finals Flashcards

1
Q

Unit for effective dose

A

Sv & REM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Unit for absorbed dose

A

Gy & RAD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Becquerel is a unit of

A

radioactivity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Coulombs/kg is a unit of

A

exposure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

equation for inverse square law

A

I1/I2 = (D2)^2/ (D1)^2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

equation for grid ratio

A

h/d

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

equation for GCF (nongrid –> grid)

A

mAs (grid)/ mAs (w.o grid)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Higher grid ratio means ___ (2)

A

better scatter clean up
better contrast

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

equation for GCF (grid –> another)

A

mAs1/mAs2 = GCF1/GCF2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

equation for wavelength

A

w = c/f

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

equation for frequency

A

f = c/ w

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

ionization radiation = ___ wavelength = _____ frequency

A

short, high

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

unit for frequency

A

hertz (Hz)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

rank longest to shortest wavelength

A

radiowave
microwave
infrared light
visible light
UV light
xray
gamma rays
cosmic rays

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

5 characteristics of Xray

A
  1. highly penetrating (short wave, high frequency)
  2. cannot be reflected or focused
  3. neutrally charge
  4. no mass
  5. travels in straight line
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

high penetrating, low ionization is ___

A

gamma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

low penetrating, high ionization

A

alpha

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

which radiation produced at the anode

A

primary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

beams with different energy is called ___ (aka ___ radition)

A

heterogenous - primary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are considered primary radiation

A

Brems & characteristics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Brems produced ____ xray spectrum

A

continuous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Characteristics produced ___ xray spectrum

A

discrete

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

primary beam photons have keV energy of ___

A

30-40% kVp

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are considered secondary radiation

A

scatter & leakage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

what is produced by the energy of primary beam redirected after interacting with matter

A

scatter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

scatter radiation does not produce __

A

quantum mottle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

scatter radiation effect on images (3)

A

produce noise
reduce contrast resolution
makes image less visible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

how do we reduce scatter (4)

A
  1. decrease volume of tissue
  2. decrease kVp
  3. increase collimation
  4. increase atomic #
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

decrease kVp = ___ scatter

A

reduce

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

increase atomic # = ___ scatter

A

decrease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

what devices are used to reduce scatter (3)

A

collimator
beam-restring devices
grid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

which beam-restring devices is the simplest? and which is the most effective in scatter cleanup

A

simplest: aperture diaphragm
effective: cone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

which of the following is not beam-restricting devices:
a. aperture diaphragm
b. grid
c. collimator
d. cones
e. all of the above are beam-restring devices

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

what is the purpose of grid

A

reduce scatter radiation that reached IR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

what is beam restrictors and grid have in common

A

reduce scatter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

reduction in total # of xray photons remaining in beam after passing thru given thickness of material is ___
a. HVL
b. attenuation

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

thickness of absorbing material required to reduce x-ray intensity to half of its original value is ___
a. HVL
B. attenuation

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

what does HVL measures?
a. quantity
b. quality

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

2 ways to remove low-energy photons

A

filteration
hardening of beam

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

remove low-energy photons = ___ patient dose

A

decrease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

High-voltage generator is ___ circuit

A

secondary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Components of primary circuit (5)

A
  1. power supply
  2. autotransformer
  3. kVp meter
  4. timer
  5. step-up transformer
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

what controlled autotransformer?
a. kVp selector
b. mA adjusment

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What operate autotransformer

A

self-induction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

what component of the circuit directly determine V

A

autotransformer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

AEC timer utilized ____ for exposure control

A

ionization chamber

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

cons of AEC backup timer

A

too short = underexposed image

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

AEC measures ___ of radiation reached IR
a. quantity
b. quality

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

mA selector controls ___ in the circuit

A

amperage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Rectifiers are located in ___ circuit

A

secondary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

which component transform AC to DC

A

rectifiers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Rectifiers is ___ diode

A

solid state semiconductor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

half wave have ____ diodies
full wave have __ diodes

A

0,1,2
4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

ionization chamber is radio___

A

radiolucent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

what does rectifier require to operate

A

voltage rectification

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

what does high-voltage transformer require to operate

A

AC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Which component increase voltage from autotransformer by a fixed amount

A

step-up transformer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

what does filament circuit control

A

degree & saturation the filaments are heated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

what activate step-down transformer
a. kVp seelctor
b. mA adjustment

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

3 parts of high-voltage generators

A

step-up transformer
filament transformer
rectifiers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

increase amperage = increase in __

A

of e- boiled off

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

the filaments are at which side of the tube

A

cathode

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Tube housing can reduce ____

A

leakage radiation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Tube housing can prevent ___

A

electric shock

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

what is used in the tube housing as an insulator & thermal cushion

A

OIL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

why glass is used for tube envelope

A

withstand heat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

tube window for useful beam to exit is located in ___

A

glass envelope

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

TUbe current related to ___

A

mAs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

what components are on the cathode side?

A

filament coil
focusing cup

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

function of filament coil

A

emits electrons when heated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

function of focusing cup

A

confines electron beam to a small area of anode

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

what components are on the anode side

A

target
rotor
stator

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

functions of anode (3)

A
  1. electrical conductor
  2. mechanical support for target
  3. thermal dissipater
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Xray emission source is at __
a. effective focal spot
b. actual focal spot

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

why tungsten is chosen as material for target (3)

A
  1. high atomic #
  2. high thermal conductivity
  3. high melting point
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

____ effective focal spot
____ actual focal spot

A

small
large

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

a sharper image will have ___ focal spot

A

small effective

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

pros & cons of small effective focal spot

A

pros: better spatial resolution
cons: more heat concentration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

xray emission source is at ___

A

actual focal spot

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

xray are produced at ___

A

actual focal spot

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Bremsstrahlung radiation interacts with

A

The nuclear field

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Characteristic radiation interacts with

A

inner shell electrons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Characteristic radiation produced at ___ kVp

A

above 70

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

The xray primary beam most often consists of

A

Brems radiation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

The energy of the beam can be changed through adjustments in
a. kvp
b. mas
c. quantity
d. distance

A

kVp

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Off-foused radiation happend at the ___

A

anode

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Target is on ___ side

A

anode

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

off focused radiation produced

A

ghosting effect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

what helps reduce the amount of off-focused radiation

A

upper shutter of collimator

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

rotor is made up of ___

A

copper shaft & soft iron

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

stator consists of ___

A

electromagnet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Incident e- in photoelectric interacts with

A

inner shell e-

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

incident e- in compton interacts with

A

outer shell e-

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

what are ejected from photoelectric

A

photoelectron

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

what are ejected from compton

A

electron with ionizing capability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

what happened when xray strike matter

A
  1. absorbed (photoelectrically)
  2. scatter
  3. direct transmission
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

reduction in intensity results from ____

A

absorption & scattering

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

increase kVp = __ PE = ___ Compton

A

decrease / increase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

decreased patient dose = ___ PE = ___ Compton

A

decrease/ increase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

Which of the following is not required for xray production
a. accelerating of e-
b. slowing of e-
c. rotating target
d. source of free e-

A

c. rotating target

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

Compton scatter most likely occurs with
a. An xray interacting with an outer shell electron
b. projectile electron interacting with outer shell e-

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

The anode heel effect causes
a. An x ray field with lower intensity on the anode side
b. xray with lower contrast
c. xray with higher quality on anode side

A

An x ray field with lower intensity on the anode side

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

thicker body part is placed on which side of xray tube

A

cathode

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

increase anode heel effect = ____ angle

A

small

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

increased anode heel effect = ___ SID

A

decreased

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

The line focus principle explains the relationship between:____
a. The actual focal spot and the effective focal spot
b. The large focal spot and small focal spot
c. The large focal spot and actual focal spot

A

A. The actual focal spot and the effective focal spot

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

Line focus principle results in greater ____ & ____

A

heat capacity
image sharpness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

For line focus principle, what needed to be angled for heating while maintaining small focal spot

A

TARGET

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

Quantity aka ____ (3)

A

xray output
intensity
exposure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

quantity is affected by ____ (4)

A

kvp
mas
distance
filtration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

quantity is measured by _____

A

milliroentgens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

Quantity is also known as all of the following except :____
a. xray output
b. exposure
c. energy
d. intensity

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

IR exposure is measured by ___

A

numeric exposure value

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

Quality aka ___

A

penetrability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

HIGH penetration in material of ____ atomic #

A

LOW

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

quality is affected by ____ (2)

A

kvp
filtration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

increase mAs = ____ quantity

A

increase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

increase kVp = ____ quantity

A

increased 4x

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

increase distance = ___ quantity

A

decrease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

increase filtration = ____ quantity

A

decrease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

intensity is _____
a. quantity
b. quality

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

increase kVp = ____ speed + energy of photons

A

increase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

what can remove low-energy photons

A

increase filtration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

increase filtration = ___ resolution

A

increase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

Beam quality is a measurement of
a. Half-value layer
b. beam divergence
c. amount of radioactivity
d. amount of xray in primary beam

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

What are the prime factors

A

kvp
mas
distance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

what material is used for filtration

A

aluminum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

thicker filters = ___ atomic # = ____ reduction of output

A

high
high

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

purpose of filtration

A

remove low-energy xray photons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

filtration ____ intensity of beam AND ____ photon energy

A

decrease
increase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

total filtration is combination of ____
a. inherent & added
b. inherent & compensating
c. added & compensating

132
Q

purpose of grid

A

improve contrast by absorbing scatter

133
Q

when to use grid

A

body thickness over 13cm or 10 for film

kvp > 70

134
Q

grid is made up of ____ strips & ____ interspace

A

radiopaque
radiolucent

135
Q

Grid lines could be visible in all of the following except ___
a. when using stationary grid
b. when the bucky oscillates
c. when CR is not perpendicular to IR

136
Q

which type of grid has the tube angled with length of grid without cut-off

137
Q

which type of grid has focal range

138
Q

grid with wide focal range = ____

A

low grid ratio

139
Q

better scatter cleanup = ____ grid raatio

140
Q

narrow focal range = ____ grid ratio

141
Q

which type of grid has 2 linear grids perpendicular to one another

A

crosshatch

142
Q

which type of grid is best at scatter cleanup

A

crosshatch

143
Q

if primary beam is angled into lead and leads to decrease in density along periphery of film, what error occured?

A

grid cut-off

144
Q

how to fix off-level grid

A

grid perpendicular to CR

145
Q

when does off-focused error occur

A

when used at SID out of focal rang

146
Q

which type of error is describes:
“ focused grid not aligned with labeled tube side facing ray tube”

A

upside down

147
Q

what is the effect caused by upside-down grid error

A

uneven exposure

148
Q

What caused moire effect

A

grid lines captured & parallel to scan lines

149
Q

moire effects occured in ____ grid

A

stationary

150
Q

HVL is a measurement of beam ____
a. quantity
b. quality

151
Q

5 image characteristics

A

brightness
contrast
noise
distortion
spatial resolution

152
Q

brightness is measured by ____

153
Q

brightness is controlled by ____
a. postprocessing
b. preprocessing

154
Q

window level adjusts ___
a. brightness
b. contrast

155
Q

increase window level = ___ brightness

156
Q

why we dont adjust window width for brightness

A

data from original histogram is lost
narrow dynamic range –> misdiagnosed

157
Q

contrast is ____ of pixel

158
Q

contrast describes:
a. visibility
b. sharpness

159
Q

distortion describes:
a. visibility
b. sharpness

160
Q

brightness & contrast corresponds to :
a. visibility
b. sharpness

161
Q

distortion & spatial resolution corresponds to :
a. visibility
b. sharpness

162
Q

sharpness is determined by ____ (3)

A

matrix size
pixel size
bit depth

163
Q

sharpness is measured by ___ (4)

A

PSF
LSF
MTF
system noise

164
Q

increased kVP = ___ scale

165
Q

decreased kVp = ____ scale

166
Q

short scale is for which structure

167
Q

long scale is for which structure

A

soft tissue

168
Q

Window width adjusts ____
a. brighness
b. contrast

169
Q

What is the amount of mAs that can compensate for kVp

170
Q

subject contrast depends on ____

A

kvp & irradiated material

171
Q

subjected contrast resulted from ____

A

differential absorption

172
Q

increased subject contrast = ___ kVp

173
Q

spatial resolution aka ____ (3)

A

definition, sharpness, recorded detail

174
Q

short wavelength = __ frequeny & resolution

175
Q

short wavelength is for ___ objecct

176
Q

problems with spatial resolution (4)

A

no motion
decreased OID
decreased focal spot size
increase SID

177
Q

if SNR increased = ____ image quality

178
Q

how do you optimize SNR

A

noise intolerance
set exposure value
monitor

179
Q

noise intolerance = ____

A

exposure creep

180
Q

lack of attention to wide dynamic range = ____

A

dose creep

181
Q

decreased noise will ___

A

increase pt dose

182
Q

difference bw optimal image and best image

A

optimal: balance of noise & pt dose

best: no noise & high pt dose

183
Q

what caused size distortion

A

magnification

184
Q

decreased magnification = ___ spatial resolution

185
Q

increase visualization = increased in ___ while maintaining____

186
Q

minimize OID = ____ distortion

187
Q

maximize SID = ____ distortion

188
Q

why shape distortion happen

A

object plane & image plane not parallel

189
Q

shape distortion depends on what factors (3)

A

thickness
position
shape

190
Q

how to decrease shape distortion

A

body // IR and perpendicular to CR
minimize OID

191
Q

elongation is a type of ___ distortion

192
Q

elongation is caused by ____
a. tube angle
b. body part

A

tube angle

193
Q

foreshortening is a type of ___ distortion

194
Q

foreshortening is cause by ____
a. tube angle
b. body part

A

body apart

195
Q

Attenuation varies depend on ____ (2)

A

pt thickness & composition

196
Q

differential absorption & attenuation depend on ____ (3)

A
  1. atomic #
  2. mass density
  3. xray energy
197
Q

increase atomic # = ____ attenuation

198
Q

pathology will cause changes in _____ (3)

A

thickness
effective atmoic #
density

199
Q

Additive is a condition in which ___

A

there is an increase in thickness, effective atmoic #, and/or density

200
Q

additive conditions ____ attenuation

201
Q

as additive disease worsens, IR exposure ____

202
Q

Destructive is a condition in which ____

A

there is an decrease in thickness, effective atmoic #, and/or density

203
Q

destructive conditions ____ attenuation

204
Q

as destructive disease worsens, IR exposure ____

205
Q

Which of these pathologies result in the increased attenuation of the beam
a. osteoporosis
b. emphysema
c. pneumothorax
d. congestive heart failure

206
Q

Which of these pathologies result in the decreased attenuation of the beam
a. tuberculosis
b. pneumonia
c. cardiomegaly
d. emphysema

207
Q

tuberculosis

208
Q

pneumothorax

A

destructive

209
Q

atelectasis

210
Q

pagets disease

211
Q

emphysema

A

destructive

212
Q

bowel obstruction

A

destructive

213
Q

osteoporosis

A

destructive

214
Q

What is being described:

highest actual atomic #
low effective #
low density

215
Q

What is being described:

lowest effective #
low density
similar tissue to water

216
Q

What is being described:

high actual atomic #
high effective #
higher density than FAT

217
Q

highest attenuator is ___

218
Q

fat has tissue similar to ___

219
Q

which one has higher density
a. muscle
b. fat

220
Q

How can a technologist tell if an image is overexposed
a. the exposure indicator number will be out of range
b. loss of contrast
c. image show quantum mottle
d. image show saturation

221
Q

what is dexel

A

Rounds average attenuation coefficient to nearest preset value in dynamic range

222
Q

3 components of dexel

A

A-Se
TFT
Capacitor

223
Q

A pixel corresponds to ___

A

area of pt’s tissue

224
Q

pixel size depends on ____

A

matrix size

225
Q

___ pixel size = more details

226
Q

what is subset of bit depth

A

dynamic range

227
Q

what is subset of dynamic range

228
Q

how to calculate # shade of grays

A

2^bit depth

229
Q

large matrix size = ____ quality

230
Q

voxel is collected by ___

231
Q

The main image capture component of all dr detectors is the
a. Active matrix array
b. pixel
c. voxel
d. flat panel IR

232
Q

AMA is main image capture of ____
a. DR
B. CR

233
Q

What made up of AMA (2)

A

flat panel & dexel

234
Q

function of AMA

A

convert remnant xray to electrical signal

235
Q

A cassette-based is used in ___
a. CR
b. DR

236
Q

IR type for DR & CR

A

DR: TFT
CR: PSP

237
Q

function of PSP

A

stores xray energy as latent image

238
Q

PSP is sensitive to ___

A

BG radiation

239
Q

CR imaging plates use which of the following?
a. barium fluorohalide
b. amorphous silicon
c. amorphous selenium
d. barium sulfate

240
Q

dexel material for direct capture

A

amorphous selenium

241
Q

dexel material for indirect capture

A

amorphous silicon

242
Q

xray strikes the scintillator in ___
a. direct capture
b. indirect capture
c. CR

243
Q

which IR type has 7 layers
a. PSP
b. TFT

244
Q

what is quantization

A

3rd step of digitizing images

level out brightness level for pixel to nearest gray available in preset dynamic range

245
Q

Histogram shows ___
a. brightness value
b. grayscale.

A

brightness value

246
Q

histogram has ____ that can recognize false densitities

A

light field recognition

247
Q

Histogram analysis do 2 things: _____

A

compare histograms
eliminate data that skew with rescaling

248
Q

5 histograms selection errors

A

▫Segmentation
▫Matching
▫Prosthetic & lead apron in collimated area
▫Pre-fogging of IR from BG radiation
▫Extreme scatter radiation

249
Q

An image with appropriate spatial resolution could be said to have:___
a. sharpness
b. visibility
c. distortion
d. noise
e. quantum mottle

A

a. sharpness

250
Q

The total number of pixel values that can be produced by the digital system is the ____
a. bit depth
b. dexel
c. exposure latitude
d. dynamic range

A

a. bit depth

251
Q

The range of exposures that can be captured by a detector is the ____
a. dynamic range
b. grayscale
c. contrast
d. window level

A

a. dynamic range

252
Q

The ability to produced quality images within a range of acceptable techniques is _____
a. exposure latitude
b. dynamic range
c. rescaling
d. DQE

A

a. exposure latitude

253
Q

A graphic representation of the recorded signals received by the IR is known as
a. DR
b. histogram
c. rescaling
d. image sampling

254
Q

Spatial resolution is controlled by ___
a. bit size
b. mas
c. kvp
d. pixel size

A

a. bit size

255
Q

Interpolation can fix ___
a. dead pixels
b. image ghosting
c. effects of scatter
d. segmentation errors

A

a. dead pixels

256
Q

LUT gives _____

A

just right amount of brightness & contrast

257
Q

adjustments to LUT

A

output pixels adjusted to same output Q values

258
Q

LUT adjustments happened during____

A

image rescaling

259
Q

4 steps to preprocessing?

A
  1. Field uniformity
  2. Dexel & noise correction
    3.Histogram & analysis
    4.Rescaling
260
Q

field uniformity has this computer software called ____ that compensate areas out of range of uniformity

A

electronic amplification

261
Q

Anode heel effect is partially compensated by ____

A

field uniformity

262
Q

purpose of field uniformity

A

correct uneven distribution of BG density

263
Q

What is segmentation failure

A

When individual exposure cant be separated

264
Q

when will segmentation failure happen

265
Q

interpolation is ___
a. postprocessing
b. preprocessing

266
Q

how does interpolation reduce noise

A

through software KERNEL

267
Q

purpose of interpolation

A

give dead pixels the gray surrounding it

268
Q

DQE stands for ___

A

detective quantum efficiency

269
Q

purpose of DQE

A

measure the efficiency of IR in converting xray into radiographic image

270
Q

DQE =1 means ___

A

100% of information is converted

271
Q

increase DQE = ___ IR exposure AND ____

A

decrease
pt dose

272
Q

which of the following provide ideal brightness & balanced grayscale regardless of technique
a. rescaling
b. field uniformity
c. LUT adjustment

273
Q

process of rescaling

A

S –> Q –> placed in permanent LUT

274
Q

amorphous selenium absorbs _____
a. xray
b. light

275
Q

amorphous silicon absorbs _____
a. xray
b. light

276
Q

which phosphor is in scintillator layer for indirect capture

A

cesium iodide

277
Q

what is the phosphorescent screen of indirect capture DR

A

scintillation layer

278
Q

immediate light emission by some types of stimulation is ____

A

Fluorescence

279
Q

delayed emission of light is ____

A

Phosphorescence

280
Q

what is the second stimulation to phosphorescence

A

laser beam

281
Q

latent image becomes ___ after exposure

A

manifest image

282
Q

underexposure cause ____

A

quantum mottle

283
Q

overexposure caused ____

A

saturation

284
Q

windowing affects ___ of images

A

visibility

285
Q

3 functions of PSP

A
  1. Ionize phosphors
  2. Trap e- & convert to electric signals
  3. Stores xray energy as latent image
286
Q

exposure latitude controls ____

A

brightness & contrast

287
Q

wide exposure latitude = ____

A

low contrast

288
Q

narrow exposure latitude = ____

A

high contrast

289
Q

what is exposure indicator number

A

indicate level of radiation exposure to IR

290
Q

if out of exposure indicator range it will cause ____

291
Q

what is dynamic range

A

range of exposure intensities to IR

292
Q

what is dynamic range compression

A

remove darkest to lightest pixel values from grayscale

293
Q

DRC allows __

294
Q

spatial domain operation is __
a. preprocessing
b. postprocessing

A

POSTPROCESSING

295
Q

what is point processing

A

performs specific pixels in sequence

296
Q

image substraction is an example of ___
a. point processing
b. area processing
c. global operations

297
Q

what is area processing

A

Execute mathematical function on a subsection of image

298
Q

magnification is an example of ___.
a. point processing
b. area processing
c. global operations

A

b. area processing

299
Q

image orientation is an example of ____
a. point processing
b. area processing
c. global operations

A

c. global operations

300
Q

with global operations, middle column is being ____ while corresponding columns are ____

A

translated
inverted

301
Q

detail processing is in which domain operation

302
Q

windowing is in which domain operation

303
Q

high frequency = ____ pixel size

304
Q

high wavelength = ____ pixel size

305
Q

what is submatrix

A

spatial detail processing with kernels

306
Q

what allows frequency processing to separate structure

A

fourier transformation

307
Q

4 postprocessing features of detail processing

A
  1. smoothing
  2. BG suppression
  3. local contrast of fine details
  4. edge enhancement
308
Q

mid-size structures suppressed by contrast reduction & move into BG happened in ____

A

detail processing

309
Q

pro and con of edge enhancement

A

Pro: increase local contrast for small pathology changes
Cons: increase image noise

310
Q

if over enhance local contrast = ___

A

loss of details

311
Q

BG suppression reduce contrast of ____ structures

A

larger mid-frequency and low-frequency

312
Q

pro & con of BG suppression

A

Pros: effective in tissues like fat pads
Cons: Result is similar to edge enhancement

313
Q

Smoothing removes ___ structures

A

highest-frequency

314
Q

which 2 postprocessing features give the same result

A

BG suppression & edge enhancement

315
Q

soft edge is due to ___

A

decrease in local contrast

316
Q

noise is reduced by ___

A

interpolation

317
Q

purpose of smoothing

A

corrects for dead pixels in IR + amount of mottle

318
Q

severe mottle = ___

A

gross underexposure

319
Q

Cons of smoothing

A

lose small details that contribute to diagnostic information

320
Q

decoupling local contrast is ____

A

fine details visible
whole image has same contrast

321
Q

if we eliminate noise, we need to accept the fact that

A

some fine details are gonna be lost

322
Q

soft tissue technique can be stimulated by ___

323
Q

adjust pixel values to fit average histogram & small exposure error is _____

324
Q

segmentation doesnt occur in ___
a. CR
b. DR

325
Q

what can correct quantum mottle
a. kernel
b. frequency filtering algorithm
c. none

326
Q

what can correct electric mottle
a. kernel
b. frequency filtering algorithm
c. none

A

frequency filtering algorithm

327
Q

What is imaging cycle in order

A

exposure –> histogram –> permanent LUT (rescaling) –> anatomical LUT (gradation) –> default detail processing –> displayed image