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finals Flashcards

1
Q

what is a disorder

A

abnormal performance level

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2
Q

what is a acquired disorder

A
  • a cognitive abnormality in someone who acquired a particular skill normally but then lost that ability after brain damage
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3
Q

what is a developmental disorder

A
  • a cognitive abnormality in someone (often a child) who never acquired a particular skill normally in the first place
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4
Q

what does the cognitive level provide?

A
  • cognitive level provides an important explanatory link between brain and behaviour
  • explains what the brain is trying to achieve in functional terms (not structural)
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5
Q

what do cognitive models do?

A

whicih specirfiy the sequence of processes involved in perforning some cognitive operation

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6
Q

what is acquired dyslexia

A
  • a reading impairment in someone who learned to read normally but then lost that ability after brain damage
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7
Q

what is developmental dyslexia

A
  • a reading impairment in someone (often a child) who never learned to read normally in the first place
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8
Q

what percentage of children fail to who earn to read

A

10-15%

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9
Q

dyslexia myths

A
  • all are male
  • all are average or above average intelligence
  • all come from middle class families
  • all suffer from attention disorders (comorbidity – overlap only 30-40% many don’t have attention disorders)
  • all get their letters back to front
  • all have the same type of dyslexia
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10
Q

lis teht three stages of reading develpoment

A

logographic
alphabeetic
orthographic

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11
Q

characteristics of the logographic stage

A

– small sight vocabulary of known words
cant attempt unfamiliar words
- as number of words increase, problems occur

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12
Q

ages of logographic

A

4-5yrs

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13
Q

ages of alphabetic stage

A

5-7

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14
Q

charactierstics of alphabetic stage

A
  • acquire “phonic” knowledge – sound out
  • attempt to pronounce words not seen before
     though not necessarinlhy correctly
     e.g. yatched for yacht
  • reading may feedback to spoken vocab
     I’m thoroughly enjoying myself
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15
Q

characteristics of the orthographic

A
  • read words as whole units, without sounding out
  • not visual or cue-based like logographic phase
  • rapid recognition of familiar letter strings
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16
Q

ages fo the orthographic stage

A

7-8+

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17
Q

what are the two key processes of dyslexia

A

-sounding out or non lexical skills
-whole word or lexical skills

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18
Q

what is involved in the key process of “sounding out/non lexical skills “

A
  • reads new words and nonsense words (e.g. gop)
  • mistakes with irregular words (e.g. yacht)
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19
Q

what is involved in the key process of “whole word or lexical skills’

A
  • reads all familiar words, including irregular
  • cant read new words or nonsense words
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20
Q

what is the nature of the problem of surface dyslexia

A

Nature of the problem: poor whole word or lexical reading i.e. small sight vocabulary – written word store

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21
Q

what is the key symptoms of surfsce dyslexia

A

Key symptom: inaccurate reading aloud of irregular words e.g. have, yacht

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22
Q

what is the nature of the problem of phonological dyslexia

A

poor knowledgee of letter-sounf rules, poor non lexical reading

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23
Q

explain the identification of assessment in phonological dyslexia

A

Identification in assessment: inaccurate reading aloud of nonsense words such as ib, slint or stendle

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24
Q

what is the nature of the problem of hyperlexia

A

Nature of the problem: accuracy in reading aloud of single words and nonwords normal for age but single word reading comprehension is poor – word meaning store

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25
Q

what is the identification in assessment of hyperlexia

A

Identification in assessment: many words that can be read aloud correclty cannot be understood (neither from print nor speech)

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26
Q

what is the nature of the problem in LETTER IDENTIFICATION DYSLEXIA

A

Nature of the problem: some or many single letters cannot be identified – letter recognition

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27
Q

what is the identification in assessment of LETTER IDENTIFICATION DYSLEXIA

A

Identification in assessment: inaccurate naming of single letteres. poor ability to match a ore to A

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28
Q

what is the nature of the problem in letter posiiton dyslexia

A

Nature of the problem: letters are identified accurately but their position
within the word is not.

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29
Q

what is the identification in assessment of LETTER POSITION DYSLEXIA

A

Identification in assessment: errors in reading aloud migratable words,
such as board – “broad”, nerve – “never

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30
Q

treatments for surface dyslexia

A
  • Basic flashcards, focussing on irregular words
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31
Q

treatments for phonological dyslexia

A
  • Wealth of phonics training programs
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32
Q

treatments for letter identifcation dyslexia

A
  • Letter training programs like “Letterland” (
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33
Q

treatments for letter position dyslexia

A
  • Following with finger may help
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34
Q

what is aphasia

A

A disorder of language acquired as a result of brain damage

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35
Q

difficulties in aphasia

A
  • speaking
  • writing
  • understanding speech
  • understanding written text (reading for meaning)
  • reading aloud
  • repeating what is said
  • gesturing
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36
Q

what causes aphasia

A
  • damage to those areas of the brain that control language
  • typically the temporo-parietal region of the left hemisphere
  • most people with aphasia have it as a result of stroke (cerebro-vascular accident)
  • blockage or haemorrhage of a blood vessel
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37
Q

when can progressive apahsia occur

A
  • aphasia can occur in progressive e brain disease (dementias)
  • e.g. alzheimer’s disease
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38
Q

how can aphasia impact youre life

A
  • Social isolation and exclusion (relationships are hard to maintain)
  • Loss of work (financial hardship)
  • Loss of leisure opportunities
  • Lack of access to information
  • Loss of opportunities to participate, negotiate, choose.
  • Loss of confidence, bewilderment
  • Anger, frustration.
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39
Q

prognosis of aphasia

A
  • Most people with aphasia show improvement over time
  • Most rapid improvement is in the first 3 months but can continue indefinitely.
  • Aphasia can be treated – but there is no ‘magic bullet’
  • Speech pathologists tailor treatment individually
  • Treatment can be required for many years (and continues to be effective many years after the onset of aphasia).
  • Many people with aphasia do not get back to ‘normal’.
  • Nevertheless it is possible to live successfully with aphasia
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40
Q

if someone has good comphrension and non-fluent speech with little grammaticial structure

A

= Broca’s Aphasia

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41
Q

if someone has poor comphrension and fluent speech

A

Wernicke’s Aphasia

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42
Q

what are the three causes in identifying the case of language symptoms

A

what tasks people have problems with (e.g. naming pictures, reading words, writing, repeating words, understanding a word, understanding a sentence
2. what errors do they make?
3. what influences whether they make an error or not?

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43
Q

why is it important to understnad the anture of the impairments in aphasia

A

 the same problem can have different causes
 different causes need different treatments

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44
Q

what are semantic errors

A
  • responses related to the target in meaning
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45
Q

e.g. semantic errors

A
  • e.g. triangle  square, saxophone  soul, brush  comb
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46
Q

what are phonologial errors

A
  • responses that share sounds with the target
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47
Q

e.g. of phonological error

A
  • e.g. triangle  trifle, saxophone  sakserfay, elephant  efelent, paper  pater
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48
Q

what are unrelated errors

A
  • responses unrelated to the target in meaning or sound
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49
Q

e.g. of unrelated errors

A
  • nonwords (neologisms) – e.g. tweezer  bredel, saxophone  helifunt
  • words – e.g. frog  hunk
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50
Q

what are visual errors

A
  • naming as a visually similar object
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51
Q

e.g. ofo visual errors

A

pretzel  knot, button  moon

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52
Q

what is circumlocution

A
  • taking around the subject, giving information about its meaning
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53
Q

e.g. o circumlocation

A
  • e.g. calendar  it’s a thing that tells you what day it is, rocket  it’s a space vehicle, triangle  it’s a three something
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54
Q

what are perservation

A

getting stuck on the same response

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55
Q

e.g. perseveration

A
  • e.g. cat  sandwich; house 00> sandwich; tree  sandwich; cat  cat; house  house; tree  cat
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56
Q

what are the two possible levels of impairment in spoke word production can cause semantic errors

A
  1. impaired word meanings – semantic impairment
  2. impaired word forms (or impaired access to those forms)
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57
Q

explain the issues that may be present in impaired word meaning - semantic impairments

A

 there will also be problems with writing, understanding spoken words (listening comprehension) and understanding written words (reading comphrension)

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58
Q

explain the issues that may be present in impaired word forms -

A

 written, understanding spoken words (listening comprehensoin) and understanding written words (reading comphrensioin) will be unimpaired

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59
Q

what is the overlap with SLI and dyslexia

A

50%

60
Q

what is SLI

A

Unexplained specific difficulty in learning to understand (receptive language) and/or speak (expressive language) ones native language

61
Q

why IS SLI said to be specific

A
  • nonverbal intelligence
  • hearing
  • articulation
  • language environment
  • development in other areas
  • physiological and psychology
62
Q

characteristics of expressive language problem

A
  • finds it hard to find the right word
  • uses wrong words in sentences
  • limited vocabulary
  • incorrect grammar
  • uses short simple sentences
  • poor at retelling a story or relaying information
63
Q

characteristics of receptive language problems

A
  • does not appear to listen
  • lack of interest in stories
  • poor understanding of complicated sentences
  • finds it hard to follow instructions
  • depends on gestures and non verbal cues to understand
  • parroting words or phrases
64
Q

why are people less aware of SLI

A
  • sometimes called a “hidden disability”
  • people with SLI look perfectly normal
  • are good at many things
  • poor understanding can be perceived as unintelligent, rude or lazy
  • failing to express oneself can be interpreted as unintelligent
  • bishop (2019): “which neurodevelopmental disorder get researched and why?”
  • rare disorders (e.g. autism) are more researched than common ones
  • partly explained by rare disorders being more severe
65
Q

what is step 1 assessing of SLI

A
  • Asses how specific persons SLI is
66
Q

standardised tests in step 1 of assessing SLI

A

o hearing (ability to hear sounds clearly) – audiologist
o non-verbal intelligence – psychologist
o attention – psychologist
o articulation – speech therapist
* if all normal for age then likely to be SLI
* if not normal for age then take this into account when deciding on treatment

67
Q

what is step 2 in the assesssment of SLI

A
  • speech and language therapist
  • standardised (i.e. fixed items, order, scoring) and normed (i.e. compare results to people in same age or grade) tests used to measure different components of spoken language
68
Q

what is proximal treatment

A
  • training cognitive processes that immedinilty underpin receptive and expressive language
  • typically done by trained speech and language therapists
  • one-on-one private therapy sessions
  • language development centres
  • in primary schools (WA and UK)
  • language development schools (UK)
  • sometimes done by computer programs
  • fast forward (includes exercises for spoken language skills)
  • DaisyQuest (phonological processing)
  • earobics (include exercises for phonological awareness)
69
Q

explain distal treatment

A
  • treat deficits hypothesized tp a underlying cause of SLI e.g.:
    o poor auditory processing
  • Fast Forward (includes exercises for basic auditory processing)
  • tomatis therapy
    o poor working memory
  • CogMed
    o poor brain functioning
  • fish oil
  • brain Gym
70
Q

what are the issues with anecdote

A

Biased
* Subjective
* Confounded by other factors (e.g., treatments)
* Cognitive dissonance

71
Q

what are the three stages of object perception

A

local features
shape representation
object representation

72
Q

what is agnosia?

A

agnosia = unable to recognise objects - absence of knowledge - not a memory or semantic problem

73
Q

what is the neuropsychogical evidence for agnosia

A
    • Damage to extra-striate cortex
    • Complete visual fields
    • Normal colour, depth and movement
    • Disordered object perception
74
Q

what are people with apperceptive agnosia able to

A
  • Still normal acuity, brightness discrimination, colour vision, depth and contour perception
75
Q

dorsal simultanagnosia

A

 Able to recognise elements but not the whole scene
 one object at a time
 Gaze, pointing and reaching problems

76
Q

ventral agnosia

A

 Multiple objects can be seen, manipulated, counted etc.
 Cannot grasp the meaning of the whole scene

77
Q

what occurs in amusia

A

strong link btw music and speech

78
Q

what is acquired prospagnosia due to ?

A
  • Due to neurological insult such as stroke or head trauma
79
Q

prevalence of congenital prosopagnosia

A

2-3%

80
Q

what is the loss of existing memories

A

retrograde amnesia

81
Q

what is the failure to form new memories

A

anterograde amnesia

82
Q

what is ribots law

A

last in, first go

83
Q

what is functional amnesia

A

 following emotional trauma
 past psychaiartic history
 some precipitating “event”
 neurological cause unlikely?

84
Q

what is the type of the amnesia is “short term memory loss”

A

anterograde amnesia

85
Q

what is retrieval failure

A

 enduring memories of experiences are created, but access to them is impaired
 tests requiring recall are failed

86
Q

what is consolidation failure

A

 enduring memories of current experiences not created
 tests requiring recall are failed
 tests requiring recognition are also failed
- primarily a memory problem
 temporal lobe or hippocampal amnesia

87
Q

what is the impact of retrieval failure on anterograde amnesia

A
  • new information can be learned but not recalled
88
Q

what is impact of retrieval failure on retrograde amnesia

A

existing memories cant be retrieved

89
Q

describe standard consolidaiton tehory

A
  • hippocampus is involved on memory formation and integration of new memory traces with existing traces located in cortical regions
90
Q

describe multiple trace theory

A
  • consolidation occurs over a long period of time, with the hippocampus creating a new, schematised trace each time a memory is recollected
91
Q

what is synaesthesia

A

perception of a specific stimulus induces a concurrent and distinct experience in a seperate modality or within the same modailty

92
Q

prevalence of synaesthesia

A

0.05-4%

93
Q

what causes synaesthesia

A

genetic predispostiion
Many synaesthetes without synaesthetic relatives
* Must depend on learning at some point
* May generalise from other stimuli (e.g., sounds) to
learned items (e.g., letters)

94
Q

what are the 2 key aspects of disorders of the self

A

experience of influencing the world (sense of agency)
experience of having a distinct physical body (sense of body ownership)

95
Q

what is agency

A

The feeling of causing an event to occur

96
Q

what is the cause of flow

A
  • for flow to occur the demands of a situation must just exceed an individual’s skill
97
Q

what are characteristics of flow

A
  • common in expertise across domains
  • complex, well traineied acitons are expernce as subjectivelty effortless
  • strong feelings of intentions for outcomes, absent intention for specifc actions
98
Q

what does the comparator model say sense of agency is due to

A

matching sensory signals in the motor system

99
Q

what are possible impairments to teh comparator model of agencyc

A

impaired predictions
impared snesory feedback
impaired comparsions

100
Q

what is priority

A
  • the thought must occur before the event
101
Q

wht is consistency

A
  • the thought is compatible with the event
102
Q

what is exclusivity

A
  • the thought must be the only possible cause for the event
103
Q

what are the 3 factos that can cause disorders to body self perception

A

Brian injury
physcial injury
developmental changes

104
Q

what are the 2 ways brain injury can cause a disorder of body self-perception

A

due to stroke, due to somatoparaphrenia

105
Q

how can stroke cause a disorder of body self-perception

A
  • changes to body self-perception are most common after damage in certain areas in particular of the right side of the brain
106
Q

how can somatoparaphrenia cause a disorder of body self-perception

A
  • monothematic delusion where one denies ownership of a limb or an entire side of ones body
107
Q

e.g. of how physcial injury can cause disorders of body self perception

A
  • phantom limb sensations ater limb aputyion
  • feeling that the limb is still attaced
  • approx. 60 to 80% cases with limb pautation
  • ofen assoicated with phantom limb pain
108
Q

how can developomental changes cause a disorder of body self-perception

A
  • eating siroders e.g. anorexia nervosa tend to develop in particular during adolenscne
  • body dissatisfcation, desire and extree measures to lose weeight (e.g. restrit4ed food intake)
  • body size and shape distoritions: patients experience their body as fat while objectively being very thin
  • cause of distotions unclear – processing of body signals could be disturbed
109
Q

what is mirrored self misidentification ?

A

 the belief that when you are looking into a mirror, the person you see there is not you, but some stranger that looks like you

110
Q

what is capgras delsuion

A

 the belief that someone emotionally close to you, typically a family member has been replaced by an impostor

111
Q

what suggested the idea of the capgras delusion

A
  • the absence of emotional responses to your spouse’s face
    IN people with Capgras delusion, not even the most familiar of faces produces an emotional (arousal) response
    So when you see a loved one and expect to experience such a response, instead nothing happens
    This person must be complete stranger, even though she looks just like my wife
112
Q

what is the cotard delusion

A

the belief that you are dead

113
Q

what is fregoli delusion

A
  • the belief that you are constantly being followed by people who you know but cannot recognise(because they are always in disguise)m
114
Q

what is somatoparaphrenia

A
  • the belief that some part of your body belongs to someone else
115
Q

what suggested the idea of somatoparaphrenia ?

A

inability to move it

116
Q

what is the alien control delusion

A
  • the belief that other people can control the movements of parts of your body
117
Q

what are 4 important features of delusions

A

cna be monothematic
in one sense, there is insight
- the beliefs are encapsulated
- they are not rare

118
Q

what are the 2 factors of delusions

A
  1. what suggested the idea of the belief
  2. what prevented the proper evaluation of this idea?
119
Q

what is hypnosis

A
  • hypnosis is a social interaction between two people – a hypnotist and a subject
  • the hypnotist offers suggestions to the subject, which changes the way that the subject experiences themselves and the world
120
Q

what are the changes involved in hypnosis

A

attention, absorption an reality monitoring

121
Q

myths about hypnois

A
  • the powerful hypnotist myth
  • “ I can control your behaviour”
  • the everlasting myth
  • “you will keep responding until I tell you to stop”
  • the faking mth
  • “hypnotised people are just faking hypnosis”
122
Q

what happens in an induction in hypnosis

A
  • the induction may be viewed as:
     a ritual that defines the context as. hypnotic
     a ‘switch’ that creates an altered state
123
Q

is an induction necessary in hypnosis?

A

 highs will respond in the absence of an induction
 induction generates effects that happen sooner and are more compelling

124
Q

what do hypnotic suggestions involve

A
  • hypnotic suggestions involve alterations in perception, memory, action, thought and emotion
125
Q

list types of hypnotic suggestions

A
  • ideomotor – thoughts becoming action
     suggesting an outstretched arm is too heavy to hold up
  • challenge – suggesting a particular state of affairs and then challenging subject to do the opposite
     suggesting eyes are tightly shut and then asking subjects to open eyes
  • cognitive/delusory – involve hallucination sor delusions
     suggesting that mosquito is bssing around
  • posthypnotic amnesia – forgetting
     suggesting that after hypnosis, subjects will forget certain events
126
Q

what is an ideomotor suggestion

A

thoughts becoing action

127
Q

e.g of ideomotor hypnotic suggetion

A

 suggesting an outstretched arm is too heavy to hold up

128
Q

what is a challenging hypnotic suggestion

A

suggesting a particular state of affairs and then challenging subject to do the opposit

129
Q

e.g of a challenging hypnotic suggestion

A

suggesting eyes are tightly shut and then asking subjects to open eyes

130
Q

what is. cognitive or delusory suggestion?

A

involve hallucination or delusion

131
Q

e.g. of a cogntiive/delusory suggestion

A

suggesteing a mozzie is buzzing arround

132
Q

what is a posthypnotic amnesia suggestion

A

forgetting

133
Q

percentage of people who are high hypnotisable

A

10-15

134
Q

percentage of people who ar emeidm hypnotisable

A

70-80

135
Q

percentage of people who are low hypnotisable

A

10-15

136
Q

what is ingtricinsic hypnosis

A
  • exploring the nature of hypnosis itself
137
Q

what is instrumental hypnosis

A
  • using hypnosis as a tool to investigate other phenomena
138
Q

e.g. od intrinisic hypnosis

A
  • e.g. understanding what happens in the brain during hypnosis
139
Q

e.g. of instrumental hypnosis

A

e.g using hypnosis to model clincial condiitons

140
Q

advantages of hypnosis

A
  • many clinical conditions are difficult to study in the laboratory
  • they often occur with other symptoms and impairments
  • hypnosis allows us to re-create specifc symptoms in the labs
  • hypnosis allows us to create “virtual patients”
  • temporary, reversible technique to model features of lcincal conditions
  • potentially a safe testing ground for exploring treatment options
141
Q

what is mirrored self misidentiifcaiotn

A
  • delusional belief that one’s reflection in the mirror is a stranger
142
Q

what are hte 2 paths in mirrored self misidentification

A

 face processing impairment – patients cannot recognise own face
 mirror agnosia – patients cannot interact correctly with mirrors and may behave as if the mirror is a window

143
Q

percentage of ppl with schizophrenia

A

1%

144
Q

does schizophrenia have more of an onset in males or females

A

Earlier onset in males, on average
- more onset in females in 45-55 age group belieed to be due to menopause nd estrogen levels

145
Q

what are the 4 characteristics - which u need 2 of to be diagnoseed with schizophrenia

A
  1. Delusions (mistaken beliefs)
  2. Hallucinations (misleading percepts)
  3. Disorganized speech &/or behaviour
  4. Negative symptoms (e.g., apathy, flat affect, anhedonia)
146
Q

e.g. of auditory hallucinations

A

– Non-verbal (bumps, music)
– Verbal hallucinations
– Voices commenting
– Voices conversing

147
Q

what does the theory of the mind relate to schizophrenia

A

Capacity to infer mental states to predict and explain behaviour in terms
of mental-state causation (beliefs, intentions)

delusions (1 decks)

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