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PMLS > FINALS > Flashcards

FINALS Flashcards

1
Q

it is mandatory for the employees to implement to make sure that their employees are safe and healthy

A

occupational health and safety

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2
Q

it contains variety of safety hazards many of which are capable of causing serious injury.

A

clinical laboratory

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3
Q

identification and control of the risk chemical, physical and other workplace hazards

A

occupational hazards

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4
Q

what are the holistic approach for employees safety

A
  1. risk assessment
  2. injury prevention
  3. work life balance
  4. safety protocols
  5. work place hazards
  6. compensation and benefits
  7. employee management
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5
Q

types of occupational health and safety

A
  1. biological hazards
  2. sharps hazards
  3. chemical hazards
  4. physical hazards
  5. radioactive hazards
  6. electrical hazards
  7. fire/expulsive hazards
  8. psychological hazards
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6
Q

source : specimen received in the laboratory

A

biological hazard

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7
Q

possibly injury: bacterial, fungal, viral and parasitic infection.

A

biological hazard

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8
Q

source: needles, lancets, broken glass

A

sharps hazards

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9
Q

possibly injury: blood-borne pathogen exposure puncture resistand and leak-proof containers

A

sharps hazards

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10
Q

source: chemical reagents and substance, mixture etc.

A

chemical hazards

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11
Q

possibly injuries: skin irritation, inhalation risks, fire and explosion

A

chemical hazard

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12
Q

source: wet floors, heavy boxes, elevated materials and obstructions

A

physical hazards

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13
Q

source: radionuclide material, ionizing radiation

A

radioactive hazards

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14
Q

possibly injury: acute radiation syndrome, skin burns, long term illness such as cancer

A

radioactive hazard

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15
Q

source: frayed cords, ungrounded or wet equipment

A

electrical hazards

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16
Q

possibly injury: burns or shocks

A

electrical hazards

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17
Q

source: open flames, organic chemicals

A

fire/expulsive hazards

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18
Q

possibly injury: burns, dismemberment

A

fire/ expulsive hazards

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19
Q

meaning of RACE

A

R - RESCUE
A - ALARM
C - CONTAIN
E - EXTINGUISH

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20
Q

source: violence in the workplace, working alone, over/underworked, worker phobias, poor leadership, lack of motivation

A

Psychological hazard

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21
Q

meaning of PASS

A

P - PULL
A - AIM
S - SQUEEZE
S - SWEEP

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22
Q

the 3 bacteria are gram-negative

A

Enterobacteriaceae

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23
Q

protozoan parasite that can also cause enteric infection. it can be identified and isolated in stool culture

A

Giardia Lamblia

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24
Q

viral enteritis is caused by:

A

rotavirus, norovirus, adenovirus

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25
Q

its symptoms such as vomiting, watery diarrhea, headache, fever, etc.

A

stomach flue

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26
Q

diarrhea, fever

A

salmonella

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27
Q

uti

A

Escherichia coli

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28
Q

caused by streptococcus pyogenes potential source are respiratory specimens, skin lesions, blood, sputum and wound exudates

A

pharyngitis

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29
Q

what microorganism enters body through inhilation of infections

A

aerosols and mucocutaneous lesions

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30
Q

this is non-contagions bacterial infections of skin and/or the tissues beneath the skin (dermis and subentaneous tissue)

A

cellulitis

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31
Q

inflammation of the outermost layer of the eye and inner surface of the eyelids caused by bacteria, viruses, and fungi

A

conjunctivitis

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32
Q

non-acute bacterial conjunctivitis is cause by:

A

staphylococci and streptococci

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33
Q

viral conjunctivitis ( pink eye ) is caused by:

A

adenovirus

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34
Q

inflammation of liver

A

hepatitis

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35
Q
  • transmitted through contaminated blood
  • enters the body through an open lesion on the skin
  • vector-borne transmission, the pathogen enters the skin
A

blood borne diseases

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36
Q

caused by alcohol and drugs is considered as non-infectious

A

hepatitis

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37
Q

what type of hepatitis is transmitted percutaneously or sexually through contract with infected blood

A

hepatitis D

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38
Q

what type of hepatitis separated through saliva, semen, and vaginal fluid

A

hepatitis b

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39
Q

what type of hepatitis is considered as dangerous because it is a ‘‘silent infections ‘’ which means that a person can be infected without knowing

A

hepatitis b

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40
Q

what type of hepatitis known as non A non B hepatitis

A

hepatitis C

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41
Q

what type of hepatitis ability to evade the body’s immune system because it changes in form; it has a dual morphing capability

A

hepatitis B

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42
Q

what type of hepatitis known as ‘’ delta virus’’ a defective virus that requires the presence of hepatitis B to replicate

A

hepatitis d

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43
Q

severe disease that represents the late stage of infection with HIV which cause defective functioning of the body’s immune system

A

blood-borne-disease-AIDS

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44
Q

transmitted through blood transfusion, unprotected sexual intercourse, accidental needle stick injuries

A

blood-borne-disease-AIDS

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45
Q

can be transmitted through the bite of an infected mosquitos

A

dengue

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46
Q

most common vector of dengue virus is the mosquito

A

aedes aegypti

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47
Q

also known as the break bone fever because of its symptoms of intense joint and muscle pain

A

dengue

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48
Q

caused by families of viruses ( arenavirus, filoviridae, bunyaviridae and flaviviridae)

A

vector-borne - viral hemorrhagic fever

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49
Q

vector-borne - viral hemorrhagic fever caused by families of viruses :

A

arenavirus, filoviridae, bunyaviridae and flaviviridae

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50
Q

characterized by non-specific flu-like illness such as fever, fatigue, muscle, joint pain and headache

A

vector-borne - viral hemorrhagic fever

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51
Q
  • infection caused by plasmodium
  • parasites infect red blood cells
  • transmitted through the bite of Anopheles mosquito
A

malaria

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52
Q

a genus of parasites that cause malaria

A

Plasmodium falciparum
Plasmodium malariae
Plasmodium vivax,
Plasmodium ovale,
Plasmodium knowlesi.

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53
Q
  • caused by mycobacterium tuberculosis ( tubercle bacilllus )
  • released from the lungs or throat
A

tuberculosis

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54
Q
  • most common cause of laboratory - acquired infections
  • considered an occupational hazard for medical technologist
  • common cause are withdrawing of the needles
A

needle stick injury

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55
Q

most common cause of laboratory - acquired infections

A

needle stick injury

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56
Q

an act or process of containing and/or preventing the
expansion of a substance.

A

SPILL RESPONSE

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57
Q

PURPOSE of SPILL RESPONSE

A
  • reduce the extent of risk to human life
  • prevent material entering sewers or waterways
  • prevent contaminating surrounding areas
  • reduce contamination of adjacent chemicals
  • ensure responders practice A.L.A.R.A concept
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58
Q

meaning of ALARA

A

As Low As Reasonably Achievable

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59
Q

DAO 29-1992 (IRR of RA 6969); RA 6969: Toxic
Substances and Hazardous and Nuclear Waste Control Act of 1990

A
  • DENR DAO 2013-22 (rev. 2004-36
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60
Q

Guidelines for the implementation of Globally Harmonized System (GHS) in chemical safety program in workplace.

A

DOLE DO 2014-136

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61
Q

Rules and procedures for the implementation of the GHS of classification and labeling of chemicals.

A

DENR DAO 2015-09 & EMB MC 2015-011

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62
Q

“Comprehensive emergency contingency plans to
mitigate and combat spills and accidents
involving chemical substances and/or hazardous
waste.”

A
  • DENR
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63
Q

“Procedures for dealing with spillage should specify safe handling operation and appropriate protective clothing.”

A

DOH

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64
Q

Develop Biorisk Management (BRM) policy; foster culture of safety/security workplace; ensure adequate human and financial resources.

A

TOP MANAGEMENT

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65
Q

Operational responsibility for overseeing the system; promotion of BRM system; provide appropriate resources.

A

SENIOR MANAGEMENT

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66
Q

Reviewing and approving protocols and risk
assessments of work; contributing to the development of policies; and provide advices and guidance on BRM issues.

A

BSSO/SAFETY COMMITTEE

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67
Q
  • Manage day to day safety issues in the laboratory; maintain inventory; staff follow procedures in BRM program; promptly correct any unsafe practices.
A

LAB MANAGER

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68
Q

Follow biorisk management policies and procedures; report accident, injury, unsafe conditions, etc.; and discuss safety concerns with fellow employees.

A

LAB WORKERS (EMPLOYEES)

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69
Q

Provide input on facilities and equipment standards; and building and maintenance with contracts (commissioning of new facilities and PMs)

A

MAINTENANCE OFFICER

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70
Q

Contribute to security risk assessment; and facility security plan (physical, transport, personnel, and material control).

A

SECURITY OFFICER

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71
Q

Some Emergency Situations:

A
  • Fire
  • Earthquake
  • Floods/Tsunami
  • Bomb threat
  • Power and HVAC
  • Laboratory accident/incident
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72
Q

CAUSE OF SPILLS

A
  • Inappropriate handling techniques
  • Inappropriate storage containers
  • Damaged storage containers
  • Uncontrolled access to chemical storage
  • Lack of chemical-related training
  • Lack of supervision
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73
Q

SPILL PREVENTION PLANNING

A
  • Hazard Identification and Risk Evaluation
  • Update Inventory
  • Containments and Engineering
  • Spills kits and PPEs
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74
Q

SPILL PREVENTION PLANNING

A
  • Minimize traffic in the area
  • Store liquid wastes in secondary containers
  • Regularly inspect containers to ensure their integrity
  • Be aware of evacuation routes and emergency equipment
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75
Q
  • Sampling and testing kits: time-consuming
  • Air monitoring instruments: very expensive
A

HAZARD IDENTIFICATION

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76
Q
  • Solid materials easy to recover
  • Vapors in confined areas
  • may form explosive amounts
  • displace oxygen for breathing
A

RISK EVALUATION

77
Q
  • Improve both safety and security management
  • Only buy and store amount of material needed
  • Buy the least hazardous materials possible
  • Use non-hazardous materials when possible
A

INVENTORY

78
Q

what are the hazard identification

A
  1. RISK EVALUATION
  2. INVENTORY
  3. ENGINEERING AND CONTAINERS
  4. SPILL AND PLUG KITS
79
Q

meaning of SPILL

A

S- Stop what you are doing.
P- Presume you are contaminated.
I- Inform others in the immediate area of the spill.
L- Localize the spilled material(s).
L- Label the area as contaminated.

80
Q

Be specific to hazards, specific procedures, and use for training:

A
  1. CONTAIN THE SPILL
  2. ESTABLISH DECONTAMINATION ZONES
  3. CLEAN-UP BIOLOGICAL & CHEMICAL SPILLS
  4. REPORT AND REVIEW
  5. ROOT CAUSE ANALYSIS
  6. ACT! DO SEMINARS & DRILLS
81
Q

Considerations for zoning:

A
  • Wind direction and speed
  • Topography of land
  • Ventilation systems
  • Potential spread
82
Q

Zones:

A

HOT ZONE
WARM ZONE
COLD ZONE

83
Q
  • Exclusion zone
  • RED
A

HOT ZONE

84
Q
  • Contamination reduction zone
  • YELLOW
A

WARM ZONE

85
Q
  • Support zone
  • GREEN
A

COLD ZONE

86
Q

CHALLENGES:

A
  • Budget
  • Chemical disposal/treatment
  • Materials
  • Employees/students: safe culture
  • Top management
  • Knowledge gaps
87
Q
  • A process of cleaning an object or a substance.
  • Removal of soil and pathogenic microorganisms from OBJECTS so they are safe to handle, subject to further processing, use or discard.
A

DECONTAMINATION

88
Q

WHAT DO WE DECONTAMINATE IN THE LAB?

A
  1. Decontaminate potentially infectious materials before disposal or use.
  2. Decontaminate equipment and work surfaces routinely.
89
Q

YOU DECONTAMINATE

A
  • With proper disinfectant for the agent
  • After spills or contamination
  • When work is finished
  • Equipment before removal from the lab
90
Q

LEVELS OF DECONTAMINATION

A

STERILIZATION
DISINFECTION
ANTISEPSIS
CLEANING

91
Q
  • act or process, physical or chemical, that destroys or eliminates ALL FORMS OF LIFE, especially microorganisms.
A

STERILIZATION

92
Q

generally less lethal process than sterilization. It is the elimination of nearly all recognized pathogenic microorganisms BUT NOT NECESSARILY ALL MICROBIAL FORMS.

A

DISINFECTION

93
Q

application of a liquid antimicrobial chemical to skin or living tissue to inhibit or destroy microorganisms.

A

ANTISEPSIS

94
Q
  • uses water, detergent, and some mechanical action such as scrubbing with a gloved hand or brush.
A

CLEANING

95
Q

DECONTAMINATION FOR LIVING TISSUES

A
  • CHEMICAL
  • RADIATION
  • THERMAL
  • FILTRATION
96
Q

what are the Chemical Disinfectants:

A
  1. Halogens
  2. Aldehydes (Formaldehyde, glutaraldehyde)
  3. Phenolics
  4. Alcohols
  5. Acids & Alkalis
  6. Oxidizing agents (Hydrogen peroxide)
  7. Quaternary Ammonium compounds (Benzalkonium Cl)
  8. Biguanides (Chlorhexidine)
97
Q

FACTORS AFFECTING DISINFECTION:

A

NUMBER OF MICROORGANISMS
LOCATION OF MICROORGANISMS
INNATE RESISTANCE TO DISINFECTANT
PRODUCT FACTORS
SURFACE TOPOGRAPHY
BIOFILM
CONCENTRATION & POTENCY OF THE
DISINFECTANT
PHYSICAL & CHEMICAL FACTORS
APPROPRIATE CONTACT TIME

98
Q
  • Aggregated, clumped and abundant microorganism are more difficult to inactivate.
A

NUMBER OF MICROORGANISMS

99
Q

Microorganisms possess body parts that prevents disinfectant entry like an outer membrane that acts as a barrier to the uptake of disinfectants

A

INNATE RESISTANCE TO DISINFECTANT

99
Q
  • Medical instruments with multiple pieces are more difficult to disinfect than are flat-surface equipment.
A

LOCATION OF MICROORGANISMS

100
Q

2 Types of Resistance to Disinfectants:

A

INTRINSIC RESISTANCE
ACQUIRED RESISTANCE

101
Q
  • Spores surrounded by impermeable coat
  • Protective cell walls
A

INTRINSIC RESISTANCE

102
Q
  • Genetic changes
  • Use of disinfectants at sub-lethal concentrations
A

ACQUIRED RESISTANCE

103
Q

Age of the product/solution, Method of application (spray vs. wipe), Rate of application, Storage
conditions.

A

PRODUCT FACTORS

104
Q
  • microbial communities that are tightly
    attached to surfaces and cannot be easily removed.
  • Once these masses form, microbes within them can be resistant to disinfectants.
A

BIOFILM

104
Q

Uneven, cracked, or pitted surfaces can hide
microorganisms and are difficult to disinfect.

A

SURFACE TOPOGRAPHY

105
Q

the more concentrated the disinfectant, the greater its efficacy and the shorter the time necessary to achieve microbial kill.

A

CONCENTRATION & POTENCY OF THE
DISINFECTANT

106
Q

Temperature, pH, relative humidity, and water
hardness affect disinfectant.

A

PHYSICAL & CHEMICAL FACTORS

107
Q
  • Disinfectants should be effective in a short contact time
A

APPROPRIATE CONTACT TIME

108
Q

a strong heated container used for
chemical reactions and other
processes using high pressures and
temperatures.

A

Autoclave

109
Q

it is usually used in the clinical
laboratory.

A

Autoclave

110
Q

Autoclave it utilizes the principle of

A

steam under pressure

111
Q

the most dependable system available for
decontamination.

A

AUTOCLAVE

112
Q

is the method for decontamination. It
is the most preferrable method used in the laboratory, specifically the clinical laboratory.

A

AUTOCLAVING

113
Q

AUTOCLAVE HAZARDS

A
  • Explosive breakage of glass vessels during
    opening and unloading
  • Burns arising from careless handling of vessels
    containing boiling liquids
  • Burns resulting from physical contact
114
Q

WHAT CAN BE AUTOCLAVED?

A
  • Pathogenic plant matter
  • Culture and stocks of infectious agents
  • Contaminated solids
  • Discarded live and attenuated vaccines
115
Q

WHAT SHOULD NOT BE AUTOCLAVED?

A
  • CORROSIVE and RADIOACTIVE materials
116
Q

Health care wastes refer to all SOLID or LIQUID wastes generated by the following activities:

A

HEALTH CARE WASTES

117
Q

of sampled facilities from 24 countries had
adequate systems in place for the safe disposal of health care wastes

A

58%

118
Q

wastes generated by health care
activities are non-hazardous

A

Between 75-90%

119
Q

considered hazardous and may be
infectious, toxic, or radioactive

A

10-25%

120
Q
  • In the Philippines, from health care facilities are hazardous
A

30.37% of wastes

121
Q

Health Care Waste Generators

A
  • hospital and medical centers
  • infirmaries
  • birthing homes
  • clinics and other health-related facilities
  • laboratories and research centers
  • drug manufacturers
  • institutions
  • mortuary and autopsy centers
122
Q

all wastes suspected to contain pathogens or toxins in sufficient concentration that may cause disease.

A

INFECTIOUS WASTES

123
Q

microbial cultures, dressings, sputum
cups, urine containers, and blood bags

A

Solid wastes

124
Q

blood, urine, vomitus other body
secretions, food wastes from patients with highly infectious disease

A

Liquid wastes

125
Q
  • Tissue sections and body fluids or organs derived from biopsies, autopsies, or surgical procedures sent to the laboratory for examination.
  • Recognizable body parts usually from amputation
    procedures.
A

PATHOLOGICAL & ANATOMICAL WASTE

126
Q
  • Waste items that can cause cuts, pricks, or puncture wounds
  • Considered the most dangerous health care waste because of their potential to causse both injury and infection.
A

SHARPS

127
Q

Discarded chemical generated during disinfection and sterilization procedures

A

CHEMICAL WASTES

128
Q

COMMON CHEMICAL WASTE

A

acids
alcohols
aldehydes
bases
halogenated disinfectants
halogenated solvents
metals
non-halogenated solvents
other disinfectants
oxidizers
reducers
miscellaneous

129
Q

Expired, split, and contaminated pharmaceutical products, drugs, and vaccines including discarded items used in handling pharmaceuticals

A

PHARMACEUTICAL WASTES

130
Q

Ex: empty drug vials, medicine bottles, and
containers of cytotoxic drugs including materials used for their preparation and administration

A

PHARMACEUTICAL WASTES

131
Q
  • Wastes exposed to radionuclides including
    radioactive diagnostic materials or radiotherapeutic materials.
A

RADIOACTIVE WASTES

132
Q

Ex. Cobalt, technetium, iodine, iridium

A

RADIOACTIVE WASTES

133
Q

Irradiated blood products and contaminated waste, patient’s excretion, and all material used by patients exposed to radionuclide within 48 hours

A

RADIOACTIVE WASTES

134
Q

Wastes that have not been incontact with communicable or infectious agents, hazardous chemicals, or radioactive
substances, and do not pose a hazard

A

NON-HAZARDOUS OR GENERAL WASTES

135
Q

Ex: plastic bottles, used paper products, office wastes scrap wood, and food waste of non-infectious patients

A

NON-HAZARDOUS OR GENERAL WASTES

136
Q

IMPACT OF HEALTH CARE WASTES
Potentially at risk:

A
  • Medical staff (doctors, MTs, RNs, etc.)
  • In- and out-patients
  • Visitors
  • Caregivers
  • Support staff
  • Waste haulers
  • Garbage pickers
  • General public
137
Q

for prolonged periods in
minute quantities

A

chronic

138
Q

for short periods in large
quantities

A

acute

139
Q

Other adverse health outcomes

A
  • Sharps-inflicted injuries
  • Toxic exposure
  • Chemical burns
  • Air pollution
  • Thermal injuries
  • Radiation burns
140
Q
  • Adopted on September 16, 1987
  • Enforced: January 1, 1989
  • Eliminate ozone depleting substances in
    the environment
A

The Montreal Protocol on Substances that
Deplete the Ozone Layer

141
Q
  • Enforced since 1989
  • Only legitimate transboundary shipments
    of hazardous waste are exported from
    countries that lack the facilities or expertise
    to safely dispose certain wastes
A

The Basel Convention on the Control of the
Transboundary Movements of Hazardous Wastes and Their Disposal

142
Q
  • Pledge that by the year 2000, major
    industrialized nations would voluntarily
    reduce their greenhouse gas emissions to
    1990 levels
A

The United Nations Framework Convention on
Climate Change (1992)

143
Q

A global treaty to protect from persistent
organic pollutants (POP); chemicals that
remains unchanged in the environment for
long periods of time, accumulate in the
fatty tissues of living organisms, and are
toxic to both humans and wildlife

A

The Stockholm Convention on Persistent
Organic Pollutants (2001)

144
Q
  • Protocol 9 on Dangerous Goods
  • Provides provision on the transport of toxic
    and infectious substances
A

The ASEAN Framework Agreement on the
Facilitation of Goods in Transit (1998)

145
Q
  • An act that requires the registration and
    licensure of all hospital in the country and
    mandates the DOH to provide guidelines
    for hospital technical standards as to
    personnel, equipment, and physical
    facilities
A

Republic Act No. 4226 “Hospital Licensure Act” (1965)

146
Q

– submission of plans and other design requirements under the Code of Sanitation, National Plumbing Code, Fire Code, and National Building Code.

A

DOH AO No. 90-A series of 2002

147
Q

– requires a health care waste management plan for the issuance of license to operate.

A

DOH AO No. 2005-0029 dated December 12, 2005

148
Q

requires written procedures and policy guidelines on proper disposal of health care wastes, biosafety, and biosecurity.

A

DOH AO No 2007-0027 dated August 22, 2007

149
Q
  • An act that requires the registration of waste generators, waste transporters, and
    operator of toxic and hazardous waste
    treatment facilities.
A

Republic Act No. 6969 “An Act to Control
Substances and Hazardous Nuclear Wastes” 1990

150
Q

to further strengthen the implementation of R.A. 6969 and prescribing the use of the procedural manual

A

DENR AO No. 36, series of 2004

151
Q

dated August 24, 2005; entitled “Policies and
Guidelines on Effective and Proper Handling,
Collection, Transport, Treatment, Storage, and
Disposal of Health Care Waste”

A

-DOH-DENR Joint AO No. 02, series of 2005

152
Q

This aims to provide guidelines to generators,
transporters, and operators or owners of BSE on the proper handling, transport, treatment, storage, and disposal.

A

DOH-DENR Joint AO No. 02, series of 2005

153
Q

– the guidelines on the issuance of certificate of product registration for equipment or devices used for trating sharp, pathological, and infectious waste. It requires to secure a certificate of product registration from DOH through the Bureau of Health Devices and Technology

A

DOH AO 2007-0014

154
Q

It promotes the use of state-of-the-art,
environmentally-sound, and safe non-burn
technologies for the handling, treatment,
thermal destruction, utilization, and
disposal of sorted, unrecycled, biomedical,
and hazardous wastes.

A

Republic Act No. 8749 “The Philippine Clean Air Act of 1999”

154
Q

Prohibits the incineration of bio-medical
wastes effective July 17, 2003

A

Republic Act No. 8749 “The Philippine Clean Air Act of 1999”

155
Q

Pursues a policy of economic growth in a
manner consistent with the protection,
preservation, and revival of the quality of
the country’s fresh, brackish, and marine
waters

A

Republic Act No. 9275 “The Philippine Clean
Water Act of 2004”

155
Q

Mandates the segregation of solid wastes
at the sources including households and
institutions like hospitals by using a
separate container for each type of waste.

A

Republic Act No. 9003 “Ecological Solid Waste
Management Act of 2000”

156
Q

Empowers the LLDA to issue permits for
the use of surface waters within Laguna de
Bay

A

PD 813 (1975) and EO 927 (1983) “Strengthening
the Functions of Laguna Lake Development
Authority”

157
Q

Rules and Regulations Governing the
Collection, Handling, Transport,
Treatment, and Disposal of Domestic
Sludge and Septage, (2004)

A

PD 856 ‘The Code on Sanitation of the
Philippines – Chapter XVII on Sewage Collection and Excreta Disposal’ (1998)

158
Q

Chapter XVIII on Refuse Disposal (1998)

A

PD 856 ‘The Code on Sanitation of the
Philippines – Chapter XVII on Sewage Collection and Excreta Disposal’ (1998)

159
Q

Operation Manual on the Rules and
Regulations Governing Domestic Sludge
and Septage (June 2008)

A

PD 856 ‘The Code on Sanitation of the
Philippines – Chapter XVII on Sewage Collection and Excreta Disposal’ (1998)

160
Q

AO 2010-0033 ‘Revised Implementing
Rules and Regulations of PD 856, Chapter
XXI on Disposal of Dead Persons’
(December 2010)

A

PD 856 ‘The Code on Sanitation of the
Philippines – Chapter XVII on Sewage Collection and Excreta Disposal’ (1998)

161
Q

Governs the discharge of potentially
polluting substances to air and water

A

PD No. 984 ‘Providing for the Revision of RA No. 3931, Commonly known as the Pollution Control Law, and for Other Purposes’ (1976)

162
Q
  • Requires new and existing hospitals to
    secure an Environmental Compliance
    Commitment (ECC) Certificate prior to
    construction and operation
A

PD No. 1586 ‘Environmental Impact Statement
(EIS) System (1978)

163
Q
  • Promote the culture of making
    environmentally informed decisions in the
    government
  • Include environment criteria in public
    tenders, whenever possible and
    practicable
  • Establish the specifications and
    requirements for products and services to
    be considered environmentally
    advantageous
  • Develop incentive programs for suppliers
    of environmentally advantageous products
    or services
A
  • eon O. 301 ‘Establishing a Green Procurement Program for All Departments, Bureaus, Offices, and Agencies of the Executive Branch of Government’ (2004)
164
Q
  • Requires health care facilities to gradually
    phaseout the use of mercury-containing
    devices and equipment
A

DOH AO No. 2008-0021 date July 30, 2008
‘Gradual Phaseout of Mercury in all Philippine
Health Care Facilities and Institutions’

165
Q

Requires the establishment and
maintenance of a culture of patient safety
in the health care facilities as the
responsibility of its leaders

A

DOH AO No. 2008- 0023 dated July 30, 2008
‘National Policy on Patient Safety’

166
Q

Serves as a reference for health care
facilities administrators in the
implementation of an effective and efficient
waste management program

A

DOH Manual on Health Care Waste Management in 2011

167
Q

most preferable

A

prevent

168
Q

least preferable

A

dispose

169
Q
  • Bin: strong leak-proof bin
    with cover labelled ‘infectious’
    with biohazard symbol
A

INFECTIOUS WASTES

170
Q

Liner: yellow plastic that can withstand autoclaving with 0.009 mm thickness and
labeled ‘Infectious Waste’ with a tag indicating source and weight of waste and date of collection; may or may not have biohazard symbol

A

INFECTIOUS WASTES

171
Q

Bin: strong leak-proof bin with cover labelled
——————— waste’ with biohazard
symbol

A

PATHOLOGICAL AND ANATOMICAL WASTES

172
Q
  • Liner: yellow plastic that can withstand autoclaving with 0.009 mm thickness and labeled ‘pathological/anatomical waste’ with a tag indicating source and weight of waste and date of collection; may or may not have biohazard symbol
A

PATHOLOGICAL AND ANATOMICAL WASTES

173
Q

Bin: puncture-proof container with a wide mouth and cover labelled ‘Sharps’ with biohazard symbol

Liner: not applicable

A

SHARPS

174
Q

-Bin: labelled ‘——————-; for liquid chemical waste, inside the bin is a disposable
bottle made of ambercolored glass with at
least 4 liters capacity that is string, chemical-resistant, and leak-proof

  • Liner: yellow with black band plastic with 0.009 mm thickness
A

CHEMICAL WASTES

175
Q
  • Bin: strong leak-proof bin with cover labelled
    ‘pharmaceutical waste’ for expired drugs and
    drug containers and ‘cytotoxic waste’ for cytotoxic, genotoxic, and antineoplastic waste
  • Liner: yellow with black band plastic with 0.009 mm thickness
A

PHARMACEUTICAL WASTES

176
Q
  • Bin: radiation proof repositories, leak-proof, and lead-lined container labelled with name of radionuclide and date of deposition with
    radioactive symbol
  • Liner: orange plastic with
    0.009 mm thickness
A

RADIOACTIVE WASTES

177
Q
  • Bin: optional recycle symbol for recyclable
    non-hazardous wastes; varying sizes depending on volume of waste
  • Liner: black or colorless plastic for nonbiodegradable with a thickness of 0.009 mm with a tag indicating source, weight, and date of collection
A

GENERAL WASTES

178
Q
  • Thermal decomposition of health care
    wastes in the absence of supplied
    molecular oxygen in the destruction
    chamber where waste is converted into
    gaseous, liquid, or solid form.
A

PYROLYSIS

179
Q

The use of steam sterilization to render
waste harmless and is an efficient wet
thermal disinfection process. The usual
setting is at 121C with a pressure of 15v
psi for 15 to 30 minutes.

A

AUTOCLAVE

180
Q

Typically incorporates some type of size
reduction device. Wastes are exposed to
microwave that raise the temperature to
100C for at least 30 minutes.

A

MICROWAVE

181
Q

Chemicals like Na hypochlorite, Hydrogen
peroxide, peroxyacetic acid, and heated
alkali are added to health care wastes to
kill or inactivate present pathogens. 5% Na
hypochlorite is recommended.

A

CHEMICAL DISINFECTION

182
Q

Uses an enzyme mixture to decontaminate
health care wastes. The technology is
suited for large applications.

A

BIOLOGICAL PROCESS

183
Q
  • Involves filling of containers with water,
    adding and immobilizing material, and
    sealing the containers. The containers are
    filled with plastic foam, sand, and cement
    mortar, sealed, and disposed in a landfill.
A

ENCAPSULATION

184
Q

Especially suitable for pharmaceutical
waste that involves the mixing of waste
with cement and other substances before
disposal.

A

INERTIZATION

PMLS (2 decks)

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