Final Written Exam Flashcards

1
Q

Prostate cancer surgery best anticoagulant

A

subQ LMW heparin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

enlarging mass in breast of pregnant woman first step

A

excisional bx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

MELD score components (3)

A

bic
Billi
INR
Creatinine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Murmur likely to increase risk of operative complications

A

S3 gallop

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Perioperative insulin regimen

A

1/2 usual dose long actin AM of surgery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Anesthetic that produces life threatening hyperkalemia

A

succinylcholine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Who gets pre-op ECG

A

older male being evaluated for CEA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Hypocalcemia symptom

A

carpopedal spasm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

How to replace fluid lost from fistula

A

lactated ringers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Bile composition ~

A

Na 130
K 4.0
Cl 100
Bicarb 25

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Large bilious drainage from drain at gastrojejunostomy site likely =

A

leak from duodenal stump

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Pyloric stenosis metabolic derangement

A

hypochloremic hypokalemic metabolic alkalosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

TPN for anorexia –> proximal muscle and visual deficits =

A

hypophosphatemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

SIADH management

A

water restriction to less than 1000ml/day

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Hyponatremia + hyperglycemia management

A

hyponatremia not initially management because high glucose creates dilutional effects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

4 days of N/V most important labs

A

electrolytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Perforated duodenal ulcer = high risk of

A

nutritional deficiency because all shit is absorbed there

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Where in the GI tract is iron absorbed?

A

jejunum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Which lab reflects protein anabolism

A

pre-albumin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Most oral meds are absorbed ____

A

in duodenum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Two signs of refeeding syndrome

A

anemia + respiratory distress

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

which macronutrient groups have lowest/ highest kilocals

A

lipids high –> proteins –> carbs low

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Major cause of cachexia in short bowel syndrome

A

malabsorption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Clue to diarrhea 2/2 tube feedings

A

high osmolarity feedings

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Parenteral nutrition can be stopped when enteral caloric intake reaches _____

A

66% of PN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

KCal need/ lb

A

9.6 kcal/lb

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Cause of bleeding in patient receiving abx

A

vitamin K deficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Greatest infectious risk assc with transfusion

A

Hep B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Best treatment for bleeding in von Willenbrand disease

A

cryoprecipitate

VIII, vWF, XIII

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

OTC supplement that causes increased bleeding

A

garlic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Bleeding + severe muscle cramps EKG changes

A

Prolonged QT interval 2/2 ST segment elongation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Cause of clotting in protein C mutation

A

factor V neutralization impaired

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

How to assess bleeding in LMWH patients

A

anti-Xa activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Cause of bleeding in recovery room

A

inadequate surgical hemostasis in operation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Massive trauma how to maximize blood transfusion

A

red cells: FFP: platelets 1:1:1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

lactic acid measurement is a marker of

A

response to circulatory resuscitation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Cause of hypotension in severe pancreatitis

A

poor venous return

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Pancreatitis best resuscitation

A

3L isotonic crystalloid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Severe gallstone induced pancreatitis/ pulse 120- hemodynamic state

A

hyperdynamic perfusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Hemorrhage following MVC –> principal cause of hypotension

A

venous return

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Perforated diverticulitis –> hemodynamic state

A

hypovolemic hypoperfusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Shock w/ gallop + distented neck veins –> cause

A

decreased cardiac contractility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Cause of increased hgb in respiratory failure

A

interstitial fluid accumulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Hyperglycemia increases risk of

A

infectious complications

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What helps prevent ventilator assc PNA

A

elevate head of bed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Hemorrhagic shock reason for urgent dialysis

A

hyperkalemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

most common cause of death in acetaminophen OD

A

cerebral edema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Alternative treatment in case of HIIT

A

switch to argatroban

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

respiratory failure ventilator mode that assumes most work of breathing

A

assist control ventilation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

ARF what improves oxygenation

A

high PEEP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Pt who takes steroids develops interoperative hypoTN best step

A

administer hydrocortisone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Mechanism of poor wound healing with Zn deficiency

A

decreased fibroblast proliferation, collagen synthesis/ overally wound strength

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

How to reduce bacterial load in decubitus

A

debride

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Nodule at incision site likely =

A

suture granuloma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

wound two weeks out is mostly made of

A

collagen, scare inflammatory cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Phases of wound healing

A

1st week is inflammatory with PMNs –> macs

1 weeks- month: proliferative (collagen)

2 maturation/ remodeling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Thickening and overturning of wound edge requires

A

wound edge biopsy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What should be supplemented before surgery in person with limited diet

A

vitamin C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Safest amount of lidocaine 1% 60kg

A

0.5 ml/kg

so 30 mL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Typical post op abx in uncomplicated surgery

A

none neeed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Scars that extend beyond the confines of original incision are

A

keloids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Open AAA repair requires

A

px abx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Initial management C diff

A

oral vanco

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

When is IV px abx administered

A

1 hr before sx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

decreased hearing with abx use suspect what abx

A

vanco

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Purulent drainage from old IV site next step in management

A

excision of IV site

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What assesses acceptability for organ donation

A

latent HTLV/ NAT confirms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Best management for SBP following tap

A

IV abx in hospital

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Subhepatic abscess management

A

imaged guided perc drainage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Most likely source of e coli sepsis

A

UTI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

deep rusty puncture wound management

A

0.5 mL tetanus toxin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

DIP swelling infection management

A

excision of the overlying nail plate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

weakness both arms following trauma dx

A

central cord syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Blunt abdominal trauma + pain + negative FAST + stable –> next step

A

CT scan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Convex collection of blood in head =

A

epidural hematoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Tensely swollen calf management

A

operative fasciotomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Acidosis + tensely distended abdomen =

A

ACS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

painful stimuli
decorticate posturing
moans
GCS

A

7

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Gun shot wound to a kids belly –> diffusely tender next step

A

ex lap

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Neck stab 2 cm below mandible next step

A

emergent neck exploration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Parasternal stab wound –> during fast undetectable BP next step

A

left thoracotomy and cardiac repair

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Class III hemorrhagic shock urine output

A

5-15 cc

1 is above 30
2 is 20-30

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

goal of burn rehab

A

prevent scar contractures and immobility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

best choice for preventing burn wound sepsis

A

excision and grafting within 5-7 days of injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Carbonaceous debris in nose and mouth + stridor following burn next step

A

intubate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Appropriate steps in management of severe burns

A
  1. secure airway, get IVs
  2. CT scan head and abdomen
  3. Calculate TBSA and start condense formula
  4. silvadine
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

TBSA answer on this test

A

45%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Which burns are least painful

A

third degree full thickness

hands in this question

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Best pain management for lots of 2nd degree burns

A

IV narcots –> narcoids –> NSAIDs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

No pulse in burnt extremity management

A

lateral and medial escharotomies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Allograft=

A

skin from human cadaver

92
Q

What burn treatment provides best functional/cosmetic outcome

A

tangential excision and full thickness grafting

93
Q

What is below campers fascia in lateral abdomen

A

external oblique aponeurosis

94
Q

Scarpas fascia turns into what structure

A

dartos fascia

95
Q

Sx of an obturator hernia

A

intermittent bowel obstruction

96
Q

bulge inferior to inguinal ligament =

A

femoral hernia

97
Q

What is a ricters hernia

A

non circumferential incarceration of bowel wall

98
Q

name of incision

A

mcburney

99
Q

What is the weird contraindication answer

A

total extraperitoneal lap repair

100
Q

Explain abdominal varices

A

portal vein shunted to paraumbilical veins

101
Q

Bulge in epigastrum from xiphoid to umbilicus is

A

diastasis recti

102
Q

What causes risk of incisional hernia

A

wound infection

103
Q

Suicide attempt by drain cleaner next step

A

intubaton

104
Q

Treatment of zenkers diverticulum

A

diverticulotomy with cricopharyngeal and lower esophageal myotomy

105
Q

Management of barrets

A

repeat endo x 6 months and do 4 quad bx

106
Q

Type 2 asx paraesophageal hernia management

A

observe

107
Q

Treatment of achalasia

A

combined heller myotomy and nissen fundoplication

108
Q

Treatment of early stage 1 esophageal adenocarcinoma

A

transhiatal esophagectomy with gastric pull up

109
Q

Treatment of GERD that is not controlled with meds

A

Collis gastroplasty with nissen

110
Q

Submucosal lesion in mid esophagus management

A

enucleation of lesion with reapproximation of muscle layer

111
Q

Chest pain after endoscopy location of source

A

posterior mediastinum

112
Q

Most useful way to stage esophageal adenocarcinoma

A

endoscopic ultrasound

113
Q

Sibutramine MOA and side effect

A

SNRI

HTN

114
Q

What mediates acid release upon smell of fodd

A

Ach

115
Q

Nonhealing gastric ulcer management should include

A

diagnostic lap

116
Q

Persistent stage III ulcer with no malignancy treatment

A

antrectomy with truncal vagotomy

117
Q

What is a contraindication for surgical intervention to assist with weight loss

A

colon cx history

118
Q

Pool of bile in distal stomach leading to pain best treatment

A

cholestyramine

119
Q

Treatment of N/V/D after meals following antrectomy

A

somatostatin

120
Q

Pesistenly elevated Ca treatment

A

parathyroidectomy

121
Q

Most common nutritional change following Roux En Y

A

Iron

122
Q

What characterizes small intestinal absorptive function

A

linked to Na-coupled nutrient absorption

123
Q

Hx of malrotation in kid –> acute symptoms —> __

A

midgut volvulus

124
Q

What is the role of the migrating motor complex

A

prevents stasis and overgrowth

125
Q

Most common metabolic change assc with chrons

A

B12 deficiency

126
Q

What chrons fistula most likely requires surgical therapy

A

enterovesical

127
Q

Large amounts of green brown fluid through NG tube treatment

A

schedule emergent laparotomy

128
Q

FAP most common site of extra colonic malignancy

A

periampullary duodenum

129
Q

What may cause short bowel syndrome following surgery

A

preserving less than 60 cm small intestine

130
Q

Meckels test

A

technetium scan

131
Q

Tumor that is part of APUD system

A

carcinoid

132
Q

LLQ tenderness + elevated white count next step

A

CT scan abdomen

133
Q

Best choice for identification of bleeding site is

A

technetium labeled RBC scan

134
Q

One internal hemorrhoid that reduces spontaneously –> management

A

increase dietary fiber and re-evaluate in 2-3 months

135
Q

21 year old with RLQ pain and white count next step

A

appy

136
Q

Distended colon in demented person dx

A

colonic volvulus

137
Q

Man passes gas through urethra next step

A

CT

138
Q

Best initial management of sigmoid volvulus:

A

sigmoidoscopic attempt at reduction

139
Q

Hemorrhoids that require manual reduction - treatment

A

surgical hemorrhoidectomy

140
Q

Perirectal drainage treatment

A

proceed to OR –> exam and drain under anesthesia

141
Q

IBD with normal ileum =

A

UC

142
Q

Cholangitis treatment

A

resuscitation
IV abx
urgent ERCP

143
Q

Jaundice + high alk phos + high tbili and LFTs

A

choledocolithiasis

144
Q

Gallbladder disease without jaundice is

A

cholecysstitis

cholangitis is jaundiced

145
Q

Large stone in neck of gallbladder most likely diagnosis

A

Mirizzis syndrome

146
Q

Most common makeup of gallstones

A

cholesterol

147
Q

Biggest risk factor for development of gallbladder disease

A

female

148
Q

Next step in cholecystitis after pain control

A

ERCP with sphincterotomy

149
Q

Can lap chole be done in patients with prior open surgeries

A

yes

150
Q

Anatomic cause of recurrent pancreatitis

A

pancreas divisum

151
Q

Most common location for gastrinoma

A

descending duodenum

152
Q

Tumor of pancreatic head without vessel invasion management

A

excise tumor

153
Q

Cyst that communicates with main pancreatic duct needs

A

pancreatic cyst gastrectomy

154
Q

Insulinoma is visible on ____ scan

A

somatostatin

155
Q

Endocrine complication of chronic pancreatitis

A

diabetes

156
Q

What arteries are ligated during pancreaticoduodenectomy

A

inferior anterior pancreaticoduodenal artery and gastroduodenal artery

157
Q

Pancreatic phlegmon with narrowing of duodenum causes

A

gastric outlet obstruction

158
Q

Where are islets of Langerhans most abundant

A

tail of pancreas

159
Q

Pancreatic tumor with vascular involvement treatment

A

whipple

pancreaticoduodenectomy

160
Q

Hepatic colorectal mets management

A

surgical resection

161
Q

liver lesion with central scar management

A

observe only

162
Q

HCC management

A

liver resection

163
Q

Failed banding of esophageal varices next step

A

transjugular intrahepatic portacaval shunt

164
Q

Dx of liver mass with thick wall and multiple septations

A

cystadenoma

resect

165
Q

Common contraindication to liver transplant

A

severe pulm disease

166
Q

Liver lac without free fluid in abdomen –> later hematemesis management

A

IR with selective hepatic artery embolization if bleeding site identified

167
Q

Liver lac without free fluid in abdomen management

A

closely monitor

168
Q

Asterixis –> best drug

A

lactulose

169
Q

hepatic adenoma treatment

A

arterial embolization

170
Q

Treatment of subareolar abscess

A

antibiotics followed by excision of the subareolar ducts and fistula tract

171
Q

Fibroadenoma management

A

after bx just observe

172
Q

First step in management of UUQ density in young woman

A

breast US

173
Q

Contraindication to lumpectomy

A

pregnancy

174
Q

Breast cancer in skin cells = what stage

A

3

175
Q

Best way to follow prior breast cx patient

A

PE q6 mammo annually

176
Q

Posterior aspect of upper arm numbness following breast cx surgery what nerve

A

intercostal brachial

177
Q

25 year old woman with 2.5 cm hypoechoic mass treatment

A

aspirate the lesion

178
Q

Adverse effect of whole breast radiation

A

fibrosis

179
Q

Prior to distal pancreatectomy what lab must be done

A

calcium

180
Q

follicular thyroid cancer best first step in management

A

thyroid lobectomy

181
Q

What diuretic causes hypercalcemic

A

HCTZ

182
Q

Papillary carcinoma of thyroid best step in management

A

total thyroidectomy

183
Q

Adrenal mass detected during trauma –> next step

A

repeat adrenal CT scan at later time

184
Q

Graves pathogenesis

A

IgG that stimulates TSH

185
Q

HSP

A

observe

186
Q

When to give pneumovax with planned splenectomy?

emergency splenectomy?

A

2 weeks prior

on the day of d/c

187
Q

When to transfuse platelets in splenectomy

A

after artery is clamped

188
Q

neutropenia + chronic enlarged spleen treatment

A

splenectomy

189
Q

noncaseating granulomas hilar region cause

A

sarcoidosis

190
Q

Blood smear findings with spleen infarct

A

HJ bodies

191
Q

Node in anterior cervical triangle near jaw angle=

A

carcinoma

192
Q

Why give splenectomy in thal

A

decrease transfusion needs

193
Q

5.6 cm incidental AAA best management

A

endovascular repair

decreased mortality

194
Q

Most appropriate way to assess vascularity before AAA repair

A

CT angiogram of the pelvis and lower extremities

195
Q

Highest risk factor for AAA

A

prior history of popliteal aneurysm

196
Q

What is an indication to intervene for her symptomatic right leg?

A

medical leave from job

197
Q

32 year old woman HTN abdominal bruit cause

A

FMD

198
Q

What decreases pressure gradient across a stenosis

A

radius of lesion

199
Q

Type A dissection best management

A

urgent operative repair

200
Q

Severe bilateral aortoiliac occlusive disease management

A

bilateral aortobifemoral bypass

201
Q

Woman with venous insufficiency most likely sequelae

A

ankle ulceration

202
Q

What exam finding is most consistent with PAD

A

aching foot pain

203
Q

Twin sister organ donation best immunosuppression

A

none

204
Q

Immunosupressant with HTN/ tremors/ LFTs

A

tacrolimus

205
Q

1 year survival rate for cardiac transplant (when pt is compliant)

A

80%

206
Q

What drug is most useful for maintaining BP in brain dead organ donors

A

dopamine

207
Q

Immunosupressant most likely to cause leukopenia

A

cellcept mycophenolate

208
Q

How long can liver be kept on ice

A

18 hours

209
Q

MOA of alemtuzumab

A

depletes B and T lymphs

210
Q

What is the best criteria for cessation of brain function

A

absence of spontaneous respirations

211
Q

Which of the following = cellular arm of the immune response

A

mixed lymphocyte culture

212
Q

Hep C vs wilsons disease liver failure who is higher on transplant list

A

Wilsons

213
Q

Large heart + pulm vascular congestion –> what transplant?

A

lung!

Pulm HTN

214
Q

Immunosupressant that causes glucose intolerance

A

tacrolimus

215
Q

Obliterative bronchiolitis in lung transplant –>

A

chronic rejection

216
Q

Organ transplant from sibling with 6 antigen match –> best immunosupressants

A

combo (cellcept, tacrolimus, prednisone)

217
Q

Stain for GIST

A

c-kit

218
Q

TNM staging for calf melanoma

A

T1bN0M0

219
Q

Melanoma excised –> positive what next?

A

wide local excision of scar

220
Q

Sarcoma in quadriceps best step to dx

A

incisional bx

221
Q

BRCA1 gene best px

A

bilateral mastectomy

222
Q

Mohs is used when?

A

when need to preserve normal tissue

223
Q

Suspicious skin lesion on back - lymphadenopathy best dx

A

excisional bx w/ 1-2 mm margin

224
Q

1.0 cm suspicious lesion in RUL lung with + PET scan next step

A

VATS

225
Q

5 cycles chemo –> breast lumpectomy —> next step

A

adjuvant chemo

226
Q

PET scan shows + skin lesion on next –> no other lesions –> next step

A

FNA of neck lesion