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MYCO VIRO > FINALS > Flashcards

FINALS Flashcards

1
Q

Stage: for Early HIV infection

A

Stage 0

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2
Q

Stage: >500 cells/mm3

A

Stage 1

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3
Q

Stage: 200-499 cells/mm3

A

Stage 2

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4
Q

Stage: <200 cells/mm3

A

Stage 3

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5
Q

Stage: CD4 count has no data

A

stage unknown

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6
Q

Stage for CD4 %
>26

A

Stage 1

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7
Q

Stage for CD4 %
14-25

A

Stage 2

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8
Q

Stage for CD4 %
<14

A

Stage 3

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9
Q

Stage for No aids defining condition

A

Stage 1 and 2

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10
Q

Stage for documentation of aids defining condition

A

Stage 3

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11
Q

Stage for no information on aids defining condition

A

stage unkown

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12
Q

family of dengue

A

flaviviridae

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13
Q

small positive sense
ssRNA, enveloped, icosahedral viruses.

A

flavivirus

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14
Q

“Flavi” a Latin word
meaning

A

yellow

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15
Q

the most prevalent arbovirus in the world

A

dengue

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16
Q

It has 4 serotypes that causes variety of clinical manifestations

A

dengue

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17
Q

Subsequent infection with one or three remaining serotypes
may result in immune-enhanced disease in the form of

A
  1. severe hemorrhagic
  2. dengue shock syndrome
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18
Q

Infection begins with a sudden onset of fever, severe headache,
chills, and general myalgia

A

Dengue

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19
Q

Does dengue has vaccine

A

NONE

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20
Q

Laboratory diagnosis:
→ Based on the presence of virus specific IgM antibody
→ A fourfold rise in specific IgG antibody
→ Positive RT-PCR amplification for dengue genomic
sequences

A

Dengue

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21
Q

what antibody is present in dengue virus

A

IgM

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22
Q

A fourfold rise in specific IgG antibody

A

Dengue

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23
Q

incubation period of dengue

A

3-5 / 2-7 days

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24
Q

family of rabies

A

rhabdoviridae

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25
Q

genus of rabies

A

Lyssavirus

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26
Q

Electron microscopy:
bullet-shaped or conical appearance,

A

rabies

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27
Q

a neurotropic virus that infects all mammals.
Infection terminates in the death of the infected animal.

A

rabies

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28
Q

After inoculation, the raies virus may initially multiply in the

A

musculoskeletal tissue

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29
Q

the site of viral replication for rabies

A

neurons

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30
Q

Can rabies spread to salivary gland?

A

yes

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31
Q

signs: Hydrophobia

A

rabies

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32
Q

Treatment protocol for rabies

A

Milwaukee protocol

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33
Q

Clinical presentation of rabies associated with heightened aggression and
agitation

A

Furious

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34
Q

Clinical presentation of rabies associated with lethargy and paralysis

A

Dumb

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35
Q

Detection method of rabies

A

PCR
Fluorescent antibody staining

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36
Q

Rabies is diagnosed by postmortem examination of brain tissue using

A

Direct immunofluorescent assay (DIA)

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37
Q

What specimen used for postmortem examination for rabies

A

Brain tissue

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38
Q

Specific sections of the brain are examined for the rabies ANTIGEN using

A

fluorescent tagged monoclonal antibodies and microscope

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39
Q

Spike-like projections

A

rabies

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40
Q

fastest and most sensitive for detecting rabies virus in specimens.

A

Direct immunofluorescent technique

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41
Q

family of marburg and ebola

A

filoviridae

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42
Q

considered the most pathogenic of the
hemorrhagic fever viruses.

A

marburg

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43
Q

Term “Filo means

A

thread like

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44
Q

electron microscopy:
has long filamentous structural morphology

A

marburg

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45
Q

appears on Electron microscopy as “6”, “U”, and
circular.

A

Marburg and ebola

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46
Q

shapes of Marburg and ebola in electron microscopy

A

6
U
circular

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47
Q

“shepherd’s hook” morphology.

A

Marburg

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48
Q

a severe multisystem syndrome in which multiple organ systems are
affected throughout the body.

A

viral hemorrhagic fever

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49
Q

what virus is endemic in Africa

A

Marburg and ebola

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50
Q

What virus can cause proteinuria

A

Marburg and ebola

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51
Q

Case fatality percentage for ebola

A

> 80%

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52
Q

Case fatality for marburg

A

23-25%

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53
Q

Treatment for marburg

A

none

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54
Q

Does ebola has vaccine

A

-ChAd3-ZEBOV (GlaxoSmithKline)
− VSV-EBOV

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55
Q

Two-dose vaccination process referred to as

A

heterologous prime boost

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56
Q

named after a river in Zaire (from Congo)

A

ebola virus

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57
Q

ebola was named after a?

A

river in zaire

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58
Q

5 subspecies of ebola

A
  • Zaire ebolavirus
    − Sudan ebolavirus
    − Cote d’Ivoire ebolavirus (formerly Ebola-Ivory Coast)
    − Bundibugyo ebolavirus
    − Reston ebolavirus
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59
Q

what ebola subspecie(s) only cause disease in nonhuman primates

A

Reston ebolavirus

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60
Q

what ebola subspecie(s) cause infections through aerosolization of secretions

A

Reston ebolavirus

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61
Q

Confirmatory test for marburg

A

IgG ELISA

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62
Q

what is the most virulent ebolavirus

A

Zaire

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63
Q

family of mumps and measles

A

paramyxoviridae

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64
Q

what virus do not have segmented genome

A

paramyxoviruses

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65
Q

characterized by
PAROTITIS (inflamed salivary gland)

A

Mumps

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66
Q

can cause generalized infection often accompanied by rash

A

Measles

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67
Q

hallmark of measles

A

Koplik spots

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68
Q

bluish white spots with red halo on the buccal of labial mucosa

A

Koplik spots

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69
Q

what is exanthem

A

rash or skin eruption

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70
Q

Other diseases that cause exanthem

A
  1. scarlet fever
  2. rubella/german measles/ atypical scarlet fever
  3. erythema infectiousum / fifth disease
  4. roseola
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71
Q

what bacteria cause scarlet fever

A

group A strep

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72
Q

cause of eryhtema infectiousum

A

parvovirus B-19

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73
Q

True or false:
Rubella is found both the human population and non-human population.

A

False, only human population

73
Q

Vaccine for rubella

A

Trivalent vaccine (ambot)
MMR vaccine (sure)

73
Q

cause of roseola

A

HHV-6

74
Q

rubella virus is also known as

A

german measles

75
Q

If a developing fetus is infected with rubella virus, this can cause

A

multiple congenital anomalies

76
Q

Rubella virus that occurs later in pregnancy may result in?

A

Splenomegaly and
osteomyelitis

77
Q

True or false:
Fetal infection can be prevented in rubella virus

A

true

78
Q

may resemble other disorders, such as :
Infectious mononucleosis and drug-induced rashes

A

Rubella infection

79
Q

rubella infection of fetal tissues

A

congenital rubella syndrome

80
Q

The largest and most complex of all viruses

A

Poxviruses

81
Q

poxvirus virions may be visualized through _____ microscope

A

light microscope

82
Q

what virus characterized by “pocks” on the skin

A

poxvirus

83
Q

how many poxvirus are capable of infecting humans

A

10

84
Q

True or false:
Most poxvirus are zoonoses

A

True

85
Q

Poxvirus are normally acquired through?

A

abrasion of the skin
contact with infected animal

86
Q

most feared viruses of history

A

Smallpox

87
Q

what virus has a possibility to be a biological weapon

A

Smallpox

88
Q

Its disease is a generalized infection with PUSTULAR RASH

A

Small pox

89
Q

It played a crucial role in demonstrating the importance of
vaccination

A

Smallpox

89
Q

what smallpox subtype cause the most severe disease

A

Variela Major

90
Q

Fatality rate of Variela major

A

30%

91
Q

what smallpox subtype cause less severe disease

A

Variela minor

92
Q

Fatality rate of Variela Minor

A

0.1%-0.2%

93
Q

Found in the tropical rain forests of Africa

A

Monkeypox

94
Q

True or false:
Monkeypox is indistinguishable from smallpox

A

True

95
Q

Difference of smallpox and monkeypox

A

Monkeypox lacks the same mortality and transmissibility

96
Q

Human monkeypox can be acquired through?

A

oropharynx
nasopharynx
abrasion

97
Q

Steps / process of monkeypox (ambot)

A
  1. rash appears (face)
  2. macules
  3. papules
  4. vesicles
  5. pustules
98
Q

monkeypox can last for how many weeks

A

2-4 weeks

99
Q

rapid diagnostic identification tool for cases of monkeypox

A

RT-PCR

100
Q

what virus Manifests as benign nodules.

A

Molluscum contagiousum virus

101
Q

True or false:
Molluscum contagiousum virus only host is human

A

True

102
Q

what poxvirus is most severe for immunocompromise Px

A

Molluscum contagiousum virus

103
Q

What virus is Transmitted from sheep to humans.

A

Orf virus

104
Q

what virus cause a single of multiple nodules usually on the hands

A

orf virus

105
Q

Family of Human papilloma virus

A

Papillomaviridae

106
Q

small, icosahedral capsid, nonenveloped,
circular, dsDNA

A

Human papilloma virus

107
Q

These viruses as abundant in nature

A

Human papilloma virus

108
Q

what virus can cause infections in
humans, dogs, cattle, monkeys.

A

Human papilloma virus

109
Q

HPV site of latency

A

Epithelial cells

109
Q

what virus exhibit a tissue TROPISM for
either cutaneous or mucosal tissue

A

Human papilloma virus

110
Q

most prevalent sexually transmitted viral
disease in the US.

A

HPV

110
Q

what sexually transmitted virus have not been cultivated in cell culture

A

HPV

111
Q

how many genotypes does HPV have

A

200 genotypes

112
Q

How many genotypes of HPV are sexually transmitted and have role on the
pathogenesis of cancer.

A

> 30

113
Q

How many genotypes of HPV are characterized

A

80

114
Q

Various HPV genotypes ____________, resulting in
defined variation in the clinical presentation of warts.

A

Differing cellular tropisms

115
Q

what HPV is associated with plantar warts

A

HPV-1

116
Q

what HPV is associated with common warts in hands

A

HPV 2 and 4

117
Q

what HPV responsible for more than 90% of
anogenital warts

A

HPV 6 and 11

117
Q

what HPV responsible for a subset of cancers of the
oropharynx and penile cancer.

A

HPV 16

117
Q

what HPV associated with adenocarcinoma

A

HPV-18

117
Q

for HPV, what sample can be used for genotyping

A

Liquid based cytology sample

117
Q

HPV is oncogenic causing cervical and penile cancer specifically what HPV?

A

16 and 18

118
Q

most common carcinogenic types of HPV

A

HPV 16 and 18

118
Q

what vaccine also protects against HPV 6 and 11

A

Gardasil

118
Q

vaccines for HPV 16 and 18

A
  • Cervarix (GlaxoSmithKline)
    − Gardasil
    − Gardasil-9
119
Q

what vaccine of HPV protects against several lower-risk HPV types known
to be associated with cervical and most HPV-induced oral
cancers.

A

Gardasil-9

120
Q

Family of Human immunodeficiency virus

A

Retroviridae

121
Q

constitutes a large group of viruses that primarily infect vertebrates

A

Retroviridae

122
Q
A
122
Q

what virus is s packaged with the reverse transcriptase enzyme.

A

retroviruses

122
Q

what are the 2 groups of retrovirus

A

HIV and HTLV (Human T-lymphotropic virus)

123
Q

what HIV is responsible for AIDS

A

HIV-1

123
Q

what HIV is more aggressive

A

HIV-1

124
Q
A
125
Q

end stage of a process (HIV) in which the immune system and its ability to control infections and malignant proliferation is
destroyed.

A

AIDS

126
Q

what cells are infected in HIV

A

CD4 T lymphocyte
Monocyte
cells of the CNS

127
Q

surface marker of T lymphocytes

A

CD4

128
Q

who are at risk for HIV

A
  1. homosexual / bisexual males
  2. IV drug abusers
  3. Sex with HIV infected
  4. infants with infected mother
128
Q

HIV site of latency

A

CD4 T lymphocyte

128
Q

HIV has an affinity for?

A

CD4

128
Q

Clinical management of HIV infected individuals involves the use of

A

HAART
(Highly active antiretroviral therapy)

129
Q

what test is used for identification of viral DNA or RNA and is recommended for HIV

A

PCR

130
Q
A
130
Q

is used to measure the amount of HIV in the blood

A

Quantitative plasma RNA test (viral load)

130
Q

what test provides a method of antibody-specific identification of several HIV antigens.

A

Traditional western blot test

131
Q

an essential parameter in guiding decisions to begin or monitor antiviral therapy

A

Viral load

132
Q

Presence of antibody to HIV __ and to either gp__and gp__ is sufficient to confirm HIV-1 infection

A

Presence of antibody to HIV p24 and to either gp41 and gp160 is sufficient to confirm HIV-1 infection

132
Q

what testing is used to detect acutely HIV infected
patients before the appearance of antibody

A

HIV-1 p24

133
Q

True or false:
Western blot test is limited by the production of maternal HIV antibody present in infants

A

True

134
Q

what are the miscellaneous viruses

A

astrovirus
Transfusion transmitted virus (TTV)
Hepatitis G virus

135
Q

An ssRNA virus found in the gastrointestinal tract

A

Astrovirus

136
Q

Ubiquitous in children causing minority of childhood diarrhea

A

Astrovirus

136
Q

Transfusion transmitted virus is also known as

A

Torque teno virus

137
Q

Astrovirus is detected using

A

electron microscopy

137
Q

An orphan virus from the family: Anelloviridae

A

TTV

138
Q
A
138
Q

what virus is Associated post-transfusion hepatitis of unknown etiology (non
A-G)

A

TTV

138
Q
A
138
Q
A
139
Q

detection method for hepatitis G

A

PCR

139
Q

A flavivirus similar to HCV

A

hepatitis G

139
Q
A
139
Q

other name of hepatitis G virus

A

GB-C virus

139
Q

a group of uncurable and fatal neurodegenerative disorders of humans and other animals

A

spongiform encephalopathies

139
Q
A
140
Q

common prion that causes dementia, ataxia,
stupor, coma, and death; transmitted by organ transplant

A

Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease (CJD)

141
Q

Bovine spongiform encephalopathy is also known as

A

mad cow disease

141
Q

common prion that is more rare but often publicized in media outlets;
known as mad cow
disease

A

Bovine spongiform Encephalopathy (BSE)

142
Q

All prion disease are the result of

A

protein misfolding

143
Q

Aggregates of misfolded proteins form

A

amyloid fibers resulting to tissue plaques

144
Q

Mass accumulation of the misfolded proteins leads to

A
  1. cell death
  2. tissue damage
145
Q

Prions should be handled using what BSL

A

BSL-2

146
Q

Prions prevention is

A

Incineration

147
Q

Diagnosis of prions

A

Brain tissue biopsy

148
Q

Protein + infection =

A

Prions

149
Q
A

MYCO VIRO (1 decks)

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