managing its working capital, your firm tries to follow the hedging principle of finance. Which one of the following would be too aggressive to be consistent with that principle as applied to working capital?

A. Financing short-term needs with long-term funds.
B. Financing long-term needs with short-term funds.
C. Financing seasonal needs with short-term funds.
D. Financing a permanent build-up in inventory with long-term debt.

A

B. Financing long-term needs with short-term funds.

Under the hedging principle of finance, assets are acquired with financing that matches the life of the asset. Thus, short-term assets would be financed with short-term liabilities and long-term assets would be financed with long-term liabilities or equity. The financing of long-term needs with short-term funds would be an aggressive approach to financing long-term needs that would not be consistent with the hedging principle.

102
Q

In general, does the use of short-term financing require collateral and/or impose restrictive terms on the borrower?
Collateral Required Restrictive Terms Imposed
Yes Yes
Yes No
No Yes
No No

A

Collateral Required Restrictive Terms Imposed
No No

Correct!
In general, items of short-term financing do not require collateral from or impose restrictive terms on the borrower. Accounts payable and accrued payables, for example, do not require either collateral or have restrictive terms. Similarly, most short-term notes do not require collateral or have restrictive terms.

103
Q
Which of the following is least likely to be a major purpose or type of ratio or measure used in financial management?
	A.  	Solvency.
	B.  	Operational activity.
	C.  	Price indexes.
	D.  	Investment leverage.
A

C. Price indexes.

Price indexes convert prices of one period to what those prices would have been in terms of prices of a prior period. They are not a major purpose or type of measure used in financial management. Common examples of price indexes are the consumer price index (CPI) and the wholesale price index (WPI).

Operational activity measures are used in financial management to assess the efficiency with which a firm carries out its operating activities. They would include accounts receivable and inventory turnover, operating cycle length, and other measures of operating efficiency.

104
Q

Which of the following statements concerning ratio analysis is/are correct?

I. Ratio analysis uses only monetary measures for analysis purposes.

II. Ratio analysis uses only measures from financial statements for analysis purposes.
	A.  	I. only.
	B.  	II only.
	C.  	Both I and II.
	D.  	Neither I nor II.
A

D. Neither I nor II.

Ratio analysis uses monetary measures as well as other quantitative measures. For example, in the earnings per share calculation, the number of shares of common stock, a non-monetary measure, is used. Ratio analysis also uses financial statement measures in addition to measures that are not a part of financial statements. For example, the price-earnings ratio uses the market price of the stock, a measure not found in the financial statements.

105
Q
A company has income after tax of $5.4 million, interest expense of $1 million for the year, depreciation expense of $1 million, and a 40% tax rate. What is the company's times-interest-earned ratio?
	A.  	5.4
	B.  	6.4
	C.  	7.4
	D.  	10.0
A

The company’s times-interest-earned ratio is 10.0. The
D. 10.0

Times-Interest-Earned Ratio=EBIT/interest exp.

times-interest-earned ratio measures the ability of current earnings to cover interest payments for a period. It is measured as:

Times-Interest-Earned Ratio = (Net Income + Interest Expense + Income Tax Expense) / Interest Expense
Therefore:
Times-Interest-Earned Ratio = ($5.4M + $1M + $3.6M*)/$1M
= $10M/$1M = 10.0 times

Income before taxes is computed as: .6X = $5.4M (i.e., 60% of taxable income equals $5.4M). Therefore: X (income before taxes) = $5.4M/.6 = $9.0M. Income before taxes = $9.0M - income after taxes = $5.4M = income taxes = $3.6M.)

The $10M also can be determined as $9.0 income before taxes + $1M interest expense= $10M.

106
Q
Green, Inc., a financial investment-consulting firm, was engaged by Maple Corp. to provide technical support for making investment decisions. Maple, a manufacturer of ceramic tiles, was in the process of buying Bay, Inc., its prime competitor. Green's financial analyst made an independent detailed analysis of Bay's average collection period to determine which of the following?
	A.  	Financing.
	B.  	Return on equity.
	C.  	Liquidity.
	D.  	Operating profitability.
A

C. Liquidity.

A detailed analysis of average collection period most likely would be used to assess or determine liquidity. An analysis of average collection period would measure how long, on average, it takes an entity to collects its receivables – how long it takes to convert accounts receivable to cash.

107
Q

Farrow Co. is applying for a loan in which the bank requires a quick ratio of at least 1. Farrow’s quick ratio is 0.8. Which of the following actions would increase Farrow’s quick ratio?

A. Purchasing inventory through the issuance of a long-term note.
B. Implementing stronger procedures to collect accounts receivable at a faster rate.
C. Paying an existing account payable.
D. Selling obsolete inventory at a loss.

A

D. Selling obsolete inventory at a loss.

Selling obsolete inventory at a loss (or at a gain) would increase Farrow’s quick ratio. The quick ratio (also known as the acid test ratio) measures the number of times that cash and assets that can be converted quickly to cash cover current liabilities. It is calculated as: (Cash + Current Receivables + Marketable Securities)/Current Liabilities. Selling obsolete inventory would increase cash, in the numerator, without changing current liabilities, the denominator, which would increase the quick ratio.

108
Q

North Bank is analyzing Belle Corp.’s financial statements for a possible extension of credit. Belle’s quick ratio is significantly better than the industry average. Which one of the following factors should North consider as a possible limitation of using this ratio when evaluating Belle’s creditworthiness?

A. Fluctuating market prices of short-term investments may adversely affect the ratio.
B. Increasing market prices for Belle’s inventory may adversely affect the ratio.
C. Belle may need to sell its available-for-sale investments to meet its current obligations.
D. Belle may need to liquidate its inventory to meet its long-term obligations.

A

A. Fluctuating market prices of short-term investments

The quick ratio (also called the acid-test ratio) is the relationship between current assets that can be converted quickly to cash and total current liabilities. Expressed as a formula, it is: Quick Ratio = Quick Assets/Current Liabilities. Quick assets normally include cash, accounts receivable, and short-term investments (also called marketable securities). Note that quick assets do not include all current assets; it excludes inventories and most prepaid items. Because short-term investments are reported on the balance sheet at fair market value at the balance sheet date, fluctuations in the market price over time would change the quick ratio. For example, if the balance sheet is dated December 31, the quick ratio would reflect the quick assets and current liabilities at that point in time. If the market value of short-term investments decreases after December 31, the quick ratio as of December 31 would overstate the ratio after the market value declines.

109
Q
Green, Inc., a financial investment-consulting firm, was engaged by Maple Corp. to provide technical support for making investment decisions. Maple, a manufacturer of ceramic tiles, was in the process of buying Bay, Inc., its prime competitor. Green's financial analyst made an independent detailed analysis of Bay's average collection period to determine which of the following?
	A.  	Financing.
	B.  	Return on equity.
	C.  	Liquidity.
	D.  	Operating profitability.
A

C. Liquidity

A detailed analysis of average collection period most likely would be used to assess or determine liquidity. An analysis of average collection period would measure how long, on average, it takes an entity to collects its receivables – how long it takes to convert accounts receivable to cash.

110
Q
A company has cash of $100 million, accounts receivable of $600 million, current assets of $1.2 billion, accounts payable of $400 million, and current liabilities of $900 million. What is its acid-test (quick) ratio?
	A.  	0.11
	B.  	0.78
	C.  	1.75
	D.  	2.11
A

B. 0.78

The acid-test ratio (also known as the quick ratio) is computed as the relationship between highly liquid assets and current liabilities. Highly liquid assets include cash, accounts receivable, and marketable securities. In this case, the company has only cash and accounts receivable. Therefore, the correct calculation is $100m (cash) + $600m (accounts receivable) = $700m/$900 (current liabilities) = 0.777 (or 0.78).

111
Q

Bobcat Company has a current ratio of 2:1. Which one of the following transactions could Bobcat use to increase its current ratio?
A. Borrowing cash by giving a short-term note.
B. Paying off accounts payable.
C. Paying off long-term debt.
D. Factoring accounts receivable.

A

B. Paying off accounts payable

A 2:1 current ratio means that Bobcat has twice the book value of current assets as its book value of current liabilities.

For example, current assets (CA) of $200,000, with current liabilities (CL) of $100,000, would give a current ratio of CA/CL = $200,000/$100,000 = 2:1. Because Bobcat’s current ratio is greater than 1:1, an equal dollar decrease in current assets and current liabilities will be a greater percentage decrease in current liabilities than in current assets, resulting in an increase in the ratio of remaining current assets and liabilities.

Assuming the above values, paying off $10,000 of accounts payable would result in a reduction in the current asset cash ($200,000 - $10,000 = $190,000), and an equal dollar reduction in the current liability accounts payable ($100,000 - $10,000 = $90,000). The resulting new current ratio would be $190,000/$90,000 = 2.11:1, an increase over the previous 2.00:1.