Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

6th Year PACES & Pharmacology > Finals Pharmacology > Flashcards

Finals Pharmacology Flashcards

0
Q

Acute cellulitis of leg. What bacteria to treat

A

Hemolytic streptococcus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
1
Q

Most serious toxicity work sodium valproate

A

Hepatic toxicity (necrotic Process)

Can cause thrombocytopenia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Antibiotic responsible for warfarin interaction

A

Ciprofloxacin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Anticonvulsant drug with least teratogenic risk

A

Lamotrigine
(Carbamazepine is in middle, valproate is the worse)

Absolute risk is only 4-5%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Most likely adverse of verapamil at therapeutic dose

A

Constipation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which antipsychotic most likely to cause extraoyramidal effects

A

Flupentixol (first generation)

Atypical cause less

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which is most likely adverse event of leukotriene antagonists

A

Effective in one third
Step 4
Once a day
One bad adverse event (church Strauss (eosinophilic vasculitis which can be fatal)

Right answer: used in exercise or cold induced asthma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

If patient presented with af within 6 hours

A

Then do DC cardioversion as best initial option

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Cancer patient prescribed morphine. What other treatment would you give

A

Antiemetic: hyoscine (not useful in this case,)
Laxative: co-danthramer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Cancer chemo that causes severe hair loss and hemorrahgic cystitis

A

Cyclophosphamide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Patient with hypertension and heart failure develop a increased breathlessness after adding one of these drugs

A

Verapamil (because inotrope negative (and kronotrope negative)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Most likely adverse effect of ciclosporin

A

Hypertension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

75 year old recovers from cdiff. What to give her again?

A

Metronidazole 2 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

80 y old patient drowsy with lOw potassium sodium and high urea. Most likely cause

A

Excessive treatment with loop diuretics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Alcoholic:///confusion ataxia macrocytosis

A

Give thiamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Regarding copd

A

Long term oxygen therapy is indicated in presence of pulmonary hypertension

Recently: inhaled steroids no significant place in therapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Side effects of low Molecular weight heparin

A

Thrombocytopenia

Osteoporosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Most effective on Post prandial hyperglycemia

A

Acarbose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Treatment of very high triglycerides (biggest risk can cause acute pancreatitis)

A

Fenofibrate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

In diabetic ketoacidosis

A

Blood glucose should be reduced to 10 mol/l within 24 hours
Iv bicarb avoided
Prophylactic antibiotics not given
Total boys potassium is depleted
Total fluid deficit is much higher than 3 litre

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Diarrhea as a side effect of

A

Misoprostol (synthetic prostaglandin analogue)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Potentially dangerous combination with sildenafil causing hypotension

A

Isosorbide mononitrate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Dangerous combination of fluoxetine with which of the drugs

A

Phenelzine (imao serotonin syndrome)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Which antifungal drug inhibitor of cyp450

A

Ketoconazole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Phase 2 Metabolic reaction

A

Glucuronidation

Phase 2 are adding molecules too small molecules

Phase 1: deanination, hydrolysis, reduxrion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Hepatic drug metabolism in babies

A

Similar to adults

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

In old

A

Glomerular filtration rate lower than at age of 20

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Initial treatment of generalised tonic clinic seizure it’s

A

Diazepam

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Adverse effect of carvimazole

A

Neutropenia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Know type I diabetes found unconscious

What to give without knowing anything Else

A

50 ml glucose 20% solution via rapid intravenous injection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Most likely to cause ventricular dysrythmias in overdose

A

Imipramine (tricyclics)

31
Q

Most likely to cause significant hypoglycemia

A

Gliclazide

32
Q

First line treatment in immunocompromierd pneumocystis

A

Co-trimoxazole

33
Q

52 year old with t2m
Normal renal function with proteinuria
What antihypertensive to give

A

Acei

Arb

34
Q

How long to wait before starting enoxaparin after acute stroke

A

2 months

35
Q

Diclofenac and warfarin interaction

A

Increased activity of warfarin because diclofena displace warfarin from plasma protein. Other interaction is that Diclofenac has antiplatelet action that will increase of bleeding with warfarin

36
Q

Beta blocker and calcium channel blocker

A

To avoid because of risk of hypotension…bradycardia

37
Q

If vancomycin given too fast

A

Red man syndrome

38
Q

Iatrogenic causes of gout

A

Thiazide

Cytotoxic drugs

Pyrazinamide

39
Q

Hyoscine

A

Antiemetic
Anticholinergic / antimuscarinic

Causes constipation

40
Q

NSAIDs in head traum

A

Can cause cerebral edema

41
Q

Combination of acyclovir and lisinopril

A

Can cause aki

42
Q

If alki, what drugs to withheld

A

Some gliptins and metformin.

43
Q

Symptoms of lithium toxicity

A 
Ataxia
Dysarthria 
Tremor
Muscle twitching
...
44
Q

Diclofenac and lithium?

A

Increased lithium toxicity because Diclofenac reduce renal clearance of lithium

Frusemide
Non steroids

45
Q

Gliclazide problem

A

Weight gain because increase insulin secretion

Gliptins don’t increase weight
Pioglitazone

46
Q

What biochemical test to look for when assessing paracetamol toxicity

A

Clotting: pt, inr

47
Q

Digitoxin

A

Cardiac glycoside used in renal impairment (contrary to digoxin)

48
Q

Drug used to treat bradycardia caused by increased vagal tone

A

Atropine

49
Q

Drug used to terminate Svt and should be used with caution in asthma

A

Adenosine

50
Q

High dose loop diuretcs like frusemide

A

Hearing loss

Inner ear…

51
Q

ccb and beta blockers

A

To avoid because of risk of bradycardia (even syndrome) and hypotension

52
Q

Enoxaparin and warfarin

A

If INR > 2, then stop heparin

53
Q

If bradycardua (slow af) and digoxin

A

Stop digoxin

54
Q

Howe to calculate prn dose of morphine sulfate

A

Usually calculated as one sixth of the total daily dose

55
Q

In acute mi, regarding GTN

A

Try sublingual spray before infusion

56
Q

Alcohol and warfarin

A

Acute alcohol intoxication: enzyme inhibition

Chronic excess: enzyme induction

57
Q

1 % solution

A

= 1 g / 100 ml

58
Q

What time to give acei

A

Night because risk of orthostatic hypotension

59
Q

First treatment for New onset af (more than 48 hours)

A

Ccb or beta blockers before considering digoxin

60
Q

Treatment for diabetes type 2 in bmi 18 and creatinine more than 150

A

Don’t give metformin

Gliclazide

61
Q

Vancomycin: ae and precautions

A

Ototox
Nephrotox

So check creatinine before starting to adjust dose

62
Q

What to do before starting statins

A

Check serum ALT

63
Q

Sodium and lithium

A

Sodium depletion can increase the risk of lithium toxicity and patients are advised to avoid making changes in their diet…

64
Q

Initiation of methotrexate treatment

A

No baseline chest xray

Don’t start if liver enzymes abnormal

65
Q

Before starting olanxapine

A

Check hyperglycemia

Ecg only if patient with cardiovascular disease

66
Q

Edrophonium

A

Short acting cholinestetase inhibitor that is used in diagnosis of myasthenia gravis

67
Q

Gentamicin monitoring

A

One hour peak serum concentration should be 3-5 mg/l

68
Q

If inr > 8

A

Give iv vitamin k and stop warfarin and restart when less than 5

69
Q

Treatment for paroxysmal AT that may cause intermittent clauducation

A

Sotalol

70
Q

Treatment of hypercalcemia

A

Saline
Biphosphonates
Frusemide (increase calcium secretion),

not thiazides (increase absorption): used in calcium stones

71
Q

Patient with gi hematemesis

A

Telepressin

72
Q

Dmard used to treat inflammatory arthritis. That can cause reversible azoospermia and bone marrow suppression

A

Sulfasalazine

73
Q

Ttt for mild systemic lupus erythematosus that requires regular ophthalmic review to check for the development of retinopathy

A

Hydroxychloroquine

74
Q

Bromocriptine

A

Barely used now in Parkinson as they can cause vascular fibrosis

75
Q

Drug that inhibits iconoclast mediated…

A

Rituximab

76
Q

Side effects of dmards

A
  • Sulfasalazine- marrow suppression, oligospermia, hepatitis
  • Gold- nephrotic syndrome, marrow suppression
  • Penicillamine- disturbance of taste, nephrotic syndrome, myasthenia
  • Chloroquine- retinopathy, tinnitus
  • Steroids- diabetes, truncal obesity; azathioprine- marrow suppression
  • Cytotoxic drugs eg methotrexate- hepatic toxicity, marrow suppression
  • Newer immunosuppressants eg leflunomide- marrow suppression
  • Tumour necrosis factor antagonists eg infliximab- infusion reactions including anaphylaxis, infections including re-activation of TB

6th Year PACES & Pharmacology (3 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions