Finals Flashcards

1
Q

According the Supreme Court decision in Miranda v Arizona, waiver of the Miranda rights may be presumed either by silence following warnings or from an eventual confession.

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

The idea that evidence that has been illegally obtained, but would have been eventually found through constitutional means should thus not be excluded by virtue of the exclusionary rule is ________.

A

Inevitable Discovery Exception

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Research by psychologists shows that jurors may give credit to confessions obtained during high pressure interrogation because of _______.

A

Fundamental attribution error

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

When a suspect asks for an attorney during custodial interrogation police must __________.

A

Stop questioning until an attorney is present or the suspect initiates further conversation with them.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Psychologists separate memory into three phases:

A

Acquisition, retention, and retrieval.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Researchers recommend that officials present members of the lineup to the witness ______

A

one at a time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

_________ reduce the power of suggestion and reduce the possibility that the witness will pick the person who most resembles the perpetrator.

A

Sequential lineups

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

One of the most important criminal law issues today is whether the Constitution establishes ________

A

a post conviction right to access previously produced forensic evidence so it can be DNA tested in order to establish innocence.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

The best known and most controversial consequence of illegal government action is _____.

A

The exclusionary rule.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

The US Supreme Court has relied on three justifications for throwing out good evidence:

A

deterrence, judicial integrity and constitutional right

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Many legal commentators suggest that one way to reform identification procedures would be to:

A

loosen the standards for admitting expert testimony on human perception and memory and the problems related to eye witness identification

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

The _______ holds the illegally seized evidence can be introduced at trial if the poisonous connection between the illegal police actions and the evidence weakens sufficiently.

A

attenuation doctrine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

_____ actions are constitutional tort actions against federal offenders.

A

Bivens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

According to _______, involving a lawsuit by a mother against police officers and others for the death of her children in a fire, a duty to protect life can arise when the state restrains citizens from acting on their own behalf.

A

Pinder v. Johnson

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Identify the two elements of the qualified immunity defense and explain why the test is so easy for officers to pass.

A

1) The need to hold police officers accountable when they do something wrong
2) Protection for when officers actually do something right.

This is easy to pass because officers are judged more harshly when they do something wrong and so they are more careful. It is also their jobs to uphold the law and the majority want to keep with that theme.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What goes on in interrogation occurs in ______ and is ______

A

Private; not widely known

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

In _________ cases, prosecutors agree to drop the case before formal judicial proceedings begin, on the condition that suspects participate in and complete a program.

A

Diversion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Nearly _________ people are locked up in a jail before they are convicted and released.

A

750,000

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Explain the difference between probable cause to detain a suspect and probable cause to go to trial.

A

Probable cause to detain a suspect: Probable cause means that a reasonable and cautious officer would believe that criminal activity is or was taking place.

Probable cause to go to trial: A court will hear a testimony to determine whether it is more likely or not that the defendant had committed these crimes. If it exists, the defendant will go to trial.

20
Q

Suits under the Civil Rights Acts are commonly called ______.

A

1983 actions

21
Q

The _________ guarantees jury trial in all criminal prosecutions excepting petty offenses.

A

Six amendment

22
Q

The ________ has ancient roots in European history and the English Bill of Rights

A

right to a jury trial

23
Q

An attorney’s address to the jury just before presentation of evidence is called _____

A

the opening statement

24
Q

According to the _________, a defendant must make objections at trail in order to preserve those issues for appeal. This is called ______.

A

raise or waive doctrine; judicial economy doctrine.

25
Q

_________ is not considered a mitigating circumstance in a death penalty case.

A

Killing to avoid arrest

26
Q

Concerning mandatory minimum sentencing laws, evaluations conducted by the US Sentencing Commission found that ________.

A

mandatory minimum sentences actually introduce disparity in sentencing.

27
Q

The government’s use of _______ can be used only when it is absolutely necessary and must be given up when the emergency is over.

A

extraordinary power

28
Q

Acts committed during wartime that inflict needless suffering and damage when pursuing a military objective are called __________

A

war crimes

29
Q

Courts that have allowed the state created danger exception apply in one of two ways:

A

1) require a special relationship between the government and the victim
2) a danger created by the state

30
Q

Attorneys for both sides can remove prospective jurors from the jury panel by ________.

A

peremptory challenges

31
Q

According the Supreme Court decision in Miranda v Arizona, waiver of the Miranda rights may be presumed either by silence following warnings or from an eventual confession.

A

False

32
Q

During the 30 years from Brown v. Mississippi to Miranda v. Arizona, the U.S. Supreme Court relied on various interpretations of the Fourteenth Amendment due process clause to invalidate as involuntary 40 confessions in state trials.

A

True

33
Q

There are clear statistics indicating the number of false confessions per year.

A

False

34
Q

According to the Supreme Court, identification evidence is automatically inadmissible if the identification procedure was unnecessarily suggestive.

A

False

35
Q

Today, the United States Supreme Court relies exclusively on deterrence as the only justification for excluding valid evidence.

A

True

36
Q

The Supreme Court has ruled that stopping travelers at fixed checkpoints for brief questioning about their citizenship or immigration status is constitutional.

A

True

37
Q

Prosecutors have qualified immunity for their conduct as advocates in the judicial phase of the criminal process.

A

False

38
Q

Police are rarely charged or convicted of criminal misconduct.

A

True

39
Q

Sneak and peek warrants are a variation of no-knock entries.

A

True

40
Q

According to the Supreme Court in Mapp v. Ohio, leaving the Fourth Amendment’s protection from illegal searches and seizures to solutions other than the exclusionary rule had been effective.

A

False

41
Q

All dismissals because of speedy trial violations are with prejudice.

A

False

42
Q

It is not double jeopardy to prosecute and punish a defendant for the same act in separate jurisdictions.

A

True

43
Q

If a defendant wishes to plead guilty, but still not admit guilt, states are constitutionally required to let the defendant do so.

A

True

44
Q

Six member juries satisfy the requirements of the Sixth Amendment.

A

True

45
Q

By the early 1970s, there was a consensus among law enforcement officials, prisoners’ groups, reformers, and bureaucrats that indeterminate sentencing should be replaced with a more determinate sentencing system.

A

True

46
Q

Not every state has created a statutory right to appeal a criminal conviction.

A

True