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HA > Finals > Flashcards

Finals Flashcards

1
Q

A physician wants to enroll a patient in a research study involving a new medication.
The patient is hesitant and asks about potential risks. The physician assures the patient
there is nothing to worry about and quickly dismisses their concerns. Which patient right
is being most directly violated?
A. Right to informed consent.
B. Right to privacy and confidentiality.
C. Right to refuse participation in medical research.
D. Right to information.

A

A. Right to informed consent.

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2
Q

The client has asked to transfer from their bed to their wheelchair. However, the client
cannot weight-bear. Which assistive device should the nurse use to transfer the client?
A. Walker
B. Bedside commode
C. Cane
D. Patient lift

A

D. Patient lift

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3
Q

A patient is recovering from a thyroidectomy. The nurse understands that the thyroid
gland is located:
A. Within the cranium, near the pituitary gland.
B. In the anterior neck, near the trachea.
C. Posterior to the sternocleidomastoid muscle.
D. Within the mediastinum, superior to the heart.

A

B. In the anterior neck, near the trachea.

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4
Q

A nurse is reviewing the Braden Scale scores of four patients. Which patient should the
nurse prioritize for pressure ulcer prevention interventions
A. Patient A: Score of 18
B. Patient B: Score of 9
C. Patient C: Score of 15
D. Patient D: Score of 12

A

B. Patient B: Score of 9

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5
Q

The client’s urine is brown. What does the nurse suspect may be causing this?
A. Dehydration
B. Overhydration
C. Excess bilirubin
D. Blood

A

D. Blood

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6
Q

Which adventitious lung sounds are heard more during expiration than inspiration?
Select all that apply.
A. Bronchial
B. Crackles
C. Pleural Rub
D. Ronchi
E. Wheezes

A

D. Ronchi
E. Wheezes

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7
Q

What is the practice wherein a patient receives thorough data regarding surgery,
therapy, or research project before deciding whether or not to move forward?
A. Consent
B. Advance directive
C. Informed consent
D. Living will

A

C. Informed consent

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8
Q

What is the practice wherein a patient receives thorough data regarding surgery,
therapy, or research project before deciding whether or not to move forward?
A. Consent
B. Advance directive
C. Informed consent
D. Living will

A

C. Informed consent

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9
Q

A patient with a tracheostomy tube requires frequent suctioning. The nurse should
assess for which of the following signs of hypoxia?
A. Decreased respiratory rate
B. Increased restlessness and agitation
C. Improved oxygen saturation levels
D. Decreased heart rate

A

B. Increased restlessness and agitation

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10
Q

What is ascites?
A. A build-up of fluid in the abdomen
B. Periumbilical bruising
C. Distended abdominal veins
D. The absence of bowel sounds

A

A. A build-up of fluid in the abdomen

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11
Q

The student nurse is assessing a client’s pupil response. Which student nurse actioncauses the nurse instructor to intervene?
A. The student nurse checks each eye individually and checks for a consensual response.
B. The student nurse shines a penlight into the client’s eye from the side.
C. The student nurse asks the client to look at a distant object.
D. The student nurse turns on the room lights and the client’s bedside lights

A

B. The student nurse shines a penlight into the client’s eye from the side.

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12
Q

What is the normal distance to which a person with healthy sense of hearing can
perceive whispered words?
A. 1.5 meters
B. 2.5 meters
C. 3.5 meters
D. 4.5 meters

A

D. 4.5 meters

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13
Q

The following are consistent of a normal assessment of the testicles, except:
A. rubbery texture
B. smooth surface
C. symmetrical
D. (+) tiny nodules

A

D. (+) tiny nodules

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14
Q

A nurse is assessing a patient and sees bruising on the deltoids, thighs, and wrist. The
nurse document this as
A. anasarca
B. bromhidrosis
C. ecchymosis
D. petechiae
E. xerosis

A

C. ecchymosis

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15
Q

When should the nurse empty a catheter collection bag?
A. When it is full
B. When it is no more than half full
C. When it is no more than one-quarter full
D. When it is no more than three-quarters full

A

A. When it is full

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16
Q

What can be an early indicator for a pressure ulcer?
A. Jaundice on a client’s abdomen
B. Unilateral swelling to a client’s right leg
C. Erythema on a client’s heel
D. Cyanosis on a client’s fingers

A

C. Erythema on a client’s heel

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17
Q

The client has paralysis to the right side of their body following a stroke. What type of
paralysis does this client have?
A. Hemiplegia
B. Quadriplegia
C. Monoplegia
D. Paraplegia

A

A. Hemiplegia

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18
Q

The client opens their eyes when the nurse calls their name when asked, tells the nurse
that the pen they are holding is called a ruler, and can touch their nose with their finger
when asked. What is the client’s Glasgow Coma Scale score?
A. 10
B. 12
C. 8
D. 14

A

B. 12

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19
Q

The student nurse is preparing to perform a genitourinary exam on a female client.
What student nurse statement causes the nurse instructor to intervene?
A. “Please let me know if you feel uncomfortable at any time”
B. “I am going to start by examining the outside of your vagina”
C. “My preceptor will be in the room during the exam”
D. “Please don’t try to look while I am performing the exam, I will walk you through what I am
doing”

A

B. “I am going to start by examining the outside of your vagina”

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20
Q

The clinical instructor was reviewing the students regarding the patient’s right to leave.
Which of the following statements by the student needs further teaching?
A. “We ensure to inform the client of the consequences of his decision before he makes the
decision final.”
B. “He should understand that his decision means the care providers are no longer responsible
to any event that stems from his decision.
C. “They can leave the hospital for whatever reason for as long as they are well informed and
have release the carers from all legal responsibilities.
D. “The patient can leave as long as his condition is not detrimental to the welfare of the
general public.

A

D. “The patient can leave as long as his condition is not detrimental to the welfare of the
general public.

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21
Q

When assessing a patient’s abdomen, the nurse should auscultate bowel sounds in
which sequence?
A. RUQ, LUQ, LLQ, RLQ
B. RLQ, RUQ, LUQ, LLQ
C. LUQ, RUQ, RLQ, LLQ
D. LLQ, RLQ, RUQ, LUQ

A

C. LUQ, RUQ, RLQ, LLQ

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22
Q

Which of the following are part of the general survey except?

A. Mental status
B. Temperature
C. Height
D. Heart Rate
E. Cranial Nerves

A

E. Cranial Nerves

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23
Q

These glands become functional during puberty and secretions occur during emotional and sexual stimulation.

A. Apocrine glands
B. Eccrine glands

A

A. Apocrine glands

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24
Q

Based on your answer to number 2, what layer of the skin are these glands found?

A. Epidermis
B. Dermis
C. Subcutaneous tissues

A

B. Dermis

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25
Q

Based on your answer in number 2, the following are examples of this gland EXCEPT:

A. Axillae
B. Genital area
C. Rectal area
D. Nipple area
E. Palmar area

A

E. Palmar area

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26
Q

Student Nurse August is assigned to a patient who was involved in a motor vehicle accident. The patient sustained trauma and blood loss. The patient is awake, alert, and conscious, blood pressure is low, and heart rate is 130 beats per minute. Which of the following skin manifestations would you most likely expect?

A. Capillary refill time of less than 2 seconds
B. Dry, flushed, reddish skin
C. Cyanosis
D. Cool, pale skin

A

D. Cool, pale skin

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27
Q

Student Nurse Cassandra is assessing a patient and noticed patches of hypopigmented skin which is usually caused by the destruction of melanocytes. It was described as patchy milky white spots, and symmetrically bilateral. What do you call this finding?

A. Jaundice
B. Albinism
C. Vitiligo
D. Ecchymosis

A

C. Vitiligo

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28
Q

When assessing a dark-skinned patient with jaundice, possible areas with the most noticeable yellow color include all the following EXCEPT:

A. Hard palate
B. Sclera
C. Trunk
D. Conjunctiva

A

C. Trunk

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29
Q

A 2-month-old baby was brought to the emergency room due to severe vomiting for 2 days. You are the ER nurse assigned and upon assessment of skin turgor, you noticed that it retracted slowly after 30 seconds. This may be associated with which of the following?

A. Hyperthyroidism
B. Hypothyroidism
C. Dehydration
D. Blood loss

A

C. Dehydration

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30
Q

Pitting edema that is graded as 3+ describes which of the following?

A. Slight pitting, disappears rapidly
B. Very deep pitting, disappears after 2-5 minutes
C. Deep pitting, 2 cm
D. Deeper pitting, 1.5 cm, disappears in 10-15 seconds

A

C. Deep pitting, 2 cm

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31
Q

A 3+ pulse volume is recorded as:

A. Full, increased
B. Normal
C. Weak, thready
D. Absent
E. Bounding

A

A. Full, increased

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32
Q

All the following are true regarding terminal hair EXCEPT:

A. Can be found on the scalp and eyebrows
B. Can be found in eyelashes
C. Thicker, usually pigmented
D. Can be found on the plantar surface

A

D. Can be found on the plantar surface

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33
Q

Which of the following is NOT a normal finding of nails?

A. Nail plate is colorless, angle is convex between the nail
B. Nail bed is 160 degrees
C. Nail bed is 180 degrees
D. Nail cuticle is smooth, intact

A

C. Nail bed is 180 degrees

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34
Q

What term do you call the spooning of the nails wherein the nails are depressed at the edges? This results usually from malnutrition or chronic blood loss.

A. Paronychia
B. Koilonychia
C. Onychorrhexis
D. Pitting of nails

A

B. Koilonychia

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35
Q

This involuntary facial movement is a localized, uncoordinated, uncontrollable twitching of a single muscle group.
A. Fasciculation
B. Tremor
C. Tic

A

A. Fasciculation

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36
Q

This involuntary movement is described as a brief, extremely painful spasm of facial muscles due to a dysfunctional trigeminal nerve.
A. Fasciculation
B. Tremor
C. Tic

A

C. Tic

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37
Q

What is the most used test for accurate measure of visual acuity?
A. Jaeger Card
B. Snellen’s Chart
C. Counting Finger Test
D. Confrontation Test

A

B. Snellen’s Chart

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38
Q

Jaundice is defined as yellowing of the skin as well as the sclera extending up to the cornea. It is also known as which of the following terms?
A. Arcus senilis
B. Exophthalmos
C. Nystagmus
D. Icterus

A

D. Icterus

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39
Q

This term is defined as pupils with two different sizes.
A. Diplopia
B. Anisocoria
C. Mydriasis
D. Xanthelasma

A

B. Anisocoria

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40
Q

You are the nurse on duty in an ophthalmology clinic. An elderly patient comes in and complains of dry eyes, and upon assessment, the nurse notices that one of the eyelids is slightly turning outwards. This abnormality in the eye is known as:
A. Entropion
B. Ptosis
C. Ectropion
D. Myosis

A

C. Ectropion

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41
Q

The clinic nurse is preparing to test the visual acuity of a client using a Snellen chart. Which of the following identifies the accurate procedure for this visual acuity test?
A. Both eyes are assessed together, followed by the assessment of the right and then the left eye.
B. The right eye is tested followed by the left eye, and then both eyes are tested.
C. The client is asked to stand at 20 feet from the chart and is asked to read the largest line first.
D. The client is asked to stand at 20 feet from the chart and to read the line that can be read 200 feet away by an individual with unimpaired vision.

A

B. The right eye is tested followed by the left eye, and then both eyes are tested.

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42
Q

heaviest single organ of the body,
approximately 16% of weight

A

SKIN

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43
Q

3 layers of skin

A

epidermis,
dermis and subcutaneous tissues

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44
Q

contains sebaceous gland
or oil gland that are found almost
everywhere except in plantar and
palmar surface

A

dermis:

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45
Q

Glands associated with hair
follicle, found in the
axillae, genital, rectal
area, nipple, navel

A

Apocrine glands

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46
Q

Glands are associated with
hair follicles open
directly unto the skin
surface and widely
distributed throughout
the body.

A

Eccrine glands

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47
Q

capillary refill byderpressing the nail edge to blanch
and then release notting the return
of the color within how manh seconds?

A

1-3s

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48
Q

redness of the skin
associated with variety of rashes.

A

ERYTHEMA

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49
Q

patches of
hypopigmented skin caused by the
destruction melanocytes in the area

A

VITILIGO

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50
Q

excessive
perspiration

A

HYPERHYDROSIS

51
Q

foul smelling
perspiration

A

BROMHIDROSIS

52
Q

profuse
perspiration

A

DIAPHORESIS

53
Q

discoloration of the
skin black and blue mark cuased by
extravasation of blood into the skin.

A

ECCHYMOSIS

54
Q

means oily skin

A

SEBORRHEA

55
Q

dry skin

A

XEROSIS

56
Q

excess body hair in
female due to endocrine problems

A

HIRSUTISM

57
Q

accumulation of fluid in the
intracellular space characterize by
sewllin

A

EDEMA

58
Q

generalized edema ,
edema othe whole body

A

ANASARCA

59
Q

red-purple
discoloration of less the .5 cm in
diameter.

A

PETECHIAE

60
Q

courser,
thicker, usually pigmented
Example:
scalp and eyebrows and
eyelashes

A

Terminal hair

61
Q

short, fine,
relatively unpigmented, and
tiny hair covering the entire
body except the palms and
soles

A

Vellus hair

62
Q

loss of hair

A

ALOPECIA

63
Q

whitish area of the base of
the nail bed from which the nail plate
devlop.

A

Lunula

64
Q

test during which
the client’s fingertip is temporarily
pinched to assess capillary refill and
peripheral circulation.

A

BLANCH TEST

65
Q

complete absence of
nail from birth Rare and associated
with other hereditary defects

A

Anonychia

66
Q

caused by congenital
defects or systemic disease
(anemia, avitaminosis, gout, hyper
and hypothyroidism)

A

Brittleness

67
Q

is found in psoriasis

A

Pitting

68
Q

inflammation of
proximal or lateral nailfolds
- Occurs after a loss of
cuticle or trauma or
aggressive cuticle
trimming

A

Paronychia

69
Q

Term for Nearsightedness

A

MYOPIA

70
Q

Term for farsightedness

A

HYPEROPIA

71
Q

loss of the elasticity
of the lens and loss the ability close
object ; begins at 45 year of age

A

PRESBYOPIA

72
Q

drooping of the eyelids.

A

PTOSIS

73
Q

collection of blood in
the tissue, organ or space due to
break in the wall of blood vessels,
these are black eyes resulting from
injury

A

CONTUSIONS

74
Q

inflammation of the iris
caused by a local and systemic
infection that results in pain, tearing
and photophobia-sensitivity to
light.

A

IRITIS

75
Q

is the redness of
the hair follicles and the glands that
empty at the edge of the eyelids

A

HORDEOLUM

76
Q

inflammation of
the lacrimal duct.

A

DACROCYSTITIS

77
Q

refers to the opacity
of the lens or capsule which blocks
light rays,

A

CATARACT

78
Q

disturbance in the
circulation of aqueous fluid which
causes an increase in intracellular
pressure

A

GLAUCOMA

79
Q

constricted pupil term

A

MIOSIS

80
Q

Term for enlarge pupils and
may indicate injury or glaucoma or
result from a certain drugs.

A

MYDRIASIS

81
Q

test for lateralization
of vibration

A

WEBER TEST

82
Q

compare air and
bone conduction

A

RINNE’S TEST

83
Q

go to the
side of the client, 15 feet away from
the ear being tested
- cover the one ears
- whisper 2 syllabus words

A

WHISPER VOICE TEST -

84
Q

normal number of teeth in adult

A

32

85
Q

normal number of teeth in children

A

20

86
Q

visible hard deposit of
plaque and dead bacteria that forms
at the gum lines

A

TARTAR

87
Q

bad breath term

A

HALLITOSIS

88
Q

increase in chest
size

A

Barrel chest

89
Q

alternating rapid
breathing followed by period of
apnea

A

Cheyne-stokes

90
Q

varying depth and rate of
breathing followed by period of
apnea

A

Biot’s

91
Q

refers to the palpable
vibrations that are transmitted
through the bronchopulmonary tree
to the chest wall

A

Fremitus

92
Q

healthy lung, Simple
Chronic bronchitis

A

resonant

93
Q

Large pneumothorax

A

Tympanitic

94
Q

Large pleural effusion

A

Flat

95
Q

Lobar pneumonia, Pleural
accumulations of serous fluid,
hemothorax, pus(empyema), fibrous
tissue or tumor

A

Dull

96
Q

CHARACTERISTICS OF BREATH
SOUNDS that is Inspiratory sounds
last longer than
expiratory sounds

A

Vesicular

97
Q

Inspiratory and
expiratory sounds
are almost equal

A

Bronchovesicular

98
Q

Expiratory sounds
last longer than
inspiratory ones

A

Bronchial

99
Q

Inspiratory and
expiratory sounds
are almost equal

A

Tracheal

100
Q

Over most of both
lungs, what is the intensity and pitch?

A

Soft
Relatively low

101
Q

Often in the 1st
and 2nd
interspaces
anteriorly and
between scapulae, what is the intensity and pitch?

A

Intermediate

102
Q

Over the
manubrium, what is the intensity and pitch?

A

Loud
Relatively high

103
Q

Over the trachea
in the neck, what is the intensity and pitch?

A

Very loud
Relatively high

104
Q

Breath sounds for pneumonia,
interstitial lung disease,
pulmonary fibrosis, atelectasis,
heart failure or of the airways

A

Crackles

105
Q

BREATH
SOUNDS that is softer, higher pitched,
more frequent, from mid to late
inspiration, especially in
dependent areas of lungs ,
shorter duration and higher
frequency

A

Fine

106
Q

BREATH
SOUNDS that is arise in narrowed
airways of asthma, COPD and
bronchitis

A

Wheezes

107
Q

BREATH
SOUNDS that is early inspiration and
last throughout expiration
(biphasic), longer duration and
lower frequency

A

Coarse

108
Q

BREATH
SOUNDS that is describe
sounds from secretions in large
airways that may change with
coughing

A

Gurgles - Rhonchi

109
Q

BREATH
SOUNDS that can be inspiratory and
biphasic; causes include tracheal
stenosis from intubation, airway
edema after device removal,
epiglottitis, foreign body and
anaphylaxis

A

Stridor

110
Q

BREATH
SOUNDS that is discontinuous, low
frequency, grating sound that
arises from inflammation and
roughening of the visceral pleura
as it slides against the parietal
pleura, biphasic

A

Friction rub

111
Q

(point of maximal impulsePMI) located at the

A

4-5
th ntercostal
space at the left midclavicular line

112
Q

Closely parallels to the pressure of
the right atrium, or central venous
pressure, related primarily to volume

A

Jugular Venous Pressure (JVP) -

113
Q

Grade of mumurs with Very faint, heard only after listener has “tuned in”; may not be
heard in all positions

A

1

114
Q

Grade of mumurs with Quiet, but heard immediately after placing the stethoscope on
the chest

A

2

115
Q

Grade of mumurs with Moderately loud

A

3

116
Q

Grade of mumurs with Loud, with palpable thrill

A

4

117
Q

Grade of mumurs with Very loud, with thrill May be heard when the stethoscope is
partly off the chest

A

5

118
Q

Grade of mumurs with Very loud, with thrill May be heard with stethoscope entirely
off the chest

A

6

119
Q

stomach growling” is also called

A

borborygmi

120
Q

A. SKELETAL: striated, _______
control
B. SMOOTH :___________ controL
C. CARDIAC :________/// control

A

Voluntary
Involuntary
Involuntary

121
Q

TERMS for decrease in size

A

Atrophy

122
Q

Terms for weakness of the
muscle

A

Flaccidity

123
Q

Term for grafting sound heard
or felt upon movement

A

Crepitation

HA (1 decks)

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