Finals Flashcards by Hasmen Aman

A physician wants to enroll a patient in a research study involving a new medication.
The patient is hesitant and asks about potential risks. The physician assures the patient
there is nothing to worry about and quickly dismisses their concerns. Which patient right
is being most directly violated?
A. Right to informed consent.
B. Right to privacy and confidentiality.
C. Right to refuse participation in medical research.
D. Right to information.

A. Right to informed consent.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

The client has asked to transfer from their bed to their wheelchair. However, the client
cannot weight-bear. Which assistive device should the nurse use to transfer the client?
A. Walker
B. Bedside commode
C. Cane
D. Patient lift

D. Patient lift

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

A patient is recovering from a thyroidectomy. The nurse understands that the thyroid
gland is located:
A. Within the cranium, near the pituitary gland.
B. In the anterior neck, near the trachea.
C. Posterior to the sternocleidomastoid muscle.
D. Within the mediastinum, superior to the heart.

B. In the anterior neck, near the trachea.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

A nurse is reviewing the Braden Scale scores of four patients. Which patient should the
nurse prioritize for pressure ulcer prevention interventions
A. Patient A: Score of 18
B. Patient B: Score of 9
C. Patient C: Score of 15
D. Patient D: Score of 12

B. Patient B: Score of 9

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

The client’s urine is brown. What does the nurse suspect may be causing this?
A. Dehydration
B. Overhydration
C. Excess bilirubin
D. Blood

D. Blood

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which adventitious lung sounds are heard more during expiration than inspiration?
Select all that apply.
A. Bronchial
B. Crackles
C. Pleural Rub
D. Ronchi
E. Wheezes

D. Ronchi
E. Wheezes

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What is the practice wherein a patient receives thorough data regarding surgery,
therapy, or research project before deciding whether or not to move forward?
A. Consent
B. Advance directive
C. Informed consent
D. Living will

C. Informed consent

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

C. Informed consent

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

A patient with a tracheostomy tube requires frequent suctioning. The nurse should
assess for which of the following signs of hypoxia?
A. Decreased respiratory rate
B. Increased restlessness and agitation
C. Improved oxygen saturation levels
D. Decreased heart rate

B. Increased restlessness and agitation

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What is ascites?
A. A build-up of fluid in the abdomen
B. Periumbilical bruising
C. Distended abdominal veins
D. The absence of bowel sounds

A. A build-up of fluid in the abdomen

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

The student nurse is assessing a client’s pupil response. Which student nurse actioncauses the nurse instructor to intervene?
A. The student nurse checks each eye individually and checks for a consensual response.
B. The student nurse shines a penlight into the client’s eye from the side.
C. The student nurse asks the client to look at a distant object.
D. The student nurse turns on the room lights and the client’s bedside lights

B. The student nurse shines a penlight into the client’s eye from the side.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What is the normal distance to which a person with healthy sense of hearing can
perceive whispered words?
A. 1.5 meters
B. 2.5 meters
C. 3.5 meters
D. 4.5 meters

D. 4.5 meters

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

The following are consistent of a normal assessment of the testicles, except:
A. rubbery texture
B. smooth surface
C. symmetrical
D. (+) tiny nodules

D. (+) tiny nodules

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

A nurse is assessing a patient and sees bruising on the deltoids, thighs, and wrist. The
nurse document this as
A. anasarca
B. bromhidrosis
C. ecchymosis
D. petechiae
E. xerosis

C. ecchymosis

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

When should the nurse empty a catheter collection bag?
A. When it is full
B. When it is no more than half full
C. When it is no more than one-quarter full
D. When it is no more than three-quarters full

A. When it is full

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What can be an early indicator for a pressure ulcer?
A. Jaundice on a client’s abdomen
B. Unilateral swelling to a client’s right leg
C. Erythema on a client’s heel
D. Cyanosis on a client’s fingers

C. Erythema on a client’s heel

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

The client has paralysis to the right side of their body following a stroke. What type of
paralysis does this client have?
A. Hemiplegia
B. Quadriplegia
C. Monoplegia
D. Paraplegia

A. Hemiplegia

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

The client opens their eyes when the nurse calls their name when asked, tells the nurse
that the pen they are holding is called a ruler, and can touch their nose with their finger
when asked. What is the client’s Glasgow Coma Scale score?
A. 10
B. 12
C. 8
D. 14

B. 12

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

The student nurse is preparing to perform a genitourinary exam on a female client.
What student nurse statement causes the nurse instructor to intervene?
A. “Please let me know if you feel uncomfortable at any time”
B. “I am going to start by examining the outside of your vagina”
C. “My preceptor will be in the room during the exam”
D. “Please don’t try to look while I am performing the exam, I will walk you through what I am
doing”

B. “I am going to start by examining the outside of your vagina”

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

The clinical instructor was reviewing the students regarding the patient’s right to leave.
Which of the following statements by the student needs further teaching?
A. “We ensure to inform the client of the consequences of his decision before he makes the
decision final.”
B. “He should understand that his decision means the care providers are no longer responsible
to any event that stems from his decision.
C. “They can leave the hospital for whatever reason for as long as they are well informed and
have release the carers from all legal responsibilities.
D. “The patient can leave as long as his condition is not detrimental to the welfare of the
general public.

D. “The patient can leave as long as his condition is not detrimental to the welfare of the
general public.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

When assessing a patient’s abdomen, the nurse should auscultate bowel sounds in
which sequence?
A. RUQ, LUQ, LLQ, RLQ
B. RLQ, RUQ, LUQ, LLQ
C. LUQ, RUQ, RLQ, LLQ
D. LLQ, RLQ, RUQ, LUQ

C. LUQ, RUQ, RLQ, LLQ

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following are part of the general survey except?

A. Mental status
B. Temperature
C. Height
D. Heart Rate
E. Cranial Nerves

E. Cranial Nerves

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

These glands become functional during puberty and secretions occur during emotional and sexual stimulation.

A. Apocrine glands
B. Eccrine glands

A. Apocrine glands

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Based on your answer to number 2, what layer of the skin are these glands found?

A. Epidermis
B. Dermis
C. Subcutaneous tissues

B. Dermis

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Based on your answer in number 2, the following are examples of this gland EXCEPT: A. Axillae B. Genital area C. Rectal area D. Nipple area E. Palmar area

E. Palmar area

Student Nurse August is assigned to a patient who was involved in a motor vehicle accident. The patient sustained trauma and blood loss. The patient is awake, alert, and conscious, blood pressure is low, and heart rate is 130 beats per minute. Which of the following skin manifestations would you most likely expect? A. Capillary refill time of less than 2 seconds B. Dry, flushed, reddish skin C. Cyanosis D. Cool, pale skin

D. Cool, pale skin

Student Nurse Cassandra is assessing a patient and noticed patches of hypopigmented skin which is usually caused by the destruction of melanocytes. It was described as patchy milky white spots, and symmetrically bilateral. What do you call this finding? A. Jaundice B. Albinism C. Vitiligo D. Ecchymosis

C. Vitiligo

When assessing a dark-skinned patient with jaundice, possible areas with the most noticeable yellow color include all the following EXCEPT: A. Hard palate B. Sclera C. Trunk D. Conjunctiva

C. Trunk

A 2-month-old baby was brought to the emergency room due to severe vomiting for 2 days. You are the ER nurse assigned and upon assessment of skin turgor, you noticed that it retracted slowly after 30 seconds. This may be associated with which of the following? A. Hyperthyroidism B. Hypothyroidism C. Dehydration D. Blood loss

C. Dehydration

Pitting edema that is graded as 3+ describes which of the following? A. Slight pitting, disappears rapidly B. Very deep pitting, disappears after 2-5 minutes C. Deep pitting, 2 cm D. Deeper pitting, 1.5 cm, disappears in 10-15 seconds

C. Deep pitting, 2 cm

A 3+ pulse volume is recorded as: A. Full, increased B. Normal C. Weak, thready D. Absent E. Bounding

A. Full, increased

All the following are true regarding terminal hair EXCEPT: A. Can be found on the scalp and eyebrows B. Can be found in eyelashes C. Thicker, usually pigmented D. Can be found on the plantar surface

D. Can be found on the plantar surface

Which of the following is NOT a normal finding of nails? A. Nail plate is colorless, angle is convex between the nail B. Nail bed is 160 degrees C. Nail bed is 180 degrees D. Nail cuticle is smooth, intact

C. Nail bed is 180 degrees

What term do you call the spooning of the nails wherein the nails are depressed at the edges? This results usually from malnutrition or chronic blood loss. A. Paronychia B. Koilonychia C. Onychorrhexis D. Pitting of nails

B. Koilonychia

This involuntary facial movement is a localized, uncoordinated, uncontrollable twitching of a single muscle group. A. Fasciculation B. Tremor C. Tic

A. Fasciculation

This involuntary movement is described as a brief, extremely painful spasm of facial muscles due to a dysfunctional trigeminal nerve. A. Fasciculation B. Tremor C. Tic

C. Tic

What is the most used test for accurate measure of visual acuity? A. Jaeger Card B. Snellen's Chart C. Counting Finger Test D. Confrontation Test

B. Snellen's Chart

Jaundice is defined as yellowing of the skin as well as the sclera extending up to the cornea. It is also known as which of the following terms? A. Arcus senilis B. Exophthalmos C. Nystagmus D. Icterus

D. Icterus

This term is defined as pupils with two different sizes. A. Diplopia B. Anisocoria C. Mydriasis D. Xanthelasma

B. Anisocoria

You are the nurse on duty in an ophthalmology clinic. An elderly patient comes in and complains of dry eyes, and upon assessment, the nurse notices that one of the eyelids is slightly turning outwards. This abnormality in the eye is known as: A. Entropion B. Ptosis C. Ectropion D. Myosis

C. Ectropion

The clinic nurse is preparing to test the visual acuity of a client using a Snellen chart. Which of the following identifies the accurate procedure for this visual acuity test? A. Both eyes are assessed together, followed by the assessment of the right and then the left eye. B. The right eye is tested followed by the left eye, and then both eyes are tested. C. The client is asked to stand at 20 feet from the chart and is asked to read the largest line first. D. The client is asked to stand at 20 feet from the chart and to read the line that can be read 200 feet away by an individual with unimpaired vision.

B. The right eye is tested followed by the left eye, and then both eyes are tested.

heaviest single organ of the body, approximately 16% of weight

SKIN

3 layers of skin

epidermis, dermis and subcutaneous tissues

contains sebaceous gland or oil gland that are found almost everywhere except in plantar and palmar surface

dermis:

Glands associated with hair follicle, found in the axillae, genital, rectal area, nipple, navel

Apocrine glands

Glands are associated with hair follicles open directly unto the skin surface and widely distributed throughout the body.

Eccrine glands

capillary refill byderpressing the nail edge to blanch and then release notting the return of the color within how manh seconds?

1-3s

redness of the skin associated with variety of rashes.

ERYTHEMA

patches of hypopigmented skin caused by the destruction melanocytes in the area

VITILIGO

excessive perspiration

HYPERHYDROSIS

foul smelling perspiration

BROMHIDROSIS

profuse perspiration

DIAPHORESIS

discoloration of the skin black and blue mark cuased by extravasation of blood into the skin.

ECCHYMOSIS

means oily skin

SEBORRHEA

dry skin

XEROSIS

excess body hair in female due to endocrine problems

HIRSUTISM

accumulation of fluid in the intracellular space characterize by sewllin

EDEMA

generalized edema , edema othe whole body

ANASARCA

red-purple discoloration of less the .5 cm in diameter.

PETECHIAE

courser, thicker, usually pigmented Example: scalp and eyebrows and eyelashes

Terminal hair

short, fine, relatively unpigmented, and tiny hair covering the entire body except the palms and soles

Vellus hair

loss of hair

ALOPECIA

whitish area of the base of the nail bed from which the nail plate devlop.

Lunula

test during which the client’s fingertip is temporarily pinched to assess capillary refill and peripheral circulation.

BLANCH TEST

complete absence of nail from birth Rare and associated with other hereditary defects

Anonychia

caused by congenital defects or systemic disease (anemia, avitaminosis, gout, hyper and hypothyroidism)

Brittleness

is found in psoriasis

Pitting

inflammation of proximal or lateral nailfolds - Occurs after a loss of cuticle or trauma or aggressive cuticle trimming

Paronychia

Term for Nearsightedness

MYOPIA

Term for farsightedness

HYPEROPIA

loss of the elasticity of the lens and loss the ability close object ; begins at 45 year of age

PRESBYOPIA

drooping of the eyelids.

PTOSIS

collection of blood in the tissue, organ or space due to break in the wall of blood vessels, these are black eyes resulting from injury

CONTUSIONS

inflammation of the iris caused by a local and systemic infection that results in pain, tearing and photophobia-sensitivity to light.

IRITIS

is the redness of the hair follicles and the glands that empty at the edge of the eyelids

HORDEOLUM

inflammation of the lacrimal duct.

DACROCYSTITIS

refers to the opacity of the lens or capsule which blocks light rays,

CATARACT

disturbance in the circulation of aqueous fluid which causes an increase in intracellular pressure

GLAUCOMA

constricted pupil term

MIOSIS

Term for enlarge pupils and may indicate injury or glaucoma or result from a certain drugs.

MYDRIASIS

test for lateralization of vibration

WEBER TEST

compare air and bone conduction

RINNE’S TEST

go to the side of the client, 15 feet away from the ear being tested - cover the one ears - whisper 2 syllabus words

WHISPER VOICE TEST -

normal number of teeth in adult

normal number of teeth in children

visible hard deposit of plaque and dead bacteria that forms at the gum lines

TARTAR

bad breath term

HALLITOSIS

increase in chest size

Barrel chest

alternating rapid breathing followed by period of apnea

Cheyne-stokes

varying depth and rate of breathing followed by period of apnea

Biot's

refers to the palpable vibrations that are transmitted through the bronchopulmonary tree to the chest wall

Fremitus

healthy lung, Simple Chronic bronchitis

resonant

Large pneumothorax

Tympanitic

Large pleural effusion

Flat

Lobar pneumonia, Pleural accumulations of serous fluid, hemothorax, pus(empyema), fibrous tissue or tumor

Dull

CHARACTERISTICS OF BREATH SOUNDS that is Inspiratory sounds last longer than expiratory sounds

Vesicular

Inspiratory and expiratory sounds are almost equal

Bronchovesicular

Expiratory sounds last longer than inspiratory ones

Bronchial

Inspiratory and expiratory sounds are almost equal

Tracheal

Over most of both lungs, what is the intensity and pitch?

Soft Relatively low

Often in the 1st and 2nd interspaces anteriorly and between scapulae, what is the intensity and pitch?

Intermediate

Over the manubrium, what is the intensity and pitch?

Loud Relatively high

Over the trachea in the neck, what is the intensity and pitch?

Very loud Relatively high

Breath sounds for pneumonia, interstitial lung disease, pulmonary fibrosis, atelectasis, heart failure or of the airways

Crackles

BREATH SOUNDS that is softer, higher pitched, more frequent, from mid to late inspiration, especially in dependent areas of lungs , shorter duration and higher frequency

Fine

BREATH SOUNDS that is arise in narrowed airways of asthma, COPD and bronchitis

Wheezes

BREATH SOUNDS that is early inspiration and last throughout expiration (biphasic), longer duration and lower frequency

Coarse

BREATH SOUNDS that is describe sounds from secretions in large airways that may change with coughing

Gurgles - Rhonchi

BREATH SOUNDS that can be inspiratory and biphasic; causes include tracheal stenosis from intubation, airway edema after device removal, epiglottitis, foreign body and anaphylaxis

Stridor

BREATH SOUNDS that is discontinuous, low frequency, grating sound that arises from inflammation and roughening of the visceral pleura as it slides against the parietal pleura, biphasic

Friction rub

(point of maximal impulsePMI) located at the

4-5 th ntercostal space at the left midclavicular line

Closely parallels to the pressure of the right atrium, or central venous pressure, related primarily to volume

Jugular Venous Pressure (JVP) -

Grade of mumurs with Very faint, heard only after listener has "tuned in"; may not be heard in all positions

Grade of mumurs with Quiet, but heard immediately after placing the stethoscope on the chest

Grade of mumurs with Moderately loud

Grade of mumurs with Loud, with palpable thrill

Grade of mumurs with Very loud, with thrill May be heard when the stethoscope is partly off the chest

Grade of mumurs with Very loud, with thrill May be heard with stethoscope entirely off the chest

stomach growling” is also called

borborygmi

A. SKELETAL: striated, _______ control B. SMOOTH :___________ controL C. CARDIAC :________/// control

Voluntary Involuntary Involuntary

TERMS for decrease in size

Atrophy

Terms for weakness of the muscle

Flaccidity

Term for grafting sound heard or felt upon movement

Crepitation