FINALS Flashcards

1
Q

A change in the statistical
distribution of weather
patterns when that change lasts for an extended period of time.

A

Climate Change

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2
Q

If the blooms appear
early, the blooms could already be gone by the time pollinators appear, creating what scientists call?

A

ecological
mismatch

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3
Q

Earth’s temperature has risen
by an average of ____
per decade since 1880

A

0.14° Fahrenheit (0.08° Celsius)V

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4
Q

The rate of
warming since 1981 is more
than twice as fast:

A

0.32° F
(0.18° C) per decade.

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5
Q

Air temperatures on Earth have been rising since the

A

Industrial Revolution.

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6
Q

refers to the variation in climate parameters caused by nonhuman forces.

A

natural variability

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7
Q

A persistent period of unusually hot days is referred to as

A

extreme heat event or a heat wave

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8
Q

occurs when there is high pressure in the atmosphere that forces hot air downward and traps it near the ground. This high-pressure system acts like a lock that prevents the hot air from rising. Consequently, rain cannot form and the hot air gets hotter.

A

heat wave

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9
Q

a reduction in the pH of the ocean over an extended period of time, caused primarily by uptake of carbon dioxide (CO2)

A

Water acidification; Ocean acidification or osteoporosis of the sea

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10
Q

Refers to the increase in the average
temperature of the Earth’s near-surface
air and oceans in recent decades and its
projected continuation.

A

GLOBAL WARMING

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11
Q

Refers to recent warming and implies a
human influence

A

GLOBAL WARMING

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12
Q

can cause
instability in the mountains or hills
and cause landslides. These often
trigger earthquakes too

A

Mining

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13
Q

drives deforestation, biodiversity
loss and climate change. It can
deprive forest communities of
livelihoods, and the natural
resources they rely on, and lead to
human rights violations, unrest
and violence

A

Illegal logging

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14
Q

When fossil fuels are burned, they
release large amounts of

A

CO2

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15
Q

____ trap heat in
our atmosphere, causing global
warming.

A

Greenhouse gases

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16
Q

a purposeful clearing or thinning of
trees and forests.

A

Deforestation

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17
Q

When
___ occurs, much of the
carbon stored by trees released
back into the atmosphere as carbon dioxide, which contributes to climate change.

A

Deforestation

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18
Q

Burning gasoline and diesel fuel creates harmful byproducts like

A

nitrogen dioxide, carbon monoxide, hydrocarbons, benzene, and formaldehyde.

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19
Q

vehicles emit _____, the most common human-caused greenhouse gas

A

carbon dioxide

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20
Q

Solid waste contributes directly to greenhouse gas emissions through the generation of ____ from the anaerobic decay of waste in landfills

A

methane

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21
Q

the emission of __ from our solid waste combustion facilities.

A

nitrous oxide

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22
Q

Small amounts of heat trapping gases such as ____ play a key role in determining the Earth’s average temperature and thus its climates

A

water vapor (H2O), carbon dioxide (CO2), ozone (O3), methane (CH4), and chlorofluorocarbon (CFCs)

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23
Q

water vapor (H2O), carbon dioxide (CO2), ozone (O3), methane (CH4), and chlorofluorocarbon (CFCs) are known as

A

greenhouse gases

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24
Q

They allow light, infrared radiation, and some ultraviolet radiation from the sun to pass through the troposphere.

A

greenhouse gases

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25
Q

natural trapping of heat in the troposphere is called

A

greenhouse effect

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26
Q

The greenhouse effect first proposed by Swedish chemist

A

Svante Arrheniusin in 1896

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27
Q

Measured atmospheric levels of certain
greenhouse gases;___ have
risen substantially in recent decades –
caused by human activities: burning
fossil fuels, agriculture, deforestation,
and use of CFCs.

A

CO2, CFCs,
methane, and nitrous oxide

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28
Q

___ is responsible for 50-
60% of the global warming from
greenhouse gases produced by human
activities since pre-industrial times.

A

Carbon dioxide

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29
Q

The main sources of co2 are __

A

fossil fuel
burning: coal, oil and natural gas (75%)
and land clearing and burning (25%).

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30
Q

the main driver of the greenhouse
effect

A

co2

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31
Q

contribute to
global warming in the troposphere and
deplete ozone in the stratosphere. The
main sources are leaking air
conditioners and refrigerators,
evaporation of industrial solvents

A

Chloroflourocarbon-

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32
Q

is produced when anaerobic bacteria
break down organic matter in moist
places that lack oxygen. These areas
include swamps and other natural
wetlands, rice paddies and landfills,
intestinal tract of cattle, sheep, and
termites

A

Methane

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33
Q

can trap heat in the
troposphere and deplete ozone in the
stratosphere. It is released from nylon
production, burning of biomass and
nitrogen fertilizers in soil, livestock
wastes.

A

Nitrous oxide

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34
Q

IPCC

A

(Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change)

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35
Q

According to IPCCthe earth’s mean surface temperature will rise __ between 1990 and 2100

A

1-3.5 ̊C

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36
Q

True or False
The northern hemisphere should warm more and faster than the southern hemisphere because the latter has more heat absorbing ocean than the land and because water cools more slowly than land.

A

True

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37
Q

approved a
Convention on Climate Change, in
which developed countries committed
themselves to reducing their emission
of CO2 and other greenhouse gases.

A

In 1922 Earth summit in Rio de
Janeiro, 106 nations

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38
Q

the resulting treaty
would require developed countries to
cut greenhouse emissions by the
average of 0.2% below 1990 levels
between 2008-2012; allow emission
trading, in which a country that beats
its target goal for reducing greenhouse
gas emissions can sell its excess
reductions to countries that failed to
meet their reduction goals; allow
forested countries to get a break in their
quotas because trees absorb carbon
dioxide; allow penalties for countries
that violate the treaty, to be determined
later.

A

In December 1997 representatives of
160 nations met in Kyoto, Japan to
negotiate a new treaty

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39
Q

“supply side” of food
security

A

Availability:

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40
Q

this is the economic and
physical access

A

Access:

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41
Q

the way the body makes the most of various nutrients in the food

A

Utilization:

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42
Q

stability of the other three dimension over time

A

Stability:

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43
Q

a state of being without consistent access to an adequate quantity of affordable access to food.

A

Food Insecurity

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44
Q

In PH, ___ families consider they are food insecure in 2013

A

8.8 million

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45
Q

In PH, families that consider they are food insecure have ___in their diet

A

rice and corn in their diet

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46
Q

Insuffiency:

A

2200 calories a day

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47
Q

___ American families suffer food insecurity

A

8.8 million

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48
Q

long term or persistent, access to education and productive sources

A

CHRONIC FOOD INSECURITY

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49
Q

short-term and temporary, intervention

A

TRANSITORY FOOD INSECURITY

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50
Q
  • between chronic and transitor
  • seasonal fluctuation of climate
  • cropping patterns
  • labour demand
  • disease
A

SEASONAL FOOD SECURITY

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51
Q

“food deprivation”

A

HUNGER

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52
Q

imbalances of intake of macro/micronutrients

A

MALNUTRITION:

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53
Q

cause of hunger, lack of adequate, and proper nutrition

A

POVERTY:

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54
Q

feeding programs in schools
and a bill seeking ban of softdrinks in
schools

A

DEPED (Department of Education)

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55
Q

Feeding programs in schools, Pantawid pamilyang Pilipino
progam (4Ps)

A

DSWD (Department of Social Welfare
and Development)

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56
Q

Sangkap pinoy seal program
operation timbang

A

DOH (Department of Health)

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57
Q

Philippine plan of action for
nutrition

A

NNC (National Nutrition Council)

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58
Q

Ensuring food security of the
Philippines

A

NFA (National Food Authority)

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59
Q

Nutri-paneskwelahan

A

NCP (Nursing Care Plan)

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60
Q

“Hungriest
Country in the World”

A

Central African Republic:

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61
Q

Device that is designed to be
used in fighting an enemy of a
war to cause bodily harm to
another

A

Weapon

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62
Q

Defend oneself from attackers

A

Weapon

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63
Q

Used to describe different kinds of
weapons with two important
characteristics:

A

A. the ability to produce largescale destruction
B. they do not choose who they want to attack which affects
usually the civilians

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64
Q

 a part of a country’s activity
 an ART and CRAFT
 a symbol of STRENGTH and POWER
of a country
 Undergoes EVOLUTION
 used as a DEFENSE

A

WEAPON MAKING

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65
Q

3 TYPES OF WEAPONS OF MASS
DESTRUCTION
(Laura Reed)

A

1.) Nuclear Weapons
2) Chemical Warfare Agents
3) Biological Agents

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66
Q

Weapon that uses harmful biological agent (pathogenic microorganism/neurotoxin/
virus/bacteria) to cause death or disease on a large scale

A

BIOLOGICAL

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67
Q

Weapon containing any of several chemical compounds like chlorine gas, mustard gas, of which some are toxic agents, that are intended to kill, injure, or incapacitate an enemy.

A

CHEMICAL

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68
Q

Weapon combining radiological materials with a conventional explosive device.
Considered as the greatest weapons of mass destruction ever created
FISSION, or REACTION.

A

NUCLEAR

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69
Q

Devices that spread dangerous radioactive materials that is wrapped around a conventional explosive to spread toxic radiation.

A

RADIOLOGICAL

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70
Q

Caused by
variola virus

A

SMALL POX

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71
Q

Small pox is caused by

A

variola virus

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72
Q

Spreads
through direct
contact with an
infected
person’s skin or
bodily fluids,
air in closed,
confined areas,
and
contaminated
snail mail.

A

Small pox

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73
Q

Small pox is classified as

A

Category A
biological
weapon by THE
CENTER FOR
DISEASE
CONTROL
AND
PREVENTION

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74
Q

high
mortality rate
and easily
transmitted
through the air.

A

Small pox

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75
Q

SIGNS/SYMPTOMS
 high fevers
 body aches
 rash (develops from
fluid-filled bumps
and when healed it
produces scabs to
permanent, pitted
scars)

A

Small pox

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76
Q

Isolate the patient
until all scabs have
fallen off (304
weeks after rash
onset) to prevent
transmission of the
virus

A

Small pox

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77
Q

True or False
Pregnant
woman: should
not receive
smallpox
vaccination

A

True

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78
Q

True or False
Women can get pregnant
within 4 weeks after smallpox
vaccination

A

False
Women: should
be advised against
becoming pregnant
for 4 weeks after smallpox vaccination

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79
Q

One of the
deadliest and
most feared
agent of
biological
weapon

A

ANTHRAX

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80
Q

bacteria called
bacillus
antracis (found
naturally in
some animals
in low levels but
when its spores
are inhaled by
humans, it
becomes
deadly)

A

Anthrax

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81
Q

Anthrax is caused by ___

A

Caused by a
bacteria called
bacillus
antracis

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82
Q

Affects after 7
days of
inhalation and
death may
occur if not
treated

A

Anthrax

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83
Q

SIGNS/SYMPTOMSfever
malaise
fatigue
coughing
internal bleeding
blood poisoning
meningitis

A

Anthrax

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84
Q

ANTIDOTELarge doses of
intravenous and
oral antibiotics
(such as
fluoroquinolone
(ciproflaxin),
doxycycline,
erythromyacin,
vancomycin, or
penicillin)

A

Anthrax

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85
Q

A killer virus
that cause
hemorrhagic
fevers marked
by severe
bleeding

A

Ebola Virus

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86
Q

Hit the news in
the late 1970s
and spread through
Zaire and
Sudan, killing
hundreds

A

Ebola Virus

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87
Q

Ebola virus got its name from

A

Got its name
from the
EBOLA RIVER
(near one of the
villages in the
Democratic
Republic of
Congo where
the disease was
first
discovered)

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88
Q

Infects others
through direct
contact with
blood or other bodily secretions

A

Ebola Virus

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89
Q

SIGNS/SYMPTOMSBetween 2-21 daysHeadache
Muscle ache
Sore throat
Weakness
Diarrhea
Vomiting
Some: internal and
external bleeding
60 and 90 percent
dies after 7 to 16
days while some
patients recover
better than others

A

Ebola Virus

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90
Q

True or False
There is a cure for Ebola

A

False

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91
Q

BLACK
DEATH
- Killed half of
the population
of Europe in the
14th century

A

Plague

92
Q

Caused by a
bacterium
Yersinia pestis, which was
transmitted to
humans by
infected rats

A

Plague

93
Q

The plague is caused by

A

Caused by a
bacterium
Yersinia pestis, which was
transmitted to
humans by
infected rats

94
Q

The plague exists in two strains

A

Bubonic and Pneumonic

95
Q

a strain of the plague that:
-spreads by bites
from infected fleas
-can be transmitted
from person to
person through
contact with
infected
bodily fluids.
-named for the
swollen glands, or
buboes, around the
groin, armpit, and
neck that is
accompanied by
fever, chills,
headache, and
exhaustion.

A

Bubonic

96
Q

a strain of the plague that: less common and
spreads through the
air by coughs,
sneezes, and face-to-face contact.

A

Pneumonic

97
Q

RABBIT
FEVERCaused by the
bacterium
Francisella
tularensis

A

Tularemia

98
Q

One of the most
infectious
bacteria on
Earth.
Humans can
become
infected
through bites of
tick and deer
fly, skin contact
with infected
animals,
drinking
contaminated
water, and
inhalation of
contaminated
aerosols or
agricultural
dusts

A

Tularemia

99
Q

SIGNS/SYMPTOMS
Fever
Chills
Headache
Diarrhea
Muscle aches
Joint pain
Dry cough
Progressive
weakness
Pneumonia can be
developed
If left untreated:respiratory failure,
shock and death
can follow

A

Tularemia

100
Q

ANTIDOTE
Not transferred
between human
hosts but can be
spread very rapidly
between animal
hosts and humans
or when used in
aerosol form
Easily treated with
ANTIBIOTICS or
prevented

A

Tularemia

101
Q

Tularemia is caused by

A

Caused by the
bacterium
Francisella
tularensis

102
Q

Caused by a
bacteria
Clostridium
botulinum that
contains deadly
botulinum
toxin

A

BOTULINUM
TOXIN

103
Q

Colorless and
odorless in air
Spores are
found in fruits,
vegetables, and
seafood
Considered
harmless but
when they
begin to grow,
they produce
deadly toxin.
Humans are
exposed to the
toxin through
the
consumption of
contaminated
food

A

Botulinum Toxin

104
Q

SIGNS/SYMPTOMSBlurred vision
Vomiting
Difficulty
swallowing

A

Botulinum Toxin

105
Q

ANTIDOTEAntitoxin drugs (to
prevent the
disorder from
worsening, but
recovery still takes
many weeks)

A

Botulinum Toxin

106
Q

A kind of crop
disease
 Caused by the
fungus
Pyricularia
oryzae (also
known as
Magnaporthe
grisea)
 Makes leaves of
plants that
were exposed
to the fungus
develop grayish
lesions with
buildup of
thousands of
fungal spores
 Does not kill
instantly, but
low food
production
could lead to
severe hunger
in poorer
counties, as
well as loses in
income.

A

Rice Blast

107
Q

Rice blast is caused by

A

Caused by the
fungus
Pyricularia
oryzae (also
known as
Magnaporthe
grisea)

108
Q

ANTIDOTE
 Develop fungus
resistant plant
varieties
 Do not use
excessive fertilizer
 Irrigate the soil
regularly
 Plant early
 Use Silicon
fertilizers (calcium
silicate) as
alternative fertilizer
they help can be
applied to soils that
can help reduce
blast
 Apply appropriate
fungicide to
infected plants

A

Rice Blast

109
Q

A German
name
 A pest caused
by a virus
similar to
MEASLES.  Affects mostly
cattle and other
ruminant
animals such as
goats, bison,
and giraffes.
 Highly
contagious
disease,
characterized
with fever, loss
of appetite,
dysentery, and
inflammation
of the mucus
membranes.
 Condition gets
serious for 6 to
10 days after
exposure until
the animal suffers
dehydration

A

RINDERPEST

110
Q

ANTIDOTE
 There is no known
treatment
 Animals exposed to
it are required to be
isolated and
slaughtered
 Vaccination can be
administered if
directed by the
authorities
 Proper disposal of
dead animals and
 contaminated
material
 Maintain
cleanliness and
proper sanitation of
cattle farms
 Using disinfectants
like Sodium
hypochlorite (a 3%
household bleach
can kill RPV virus)

A

Rinderpest

111
Q

Caused by the
Nipah virus in
1999
Resulted to an
outbreak in
Nipah region
of Malaysia
(infected 265;
killing 105)
Virus naturally
occurs in fruit
bats
May be spread
through close
physical
contact or
contaminated
body fluids.
Lasts 6 to 10
days
Classified as
Category Cbiological
weapon

A

NIPAH VIRUS

112
Q

SIGNS/SYMPTOMSFever
Muscle pain
Encephalitis
(inflammation of
the brain)
SEVERE CASES:
drowsiness,
disorientation,
convulsions,

A

Nipah Virus

113
Q

ANTIDOTELimited to
supportive care

A

Nipah Virus

114
Q

Composed of toxic chemical contained in a bomb that can cause death, injury, temporary incapacitation or sensory irritation through chemical action

A

CHEMICAL WEAPONS

115
Q

Chemical Weapons are controlled by

A

o Freshness
o Purity
o Weather conditions
o Wind direction
o Means of dissemination
o Other factors

116
Q

Chemical weapons are called

A

They are called:
o Nerve agents
o Blister agents
o Choking agents

117
Q

Effects of Chemical weapons

A

o Immediate failure of the
respiratory or nervous system
o Skin irritation
o Headaches
o Heart palpitations
o Respiratory difficulty
o Vomiting
o Convulsions

118
Q

Chemical weapons forms

A

Forms:
o Liquids
o Vapors
o Gases
o Aerosols

119
Q

Also called GB

A

SARIN

120
Q

colorless, odorless nerve gas

A

SARIN

121
Q

considered an organophosphate
chemical, a potent pesticide

A

SARIN

122
Q

tasteless, odorless, colorless liquid that
has no odor in its pure form which was
developed in Germany by GERHARD
SCHARADER in 1938.

A

SARIN

123
Q

 Can evaporate into a vapor (gas) and
spread into the environment

A

SARIN

124
Q

Highly poisonous chemical that kills
because it interferes with signaling
within the nervous system by
suffocation.

A

SARIN

125
Q

Antidote of Sarin

A

Exposure to ATROPINE and
PRALIDOXIME for nerve agent against
toxicity.

126
Q

A combination of SARIN and
LEWISITE, an effective blistering
agent

A

SOMAN

127
Q

More expensive to produce than sarin

A

SOMAN

128
Q

Colorless liquid, becomes dark brown if
aged

A

SOMAN

129
Q

Tasteless but has been variously
described as having a sweet, musty,
fruity, spicy, or nutty smell.

A

SOMAN

130
Q

More deadly than sarin and tabun

A

SOMAN

131
Q

Considered a volatile substance effective
mainly through inhalation.

A

SOMAN

132
Q

O-ethyl S-diisopropylaminomethyl
methylphosphonothiolate

A

VX

133
Q

Brownish in liquid form
 Vapors are odorless

A

VX

134
Q

A very toxic nerve gas, an extremely toxic
chemical agent
 Used as a nerve gas which causes
convulsions, loss of consciousness
paralysis and failure of the respiratory
system leading to death.

A

VX

135
Q

100 times more deadly than sarin

A

VX

136
Q

First synthesized
VX; a chemist working for Imperial
Chemical Industries in Britain.

A

RANAJI GHOSH

137
Q

VX ANTIDOTES

A

ATROPINEand
PRALIDOXIME. Injected sedative/antiepil
eptic such as diazepam

138
Q

Discovered by a German chemist,
GERHARD SCHRADER, sometime in
1937.

A

TABUN

139
Q

TABUN was discovered by

A

GERHARD SCHRADER

140
Q

Colorless or brownish liquid, and
odorless as a vapor.
 Classified as an organophosphate and
originally intended to be used as a
pesticides

A

TABUN

141
Q

Considered among the easiest of nerve
gases to manufacture
 Can be mixed with water
 Can be used to poison water or food and
it can be inhaled when released into the
air

A

TABUN

142
Q

SIGNS OF EXPOSURE: visual
disturbance, runny nose, chest tightness,
nausea, vomiting, and convulsions.

A

TABUN

143
Q

TABUN Signs of exposure

A

SIGNS OF EXPOSURE: visual
disturbance, runny nose, chest tightness,
nausea, vomiting, and convulsions.

144
Q

 LARGE DOSE EXPOSURE: can lead
to loss of consciousness, convulsions,
paralysis, and respiratory failure, which
can lead to death.

A

TABUN

145
Q

TABUN Large dose exposure

A

 LARGE DOSE EXPOSURE: can lead
to loss of consciousness, convulsions,
paralysis, and respiratory failure, which
can lead to death.

146
Q

tabun antidote

A

Administration of injectable
atropine and pralidoxime

147
Q

Poison gas invented in Germany by
FRITZ HAVER

A

ZYKLON B

148
Q

WHO INVENTED ZYKLON B

A

FRITZ HAVER

149
Q

A type of hydrogen cyanide used by the
Nazis to kill war victims inside gas
chamber during World War II.

A

ZYKLON B

150
Q

Colorless vapor at normal temperatures
with a smell like bitter almonds.

A

ZYKLON B

151
Q

HYDROGEN CYANIDES – has high
toxicity and in sufficient concentrations
rapidly leads to death.

A

zyklon b

152
Q

has high
toxicity and in sufficient concentrations
rapidly leads to death.

A

HYDROGEN CYANIDES

153
Q

ZYKLON B Antidote

A

Amyl nitrite, Sodium nitrite,
Sodium thiosulfate

154
Q

First used near the end of World War I

A

MUSTARD AGENTS

155
Q

Exposure to it cause severe eye and lung
damage.

A

MUSTARD AGENTS

156
Q

Chemical compound is often called
“blister agents” because their injuries
usually resemble burns or blisters.

A

MUSTARD AGENTS

157
Q

Chemical compound is often called
“___” because their injuries
usually resemble burns or blisters.

A

blister agents

158
Q

Commonly
known as Mustard Gas have the ability to
form large blisters on exposed skin and
in the lungs; sometimes smells like
garlic, onions, or mustard and
sometimes has no odor.

A

SULFUR MUSTARD

159
Q

exposure can cayuse
2nd and 3rd degree chemical burns.

A

MUSTARD AGENTS

160
Q

ANTIDOTE FOR MUSTARD AGENTS

A

a. No antidote for mustard exposure
b. The best thing to do is to avoid it by leaving
the area immediately where the sulfur
mustard is present
c. Go to a higher ground, because sulfur
mustard being heavier than air, will settle in
low-lying areas.

161
Q

 Just like conventional bombs
 Meant to cause extreme damage
through an explosion that releases a
large amount of energy in a short
period of time.
 Explosion is created by changing the
atoms themselves, either by splitting
them or fusing them together to create
new atoms that release tremendous
heat.

A

NUCLEAR WEAPONS

162
Q

TRUE OR FALSE
Since 1945, no nuclear weapon has been used in a conflict although possession of them is a symbol of strength and prestige and can be used during diplomatic bargaining.

A

TRUE

163
Q

Atoms are split
o The core of a fission bomb is made of either PLUTONIUM, or highly enriched URANIUM.

A

FISSION WEAPONS

164
Q

The core of a fission bomb is made of either __, or highly enriched __.

A

PLUTONIUM, URANIUM

165
Q

During fission, when the heavy nucleus splits into two smaller nuclei, extra neutrons are released. If these neutrons are absorbed by other nuclei, they can, in turn, also releasing neutrons and setting off what is known as a

A

CHAIN REACTION.

166
Q

Often known as hydrogen bombs—deuterium and tritium

A

FUSION WEAPONS

167
Q

o Two isotopes of hydrogen are fused together to create heavier atoms.
o Can only happen at extremely high temperatures and pressure.
o There is no theoretical limit to the explosive force of a fusion weapon.

A

FUSION WEAPONS

168
Q

Refers to the very fast release of energy in an explosion producing a shock wave equivalent to several thousand pounds of pressure per square inch (psi), devastating force that can break most objects on earth.

A

BLAST

169
Q

A form of energy with a
combination of heat and light
o The light produced by a nuclear
explosion can be seen from
hundreds of miles away, so
intense that it can make sand
explode, blind people many
miles away, ignite flammable
materials at large distances, and
burn human skin.

A

DIRECT NUCLEAR RADIATION

170
Q

Releases several forms of
radiations such as gamma,
alpha and beta particles.

A

THERMAL RADIATION

171
Q

can easily
penetrate or pass through solid
objects and can be deadly

A

GAMMA RAYS and
NEUTRONS –

172
Q

are generally
less dangerous, having much
shorter ranges – several meters
and several centimeters,
respectively.

A

BETA and ALPHA
PARTICLES

173
Q

Consists of large number of
particles, which are propelled
upward in the blast and
becomes irradiated, or
contaminated with radiation
during the explosion.

A

FALLOUT

174
Q

The rising and descending
debris forms the mushroom
cloud that follow a nuclear
explosion.

A

FALLOUT

175
Q

“dirty bombs”

A

RADIOLOGICAL WEAPONS

176
Q

weapons of mass disruption not mass destruction

A

RADIOLOGICAL WEAPONS

177
Q

made by combining radioactive material with conventional explosives

A

RADIOLOGICAL WEAPONS

178
Q

They are more intended to spread terror rather than mass killings.

A

RADIOLOGICAL WEAPONS

179
Q

a system of a moral principles that apply values to the practice of clinical medicine and in scientific research.

A

Medical ethics

180
Q

Also for people, regardless of race, gender, or religion to be guaranteed quality and principled care

A

Medical ethics

181
Q

This applies to both the living and nonliving, such as medical research on cadavers

A

Medical ethics

182
Q
A

Medical ethics

183
Q

It is also known as health care ethics or biomedical ethicsapplied to the fields of medicine and healthcare

A

Medical ethics

184
Q

The term medical ethics first dates back to 1803, when English author and physician Thomas Percival published a document describing the requirements and expectations of medical professionals within medical facilities. The Code of Ethics was then adopted in 1847, relying heavily on Percival’s words

A

Medical ethics

185
Q

MEDICAL ETHICS IS ALSO KNOWN AS

A

health care ethics or biomedical ethics

186
Q

TERMED THE WORD MEDICAL ETHICS

A

Thomas Percival

187
Q

Discusses basic principles for
medical professionals. This
document dates back to the 5 th
century BC

A

Hippocratic Oath

188
Q

TRUE OR FALSE
Both The Declaration of Helsinki
(1964) and The Nuremberg Code
(1947) are two well-known and well
respected documents contributing to
medical ethics.

A

TRUE

189
Q

TWO WELL KNOWN AND WELL RESPECTED DOCUMENTS IN MEDICAL ETHICS

A

The Declaration of Helsinki
(1964) and The Nuremberg Code
(1947)

190
Q

Other important markings in the
history of Medical Ethics include Roe
V. Wad in 1973 and the development
of Hemodialysis in the 1960s

A

TRUE

191
Q

Other important markings in the
history of Medical Ethics

A

e Roe
V. Wad in 1973 and the development
of Hemodialysis in the 1960s

192
Q

TRUE OR FALSE
Historically, Western medical ethics
maybe traced to guidelines on the duty
of physicians in antiquity, such as the
Hippocratic Oath, and early Christian
teachings.

A

TRUE

193
Q

The first code of medical ethics

A

Formula Comitis Archiatrorum

194
Q

Formula Comitis Archiatrorum, was
published in

A

5th century, during the
reign of the Ostrogothic king Theodoric
the Great

195
Q

In the medieval and early modern
period, thee field is indebted to Islamic
scholarship such as

A

Ishaq ibn Ali alRuhawi (who wrote the Conduct of a
Physician, the first book dedicated to
medical ethics), Avicenna’s Canon
of Medicine and Muhammad ibn
Zakariya ar-Razi (known as Rhazes
in the West),

196
Q

who wrote the Conduct of a
Physician, the first book dedicated to
medical ethics

A

Ishaq ibn Ali alRuhaw

197
Q

known as Rhazes
in the West

A

Avicenna’s Canon
of Medicine and Muhammad ibn
Zakariya ar-Razi

198
Q

a physician and author, crafted the first modern code of medical ethics. He drew up a pamphlet with the code in 1794 and wrote an expanded version in 1803, in which he coined expressions “medical ethics” and “medical jurisprudence”

A

Thomas Percival

199
Q

one such critique who considers Percival’s codes of physician consultations as being an early example of the anti-competitive, “guild-like” nature of the physician community

A

Jeffrey Berlant

200
Q

was passed by the Parliament of the United Kingdom. It introduced compulsory apprenticeship and formal qualifications for the apothecaries of the day under the license of the Society of Apothecaries. This was the beginning of regulation of the medical profession in the UK

A

Apothecaries Act

201
Q

Refers to the rights of an individual to self-determination in a way that the patient has the right to refuse or even to choose their treatment. This is to respect the individual’s ability to decide about his or her personal matters freely and to indicate that a person is in here healthy mind and body

A

Autonomy

202
Q

For instance, in a case of a progression of many terminal diseases such as dementia, the person will be characterized by loss of autonomy in various manners to make self-determination. This terminal disease attacks the brain ans affects the ability to make judgments, then eventually can induce memory loss and cause a
decrease in rational thinking

A

Autonomy

203
Q

TRUE OR FALSE
A Registered Clinical Psychologist
and a Registered Medical Doctor
Psychiatrist may be involved to
support decision in self-determination

A

TRUE

204
Q

Refers by the phrase, “first, do not
harm.” Many practitioners in the
medical field consider that this
principle should be the primary
consideration not to harm your
patient, than to do them good. As
always in the saying “The treatment
was success, but the patient died.”
In real clinical practice there are
many treatments that carry some
risks of harm

A

Non-maleficence

205
Q

For instance, some passionate
medical practitioners are prone to
using treatments that they believe
will do well without having a strict
evaluation to ensure they do not
harm to the patients. The physician
should go no further to prescribe
medications that they know to be
harmfull unless she or he knows
that the medication is unknown to
be harmful, at the very least. The
physician should explain
thoroughly the medications he or
she prescribing and also that the
patient understands the risk and
benefits

A

 Non-maleficence

206
Q

an actions that promote well-being
of others and to serve to the best
interest of patients and their
families

A

Beneficence

207
Q

For instance, the practitioner
should act to the best of his
knowledge and capability to serve to the best interest of his or her patient. Some scholars in the field of Medicine argue about this principle that this is the only fundamental principle of medical ethics and also argue that healing should be the only purpose of medicine. Because of this actions like euthanasia and other invasive procedures are severely an ethical

A

Beneficence

208
Q

Refers to the equality and fairness in treating the patient

A

Justice

209
Q

For instance, the practitioner should always treat his or her patient in independence and in honest conscience in providing healthcare, deciding fairly of who gets what treatment regardless of the status of the patient in life, whether belonging to a highly privileged or the least privileged

A

justice

210
Q

o Refers to every sick person having the right to be treated with pride and dignity
o For instance, all of us as human beings, whether in the medical setting or not, a patient and his family, and the person treating the patient which may or may not be the doctor, has the right to be treated in full honesty at all times

A

Respect for persons

211
Q

Refers to 2 types of principles
but which produce a single
action. It is regarded as the
combined effect of
beneficence and nonmaleficence

A

Double Effect

212
Q

For instance, a common
example of this is when a
physician orders morphine or
any other analgesic for his or
her patient. The medication can
have a beneficial effect in
alleviating the pain while at the
same time produces the effect of
difficulty in breathing through
the deactivation of the
respiratory system

A

Double Effect

213
Q

When two medical doctrines are in
conflict, it will definitely result to

A

ethical dilemma or crisis.

214
Q

Nanotechnology came from the Greek word “__” meaning little old man or dwarf

A

nano

215
Q

The study and application of extremely small things and can be used across all the other science fields, such as chemistry, biology, physics, material science, and engineering

A

Nanoscience

216
Q

presented the first ever concept of nanotechnology. He was a Nobel priced-winning American physicist. Known for his contributions in Quantum physics, quantum electrodynamics, particle physics, as well as quantum computing and nanotechnology

A

Dr. Richard P. Feynman in 1959

217
Q

had invented the term Nanotechnology at the University of Tokyo. He described it as a process which involves separation, consolidation, and deformation of materials by one atom or one molecule

A

Norio Taniguchi in 1974

218
Q

published a paper about basic concepts in nanotechnology

A

Kim Eric Drexler in 1981

219
Q

used the term “molecular nanotechnology” or “molecular manufacturing” to distinguish his ideas from other scientists

A

Kim Eric Drexler in 1992

220
Q

Commercial applications of
nanotechnology began to
increase in ___ such as the use of
silver-nanoparticles as an
antibacterial agents,
nanoparticle-based cosmetics
in transparent sunscreens, and
carbon nanotubes clothing
material which are effective as
stain resistant textiles

A

2000

221
Q

IMPORTANT DEVICES THAT HELP
DEVELOP NANOTECHNOLOGY

A

1) Atomic Force Microscope (AFM)
2) Scanning Tunneling Microscopes
(STM)
3) Carbon nanotubes

222
Q

An application of
nanotechnology in the field of
medicine which deals with
creating tiny machines to help
prevent and treat diseases of the
human body

A

NANOMEDICINE

223
Q

This includes activity monitors,
chemotherapy, pacemakers,
biochips, OTC tests, insulin
pumps, nebulizers, needleless
injectors, hearing aids, medical
flow sensors and blood
pressure, glucose monitoring,
and drug delivery systems

A

NANOMEDICINE

224
Q

is the
application of nanotechnology
to help develop electronic
devices to nanoscale and be able
to reduce their weight and
power consumption, improved
display screens on electronic
devices to increase density of
memory chips

A

Nanoelectronics

225
Q

IMPACT OF NANOTECHNOLOGY TO
HUMANS

A

1) Healthy
2) National security
3) Social interaction
4) Cultural